SB0050 100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB100 06293 JWD 16330 b

100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2017 and 2018
SB0050

Introduced 1/11/2017, by Sen. William R. Haine

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Illinois Police Training Act. Provides the annual training of police chiefs must include at least one course on the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and firearms investigations. Amends the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Permits the State Police to notify the FBI if a person on the Terrorist Watchlist applies for a FOID card. Requires the State Police to provide notice and reason for the disqualification of a firearm purchase or a FOID card revocation to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's FOID card. Adds as grounds to deny an application for or to revoke or seize the person's FOID card that the person is charged with making a terrorist threat or soliciting or providing material support for terrorism. Makes other changes. Amends the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. Provides that a person may not carry a concealed handgun equipped with a silencer. Amends the Wildlife Code. Removes the prohibition on using a silencer to mute the sound resulting from firing a gun. Amends the Criminal Code of 2012. Provides that the offense of unlawful use of weapons includes knowingly: using, or possessing with the intent to use, a silencer on a handgun, except at a shooting range; or possessing any silencer for firearms, other than handguns, not in compliance with the National Firearms Act. Provides that the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms includes knowingly transferring a silencer to a person not authorized to possess the silencer under federal law. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning safety.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 10.7 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/10.7)

Sec. 10.7. Mandatory training; police chief and deputy police chief. Each police chief and deputy police chief shall obtain at least 20 hours of training each year. The training must be approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board and must be related to law enforcement, management or executive development, or ethics, and must include at least one course on the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and firearms investigations. This requirement may be satisfied by attending any training portion of a conference held by an association that represents chiefs of police that has been approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board. Any police chief and any deputy police chief, upon presentation of a certificate of completion from the person or entity conducting the training, shall be reimbursed by the municipality in accordance with the municipal policy regulating the terms of reimbursement, for his or her reasonable expenses in obtaining the training required under this Section. No police chief or deputy police chief may attend any recognized training offering without the prior approval of his or her municipal mayor, manager, or immediate supervisor.

This Section does not apply to the City of Chicago or the Sheriff's Police Department in Cook County.

(Source: P.A. 94-354, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 10. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3.1, 3.3, 8, and 9.5 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official, including any act that is intended to cause or create a risk and does cause or create a risk of death or great bodily harm to one or more persons.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"National governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or private mental health facility, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a public or private mental health facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with a significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Firearm transfer inquiry program Dial up system.

(a) The Department of State Police shall provide a firearm transfer inquiry program consisting of a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Department of State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act the Department of State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e) (1) The Department of State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) The Department of State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Department of State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(3) The Department of State Police shall, within 3 business days, provide notice of the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 or Section 8.2 of this Act, and the reason for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-787, eff. 1-1-17.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.3)

Sec. 3.3. Report to the local law enforcement agency; notification to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(a) The Department of State Police must report the name and address of a person to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides if the person attempting to purchase a firearm is disqualified from purchasing a firearm because of information obtained under subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or Section 3.1 that would disqualify the person from obtaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under any of subsections (c) through (n) of Section 8 of this Act.

(b) The Department of State Police may notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation when a person named on the consolidated Terrorist Watchlist maintained by the Terrorist Screening Center administered by the Federal Bureau of Investigation is making application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons or the community;

(g) A person who has an intellectual disability;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;

(s) A person who has been found to have a developmental disability;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; or

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or

(v) A person who is charged with making a terrorist threat as set forth in Section 29D-20 or soliciting or providing material support for terrorism as set forth in Section 29D-29.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar offense of another state or under federal law.

Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(430 ILCS 65/9.5)

Sec. 9.5. Revocation of Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(a) A person who receives a revocation notice under Section 9 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation:

(1) surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency shall provide the person a receipt and transmit the Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the Department of State Police; and

(2) complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police and place his or her firearms in the location or with the person reported in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require the person to disclose:

(A) the make, model, and serial number of each firearm owned by or under the custody and control of the revoked person;

(B) the location where each firearm will be maintained during the prohibited term; and

(C) if any firearm will be transferred to the custody of another person, the name, address and Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the transferee.

(b) The local law enforcement agency shall provide a copy of the Firearm Disposition Record to the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and to the Department of State Police.

(c) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked.

(c-5) If the Department of State Police has not received the Firearm Owner's Identification Card or Firearms Disposition Record from the person, the Department shall send notice of noncompliance to the sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides and upon request the Department shall make this information of noncompliance available to the sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides.

(d) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this Section.

(f) Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have failed to surrender their cards to the Department. Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, and by January 31 of each year thereafter, the Department of State Police shall provide written notice, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, of the requirements of this Section to every sheriff and law enforcement agency within this State.

(g) A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of receiving notice.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Section 15. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by changing Section 65 as follows:

(430 ILCS 66/65)

Sec. 65. Prohibitions Prohibited areas.

(a) A licensee under this Act shall not knowingly carry a firearm on or into:

(1) Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public or private elementary or secondary school.

(2) Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a pre-school or child care facility, including any room or portion of a building under the control of a pre-school or child care facility. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent the operator of a child care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm in the home or license under this Act, if no child under child care at the home is present in the home or the firearm in the home is stored in a locked container when a child under child care at the home is present in the home.

(3) Any building, parking area, or portion of a building under the control of an officer of the executive or legislative branch of government, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a concealed firearm onto the real property, bikeway, or trail in a park regulated by the Department of Natural Resources or any other designated public hunting area or building where firearm possession is permitted as established by the Department of Natural Resources under Section 1.8 of the Wildlife Code.

(4) Any building designated for matters before a circuit court, appellate court, or the Supreme Court, or any building or portion of a building under the control of the Supreme Court.

(5) Any building or portion of a building under the control of a unit of local government.

(6) Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of an adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison, or jail.

(7) Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public or private hospital or hospital affiliate, mental health facility, or nursing home.

(8) Any bus, train, or form of transportation paid for in whole or in part with public funds, and any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public transportation facility paid for in whole or in part with public funds.

(9) Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of an establishment that serves alcohol on its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol. The owner of an establishment who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises as provided in this paragraph or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to avoid the prohibition on concealed firearms under this paragraph is subject to the penalty under subsection (c-5) of Section 10-1 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

(10) Any public gathering or special event conducted on property open to the public that requires the issuance of a permit from the unit of local government, provided this prohibition shall not apply to a licensee who must walk through a public gathering in order to access his or her residence, place of business, or vehicle.

(11) Any building or real property that has been issued a Special Event Retailer's license as defined in Section 1-3.17.1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special Event Retailer's license, or a Special use permit license as defined in subsection (q) of Section 5-1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special use permit license.

(12) Any public playground.

(13) Any public park, athletic area, or athletic facility under the control of a municipality or park district, provided nothing in this Section shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a concealed firearm while on a trail or bikeway if only a portion of the trail or bikeway includes a public park.

(14) Any real property under the control of the Cook County Forest Preserve District.

(15) Any building, classroom, laboratory, medical clinic, hospital, artistic venue, athletic venue, entertainment venue, officially recognized university-related organization property, whether owned or leased, and any real property, including parking areas, sidewalks, and common areas under the control of a public or private community college, college, or university.

(16) Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a gaming facility licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, including an inter-track wagering location licensee.

(17) Any stadium, arena, or the real property or parking area under the control of a stadium, arena, or any collegiate or professional sporting event.

(18) Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a public library.

(19) Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of an airport.

(20) Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of an amusement park.

(21) Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a zoo or museum.

(22) Any street, driveway, parking area, property, building, or facility, owned, leased, controlled, or used by a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The licensee shall not under any circumstance store a firearm or ammunition in his or her vehicle or in a compartment or container within a vehicle located anywhere in or on the street, driveway, parking area, property, building, or facility described in this paragraph.

(23) Any area where firearms are prohibited under federal law.

(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a public or private community college, college, or university from:

(1) prohibiting persons from carrying a firearm within a vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the college or university;

(2) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies regarding student, employee, or visitor misconduct and discipline, including suspension and expulsion;

(3) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies regarding the storage or maintenance of firearms, which must include designated areas where persons can park vehicles that carry firearms; and

(4) permitting the carrying or use of firearms for the purpose of instruction and curriculum of officially recognized programs, including but not limited to military science and law enforcement training programs, or in any designated area used for hunting purposes or target shooting.

(a-10) The owner of private real property of any type may prohibit the carrying of concealed firearms on the property under his or her control. The owner must post a sign in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section indicating that firearms are prohibited on the property, unless the property is a private residence.

(b) Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-5), and (a-10) of this Section except under paragraph (22) or (23) of subsection (a), any licensee prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm into the parking area of a prohibited location specified in subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section shall be permitted to carry a concealed firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle into the parking area and may store a firearm or ammunition concealed in a case within a locked vehicle or locked container out of plain view within the vehicle in the parking area. A licensee may carry a concealed firearm in the immediate area surrounding his or her vehicle within a prohibited parking lot area only for the limited purpose of storing or retrieving a firearm within the vehicle's trunk. For purposes of this subsection, "case" includes a glove compartment or console that completely encloses the concealed firearm or ammunition, the trunk of the vehicle, or a firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

(c) A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that touches or crosses any of the premises under subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section if the concealed firearm is carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of law.

(d) Signs stating that the carrying of firearms is prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at the entrance of a building, premises, or real property specified in this Section as a prohibited area, unless the building or premises is a private residence. Signs shall be of a uniform design as established by the Department and shall be 4 inches by 6 inches in size. The Department shall adopt rules for standardized signs to be used under this subsection.

(e) A person licensed under this Act shall not carry a handgun equipped with a suppressor or silencer when carrying a handgun under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15.)

Section 20. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 2.33 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.33) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33)

Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.

(a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.

(b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any species, except that snares not powered by springs or other mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is located underwater at all times.

(c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as provided in Section 2.37.

(d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any mammals from their dens or hiding places.

(e) (Blank).

(f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks or any like device to take any species protected by this Act.

(g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals or explosives for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.

(h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat, grass, brush or other inflammable substance when it is burning.

(i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or aid of any vehicle or conveyance, except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. It is also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance or any light from or any light connected to the vehicle or conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the purpose of driving upon a roadway. Striped skunk, opossum, red fox, gray fox, raccoon, bobcat, and coyote may be taken during the open season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.

(j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected by this Act.

(k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer), wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection (l) or administrative rule.

(l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by administrative rule.

(m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with a one piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.

(n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance or aircraft, unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act, unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only, may be carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or otherwise made inoperable.

(o) It is unlawful to use any crossbow for the purpose of taking any wild birds or mammals, except as provided for in Section 2.5.

(p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun.

(q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun on, over or into any waters of this State, including frozen waters.

(r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or highway in this State.

(s) (Blank). It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting from the firing of any gun.

(t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of another without first obtaining permission from the owner or the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a written authorization and the authorization must contain (i) the legal or common description of property for such authority is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing this Section the law enforcement officer must have received notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the required notice.

(u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant, except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with shotgun using shot shells only, or providing outfitting services under a waterfowl outfitter permit, or on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department owned, managed, leased, or controlled lands, a 100 yard restriction shall apply.

(v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps owned by another person without written authorization of the owner to do so.

(w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to knowingly or wantonly allow his or her dog to pursue, harass or kill deer, except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of Section 2.26 of this Code.

(x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or personal property on the land of another while engaged in hunting or trapping thereon.

(y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise, except that hunting hours between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise may be established by administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.

(z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight. Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.

(aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may be used for tree climbing or cutting, while hunting fur-bearing mammals, excluding coyotes.

(bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so from the Director.

(cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act during the season closed for taking.

(dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative rule.

(ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field during gun deer season except as provided in Section 2.26 and administrative rules.

(ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color, with such articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches of blaze orange material.

(gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color. For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern Cottontail and Swamp Rabbit.

(hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or highway or on public or private property, including a waterway or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined to be unfit for human consumption.

(ii) This Section shall apply only to those species protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36 and 3.21.

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other persons with disabilities who meet the requirements set forth in administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with this Act.

(ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power. However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be used to take species protected by this Act.

(mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20 gauge, with a rifled barrel.

(nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife or wildlife parts is indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until 2 years after the possession has permanently ended.

(Source: P.A. 98-119, eff. 1-1-14; 98-181, eff. 8-5-13; 98-183, eff. 1-1-14; 98-290, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-914, eff. 1-1-15; 99-33, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 25. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Section 24-1 and 24-3 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful use of weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Either:

(i) uses, attaches, or possesses with the intent to use or attach Possesses any device or attachment of any kind for designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any handgun, unless the use, attachment, or possession with the intent to use the device or attachment is on the premises of a firing or shooting range; or

(ii) possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, other than a handgun, if the device or attachment is not possessed in compliance with the National Firearms Act firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6)or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6)or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-29, eff. 7-10-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered competitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Department of State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Department of State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police as soon as practicable. The Department of State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(m) Transfers or gives a suppressor or silencer to a person not authorized to possess the suppressor or silencer under federal law.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i), or (m) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.