HB4194 95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB095 15068 AMC 41028 b

95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2007 and 2008
HB4194

Introduced , by Rep. Lou Lang - Robert S. Molaro

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the Chicago Casino Development Authority Act. Creates the Chicago Casino Development Authority and vests its powers in the Chicago Casino Development Board. Provides that the Board shall select casino operators to develop and operate a land-based casino in Chicago. Amends the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975. Makes changes concerning the Illinois Racing Board. Allows advance deposit wagering. Adds provisions concerning drug testing for horses. Makes other changes. Amends the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 and the Riverboat Gambling Act to provide for the conduct of electronic gaming at tracks. Makes other changes. Amends the Riverboat Gambling Act. Makes changes concerning the Illinois Gaming Board. Authorizes the issuance of an additional license to conduct riverboat gambling and a casino license to conduct casino gambling in Chicago. Contains provisions regarding the re-issuance of the 10th riverboat license. Allows the Authority to receive a casino license and requires the Authority to contract with a casino operator to conduct casino gambling within that municipality. Changes the short title to the Illinois Gambling Act and makes corresponding changes in other Acts. Provides for the conduct of electronic poker. Makes other changes. Effective immediately.

CORRECTIONAL BUDGET AND IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY	FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY	HOME RULE NOTE ACT MAY APPLY
PENSION IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY		STATE DEBT IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning gaming.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

ARTICLE 1.

Section 1-1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Chicago Casino Development Authority Act.

Section 1-5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Authority" means the Chicago Casino Development Authority created by this Act.

"Board" means the board appointed pursuant to this Act to govern and control the Authority.

"Casino" means one temporary land-based facility and a permanent land-based facility, at each of which lawful gambling is authorized and licensed as provided in the Illinois Gambling Act.

"City" means the City of Chicago.

"Casino operator licensee" means any person or entity selected by the Authority and approved and licensed by the Gaming Board to manage and operate a casino within the City of Chicago pursuant to a casino management contract.

"Casino management contract" means a legally binding agreement between the Authority and a casino operator licensee to operate or manage a casino.

"Executive director" means the person appointed by the Board to oversee the daily operations of the Authority.

"Gaming Board" means the Illinois Gaming Board created by the Illinois Gambling Act.

"Mayor" means the Mayor of the City.

Section 1-12. Creation of the Authority. After the 5 members of the Illinois Gaming Board are appointed and qualified pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, there is hereby created a political subdivision, unit of local government with only the powers authorized by law, body politic, and municipal corporation, by the name and style of the Chicago Casino Development Authority.

Section 1-13. Duties of the Authority. It shall be the duty of the Authority, as a casino licensee under the Illinois Gambling Act, to promote, operate, and maintain a casino in the City. The Authority shall construct, equip, and maintain grounds, buildings, and facilities for that purpose. The Authority has the right to contract with a casino operator licensee and other third parties in order to fulfill its purpose. The Authority is granted all rights and powers necessary to perform such duties.

Section 1-15. Board.

(a) The governing and administrative powers of the Authority shall be vested in a body known as the Chicago Casino Development Board. The Board shall consist of 3 members appointed by the Mayor. All appointees shall be subject to background investigation and approval by the Gaming Board. One of these members shall be designated by the Mayor to serve as chairperson. All of the members appointed by the Mayor shall be residents of the City.

(b) Board members shall receive $300 for each day the Authority meets and shall be entitled to reimbursement of reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties. A Board member who serves in the office of secretary-treasurer may also receive compensation for services provided as that officer.

Section 1-20. Terms of appointments; resignation and removal.

(a) The Mayor shall appoint one member of the Board for an initial term expiring July 1 of the year following approval by the Gaming Board, one member for an initial term expiring July 1 three years following approval by the Gaming Board, and one member for an initial term expiring July 1 five years following approval by the Gaming Board.

(b) All successors shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the first day of July of the year in which they are appointed, except in the case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. Each member, including the chairperson, shall hold office until the expiration of his or her term and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. Nothing shall preclude a member from serving consecutive terms. Any member may resign from office, to take effect when a successor has been appointed and qualified. A vacancy in office shall occur in the case of a member's death or indictment, conviction, or plea of guilty to a felony. A vacancy shall be filled for the unexpired term by the Mayor with the approval of the Gaming Board.

(c) The Mayor or the Gaming Board may remove any member of the Board upon a finding of incompetence, neglect of duty, or misfeasance or malfeasance in office or for a violation of this Act. The Gaming Board may remove any member of the Board for any violation of the Illinois Gambling Act or the rules and regulations of the Gaming Board.

Section 1-25. Organization of Board; meetings. After appointment by the Mayor and approval of the Gaming Board, the Board shall organize for the transaction of business. The Board shall prescribe the time and place for meetings, the manner in which special meetings may be called, and the notice that must be given to members. All actions and meetings of the Board shall be subject to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act. Two members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. All substantive action of the Board shall be by resolution with an affirmative vote of a majority of the members.

Section 1-30. Executive director; officers.

(a) The Board shall appoint an executive director, subject to completion of a background investigation and approval by the Gaming Board, who shall be the chief executive officer of the Authority. The Board shall fix the compensation of the executive director. Subject to the general control of the Board, the executive director shall be responsible for the management of the business, properties, and employees of the Authority. The executive director shall direct the enforcement of all resolutions, rules, and regulations of the Board, and shall perform such other duties as may be prescribed from time to time by the Board. All employees and independent contractors, consultants, engineers, architects, accountants, attorneys, financial experts, construction experts and personnel, superintendents, managers, and other personnel appointed or employed pursuant to this Act shall report to the executive director. In addition to any other duties set forth in this Act, the executive director shall do all of the following:

(1) Direct and supervise the administrative affairs and activities of the Authority in accordance with its rules, regulations, and policies.

(2) Attend meetings of the Board.

(3) Keep minutes of all proceedings of the Board.

(4) Approve all accounts for salaries, per diem payments, and allowable expenses of the Board and its employees and consultants.

(5) Report and make recommendations to the Board concerning the terms and conditions of any casino management contract.

(6) Perform any other duty that the Board requires for carrying out the provisions of this Act.

(7) Devote his or her full time to the duties of the office and not hold any other office or employment.

(b) The Board may select a secretary-treasurer to hold office at the pleasure of the Board. The Board shall fix the duties of such officer.

Section 1-31. General rights and powers of the Authority. In addition to the duties and powers set forth in this Act, the Authority shall have the following rights and powers:

(1) Adopt and alter an official seal.

(2) Establish and change its fiscal year.

(3) Sue and be sued, plead and be impleaded, all in its own name, and agree to binding arbitration of any dispute to which it is a party.

(4) Adopt, amend, and repeal by-laws, rules, and regulations consistent with the furtherance of the powers and duties provided for.

(5) Maintain its principal office within the City and such other offices as the Board may designate.

(6) Select locations in the City for a temporary and a permanent casino, subject to final approval by the Gaming Board.

(7) Conduct background investigations of potential casino operator licensees, including its principals or shareholders, and Authority staff. The Authority may request the assistance of the Office of Gaming Enforcement.

(8) Employ, either as regular employees or independent contractors, consultants, engineers, architects, accountants, attorneys, financial experts, construction experts and personnel, superintendents, managers and other professional personnel, and such other personnel as may be necessary in the judgment of the Board, and fix their compensation.

(9) Own, acquire, construct, equip, lease, operate, and maintain grounds, buildings, and facilities to carry out its corporate purposes and duties.

(10) Enter into, revoke, and modify contracts, subject to final approval of the Gaming Board.

(11) Enter into a casino management contract subject to the final approval of the Gaming Board.

(12) Develop, or cause to be developed by a third party, a master plan for the design, planning, and development of a casino.

(13) Negotiate and enter into intergovernmental agreements with the State and its agencies, the City, and other unites of local government, in furtherance of the powers and duties of the Board. However, the Authority may not enter into an agreement with the State Police.

(14) Receive and disburse funds for its own corporate purposes or as otherwise specified in this Act.

(15) Borrow money from any source, public or private, for any corporate purpose, including, without limitation, working capital for its operations, reserve funds, or payment of interest, and to mortgage, pledge, or otherwise encumber the property or funds of the Authority and to contract with or engage the services of any person in connection with any financing, including financial institutions, issuers of letters of credit, or insurers and enter into reimbursement agreements with this person or entity which may be secured as if money were borrowed from the person or entity.

(16) Issue bonds as provided for under this Act.

(17) Receive and accept from any source, private or public, contributions, gifts, or grants of money or property to the Authority.

(18) Provide for the insurance of any property, operations, officers, members, agents, or employees of the Authority against any risk or hazard, to self-insure or participate in joint self-insurance pools or entities to insure against such risk or hazard, and to provide for the indemnification of its officers, members, employees, contractors, or agents against any and all risks.

(19) Exercise all the corporate powers granted Illinois corporations under the Business Corporation Act of 1983, except to the extent that powers are inconsistent with those of a body politic and corporate of the State.

(20) Do all things necessary or convenient to carry out the powers granted by this Act.

Section 1-32. Ethical Conduct.

(a) Board members and employees of the Authority must carry out their duties and responsibilities in such a manner as to promote and preserve public trust and confidence in the integrity and conduct of gaming.

(b) Except as may be required in the conduct of official duties, Board members and employees of the Authority shall not engage in gambling on any riverboat, in any casino, or in an electronic gaming facility licensed by the Illinois Gaming Board or engage in legalized gambling in any establishment identified by Board action that, in the judgment of the Board, could represent a potential for a conflict of interest.

(c) A Board member or employee of the Authority shall not use or attempt to use his or her official position to secure or attempt to secure any privilege, advantage, favor, or influence for himself or herself or others.

(d) Board members and employees of the Authority shall not hold or pursue employment, office, position, business, or occupation that may conflict with his or her official duties. Employees may engage in other gainful employment so long as that employment does not interfere or conflict with their duties. Such employment must be disclosed to the Executive Director and approved by the Board.

(e) Board members and employees of the Authority may not engage in employment, communications, or any activity that may be deemed a conflict of interest. This prohibition shall extend to any act identified by Board action or Gaming Board action that, in the judgment of the either entity, could represent the potential for or the appearance of a conflict of interest.

(f) Board members and employees of the Authority may not have a financial interest, directly or indirectly, in his or her own name or in the name of any other person, partnership, association, trust, corporation, or other entity in any contract or subcontract for the performance of any work for the Authority. This prohibition shall extend to the holding or acquisition of an interest in any entity identified by Board action or Gaming Board action that, in the judgment of the either entity, could represent the potential for or the appearance of a financial interest. The holding or acquisition of an interest in such entities through an indirect means, such as through a mutual fund, shall not be prohibited, expect that the Gaming Board may identify specific investments or funds that, in its judgment, are so influenced by gaming holdings as to represent the potential for or the appearance of a conflict of interest.

(g) Board members and employees of the Authority may not accept any gift, gratuity, service, compensation, travel, lodging, or thing of value, with the exception of unsolicited items of an incidental nature, from any person, corporation, or entity doing business with the Authority.

(h) No Board member or employee of the Authority may, within a period of 2 years immediately after termination of employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a person or entity, or its parent or affiliate, that has engaged in business with the Authority that resulted in contracts with an aggregate value of at least $25,000 or made a decision that directly applied to the person or entity, or its parent or affiliate.

(i) A spouse, child, or parent of a Board member or employee of the Authority may not have a financial interest, directly or indirectly, in his or her own name or in the name of any other person, partnership, association, trust, corporation, or other entity in any contract or subcontract for the performance of any work for the Authority. This prohibition shall extend to the holding or acquisition of an interest in any entity identified by Board action or Gaming Board action that, in the judgment of the either entity, could represent the potential for or the appearance of a conflict of interest. The holding or acquisition of an interest in such entities through an indirect means, such as through a mutual fund, shall not be prohibited, expect that the Gaming Board may identify specific investments or funds that, in its judgment, are so influenced by gaming holdings as to represent the potential for or the appearance of a conflict of interest.

(j) A spouse, child, or parent of a Board member or employee of the Authority may not accept any gift, gratuity, service, compensation, travel, lodging, or thing of value, with the exception of unsolicited items of an incidental nature, from any person, corporation, or entity doing business with the Authority.

(k) A spouse, child, or parent of a Board member or employee of the Authority may not, within a period of 2 years immediately after termination of employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a person or entity, or its parent or affiliate, that has engaged in business with the Authority that resulted in contracts with an aggregate value of at least $25,000 or made a decision that directly applied to the person or entity, or its parent or affiliate.

(l) No Board member or employee of the Authority may attempt, in any way, to influence any person or corporation doing business with the Authority or any officer, agent, or employee thereof to hire or contract with any person or corporation for any compensated work.

(m) Any communication between an elected official of the City and any applicant for or party to a casino management contract with the Authority, or an officer, director, or employee thereof, concerning any manner relating in any way to gaming or the Authority shall be disclosed to the Board and the Gaming Board. Such disclosure shall be in writing by the official within 30 days of the communication and shall be filed with the Board. Disclosure must consist of the date of the communication, the identity and job title of the person with whom the communication was made, a brief summary of the communication, the action requested or recommended, all responses made, the identity and job title of the person making the response, and any other pertinent information.

(n) Any Board member or employee of the Authority who violates any provision of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Section 1-45. Casino management contracts.

(a) The Board shall develop and administer a competitive sealed bidding process for the selection of a potential casino operator licensee to develop or operate a casino within the City. The Board shall issue one or more requests for proposals. The Board may establish minimum financial and investment requirements to determine the eligibility of persons to respond to the Board's requests for proposal, and may establish and consider such other criteria as it deems appropriate. The Board may impose a fee upon persons who respond to requests for proposal, in order to reimburse the Board for its costs in preparing and issuing the requests and reviewing the proposals.

(b) Within 5 days after the time limit for submitting bids and proposals has passed, the Board shall make all bids and proposals public. Thereafter, the Board shall evaluate the responses to its requests for proposal and the ability of all persons or entities responding to its request for proposal to meet the requirements of this Act and to undertake and perform the obligations set forth in its requests for proposal.

(c) After reviewing proposals and subject to Gaming Board approval, the Board shall enter into a casino management contract authorizing the development, construction, or operation of a casino. Validity of the casino management contract is contingent upon the issuance of a casino operator license to the successful bidder. If the Gaming Board approves the contract and grants a casino operator license, the Board shall transmit a copy of the executed casino management contract to the Gaming Board.

(d) After the Authority has been issued a casino license, the Gaming Board has issued a casino operator license, and the Gaming Board has approved the location of a temporary facility, the Authority may conduct gaming operations at a temporary facility for no longer than 12 months after gaming operations begin. The Gaming Board may, after holding a public hearing, grant an extension so long as a permanent facility is not operational and the Authority is working in good faith to complete the permanent facility. The Gaming Board may grant additional extensions following a public hearing. Each extension may be for a period of no longer than 6 months.

(e) Fifty percent of the total amount received by the Authority pursuant to a bid for a casino management contract or an executed casino management contract must be transmitted to the State and deposited into the GROW Fund.

Section 1-50. Transfer of funds. The revenues received by the Authority (other than amounts required to be paid pursuant to the Illinois Gambling Act and amounts required to pay the operating expenses of the Authority, to pay amounts due the casino operator licensee pursuant to a casino management contract, to repay any borrowing of the Authority made pursuant to Section 1-35, to pay debt service on any bonds issued under Section 1-75, and to pay any expenses in connection with the issuance of such bonds pursuant to Section 1-75 or derivative products pursuant to Section 1-85) shall be transferred to the City by the Authority.

Section 1-55. Municipal distributions of proceeds from a casino; gaming endowment funds. At least 70% of the moneys that a municipality in which a casino is located receives pursuant to Section 1-50 of this Act shall be described as "gaming endowment funds" and be expended or obligated by the municipality for the following purposes and in the following amounts:

(1) 40% of such gaming endowment funds shall be used for or pledged for the construction and maintenance of infrastructure within the municipality, including but not limited to roads, bridges, transit infrastructure, and municipal facilities.

(2) 60% of such gaming endowment funds shall be used for or pledged for the construction and maintenance of schools, parks and cultural institution facilities, and museums within the municipality.

Section 1-60. Auditor General.

(a) Prior to the issuance of bonds under this Act, the Authority shall submit to the Auditor General a certification that:

(1) it is legally authorized to issue bonds;

(2) scheduled annual payments of principal and interest on the bonds to be issued meet the requirements of Section 1-75 of this Act;

(3) no bond shall mature later than 25 years; and

(4) after payment of costs of issuance and necessary deposits to funds and accounts established with respect to debt service on the bonds, the net bond proceeds (exclusive of any proceeds to be used to refund outstanding bonds) will be used only for the purposes set forth in this Act.

The Authority also shall submit to the Auditor General its projections on revenues to be generated and pledged to repayment of the bonds as scheduled and such other information as the Auditor General may reasonably request.

The Auditor General shall examine the certifications and information submitted and submit a report to the Authority and the Gaming Board indicating whether the required certifications, projections, and other information have been submitted by the Authority and that the assumptions underlying the projections are not unreasonable in the aggregate. The Auditor General shall submit the report no later than 60 days after receiving the information required to be submitted by the Authority.

The Authority shall not issue bonds until it receives the report from the Auditor General indicating the requirements of this Section have been met. The Auditor General's report shall not be in the nature of a post-audit or examination and shall not lead to the issuance of an opinion, as that term is defined in generally accepted government auditing standards. The Auditor General shall submit a bill to the Authority for costs associated with the examinations and report required under this Section. The Authority shall reimburse in a timely manner.

(b) The Auditor General has the authority and is required to conduct a financial and management audit of the Authority every 2 years. The Auditor General shall also conduct one post-construction and financing audit of the casino after it is completed and in operation. The Auditor General's audits must be posted on his or her Internet website. The Auditor General shall submit a bill to the Authority for costs associated with the audits required under this Section. The Authority shall reimburse in a timely manner.

Section 1-65. Acquisition of property; eminent domain proceedings. For the lawful purposes of this Act, the City or the Authority may acquire by eminent domain or by condemnation proceedings in the manner provided by the Eminent Domain Act, real or personal property or interests in real or personal property located in the City, and the City may convey to the Authority property so acquired. The acquisition of property under this Section is declared to be for a public use.

Section 1-70. Local regulation. The casino facilities and operations therein shall be subject to all ordinances and regulations of the City. The construction, development, and operation of the casino shall comply with all ordinances, regulations, rules, and controls of the City, including but not limited to those relating to zoning and planned development, building, fire prevention, and land use. However, the regulation of gaming operations is subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of the Gaming Board.

Section 1-75. Borrowing.

(a) The Authority may borrow money and issue bonds as provided in this Section. Bonds of the Authority may be issued to provide funds for land acquisition, site assembly and preparation, and the design and construction of the casino, as defined in the Illinois Gambling Act, all ancillary and related facilities comprising the casino complex, and all on-site and off-site infrastructure improvements required in connection with the development of the casino; to refund (at the time or in advance of any maturity or redemption) or redeem any bonds of the Authority; to provide or increase a debt service reserve fund or other reserves with respect to any or all of its bonds; or to pay the legal, financial, administrative, bond insurance, credit enhancement, and other legal expenses of the authorization, issuance, or delivery of bonds. In this Act, the term "bonds" also includes notes of any kind, interim certificates, refunding bonds, or any other evidence of obligation for borrowed money issued under this Section. Bonds may be issued in one or more series and may be payable and secured either on a parity with or separately from other bonds.

(b) The bonds of the Authority shall be payable from one or more of the following sources: (i) the property or revenues of the Authority; (ii) revenues derived from the casino; (iii) revenues derived from any casino operator licensee; (iv) fees, bid proceeds, charges, lease payments, payments required pursuant to any casino management contract or other revenues payable to the Authority, or any receipts of the Authority; (v) payments by financial institutions, insurance companies, or others pursuant to letters or lines of credit, policies of insurance, or purchase agreements; (vi) investment earnings from funds or accounts maintained pursuant to a bond resolution or trust indenture; (vii) proceeds of refunding bonds; (viii) any other revenues derived from or payments by the City; and (ix) any payments by any casino operator licensee or others pursuant to any guaranty agreement.

(c) Bonds shall be authorized by a resolution of the Authority and may be secured by a trust indenture by and between the Authority and a corporate trustee or trustees, which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or without the State. Bonds shall meet the following requirements:

(1) Bonds shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act.

(2) Bonds issued pursuant to this Section must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring within the fiscal year in which the bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year, and with bonds maturing or subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years.

(3) At least 25%, based on total principal amount, of all bonds issued pursuant to this Section shall be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid. No more than 75%, based on total principal amount, of all bonds issued pursuant to this Section shall be sold by negotiated sale.

(4) Bonds shall be payable at a time or times, in the denominations and form, including book entry form, either coupon, registered, or both, and carry the registration and privileges as to exchange, transfer or conversion, and replacement of mutilated, lost, or destroyed bonds as the resolution or trust indenture may provide.

(5) Bonds shall be payable in lawful money of the United States at a designated place.

(6) Bonds shall be subject to the terms of purchase, payment, redemption, refunding, or refinancing that the resolution or trust indenture provides.

(7) Bonds shall be executed by the manual or facsimile signatures of the officers of the Authority designated by the Board, which signatures shall be valid at delivery even for one who has ceased to hold office.

(8) Bonds shall be sold at public or private sale in the manner and upon the terms determined by the Authority.

(9) Bonds shall be issued in accordance with the provisions of the Local Government Debt Reform Act.

(d) The Authority shall adopt a procurement program with respect to contracts relating to underwriters, bond counsel, financial advisors, and accountants. The program shall include goals for the payment of not less than 30% of the total dollar value of the fees from these contracts to minority owned businesses and female owned businesses as defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act. The Authority shall conduct outreach to minority owned businesses and female owned businesses. Outreach shall include, but is not limited to, advertisements in periodicals and newspapers, mailings, and other appropriate media. The Authority shall submit to the General Assembly a comprehensive report that shall include, at a minimum, the details of the procurement plan, outreach efforts, and the results of the efforts to achieve goals for the payment of fees.

(e) Subject to the Illinois Gambling Act and rules of the Gaming Board regarding pledging of interests in holders of owners licenses, any resolution or trust indenture may contain provisions that may be a part of the contract with the holders of the bonds as to the following:

(1) Pledging, assigning, or directing the use, investment, or disposition of revenues of the Authority or proceeds or benefits of any contract, including without limitation, any rights in any casino management contract.

(2) The setting aside of loan funding deposits, debt service reserves, replacement or operating reserves, cost of issuance accounts and sinking funds, and the regulation, investment, and disposition thereof.

(3) Limitations on the purposes to which or the investments in which the proceeds of sale of any issue of bonds or the Authority's revenues and receipts may be applied or made.

(4) Limitations on the issue of additional bonds, the terms upon which additional bonds may be issued and secured, the terms upon which additional bonds may rank on a parity with, or be subordinate or superior to, other bonds.

(5) The refunding, advance refunding, or refinancing of outstanding bonds.

(6) The procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract with bondholders may be altered or amended and the amount of bonds and holders of which must consent thereto and the manner in which consent shall be given.

(7) Defining the acts or omissions which shall constitute a default in the duties of the Authority to holders of bonds and providing the rights or remedies of such holders in the event of a default, which may include provisions restricting individual rights of action by bondholders.

(8) Providing for guarantees, pledges of property, letters of credit, or other security, or insurance for the benefit of bondholders.

(f) No member of the Board, nor any person executing the bonds, shall be liable personally on the bonds or subject to any personal liability by reason of the issuance of the bonds.

(g) The Authority may issue and secure bonds in accordance with the provisions of the Local Government Credit Enhancement Act.

(h) A pledge by the Authority of revenues and receipts as security for an issue of bonds or for the performance of its obligations under any casino management contract shall be valid and binding from the time when the pledge is made. The revenues and receipts pledged shall immediately be subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery or further act, and the lien of any pledge shall be valid and binding against any person having any claim of any kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the Authority, irrespective of whether the person has notice. No resolution, trust indenture, management agreement or financing statement, continuation statement, or other instrument adopted or entered into by the Authority need be filed or recorded in any public record other than the records of the Authority in order to perfect the lien against third persons, regardless of any contrary provision of law.

(i) Bonds that are being paid or retired by issuance, sale, or delivery of bonds, and bonds for which sufficient funds have been deposited with the paying agent or trustee to provide for payment of principal and interest thereon, and any redemption premium, as provided in the authorizing resolution, shall not be considered outstanding for the purposes of this subsection.

(j) The bonds of the Authority shall not be indebtedness of the State. The bonds of the Authority are not general obligations of the State and are not secured by a pledge of the full faith and credit of the State and the holders of bonds of the Authority may not require, except as provided in this Act, the application of State revenues or funds to the payment of bonds of the Authority.

(k) The State of Illinois pledges and agrees with the owners of the bonds that it will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with the owners or in any way impair the rights and remedies of the owners until the bonds, together with interest on them, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of the owners, are fully met and discharged. The Authority is authorized to include this pledge and agreement in any contract with the owners of bonds issued under this Section.

(l) No person holding an elective office in this State, holding a seat in the General Assembly, or serving as a board member, trustee, officer, or employee of the Authority, including the spouse of that person, may receive a legal, banking, consulting, or other fee related to the issuance of bonds.

Section 1-85. Derivative products. With respect to all or part of any issue of its bonds, the Authority may enter into agreements or contracts with any necessary or appropriate person, which will have the benefit of providing to the Authority an interest rate basis, cash flow basis, or other basis different from that provided in the bonds for the payment of interest. Such agreements or contracts may include, without limitation, agreements or contracts commonly known as "interest rate swap agreements", "forward payment conversion agreements", "futures", "options", "puts", or "calls" and agreements or contracts providing for payments based on levels of or changes in interest rates, agreements or contracts to exchange cash flows or a series of payments, or to hedge payment, rate spread, or similar exposure.

Section 1-90. Legality for investment. The State of Illinois, all governmental entities, all public officers, banks, bankers, trust companies, savings banks and institutions, building and loan associations, savings and loan associations, investment companies, and other persons carrying on a banking business, insurance companies, insurance associations, and other persons carrying on an insurance business, and all executors, administrators, guardians, trustees, and other fiduciaries may legally invest any sinking funds, moneys, or other funds belonging to them or within their control in any bonds issued under this Act. However, nothing in this Section shall be construed as relieving any person, firm, or corporation from any duty of exercising reasonable care in selecting securities for purchase or investment.

Section 1-95. Tax exemption. The Authority and all of its operations and property used for public purposes shall be exempt from all taxation of any kind imposed by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision, school district, municipal corporation, or unit of local government of the State of Illinois. However, nothing in this Act prohibits the imposition of any other taxes where such imposition is not prohibited by Section 21 of the Illinois Gambling Act.

Section 1-105. Budgets and reporting.

(a) The Board shall annually adopt a budget for each fiscal year. The budget may be modified from time to time in the same manner and upon the same vote as it may be adopted. The budget shall include the Authority's available funds and estimated revenues and shall provide for payment of its obligations and estimated expenditures for the fiscal year, including, without limitation, expenditures for administration, operation, maintenance and repairs, debt service, and deposits into reserve and other funds and capital projects.

(b) The Board shall annually cause the finances of the Authority to be audited by a firm of certified public accountants and post the firm's audits of the Authority on the Authority's Internet website.

(c) The Board shall, for each fiscal year, prepare an annual report setting forth information concerning its activities in the fiscal year and the status of the development of the casino. The annual report shall include the audited financial statements of the Authority for the fiscal year, the budget for the succeeding fiscal year, and the current capital plan as of the date of the report. Copies of the annual report shall be made available to persons who request them and shall be submitted not later than 120 days after the end of the Authority's fiscal year to the Governor, the Mayor, the General Assembly, and the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability.

Section 1-110. Deposit and withdrawal of funds.

(a) All funds deposited by the Authority in any bank or savings and loan association shall be placed in the name of the Authority and shall be withdrawn or paid out only by check or draft upon the bank or savings and loan association, signed by 2 officers or employees designated by the Board. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Board may designate any of its members or any officer or employee of the Authority to authorize the wire transfer of funds deposited by the secretary-treasurer of funds in a bank or savings and loan association for the payment of payroll and employee benefits-related expenses.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds as permitted by this Section unless it has complied with the requirements established pursuant to Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(b) If any officer or employee whose signature appears upon any check or draft issued pursuant to this Act ceases (after attaching his signature) to hold his or her office before the delivery of such a check or draft to the payee, his or her signature shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes with the same effect as if he or she had remained in office until delivery thereof.

Section 1-112. Contracts with the Authority or casino operator licensee; disclosure requirements.

(a) A bidder, offeror, or contractor must disclose the names of all officers and directors. A bidder, offeror, or contractor for contracts with the Authority or casino operator licensee shall disclose the identity of every owner, beneficiary, or person with beneficial interest of more than 1%, or shareholder entitled to receive more than 1% of the total distributable income of any corporation, having any interest in the contract in the bidder, offeror, or contractor. The disclosure shall be in writing and attested to by an owner, trustee, corporate official, or agent. If stock in a corporation is publicly traded and there is no readily known individual having greater than a 1% interest, then a statement to that affect attested to by an officer or agent of the corporation or shall fulfill the disclosure statement requirement of this Section. A bidder, offeror, or contractor shall notify the Authority of any changes in officers, directors, ownership, or individuals having a beneficial interest of more than 1%.

(b) A bidder, offeror, or contractor for contracts with an annual value of $10,000 or for a period to exceed one year shall disclose all political contributions of the bidder, offeror, or contractor and any affiliated person or entity. Disclosure shall include at least the names and addresses of the contributors and the dollar amounts of any contributions to any political committee made within the previous 2 years. The disclosure must be submitted to the Gaming Board with a copy of the contract prior to Gaming Board approval of the contract. The Gaming Board shall refuse to approve any contract that does not include the required disclosure.

(c) As used in this Section:

"Contribution" means contribution as defined in Section 9-1.4 of the Election Code.

"Affiliated person" means (i) any person with any ownership interest or distributive share of the bidding or contracting entity in excess of 1%, (ii) executive employees of the bidding or contracting entity, and (iii) the spouse and minor children of any such persons.

"Affiliated entity" means (i) any parent or subsidiary of the bidding or contracting entity, (ii) any member of the same unitary business group, or (iii) any political committee for which the bidding or contracting entity is the sponsoring entity.

(d) The Gaming Board may direct the Authority or a casino operator licensee to void a contract if a violation of this Section occurs. The Authority may direct a casino operator licensee to void a contract if a violation of this Section occurs.

Section 1-115. Purchasing.

(a) All construction contracts and contracts for supplies, materials, equipment, and services, when the cost thereof to the Authority exceeds $25,000, shall be let to the lowest responsible bidder, after advertising for bids, except for the following:

(1) When repair parts, accessories, equipment, or services are required for equipment or services previously furnished or contracted for;

(2) Professional services;

(3) When services such as water, light, heat, power, telephone (other than long-distance service), or telegraph are required;

(4) When contracts for the use, purchase, delivery, movement, or installation of data processing equipment, software, or services and telecommunications equipment, software, and services are required;

(5) Casino management contracts, which shall be awarded as set forth in Section 1-45 of this Act.

(b) All contracts involving less than $25,000 shall be let by competitive bidding whenever possible, and in any event in a manner calculated to ensure the best interests of the public.

(c) In determining the responsibility of any bidder, the Authority may take into account the bidder's (or an individual having a beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 1% in such bidding entity) past record of dealings with the Authority, the bidder's experience, adequacy of equipment, and ability to complete performance within the time set, and other factors besides financial responsibility. No such contract shall be awarded to any bidder other than the lowest bidder (in case of purchase or expenditure) unless authorized or approved by a vote of at least 2 members of the Board and such action is accompanied by a written statement setting forth the reasons for not awarding the contract to the highest or lowest bidder, as the case may be. The statement shall be kept on file in the principal office of the Authority and open to public inspection.

(d) The Authority shall have the right to reject all bids and to re-advertise for bids. If after any such re-advertisement, no responsible and satisfactory bid, within the terms of the re-advertisement, is received, the Authority may award such contract without competitive bidding, provided that the Gaming Board must approve the contract prior to its execution. The contract must not be less advantageous to the Authority than any valid bid received pursuant to advertisement.

(e) Advertisements for bids and re-bids shall be published at least once in a daily newspaper of general circulation published in the City at least 10 calendar days before the time for receiving bids, and such advertisements shall also be posted on readily accessible bulletin boards in the principal office of the Authority. Such advertisements shall state the time and place for receiving and opening of bids and, by reference to plans and specifications on file at the time of the first publication or in the advertisement itself, shall describe the character of the proposed contract in sufficient detail to fully advise prospective bidders of their obligations and to ensure free and open competitive bidding.

(f) All bids in response to advertisements shall be sealed and shall be publicly opened by the Authority. All bidders shall be entitled to be present in person or by representatives. Cash or a certified or satisfactory cashier's check, as a deposit of good faith, in a reasonable amount to be fixed by the Authority before advertising for bids, shall be required with the proposal of each bidder. A bond for faithful performance of the contract with surety or sureties satisfactory to the Authority and adequate insurance may be required in reasonable amounts to be fixed by the Authority before advertising for bids.

(g) The contract shall be awarded as promptly as possible after the opening of bids. The bid of the successful bidder, as well as the bids of the unsuccessful bidders, shall be placed on file and be open to public inspection. All bids shall be void if any disclosure of the terms of any bid in response to an advertisement is made or permitted to be made by the Authority before the time fixed for opening bids.

(h) Notice of each and every contract that is offered, including renegotiated contracts and change orders, shall be published in an online bulletin. The online bulletin must include at least the date first offered, the date submission of offers is due, the location that offers are to be submitted to, a brief purchase description, the method of source selection, information of how to obtain a comprehensive purchase description and any disclosure and contract forms, and encouragement to prospective vendors to hire qualified veterans, as defined by Section 45-67 of the Illinois Procurement Code, and Illinois residents discharged from any Illinois adult correctional center. Notice of each and every contract that is let or awarded, including renegotiated contracts and change orders, shall be published in the online bulletin and must include at least all of the information specified in this item (j), as well as the name of the successful responsible bidder or offeror, the contract price, and the number of unsuccessful responsive bidders and any other disclosure specified in this Section. This notice must be posted in the online electronic bulletin prior to execution of the contract.

ARTICLE 90.

Section 90-1. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Sections 5-50, 20-10, and 20-15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/5-50)

Sec. 5-50. Ex parte communications; special government agents.

(a) This Section applies to ex parte communications made to any agency listed in subsection (e).

(b) "Ex parte communication" means any written or oral communication by any person that imparts or requests material information or makes a material argument regarding potential action concerning regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matters pending before or under consideration by the agency. "Ex parte communication" does not include the following: (i) statements by a person publicly made in a public forum; (ii) statements regarding matters of procedure and practice, such as format, the number of copies required, the manner of filing, and the status of a matter; and (iii) statements made by a State employee of the agency to the agency head or other employees of that agency.

(b-5) An ex parte communication received by an agency, agency head, or other agency employee from an interested party or his or her official representative or attorney shall promptly be memorialized and made a part of the record.

(c) An ex parte communication received by any agency, agency head, or other agency employee, other than an ex parte communication described in subsection (b-5), shall immediately be reported to that agency's ethics officer by the recipient of the communication and by any other employee of that agency who responds to the communication. The ethics officer shall require that the ex parte communication be promptly made a part of the record. The ethics officer shall promptly file the ex parte communication with the Executive Ethics Commission, including all written communications, all written responses to the communications, and a memorandum prepared by the ethics officer stating the nature and substance of all oral communications, the identity and job title of the person to whom each communication was made, all responses made, the identity and job title of the person making each response, the identity of each person from whom the written or oral ex parte communication was received, the individual or entity represented by that person, any action the person requested or recommended, and any other pertinent information. The disclosure shall also contain the date of any ex parte communication.

(d) "Interested party" means a person or entity whose rights, privileges, or interests are the subject of or are directly affected by a regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matter.

(e) This Section applies to the following agencies:

Executive Ethics Commission

Illinois Commerce Commission

Educational Labor Relations Board

State Board of Elections

Illinois Gaming Board Health Facilities Planning Board

Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission

Illinois Labor Relations Board

Illinois Liquor Control Commission

Pollution Control Board

Property Tax Appeal Board

Illinois Racing Board Illinois Purchased Care Review Board

Department of State Police Merit Board

Motor Vehicle Review Board

Prisoner Review Board

Civil Service Commission

Personnel Review Board for the Treasurer

Merit Commission for the Secretary of State

Merit Commission for the Office of the Comptroller

Court of Claims Board of Review of the Department of Employment Security Department of Insurance

Department of Professional Regulation and licensing boards under the Department

Department of Public Health and licensing boards under the Department Office of Banks and Real Estate and licensing boards under the Office

State Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees Judges Retirement System Board of Trustees General Assembly Retirement System Board of Trustees Illinois Board of Investment State Universities Retirement System Board of Trustees Teachers Retirement System Officers Board of Trustees

(f) Any person who fails to (i) report an ex parte communication to an ethics officer, (ii) make information part of the record, or (iii) make a filing with the Executive Ethics Commission as required by this Section or as required by Section 5-165 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act violates this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(5 ILCS 430/20-10)

Sec. 20-10. Offices of Executive Inspectors General.

(a) Six Five independent Offices of the Executive Inspector General are created, one each for the Governor, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, and the Treasurer and one for gaming activities. Each Office shall be under the direction and supervision of an Executive Inspector General and shall be a fully independent office with separate appropriations.

(b) The Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, and Treasurer shall each appoint an Executive Inspector General, and the Director of Gaming Enforcement shall appoint an Executive Inspector General for gaming activities. Each appointment must be made without regard to political affiliation and solely on the basis of integrity and demonstrated ability. Appointments shall be made by and with the advice and consent of the Senate by three-fifths of the elected members concurring by record vote. Any nomination not acted upon by the Senate within 60 session days of the receipt thereof shall be deemed to have received the advice and consent of the Senate. If, during a recess of the Senate, there is a vacancy in an office of Executive Inspector General, the appointing authority shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate when the appointing authority shall make a nomination to fill that office. No person rejected for an office of Executive Inspector General shall, except by the Senate's request, be nominated again for that office at the same session of the Senate or be appointed to that office during a recess of that Senate.

Nothing in this Article precludes the appointment by the Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer of any other inspector general required or permitted by law. The Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, and Treasurer each may appoint an existing inspector general as the Executive Inspector General required by this Article, provided that such an inspector general is not prohibited by law, rule, jurisdiction, qualification, or interest from serving as the Executive Inspector General required by this Article. An appointing authority may not appoint a relative as an Executive Inspector General.

Each Executive Inspector General shall have the following qualifications:

(1) has not been convicted of any felony under the laws of this State, another State, or the United States;

(2) has earned a baccalaureate degree from an institution of higher education; and

(3) has 5 or more years of cumulative service (A) with a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency, at least 2 years of which have been in a progressive investigatory capacity; (B) as a federal, State, or local prosecutor; (C) as a senior manager or executive of a federal, State, or local agency; (D) as a member, an officer, or a State or federal judge; or (E) representing any combination of (A) through (D).

The term of each initial Executive Inspector General shall commence upon qualification and shall run through June 30, 2008. The initial appointments shall be made within 60 days after the effective date of this Act.

After the initial term, each Executive Inspector General shall serve for 5-year terms commencing on July 1 of the year of appointment and running through June 30 of the fifth following year. An Executive Inspector General may be reappointed to one or more subsequent terms.

A vacancy occurring other than at the end of a term shall be filled by the appointing authority only for the balance of the term of the Executive Inspector General whose office is vacant.

Terms shall run regardless of whether the position is filled.

(c) The Executive Inspector General appointed by the Attorney General shall have jurisdiction over the Attorney General and all officers and employees of, and vendors and others doing business with, State agencies within the jurisdiction of the Attorney General. The Executive Inspector General appointed by the Secretary of State shall have jurisdiction over the Secretary of State and all officers and employees of, and vendors and others doing business with, State agencies within the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State. The Executive Inspector General appointed by the Comptroller shall have jurisdiction over the Comptroller and all officers and employees of, and vendors and others doing business with, State agencies within the jurisdiction of the Comptroller. The Executive Inspector General appointed by the Treasurer shall have jurisdiction over the Treasurer and all officers and employees of, and vendors and others doing business with, State agencies within the jurisdiction of the Treasurer. The Executive Inspector General appointed by the Governor shall have jurisdiction over the Governor, the Lieutenant Governor, and all officers and employees of, and vendors and others doing business with, executive branch State agencies under the jurisdiction of the Executive Ethics Commission and not within the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, or the Treasurer, or the Executive Inspector General for gaming activities. The Executive Inspector General for gaming activities appointed by the Director of Gaming Enforcement has jurisdiction over the Illinois Gaming Board, Illinois Racing Board, the Office of Gaming Enforcement, and all officers and employees of those agencies.

The jurisdiction of each Executive Inspector General is to investigate allegations of fraud, waste, abuse, mismanagement, misconduct, nonfeasance, misfeasance, malfeasance, or violations of this Act or violations of other related laws and rules.

(d) The minimum compensation for each Executive Inspector General shall be determined by the Executive Ethics Commission. The actual compensation for each Executive Inspector General shall be determined by the appointing executive branch constitutional officer and must be at or above the minimum compensation level set by the Executive Ethics Commission. Subject to Section 20-45 of this Act, each Executive Inspector General has full authority to organize his or her Office of the Executive Inspector General, including the employment and determination of the compensation of staff, such as deputies, assistants, and other employees, as appropriations permit. A separate appropriation shall be made for each Office of Executive Inspector General.

(e) No Executive Inspector General or employee of the Office of the Executive Inspector General may, during his or her term of appointment or employment:

(1) become a candidate for any elective office;

(2) hold any other elected or appointed public office except for appointments on governmental advisory boards or study commissions or as otherwise expressly authorized by law;

(3) be actively involved in the affairs of any political party or political organization; or

(4) actively participate in any campaign for any elective office.

In this subsection an appointed public office means a position authorized by law that is filled by an appointing authority as provided by law and does not include employment by hiring in the ordinary course of business.

(e-1) No Executive Inspector General or employee of the Office of the Executive Inspector General may, for one year after the termination of his or her appointment or employment:

(1) become a candidate for any elective office;

(2) hold any elected public office; or

(3) hold any appointed State, county, or local judicial office.

(e-2) The requirements of item (3) of subsection (e-1) may be waived by the Executive Ethics Commission.

(f) An Executive Inspector General may be removed only for cause and may be removed only by the appointing constitutional officer. At the time of the removal, the appointing constitutional officer must report to the Executive Ethics Commission the justification for the removal.

(Source: P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03.)

(5 ILCS 430/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Duties of the Executive Ethics Commission. In addition to duties otherwise assigned by law, the Executive Ethics Commission shall have the following duties:

(1) To promulgate rules governing the performance of its duties and the exercise of its powers and governing the investigations of the Executive Inspectors General. It is declared to be in the public interest, safety, and welfare that the Commission adopt emergency rules under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to initially perform its duties under this subsection.

(2) To conduct administrative hearings and rule on matters brought before the Commission only upon the receipt of pleadings filed by an Executive Inspector General and not upon its own prerogative, but may appoint special Executive Inspectors General as provided in Section 20-21. Any other allegations of misconduct received by the Commission from a person other than an Executive Inspector General shall be referred to the Office of the appropriate Executive Inspector General.

(3) To prepare and publish manuals and guides and, working with the Office of the Attorney General, oversee training of employees under its jurisdiction that explains their duties.

(4) To prepare public information materials to facilitate compliance, implementation, and enforcement of this Act.

(5) To submit reports as required by this Act.

(6) To the extent authorized by this Act, to make rulings, issue recommendations, and impose administrative fines, if appropriate, in connection with the implementation and interpretation of this Act. The powers and duties of the Commission are limited to matters clearly within the purview of this Act.

(7) To issue subpoenas with respect to matters pending before the Commission, subject to the provisions of this Article and in the discretion of the Commission, to compel the attendance of witnesses for purposes of testimony and the production of documents and other items for inspection and copying.

(8) To appoint special Executive Inspectors General as provided in Section 20-21.

(9) To review applications and appoint members to the Nomination Panel established under the Illinois Gambling Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-617, eff. 12-9-03.)

Section 90-2. The Executive Reorganization Implementation Act is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 15/3.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 1803.1)

Sec. 3.1. "Agency directly responsible to the Governor" or "agency" means any office, officer, division, or part thereof, and any other office, nonelective officer, department, division, bureau, board, or commission in the executive branch of State government, except that it does not apply to any agency whose primary function is service to the General Assembly or the Judicial Branch of State government, or to any agency administered by the Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller or State Treasurer. In addition the term does not apply to the following agencies created by law with the primary responsibility of exercising regulatory or adjudicatory functions independently of the Governor:

(1) the State Board of Elections;

(2) the State Board of Education;

(3) the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(4) the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission;

(5) the Civil Service Commission;

(6) the Fair Employment Practices Commission;

(7) the Pollution Control Board;

(8) the Department of State Police Merit Board;

(9) the Illinois Gaming Board;

(10) the Office of Gaming Enforcement; and

(11) the Illinois Racing Board.

(Source: P.A. 93-721, eff. 1-1-05.)

Section 90-5. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Compulsive gambling program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall establish a program for public education, research, and training regarding problem and compulsive gambling and the treatment and prevention of problem and compulsive gambling. Subject to specific appropriation for these stated purposes, the program must include all of the following:

(1) Establishment and maintenance of a toll-free "800" telephone number to provide crisis counseling and referral services to families experiencing difficulty as a result of problem or compulsive gambling.

(2) Promotion of public awareness regarding the recognition and prevention of problem and compulsive gambling.

(3) Facilitation, through in-service training and other means, of the availability of effective assistance programs for problem and compulsive gamblers.

(4) Conducting studies to identify adults and juveniles in this State who are, or who are at risk of becoming, problem or compulsive gamblers.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall either establish and maintain the program or contract with a private or public entity for the establishment and maintenance of the program. Subject to appropriation, either the Department or the private or public entity shall implement the toll-free telephone number, promote public awareness, and conduct in-service training concerning problem and compulsive gambling.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall produce and supply the signs specified in Section 10.7 of the Illinois Lottery Law, Section 34.1 of the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, Section 4.3 of the Bingo License and Tax Act, Section 8.1 of the Charitable Games Act, and Section 13.1 of the Illinois Riverboat Gambling Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-374, eff. 1-1-96; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96.)

Section 90-10. The Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2505-305 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-305) (was 20 ILCS 2505/39b15.1)

Sec. 2505-305. Investigators.

(a) The Department has the power to appoint investigators to conduct all investigations, searches, seizures, arrests, and other duties imposed under the provisions of any law administered by the Department or the Illinois Gaming Board. Except as provided in subsection (c), these investigators have and may exercise all the powers of peace officers solely for the purpose of enforcing taxing measures administered by the Department or the Illinois Gaming Board.

(b) The Director must authorize to each investigator employed under this Section and to any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face, (i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Department and (ii) contains a unique identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the Department.

(c) Investigators appointed under this Section who are assigned to the Illinois Gaming Board have and may exercise all the rights and powers of peace officers, provided that these powers shall be limited to offenses or violations occurring or committed on a riverboat or dock, as defined in subsections (d) and (f) of Section 4 of the Riverboat Gambling Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-883, eff. 1-1-01; 92-493, eff. 1-1-02.)

Section 90-12. The Illinois State Auditing Act is amended by changing Section 3-1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 5/3-1) (from Ch. 15, par. 303-1)

Sec. 3-1. Jurisdiction of Auditor General. The Auditor General has jurisdiction over all State agencies to make post audits and investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution.

The Auditor General has jurisdiction over local government agencies and private agencies only:

(a) to make such post audits authorized by or under this Act as are necessary and incidental to a post audit of a State agency or of a program administered by a State agency involving public funds of the State, but this jurisdiction does not include any authority to review local governmental agencies in the obligation, receipt, expenditure or use of public funds of the State that are granted without limitation or condition imposed by law, other than the general limitation that such funds be used for public purposes;

(b) to make investigations authorized by or under this Act or the Constitution; and

(c) to make audits of the records of local government agencies to verify actual costs of state-mandated programs when directed to do so by the Legislative Audit Commission at the request of the State Board of Appeals under the State Mandates Act.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General may conduct an audit of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority, the Regional Transportation Authority, the Suburban Bus Division, the Commuter Rail Division and the Chicago Transit Authority and any other subsidized carrier when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission. Such audit may be a financial, management or program audit, or any combination thereof.

The audit shall determine whether they are operating in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations. Subject to the limitations of this Act, the Legislative Audit Commission may by resolution specify additional determinations to be included in the scope of the audit.

In addition to the foregoing, the Auditor General must also conduct a financial audit of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority's expenditures of public funds in connection with the reconstruction, renovation, remodeling, extension, or improvement of all or substantially all of any existing "facility", as that term is defined in the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act.

The Auditor General may also conduct an audit, when authorized by the Legislative Audit Commission, of any hospital which receives 10% or more of its gross revenues from payments from the State of Illinois, Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), Medical Assistance Program.

The Auditor General is authorized to conduct financial and compliance audits of the Illinois Distance Learning Foundation and the Illinois Conservation Foundation.

As soon as practical after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995, the Auditor General shall conduct a compliance and management audit of the City of Chicago and any other entity with regard to the operation of Chicago O'Hare International Airport, Chicago Midway Airport and Merrill C. Meigs Field. The audit shall include, but not be limited to, an examination of revenues, expenses, and transfers of funds; purchasing and contracting policies and practices; staffing levels; and hiring practices and procedures. When completed, the audit required by this paragraph shall be distributed in accordance with Section 3-14.

The Auditor General shall conduct a financial and compliance and program audit of distributions from the Municipal Economic Development Fund during the immediately preceding calendar year pursuant to Section 8-403.1 of the Public Utilities Act at no cost to the city, village, or incorporated town that received the distributions.

The Auditor General must conduct an audit of the Health Facilities Planning Board pursuant to Section 19.5 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

The Auditor General must conduct an audit of the Chicago Casino Development Authority pursuant to Section 1-60 of the Chicago Casino Development Authority Act.

The Auditor General of the State of Illinois shall annually conduct or cause to be conducted a financial and compliance audit of the books and records of any county water commission organized pursuant to the Water Commission Act of 1985 and shall file a copy of the report of that audit with the Governor and the Legislative Audit Commission. The filed audit shall be open to the public for inspection. The cost of the audit shall be charged to the county water commission in accordance with Section 6z-27 of the State Finance Act. The county water commission shall make available to the Auditor General its books and records and any other documentation, whether in the possession of its trustees or other parties, necessary to conduct the audit required. These audit requirements apply only through July 1, 2007.

The Auditor General must conduct audits of the Rend Lake Conservancy District as provided in Section 25.5 of the River Conservancy Districts Act.

The Auditor General must conduct financial audits of the Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority as provided in Section 70 of the Southeastern Illinois Economic Development Authority Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 90-15. The State Finance Act is amended by changing Section 8h and adding Sections 5.708, 5.709, and 6z-71 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.708 new)

Sec. 5.708. The GROW Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/5.709 new)

Sec. 5.709. The Focusing on Children, Uplifting Schools (FOCUS) Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/6z-71 new)

Sec. 6z-71. FOCUS Fund.

(a) There is created the Focusing on Children, Uplifting Schools (FOCUS) Fund as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, by the State Board of Education as provided in this Section.

(b) The State Board of Education shall distribute the money in the FOCUS Fund as follows:

(1) Twenty percent of money in the Fund must be distributed to a school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code.

(2) The balance of the money in the Fund must be distributed to school districts, except those organized under Article 34 of the School Code as follows:

(A) Fifty percent of the balance must be distributed on a per capita basis to depressed school districts and school districts that accept for enrollment military-dependent children whose parents or guardians reside in federal military housing. To determine which school districts qualify as depressed school districts, the State Board shall use its final data for the previous school year concerning those school districts that have the lowest 30% of available local resources, as defined under Section 18-8.05 of the School Code.

(B) Thirty percent of the balance must be distributed to school districts under the School Safety and Educational Improvement Block Grant Program.

(C) The remaining 20% of the balance must be distributed as fast growth grants under Section 18-8.10 of the School Code to school districts that qualify.

(c) All money distributed by the State Board of Education from the FOCUS Fund must be used by schools and school districts, as determined by rule of the State Board of Education, for reducing class sizes, for math and reading specialists, and for school counselors, including without limitation those persons providing social, behavioral, and academic counseling.

(30 ILCS 105/8h)

Sec. 8h. Transfers to General Revenue Fund.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section and Section 8n of this Act, and notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, the Governor may, through June 30, 2007, from time to time direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer a specified sum from any fund held by the State Treasurer to the General Revenue Fund in order to help defray the State's operating costs for the fiscal year. The total transfer under this Section from any fund in any fiscal year shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 8% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) an amount that leaves a remaining fund balance of 25% of the July 1 fund balance of that fiscal year. In fiscal year 2005 only, prior to calculating the July 1, 2004 final balances, the Governor may calculate and direct the State Treasurer with the Comptroller to transfer additional amounts determined by applying the formula authorized in Public Act 93-839 to the funds balances on July 1, 2003. No transfer may be made from a fund under this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriation from that fund estimated to be expended for that fiscal year. This Section does not apply to any funds that are restricted by federal law to a specific use, to any funds in the Motor Fuel Tax Fund, the Intercity Passenger Rail Fund, the Hospital Provider Fund, the Medicaid Provider Relief Fund, the Teacher Health Insurance Security Fund, the Reviewing Court Alternative Dispute Resolution Fund, the Voters' Guide Fund, the Foreign Language Interpreter Fund, the Lawyers' Assistance Program Fund, the Supreme Court Federal Projects Fund, the Supreme Court Special State Projects Fund, the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund, the Good Samaritan Energy Trust Fund, the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Facility Development and Operation Fund, the Horse Racing Equity Trust Fund, the Racing Industry Workers' Trust Fund, the Illinois Equine Research Trust Fund, the Agricultural Premium Fund, the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund, the Horse Racing Fund, the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund, the Illinois Racing Quarter Horse Breeders Fund, the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund, the Metabolic Screening and Treatment Fund, or the Hospital Basic Services Preservation Fund, or to any funds to which Section 70-50 of the Nurse Practice Act applies. No transfers may be made under this Section from the Pet Population Control Fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for fiscal year 2004, the total transfer under this Section from the Road Fund or the State Construction Account Fund shall not exceed the lesser of (i) 5% of the revenues to be deposited into the fund during that fiscal year or (ii) 25% of the beginning balance in the fund. For fiscal year 2005 through fiscal year 2007, no amounts may be transferred under this Section from the Road Fund, the State Construction Account Fund, the Criminal Justice Information Systems Trust Fund, the Wireless Service Emergency Fund, or the Mandatory Arbitration Fund.

In determining the available balance in a fund, the Governor may include receipts, transfers into the fund, and other resources anticipated to be available in the fund in that fiscal year.

The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(a-5) Transfers directed to be made under this Section on or before February 28, 2006 that are still pending on May 19, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-774) shall be redirected as provided in Section 8n of this Act.

(b) This Section does not apply to: (i) the Ticket For The Cure Fund; (ii) any fund established under the Community Senior Services and Resources Act; or (iii) on or after January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-511), the Child Labor and Day and Temporary Labor Enforcement Fund.

(c) This Section does not apply to the Demutualization Trust Fund established under the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(d) This Section does not apply to moneys set aside in the Illinois State Podiatric Disciplinary Fund for podiatric scholarships and residency programs under the Podiatric Scholarship and Residency Act.

(e) Subsection (a) does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Pension Stabilization Fund.

(f) Subsection (a) does not apply to, and no transfer may be made under this Section from, the Illinois Power Agency Operations Fund, the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund, the Illinois Power Agency Debt Service Fund, and the Illinois Power Agency Trust Fund.

(g) (f) This Section does not apply to the Veterans Service Organization Reimbursement Fund.

(h) (f) This Section does not apply to the Supreme Court Historic Preservation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-120, eff. 7-6-05; 94-511, eff. 1-1-06; 94-535, eff. 8-10-05; 94-639, eff. 8-22-05; 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 94-648, eff. 1-1-06; 94-686, eff. 11-2-05; 94-691, eff. 11-2-05; 94-726, eff. 1-20-06; 94-773, eff. 5-18-06; 94-774, eff. 5-19-06; 94-804, eff. 5-26-06; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-410, eff. 8-24-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-629, eff. 9-25-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-695, eff. 11-5-07; revised 11-2-07.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.26 rep.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.26a rep.)

Section 90-20. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Sections 5.26 and 5.26a.

Section 90-21. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 50-70 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/50-70)

Sec. 50-70. Additional provisions. This Code is subject to applicable provisions of the following Acts:

(1) Article 33E of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(2) the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(3) the Discriminatory Club Act;

(4) the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act;

(5) the State Prompt Payment Act;

(6) the Public Officer Prohibited Activities Act;

(7) the Drug Free Workplace Act; and

(8) the Illinois Power Agency Act; .

(9) (8) the Employee Classification Act; and .

(10) the Illinois Gambling Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-26, eff. 1-1-08; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; revised 11-2-07.)

Section 90-21.5. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 201 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)

Sec. 201. Tax Imposed.

(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by subsection (d-1):

(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.

(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

Surcharge; sale or exchange of assets, properties, and intangibles of gaming licensees. For each of taxable years 2008 through 2017, a surcharge is imposed on all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of capital assets, depreciable business property, real property used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles (i) of an organization licensee under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 and (ii) of an owners licensee or an electronic gaming licensee under the Illinois Gambling Act. The amount of the surcharge is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The Department shall adopt rules necessary to implement and administer this paragraph.

(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979. Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January 1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.

(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax (excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except that for purposes of this determination premiums from reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act, shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes a mutual insurer under common management.

(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:

(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all credits allowed under this Act, plus

(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,

equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31, 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b) and (d).

(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i) has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by subsection (d).

This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for investment in qualified property.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year other than the year in which the property was placed in service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all such certifications immediately. For tax years ending after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(2) The term "qualified property" means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings and signs that are real property, but not including land or improvements to real property that are not a structural component of a building such as landscaping, sewer lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and other appurtenances;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (e);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; and

(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (e) or subsection (f).

(3) For purposes of this subsection (e), "manufacturing" means the material staging and production of tangible personal property by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or assembling which changes some existing material into new shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e), the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal property or services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible consumer goods or commodities.

(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law, the basis of qualified property shall not include costs incurred after December 31, 2008, except for costs incurred pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before December 31, 2008.

(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000, a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the credits to which the partnership is entitled under this subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. If the partnership makes that election, those credits shall be allocated among the partners in the partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits shall be irrevocable.

For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000, a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation, determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (f);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and

(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for the credit provided by this subsection (f) or subsection (e).

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in service during the taxable year in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in which they file employment records with the Illinois Department of Employment Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.

(g) Jobs Tax Credit; Enterprise Zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, and Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone.

(1) A taxpayer conducting a trade or business in an enterprise zone or a High Impact Business designated by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2006, in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone conducting a trade or business in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section in the amount of $500 per eligible employee hired to work in the zone during the taxable year.

(2) To qualify for the credit:

(A) the taxpayer must hire 5 or more eligible employees to work in an enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone during the taxable year;

(B) the taxpayer's total employment within the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone must increase by 5 or more full-time employees beyond the total employed in that zone at the end of the previous tax year for which a jobs tax credit under this Section was taken, or beyond the total employed by the taxpayer as of December 31, 1985, whichever is later; and

(C) the eligible employees must be employed 180 consecutive days in order to be deemed hired for purposes of this subsection.

(3) An "eligible employee" means an employee who is:

(A) Certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as "eligible for services" pursuant to regulations promulgated in accordance with Title II of the Job Training Partnership Act, Training Services for the Disadvantaged or Title III of the Job Training Partnership Act, Employment and Training Assistance for Dislocated Workers Program.

(B) Hired after the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone was designated or the trade or business was located in that zone, whichever is later.

(C) Employed in the enterprise zone, River Edge Redevelopment Zone, or Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone. An employee is employed in an enterprise zone or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone if his services are rendered there or it is the base of operations for the services performed.

(D) A full-time employee working 30 or more hours per week.

(4) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985 and prior to December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the eligible employees are hired. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year immediately following the tax year in which the eligible employees are hired. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit shall be applied first.

(5) The Department of Revenue shall promulgate such rules and regulations as may be deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this subsection (g).

(6) The credit shall be available for eligible employees hired on or after January 1, 1986.

(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.

(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified property which is placed in service by a Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the minimum investments in qualified property set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the taxable year in which such investments have been completed. The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum investment by a designated high impact business authorized under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable year in which the property is placed in service and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.

Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and reflect existing law.

(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including buildings and structural components of buildings;

(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property" as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not eligible for the credit provided by this subsection (h);

(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this Section.

(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes.

(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the date of such increase in basis.

(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have been allowed for the year in which credit for such property was originally allowed by eliminating such property from such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified property to the extent of such reduction.

(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).

(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first.

If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31, 1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.

(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31, 2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

(k) Research and development credit.

For tax years ending after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2004, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures" means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal credit for increasing research activities which would be allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in this State" means the excess of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period, "qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being made.

Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5 taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year ending on or after December 31, 2003.

If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from 2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest year will be applied first against the tax liability for the given year. If a tax liability for the given year still remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the credit is given was incurred.

No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1999.

(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.

(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i). This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the custodian of qualifying pupils exceed $500. In no event shall a credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability under this Act to less than zero. This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of 21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in this subsection.

"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition, book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is enrolled during the regular school year.

"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code, except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for the credit under this Section.

"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.

(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax credit.

(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit availability for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site.

(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax year that is available to offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of all or part of the remediation site for which the credit was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the chain of title for the site and provide written notice to the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).

(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site" shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act.

(iv) This subsection is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(Source: P.A. 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; 95-454, eff. 8-27-07.)

Section 90-22. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 14-110, 14-111, 14-152.1, 18-127, and 18-169 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/14-110) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-110)

Sec. 14-110. Alternative retirement annuity.

(a) Any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 55, and any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 25 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 50, regardless of whether the attainment of either of the specified ages occurs while the member is still in service, shall be entitled to receive at the option of the member, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, a retirement annuity computed as follows:

(i) for periods of service as a noncovered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 3% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 2 1/4% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of creditable service, 2 1/2% for each year above 10 years to and including 20 years of creditable service, and 2 3/4% for each year of creditable service above 20 years; and

(ii) for periods of eligible creditable service as a covered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 2.5% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 1.67% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of such service, 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of such service, 2.10% for each year of such service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.30% for each year in excess of 30.

Such annuity shall be subject to a maximum of 75% of final average compensation if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001 or to a maximum of 80% of final average compensation if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001.

These rates shall not be applicable to any service performed by a member as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service. Service as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service shall be subject to the rates and provisions of Section 14-108.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "eligible creditable service" means creditable service resulting from service in one or more of the following positions:

(1) State policeman;

(2) fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department;

(3) air pilot;

(4) special agent;

(5) investigator for the Secretary of State;

(6) conservation police officer;

(7) investigator for the Department of Revenue;

(7.5) investigator for the Office of Gaming Enforcement;

(8) security employee of the Department of Human Services;

(9) Central Management Services security police officer;

(10) security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(11) dangerous drugs investigator;

(12) investigator for the Department of State Police;

(13) investigator for the Office of the Attorney General;

(14) controlled substance inspector;

(15) investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor;

(16) Commerce Commission police officer;

(17) arson investigator;

(18) State highway maintenance worker.

A person employed in one of the positions specified in this subsection is entitled to eligible creditable service for service credit earned under this Article while undergoing the basic police training course approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, if completion of that training is required of persons serving in that position. For the purposes of this Code, service during the required basic police training course shall be deemed performance of the duties of the specified position, even though the person is not a sworn peace officer at the time of the training.

(c) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) The term "state policeman" includes any title or position in the Department of State Police that is held by an individual employed under the State Police Act.

(2) The term "fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department" includes all officers in such fire protection service including fire chiefs and assistant fire chiefs.

(3) The term "air pilot" includes any employee whose official job description on file in the Department of Central Management Services, or in the department by which he is employed if that department is not covered by the Personnel Code, states that his principal duty is the operation of aircraft, and who possesses a pilot's license; however, the change in this definition made by this amendatory Act of 1983 shall not operate to exclude any noncovered employee who was an "air pilot" for the purposes of this Section on January 1, 1984.

(4) The term "special agent" means any person who by reason of employment by the Division of Narcotic Control, the Bureau of Investigation or, after July 1, 1977, the Division of Criminal Investigation, the Division of Internal Investigation, the Division of Operations, or any other Division or organizational entity in the Department of State Police is vested by law with duties to maintain public order, investigate violations of the criminal law of this State, enforce the laws of this State, make arrests and recover property. The term "special agent" includes any title or position in the Department of State Police that is held by an individual employed under the State Police Act.

(5) The term "investigator for the Secretary of State" means any person employed by the Office of the Secretary of State and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

A person who became employed as an investigator for the Secretary of State between January 1, 1967 and December 31, 1975, and who has served as such until attainment of age 60, either continuously or with a single break in service of not more than 3 years duration, which break terminated before January 1, 1976, shall be entitled to have his retirement annuity calculated in accordance with subsection (a), notwithstanding that he has less than 20 years of credit for such service.

(6) The term "Conservation Police Officer" means any person employed by the Division of Law Enforcement of the Department of Natural Resources and vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "Conservation Police Officer" includes the positions of Chief Conservation Police Administrator and Assistant Conservation Police Administrator.

(7) The term "investigator for the Department of Revenue" means any person employed by the Department of Revenue and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(7.5) The term "investigator for the Office of Gaming Enforcement" means any person employed as such by the Office of Gaming Enforcement and vested with such peace officer duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(8) The term "security employee of the Department of Human Services" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services who (i) is employed at the Chester Mental Health Center and has daily contact with the residents thereof, (ii) is employed within a security unit at a facility operated by the Department and has daily contact with the residents of the security unit, (iii) is employed at a facility operated by the Department that includes a security unit and is regularly scheduled to work at least 50% of his or her working hours within that security unit, or (iv) is a mental health police officer. "Mental health police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services in a position pertaining to the Department's mental health and developmental disabilities functions who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. "Security unit" means that portion of a facility that is devoted to the care, containment, and treatment of persons committed to the Department of Human Services as sexually violent persons, persons unfit to stand trial, or persons not guilty by reason of insanity. With respect to past employment, references to the Department of Human Services include its predecessor, the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

The changes made to this subdivision (c)(8) by Public Act 92-14 apply to persons who retire on or after January 1, 2001, notwithstanding Section 1-103.1.

(9) "Central Management Services security police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Central Management Services who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(10) For a member who first became an employee under this Article before July 1, 2005, the term "security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice" means any employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or the former Department of Personnel, and any member or employee of the Prisoner Review Board, who has daily contact with inmates or youth by working within a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or who is a parole officer or an employee who has direct contact with committed persons in the performance of his or her job duties. For a member who first becomes an employee under this Article on or after July 1, 2005, the term means an employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice who is any of the following: (i) officially headquartered at a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, (ii) a parole officer, (iii) a member of the apprehension unit, (iv) a member of the intelligence unit, (v) a member of the sort team, or (vi) an investigator.

(11) The term "dangerous drugs investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Human Services.

(12) The term "investigator for the Department of State Police" means a person employed by the Department of State Police who is vested under Section 4 of the Narcotic Control Division Abolition Act with such law enforcement powers as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(13) "Investigator for the Office of the Attorney General" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the Attorney General and is vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. For the period before January 1, 1989, the term includes all persons who were employed as investigators by the Office of the Attorney General, without regard to social security status.

(14) "Controlled substance inspector" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Professional Regulation and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "controlled substance inspector" includes the Program Executive of Enforcement and the Assistant Program Executive of Enforcement.

(15) The term "investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor" means a person employed in that capacity on a full time basis under the authority of Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(16) "Commerce Commission police officer" means any person employed by the Illinois Commerce Commission who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(17) "Arson investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. A person who was employed as an arson investigator on January 1, 1995 and is no longer in service but not yet receiving a retirement annuity may convert his or her creditable service for employment as an arson investigator into eligible creditable service by paying to the System the difference between the employee contributions actually paid for that service and the amounts that would have been contributed if the applicant were contributing at the rate applicable to persons with the same social security status earning eligible creditable service on the date of application.

(18) The term "State highway maintenance worker" means a person who is either of the following:

(i) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois Department of Transportation in the position of highway maintainer, highway maintenance lead worker, highway maintenance lead/lead worker, heavy construction equipment operator, power shovel operator, or bridge mechanic; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the highways that form a part of the State highway system in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(ii) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority in the position of equipment operator/laborer H-4, equipment operator/laborer H-6, welder H-4, welder H-6, mechanical/electrical H-4, mechanical/electrical H-6, water/sewer H-4, water/sewer H-6, sign maker/hanger H-4, sign maker/hanger H-6, roadway lighting H-4, roadway lighting H-6, structural H-4, structural H-6, painter H-4, or painter H-6; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the Authority's tollways in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(d) A security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, and a security employee of the Department of Human Services who is not a mental health police officer, shall not be eligible for the alternative retirement annuity provided by this Section unless he or she meets the following minimum age and service requirements at the time of retirement:

(i) 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(ii) beginning January 1, 1987, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 54, or 24 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(iii) beginning January 1, 1988, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 53, or 23 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or </