SB2384 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB098 09455 MRW 41105 b

98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2013 and 2014
SB2384

Introduced 2/15/2013, by Sen. Antonio Muņoz

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Referred to as the Illinois Public Safety Act. Creates the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act. Allows State Police to issue a concealed carry license to a resident at least 21 who: (1) is eligible to possess firearms; (2) meets qualifications and training; and (3) has particularized need. $100 fee. License valid throughout the State subject to prohibitions for 4 years. Creates the State Police Firearm Services Fund for duties under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act (FOID), concealed carry licensing, and assault weapon registration. Amends the State Police Act to authorize emergency procurement necessary to implement these gun measures. Amends the FOID Act to require background checks for the transfer of firearms, except to family member, by operation of law, or gun show. Amends the Criminal Code of 2012. Bans possession, delivery, sale, and purchase of assault weapons, attachments, and .50 caliber rifles and cartridges, except possession of weapons registered in time provided. Provides exemptions. Prohibits delivery, sale, or purchase of large capacity ammunition feeding devices. Provides exemptions. Prohibits sale, delivery, or possession of a firearm to or by a person prohibited from possessing a firearm. Raises minimum imprisonment for gunrunning. Creates failure to report a lost or stolen firearm offense. Requires safe firearm storage where a minor (now under 14) or person prohibited from possessing a firearm may gain access. Requires firearm owners to keep records. Amends various Acts regarding suspension and revocation of FOID cards and concealed carry licenses. Makes conforming changes. Effective immediately.

CORRECTIONAL BUDGET AND IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning firearms, which may be referred to as the Illinois Public Safety Act.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Legislative findings; purpose and intent. The General Assembly finds and declares:

(1) Gun violence takes an extraordinary toll on families and communities in Illinois. In 2007, over 1,000 individuals died from firearm-related injuries in this State. In that same year, incidents of gun murders, gun suicides, and unintentional shootings in Illinois killed 150 children and adolescents ages 19 and younger.

(2) Existing federal firearm laws have proven insufficient to prevent dangerous individuals from obtaining, carrying, and using firearms in public places.

(3) The federal Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act allows unlicensed private sellers of firearms, who account for 40% of firearms sold in the U.S., to sell firearms without performing a background check on the prospective purchaser. Federal law does not require sellers to report sales of firearms to law enforcement. In fact, federal law does not even allow the Federal Bureau of Investigation to maintain records of approved gun purchasers for more than 24 hours. Federal law also provides no comprehensive system of firearm registration, and does not require firearm owners to report to law enforcement if their firearms are lost or stolen.

(4) Background checks performed by licensed dealers have proven to be extremely effective at keeping guns out of the hands of prohibited persons. Since the federal background check requirement was adopted in 1994, over 1.9 million criminals and other prohibited persons across the United States have been prohibited from buying guns. In 2010 alone, 70,972 gun transfers were denied using the federal background check system. Nevertheless, individuals prohibited by law from possessing guns can easily obtain them from private sellers. Universal background checks will help ensure that all persons buying guns are legally eligible to do so.

(5) Firearm registration laws, which require individuals to record their ownership or possession of a firearm with a designated law enforcement agency, and laws requiring sellers to report firearm sales to a centralized database help law enforcement quickly and reliably trace the source of firearms recovered from crime scenes, and retrieve firearms from persons who have become legally prohibited from possessing the firearms through criminal convictions or other prohibitions. These laws also discourage illegal firearm sales by creating accountability for gun owners, and help law enforcement return lost or stolen firearms to their rightful owners. Furthermore, information generated by firearm sales reporting and registration systems help protect law enforcement officers responding to an incident by providing them with information about firearms that may be present at the scene.

(6) States with some form of registration and licensing systems have greater success keeping firearms from being used in crimes than states without these systems. Illinois currently has a licensing system through the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, but no system of firearm registration.

(7) Laws requiring the reporting of lost or stolen firearms make gun owners more accountable for their firearms and are beneficial to law enforcement because these laws:

(A) help deter and prosecute gun traffickers and criminals who often falsely claim that a gun used in a crime that has been traced to them was lost or stolen in order to hide his or her involvement in the crime;

(B) help disarm persons ineligible to possess firearms by deterring a person in a prohibited category from falsely claiming that his or her firearm was lost or stolen; and

(C) help return lost or stolen firearms to their owners.

(8) Firearms carried or possessed in public places increase the risk of deaths and injuries by increasing the chances that firearms will be used to settle disputes, and increase the risk of accidental shootings in places where large numbers of people are gathered. The carrying or possession of firearms in public places also increase the risk that those firearms will be lost or stolen, and end up in the hands of criminals or other persons ineligible to possess firearms.

(9) Flawed application processes in existing state systems for licensing individuals to carry concealed weapons (CCW) have allowed numerous persons prohibited from possessing firearms to receive CCW permits. Analyses have found that numerous criminals including rapists, armed robbers, and individuals who had pleaded guilty or no contest to felonies, individuals with outstanding warrants, persons with active domestic violence injunctions against them, and 6 registered sex offenders had been issued CCW licenses under other state's permissive CCW laws.

(10) Research has shown that individuals issued CCW permits include not only persons who have committed violent crimes in the past, but also those who subsequently commit violent crimes. One study found that Texas CCW permit holders were arrested for weapons-related crimes at a rate 81% higher than that of the state's general adult population. According to the Violence Policy Center (VPC), between May 2007 and March 2012, individuals licensed to carry concealed weapons killed at least 11 law enforcement officers and 391 private citizens, including 31 shooters who killed themselves after an attack.

(11) It is the purpose and intent of the General Assembly to strengthen State firearm laws by:

(A) requiring all firearm purchasers to be subject to a background check;

(B) requiring all firearm dealers and ammunition sellers to obtain a state license and report gun sales;

(C) enact a comprehensive system of firearm registration;

(D) requiring the State Police to maintain records of gun sales;

(E) requiring gun owners to report all lost or stolen firearms; and

(F) licensing and restricting the carrying of firearms in public places.

(12) The General Assembly believes that these restrictions will:

(A) help keep guns out of the hands of felons, domestic abusers, the mentally ill, and other prohibited persons;

(B) discourage illegal gun sales and gun trafficking;

(C) help law enforcement solve gun crimes; and

(D) reduce gun deaths and injuries and increase public safety.

(13) The General Assembly further believes it is necessary to restrict the carrying of firearms in public places to individuals who have demonstrated a particularized need to carry a firearm in public, because they are exposed to unusual personal danger which is distinct from other members of the community.

Section 5. Short title. This Act may be referred to as the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act.

Section 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Concealed firearm" means a loaded or unloaded handgun carried on or about a person completely or mostly concealed from view of the public, or carried in a vehicle in such a way as it is concealed from view of the public.

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Director" means the Director of State Police.

"Fund" means the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

"Handgun" means any device which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas, or escape of gas that is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which this type of firearm can be assembled. "Handgun" does not include a stun gun or taser.

"License", "permit", "concealed carry license", or "concealed carry permit" means a license issued by the Department of State Police to carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm.

"Licensee" means a person issued a license to carry a concealed firearm.

"Peace officer" has the same meaning as provided in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Section 15. Issuance of license to carry a concealed firearm.

(a) The Department may issue a license to an applicant who:

(1) meets the qualifications of Section 20;

(2) has provided the application and documentation required in Section 25; and

(3) has submitted the required fees.

(b) The Department may issue a renewal, corrected, or duplicate license in accordance with this Act.

(c) A licensee shall possess his or her license at all times the licensee is carrying a concealed firearm unless:

(1) the person is carrying or possessing a concealed firearm and the person is on his or her land or in his or her abode or legal dwelling or in the abode or legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission;

(2) the person is authorized to carry a concealed firearm under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) the handgun is broken down in a non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(d) A licensee shall display the license upon the request of a peace officer or person designated to enforce the provisions of Section 55.

(e) An applicant shall sufficiently demonstrate, in the judgment of the Department that:

(1) he or she has a particularized need for the license;

(2) he or she is a responsible person; and

(3) the issuance of the license is in the public's interest.

(f) The Department shall make applications for a license available no later than 180 days after the effective date of this Act. Applications shall be available at Department locations, sheriff offices, on the Department's official website, and any other location designated by the Department.

(g) A completed application for a license shall be submitted to the Department with all accompanying materials and fees. The Department shall review the application and all accompanying materials, within 90 days of receipt. The Department shall promptly return an incomplete application to the applicant. An applicant for a license or renewal shall submit a $100 application or renewal fee for expenses related to receiving and reviewing applications, of which $75 shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The remaining $25 shall be deposited into the LEADS Maintenance Fund.

(h) The Department shall by rule develop a method of notifying the sheriff and municipal police department in the county and municipality where an applicant resides of the name, address, and date of birth of any person submitting an application for a license. The sheriff and municipal police department may submit to the Department an objection to an application, provided the objection is in writing and includes specific reasons for the objection. Any objection submitted by a sheriff or municipal police department, including reports, must be disclosed to the applicant unless disclosure would interfere with a criminal investigation, or as determined by the Department, disclosure may threaten the safety or welfare of the sheriff, municipal police department, or employees of the sheriff or municipal police department.

(i) Notwithstanding subsection (a), the Department may consider any objection or recommendation made by the sheriff or municipal police department and may determine the applicant is ineligible based solely on those objections. If the applicant is found by the Department to be ineligible, the Department shall deny the application and notify the applicant and the sheriff or municipal police department in writing, stating the grounds for denial. The notice of denial must inform the applicant that he or she may, within 90 days, appeal the denial and submit additional materials relevant to the grounds for denial. Upon receiving the additional documentation, the Department shall reconsider its decision and inform the applicant within 90 days of the result of the reconsideration. If upon reconsideration the Department denies the application, the applicant must be informed of the right to administrative review.

(j) A license shall be valid throughout the State for a period of 4 years.

(k) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section.

Section 20. Qualifications for a concealed carry applicant.

The Department shall not issue a license to an applicant completing an application in accordance with Section 25 of this Act unless the person has demonstrated by affidavit that he or she:

(1) is at least 21 years of age;

(2) has a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(3) resides within the State of Illinois;

(4) has not been convicted in this State or any other state of:

(A) a felony;

(B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person;

(C) a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence;

(D) a misdemeanor or any similar law in another jurisdiction involving the use, possession, or distribution of a controlled substance or cannabis within the 10 years preceding the date of the application; or

(E) a misdemeanor involving the manufacture, sale, carrying, possession, or use of a firearm, dangerous weapon, deadly weapon, or ammunition;

(5) does not chronically and habitually use or is addicted to cannabis or a controlled substance;

(6) has not been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years;

(7) has not been adjudicated as a mental defective;

(8) is not intellectually disabled;

(9) does not suffer from a mental condition that is of a nature that poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, others, or the community;

(10) is not free on any form of bond or pretrial release, other than a traffic offense or other non-disqualifying act, and has no outstanding warrants in this State or any other state;

(11) does not chronically and habitually abuse alcoholic beverages as evidenced by the applicant having 2 or more convictions for violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or similar provision of a local ordinance within 5 years preceding the date of the application, or if the applicant has elected treatment under the supervision of a licensed program in accordance with the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act or similar laws of any other state, within 5 years preceding the date of the application;

(12) has completed firearms training and any educational component required in Section 70 of this Act;

(13) possesses the same powers of eyesight as required for a driver's license under Section 6-109 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(14) has not been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or similar law in another jurisdiction, for an offense which, if committed by an adult would disqualify the adult for a license under this Section; and

(15) has not within the proceeding 5 years, been the respondent to an order of protection or civil stalking no contact order, or 2 or more emergency orders of protection, or any similar law in another jurisdiction.

Section 25. Contents of the application.

(a) The application shall be in writing, under oath or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the Department. Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.". The application shall be accompanied by the documentation required in this Section and all applicable fees.

(b) The application shall contain the following:

(1) the applicant's name, current address, home and business telephone numbers, cell phone numbers, gender, date and year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color, eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has used or identified with, and any address at which the applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 5 years preceding the date of the application;

(2) the present business or occupation and any business or occupation in which the applicant has engaged during the 5-year period immediately preceding the application and the addresses of the business or place of employment;

(3) the applicant's driver's license or state identification card number and the last 4 digits of the applicant's social security number;

(4) proof that the applicant has completed firearms training and any educational component required in Section 70 of this Act;

(5) proof that the applicant is a resident of this State and has been a resident for at least the previous 30 days;

(6) whether the federal government or a governmental entity in any state or subdivision of any state has denied or revoked the applicant's license, permit, registration, or certificate pertaining to any firearm, and if so, the jurisdiction, the identifying number of the license, permit, registration, or certificate, the reason for denial or revocation, and the date of denial or revocation;

(7) whether the applicant has failed a drug test within the preceding 5 years, and if so, the provider of the test, the specific substance involved, and date of the test;

(8) whether the applicant has ever been prohibited by law from purchasing, possessing, or carrying a firearm, and if so, the jurisdiction, the date, and the reason for the prohibition;

(9) whether the applicant has been suspended or expelled from a post-secondary educational institution, such as a college or university, because of suspected mental illness or violent behavior, and if so, the name of the school, the date, and the reason for the suspension or expulsion;

(10) a description of any incident in which the applicant threatened, injured, or killed any person, if a firearm was involved or the incident occurred during the preceding 5 years and the police were involved, including, for each incident, the date, place, time, circumstances, and the names of any persons and police agencies involved;

(11) a waiver of privacy and confidentiality rights and privileges of the applicant under all federal and State laws, including those governing access to juvenile court, criminal justice, psychological or psychiatric records, or records relating to the applicant's history of institutionalization, and an affirmative request that any person having custody of this record provide it or information concerning it to the Department;

(12) an affirmation that the applicant possesses a currently valid Illinois Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(13) an affirmation that the applicant has never been convicted in this State or any other state of:

(A) a felony;

(B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person;

(C) a misdemeanor involving the use, possession, or distribution of a controlled substance or cannabis within the 10 years preceding the date of the application; or

(D) a misdemeanor involving the manufacture, sale, carrying, possession, or use of a firearm, dangerous weapon, deadly weapon, or ammunition;

(14) an explanation of the applicant's particularized need for and intended use of the firearm, including descriptions of any incident in which the applicant has been threatened or injured, or copies of police reports or restraining orders;

(15) the make, model, manufacturer's name, caliber or gauge, and serial number of each handgun to be carried under the license;

(16) written agreement that, if the person is approached by a peace officer while carrying a concealed firearm under the license, the person will immediately inform the officer that he or she is in possession of a firearm and a license to carry a concealed firearm, and will submit to a pat down search and allow the officer to take possession of the firearm for the duration of the encounter;

(17) written consent to submit to one or more field sobriety or chemical tests to determine the presence of alcohol or drugs, at any point when the person is carrying a concealed firearm and the person is approached by a peace officer who has a reasonable suspicion that the person is under the influence of alcohol or a controlled substance;

(18) proof that the applicant possesses the same powers of eyesight as required for a driver's license under Section 6-109 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and if the applicant does not possess a current Illinois driver's license, the applicant may present a current optometrist's or ophthalmologist's statement certifying the vision reading obtained from the applicant; and

(19) any other information that the Department finds necessary to process an application.

(c) A person applying for a license shall provide a clean head and shoulder color photograph in a size specified by the Department that was taken within the 30 days preceding the date of the application. The applicant shall consent to the Department reviewing and using the applicant's digital driver's license or Illinois Identification card photograph and signature, if available. The Secretary of State shall allow the Department access to the photograph and signature for the purpose of identifying the applicant and issuing the applicant a license.

(d) A person applying for a license shall submit with the application a full set of legible fingerprints. Fingerprinting may be administered by the Department or any other federal, State, county, or municipal law enforcement agency. The Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, through a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, any record of convictions, forever and hereafter, until expunged. The Department shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the check, which fee shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund and must not exceed the cost of the inquiry. The Department shall accept a hard copy or electronic version of fingerprints.

(e) A person applying for a license shall submit a photocopy of a certificate or other evidence of completion of a course to show compliance with Section 70 of this Act.

(f) The Department is authorized to establish a system for electronically submitting applications, including applications for renewal or a replacement license.

(g) Each application shall contain the following statement: "NOTICE: A person who has been issued a concealed carry license by the Department of State Police and who is in possession of a concealed and loaded firearm shall be deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol or drug content of the person's blood, if a police officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that the licensee has consumed any amount of an alcoholic beverage or drugs based upon evidence of the licensee's physical condition or other first hand knowledge of the police officer. The test or tests shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer.". The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which tests shall be administered. A urine test may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered.

Section 30. Investigation of an applicant.

(a) The Department shall complete a background check on an applicant for a license to carry a concealed firearm to ensure compliance with the requirements of this Act and all federal, state, and local laws. The background check shall include a search of each of the following:

(1) The National Instant Criminal Background Check System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(2) All available state and local criminal history record information files, including records of juvenile adjudications.

(3) All available federal, state, and local records regarding wanted persons.

(4) All available federal, state, and local records of domestic violence restraining and protective orders.

(5) All available federal, state, and local records identifying persons who are unlawful users of or addicted to any controlled substance as defined in Section 802 of Title 21 of the United States Code.

(6) The files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities.

(7) All other available files of any federal, state, and local agency and other private or public entity in any jurisdiction likely to contain information relevant to whether the applicant is prohibited from purchasing or possessing a firearm under federal, state, or local law.

(b) As part of its investigation, the Department may, at its discretion, conduct interviews of the applicant, any of the applicant's current or former family or household members, co-workers, employers, neighbors, and any other member of the public who may have information relevant to the application.

(c) In addition to the information in subsections (a) and (b), the Department may, at its discretion, require the applicant, at the applicant's expense, to undergo a mental health examination by a licensed psychiatrist or psychologist or any other tests, interviews, or examinations that it determines to be appropriate.

Section 35. Database of applicants and licenses.

(a) Within 2 years of the effective date of this Act, the Department shall make available and maintain a database of applicants for a concealed carry license. The database shall be available to all law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General. Members and staff of the judiciary may access the database for the purpose of determining whether to confiscate a license or to ensure compliance with this Act or any other law. The database shall be searchable and provide all information included in the application, a photo of the applicant or licensee, and any information related to violations of this Act. Individual law enforcement agencies shall not maintain a separate, searchable database of applicants and licensees containing information included in the Department's database.

(b) The Department may provide on its website and upon request under the Freedom of Information Act statistical information about the number of licenses issued by county, age, race, or gender. These statistics shall be updated quarterly.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (b), applications and information in the database shall be confidential and exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(d) The Department may answer requests to confirm or deny whether a person has been issued a license as part of inquiries dealing with a criminal investigation. Individual law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, and judicial staff shall sign a confidentiality agreement, prepared by the Department, prior to receiving access to this information. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney, or member or staff of the judiciary, other than the Department, shall provide any information to a requester not entitled to it by law, except as required or necessary for the conduct of a criminal investigation.

Section 40. Suspension or revocation of license.

(a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a license based on the criteria in Section 20 of this Act or the licensee no longer possesses a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection under Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is issued against a licensee. The license shall be suspended for the duration of the order or until the order is terminated by a court and the Department shall not reissue or renew a license for the duration of the order or until the order is terminated. If an order of protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license to the court at the time the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency or to the entity designated to serve process at the time the licensee is served the order. The court, law enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order shall transmit the license to the Department.

(c) The Department may temporarily or permanently suspend a license for a violation of Section 55 of this Act in accordance with subsection (j) of Section 55.

(d) A license shall be invalid upon expiration of the license, unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the license. A person who fails to renew his or her application within 6 months after its expiration must reapply for a new license and pay the fee for a new application.

(e) The Department may suspend a license if a licensee fails to submit a change of address or name or fails to report a lost, destroyed, or stolen license to the Department within 30 days.

(f) Every person whose concealed carry license is suspended or revoked shall immediately return their concealed carry license to the Department of State Police. Failure to return the license is a business offense with a minimum fine of $100. Any person found carrying a concealed firearm after suspension or revocation of his or her license shall be subject to prosecution under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012 for unlawful use of weapons.

Section 45. Renewal of license.

(a) Not later than 120 days before the expiration of any license issued under this Act, the Department shall notify the licensee in writing of the expiration and furnish an application for renewal of the license or make the application available on-line.

(b) Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed renewal application. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 25, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints. Each applicant for a renewal shall submit, on a form prescribed by the Department, proof that the applicant has:

(1) successfully completed an equivalent range exercise as prescribed in Section 70 and certified to by an instructor qualified under this Act or a certified law enforcement instructor, or

(2) successfully completed firearm instructor training under Section 75.

(c) The Department shall make the range recertification form available on its website or as part of a renewal application.

Section 50. Change of address; change of name; lost, destroyed, or stolen licenses.

(a) A licensee shall notify the Department within 30 days of moving or changing a residence or any change of name, and upon the discovery of the loss or destruction of a license.

(b) If a licensee changes residence within this State or changes his or her name, the licensee shall request a new license. The licensee shall submit a $50 fee, a notarized statement that the licensee has changed residence or his or her name, and a photograph as required in Section 25 of this Act. The statement must include the prior and current address or name and the date the applicant moved or changed his or her name.

(c) A lost, destroyed, or stolen license shall be invalid. To request a new license, the licensee shall submit:

(1) a $50 fee;

(2) a notarized statement that the licensee no longer possesses the license and that it was lost, destroyed, or stolen;

(3) a copy of a police report stating that the license was lost, destroyed, or stolen; and

(4) a photograph as required in Section 25 of this Act.

Section 55. Carry restrictions.

(a) A license issued under this Act shall not authorize the licensee to knowingly carry a concealed firearm into:

(1) Any building or office under the control of the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer.

(2) Any building or office under the control of the General Assembly or any of its support service agencies, including the portion of a building in which a committee of the General Assembly convenes for the purpose of conducting meetings of committees, joint committees, or legislative commissions.

(3) Any courthouse or building occupied in whole or in part by the circuit court, appellate court, or Supreme Court or a room designated as a courtroom for court proceedings by any of these courts.

(4) Any meeting of the governing body of a unit of local government or special district.

(5) Any establishment licensed to dispense alcoholic beverages for consumption on the premises.

(6) Any area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property.

(7) Any place where the carrying of a firearm is prohibited by federal law.

(8) Any elementary or secondary school.

(9) Any portion of a building used as a child care facility without the consent of the manager. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the operator of a child care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm or license, so long as the firearm is stored as provided in Section 24-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(10) Any gaming facility licensed under the Riverboat Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975.

(11) Any gated area of an amusement park.

(12) Any stadium, arena, or any elementary or secondary school, collegiate, or professional sporting event.

(13) Any hospital or mental health facility.

(14) Any community college, college, or university campus without consent of the school authorities. School authorities shall inform the appropriate law enforcement agency and any law enforcement personnel on site of this consent.

(15) Any library or museum.

(16) Any police, sheriff, or State Police office or station without the consent of the chief law enforcement officer in charge of that office or station.

(17) Any adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison, or jail.

(18) Any polling place on any election day.

(19) Any street fair or festival, farmer's market, carnival, concert, protest, parade, or other temporary special event, that is conducted primarily outdoors on property open to the public, and that requires the issuance of a permit from the city or county where it occurs, unless the city or county specifically authorizes licensees to carry concealed firearms at the event.

(20) Any private property without the express permission of the owner, manager, operator, or individual with the authority to control activities in that place, as evidenced by signage. This provision shall apply to private property of any kind, including private residences and places of business, regardless of whether they are open or closed to members of the public.

(21) Any building owned, leased, or controlled by a municipality or any building or property owned, leased or controlled by a school district unless authorized by a majority vote of members of its governing board. Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a concealed firearm on any sidewalk, on any highway or roadway, in any public restroom, or in the licensee's own residence.

(22) Any shopping mall or strip mall property, which includes all enclosed public walkways or hall areas that serve to connect retail or professional establishments and its attached common areas, excluding the parking lot.

(b) Any person licensed under this Act who is prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm into a building or on the premises as specified in subsection (a) shall be permitted to store that handgun or ammunition out of plain sight in a locked trunk, or if it is not in a trunk, in a locked vehicle, so long as the firearm is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms. A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that touches or crosses any of the premises specified in subsection (a) if the handgun is carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of law.

(c) A license to carry a concealed firearm issued or renewed under this Act may include any additional reasonable restrictions or conditions which the Department deems warranted, including restrictions as to the time, place, manner, and circumstances under which the person may carry a firearm.

(d) If a law enforcement officer initiates an investigative stop, including but not limited to a traffic stop, of a licensee who is carrying a concealed firearm, the licensee shall immediately disclose to the officer that he or she is in possession of a concealed firearm under this Act. The licensee shall comply with all lawful orders and directions from the officer. For the safety of the officer and the public, the officer may conduct a pat down of the licensee and take possession of the firearm for the duration of the encounter.

(e) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while under the influence of any illegal drug, controlled substance, or hallucinogenic substance. The licensee shall not be under the influence of any prescription medication that causes impairment. The licensee shall not consume alcoholic beverages to the extent that it results in impairment or intoxication.

(f) Signs stating that the carrying of a concealed firearm is prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at every entrance of a building or premises specified in subsection (a) or designated in accordance with subsection (b) or (c). The Department shall adopt rules for standardized signs to be used under this subsection.

(g) A licensee shall only carry a concealed firearm similar to what they were trained with under Section 70.

(h) A licensee shall not engage in acts in an unreasonable manner so as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace; as evidenced by a signed complaint and arrest for disorderly conduct under Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(i) A negligent or reckless violation of subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) committed knowingly is a Class A misdemeanor. In addition to any other fees or court costs for a violation of subsection (d), the court may require a licensee to pay a $150 fee. For the purposes of this subsection, "negligent", "reckless", and "knowingly" has the meaning as provided in Article 4 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(j) The Department may suspend a license for up to 180 days for a first violation of subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e). The Department may suspend a license for up to one year for a second violation of subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e). The Department shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation of subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e).

Section 60. Immunity for employees and agents.

The Department of State Police shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from alleged wrongful or improper granting, renewing, suspending, revoking, or failure to suspend or revoke licenses issued under this Act, except for willful or wanton misconduct. The office of the county sheriff, a municipal police department, and any employees or agents of the sheriff or municipal police department shall not be liable for submitting specific or articulable reasons why an applicant should be denied a license, unless the objection contains false, malicious, or inaccurate information and the objection constituted willful and wanton misconduct.

Section 65. Fees; report.

(a) Fees collected under this Act by the Department and deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund and LEADS Maintenance Fund shall be appropriated for administration of this Act.

(b) Fees shall be:

(1) New license: $100.

(2) Renewal of license: $100.

(3) Duplicate license for lost, destroyed, or stolen: $50.

(4) Corrected license for address or name change: $50.

(c) By March 1 of each year, the Department shall submit a statistical report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives indicating the number of licenses issued, revoked, suspended, denied, and issued after appeal since the last report and in total and also the number of licenses currently valid.

(d) The Secretary of State shall conduct a study to determine the cost and feasibility of creating a method of adding an identifiable code, background, or other means to show that an individual has been issued a concealed carry license by the Department on the person's driver's license.

Section 70. Applicant training.

(a) The Department shall, by rule, approve or disapprove training programs for the firearm training course, which shall be taught by a qualified instructor. Qualifications for qualified firearm instructors shall be set by rule. The firearm training course shall be conducted by entities, by a qualified instructor, or by an agency licensed under this Act, provided the course is approved by the Department.

(b) Applicant training courses shall not be open to anyone under the age of 18 and no certificate of completion shall be issued to persons under 21 years of age.

(c) Instructors shall maintain all records of student performance for not less than 5 years.

(d) The Department shall make materials for applicant training available to qualified instructors online through the Department's website or Internet.

(e) For purposes of this Section, successful completion of qualified firearm instructors training under Section 75 shall meet the training requirements of this Section.

(f) Applicants shall be trained and qualify on any firearm they seek to carry concealed.

(g) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section.

Section 75. Firearm instructor training.

(a) The Department shall, by rule, approve or disapprove qualified firearm instructors for the firearm training course. Qualifications for qualified firearm instructors shall be set by rule. The firearm training course shall be conducted by entities, by a licensee, or by an agency licensed by this Act, provided the course is approved by the Department.

(b) Persons who are not qualified firearm instructors shall not teach applicant training courses.

(c) Persons who are not qualified firearm instructors shall not advertise or otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their students to meet the requirements to receive a license under this Act.

(d) Persons who are not certified instructor trainers shall not teach instructor qualification courses.

(e) Persons wishing to become qualified firearm instructors shall:

(1) be at least 21 years of age;

(2) be a citizen of the United States; and

(3) be a resident of Illinois.

(f) Persons wishing to become instructor trainers, in addition to the requirements of subsection (e) of this Section, shall:

(1) possess a high school diploma or GED certificate; and

(2) have at least one of the following valid firearm instructor certifications:

(A) certification from a firearm instructor's course offered by a State or federal governmental agency; or

(B) a similar firearm instructor qualifying course, approved by the Director or his or her designee.

(g) An applicant:

(1) shall agree to background checks; and

(2) may be disqualified from taking firearm instructor training, or have his or her instructor qualification revoked, if the applicant:

(A) does not meet the requirements of this Act to possess a license;

(B) provides false or misleading information on the application; or

(C) has had a prior instructor qualification revoked by the Department or other issuing body.

(h) The Department shall post on its website a list of all qualified firearm instructors by county.

(i) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Section.

Section 80. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names, affidavit, records, and information of people who have:

(1) applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; .

(2) provided a registration affidavit to the Department of State Police for a weapon, attachment, or device under Section 24-1.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) been issued a concealed carry license by the Department of State Police under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act, unless otherwise authorized by that Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 85. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-300 and by adding Section 2605-595 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-300) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-300. Records; crime laboratories; personnel. To do the following:

(1) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal statistics for the State.

(2) Be a central repository for criminal history record information.

(3) Procure and file for record information that is necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal justice.

(4) Procure and file for record copies of fingerprints that may be required by law.

(5) Establish general and field crime laboratories.

(6) Register and file for record information that may be required by law for the issuance of firearm owner's identification cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act.

(7) Employ polygraph operators, laboratory technicians, and other specially qualified persons to aid in the identification of criminal activity.

(8) Undertake other identification, information, laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that may be required by law.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-130, eff. 1-1-98; 90-372, eff. 7-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-00; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 90-793, eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-595 new)

Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act and Section 24-1.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act, and Section 24-1.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, including the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act, and support for investigations required under these Acts and law.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(d) The State Police Firearm Services Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

Section 90. The State Police Act is amended by adding Section 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/25 new)

Sec. 25. Emergency procurement authorized.

In order to comply with recent court rulings regarding concealed carry in Illinois and the assault weapons ban and consumer protection provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, any procurements necessary for the implementation of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be eligible for emergency procurement.

Section 95. The State Finance Act is amended by adding Section 5.826 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.826 new)

Sec. 5.826. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/5.206 rep.)

Section 97. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Section 5.206.

Section 100. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 2, 3, 5, 9, 12, and 13.2 and by adding Section 5.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Has been adjudicated as a mental defective" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that a person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) is a danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Firearm ammunition feeding device" means a magazine, clip, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device, manufactured with a capacity to accept firearm ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-2)

Sec. 2. Firearm Owner's Identification Card required; exceptions.

(a) (1) No person may acquire or possess any firearm, stun gun, or taser within this State without having in his or her possession a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act.

(2) No person may acquire or possess firearm ammunition or a firearm ammunition feeding device within this State without having in his or her possession a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act.

(b) The provisions of this Section regarding the possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to:

(1) United States Marshals, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(2) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(3) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(4) Members of bona fide veterans organizations which receive firearms directly from the armed forces of the United States, while using the firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;

(5) Nonresident hunters during hunting season, with valid nonresident hunting licenses and while in an area where hunting is permitted; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(6) Those hunters exempt from obtaining a hunting license who are required to submit their Firearm Owner's Identification Card when hunting on Department of Natural Resources owned or managed sites;

(7) Nonresidents while on a firing or shooting range recognized by the Department of State Police; however, these persons must at all other times and in all other places have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(8) Nonresidents while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Department of State Police; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(9) Nonresidents whose firearms are unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(10) Nonresidents who are currently licensed or registered to possess a firearm in their resident state;

(11) Unemancipated minors while in the custody and immediate control of their parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor if the parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(12) Color guards of bona fide veterans organizations or members of bona fide American Legion bands while using firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;

(13) Nonresident hunters whose state of residence does not require them to be licensed or registered to possess a firearm and only during hunting season, with valid hunting licenses, while accompanied by, and using a firearm owned by, a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and while in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled, but in no instance upon sites owned or managed by the Department of Natural Resources;

(14) Resident hunters who are properly authorized to hunt and, while accompanied by a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, hunt in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled;

(15) A person who is otherwise eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act and is under the direct supervision of a holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is 21 years of age or older while the person is on a firing or shooting range or is a participant in a firearms safety and training course recognized by a law enforcement agency or a national, statewide shooting sports organization; and

(16) Competitive shooting athletes whose competition firearms are sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athletes' training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the acquisition and possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to law enforcement officials of this or any other jurisdiction, while engaged in the operation of their official duties.

(d) Any person who becomes a resident of this State, who is not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm or firearm ammunition, shall not be required to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to possess firearms or firearms ammunition until 60 calendar days after he or she obtains an Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3)

Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Department of State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

(a-10) Any person who is not a federally licensed importer, manufacturer, or dealer and who desires to sell or transfer a firearm to another person, who is not a federally licensed importer, manufacturer, or dealer, shall do so only at the place of business of a federally licensed firearm dealer. The federally licensed firearm dealer shall conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act and follow all other applicable federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the seller of the firearm. The purchaser or transferee may be required by the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to exceed $10 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as compensation for performing the functions required under this subsection, plus the applicable fees authorized by Section 3.1.

The provisions of this subsection (a-10) do not apply to:

(1) transfers to the transferor's husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;

(2) transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation of law or a court order; or

(3) transfers on the grounds of a gun show.

(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Such record shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number is a petty offense.

(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1135, eff. 12-4-12.)

(430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)

Sec. 5. The Department of State Police shall either approve or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are received, and every applicant found qualified under pursuant to Section 8 of this Act by the Department shall be entitled to a Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $18 $10 fee. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States is exempt from the application fee. $6 of each fee derived from the issuance of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, or renewals thereof, shall be deposited in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury; $1 of the such fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and $11 $3 of the such fee shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund. Firearm Owner's Notification Fund. Monies in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund shall be used exclusively to pay for the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under Section 13.2 of this Act. Excess monies in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund shall be used to ensure the prompt and efficient processing of applications received under Section 4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 96-91, eff. 7-27-09.)

(430 ILCS 65/5.1 new)

Sec. 5.1. State Police Firearm Services Fund. All moneys remaining in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be transferred into the State Police Firearm Services Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to be expended by the Department of State Police, for the purposes specified in this Act and Section 2605-595 of the Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(430 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-9)

Sec. 9.

(a) Every person whose application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, and every holder of such a Card whose Card is revoked or seized, shall receive a written notice from the Department of State Police stating specifically the grounds upon which his application has been denied or upon which his Identification Card has been revoked.

(b) Any person who has received notice from the Department of State Police stating his or her card is revoked shall immediately return the card to the Department of State Police. Failure to return his or her card shall be a business offense with a minimum fine of $100. After being served notice, persons who use their revoked card to purchase any firearm, firearm ammunition, or firearm ammunition feeding device shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/12) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-12)

Sec. 12. The provisions of this Act shall not apply to the passing or transfer of any firearm or firearm ammunition upon the death of the owner thereof to his or her heir or legatee or to the passing or transfer of any firearm or firearm ammunition to a person incident to any legal proceeding or action until 60 days after the such passing or transfer, if the heir, legatee, or person is eligible for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or not otherwise prohibited from the possession of firearms or firearm ammunition. If the heir, legatee, or person is ineligible or prohibited from the possession of firearms or firearm ammunition, he or she must immediately transfer the firearm or firearm ammunition to a person with a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2600.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.2)

Sec. 13.2. The Department of State Police shall, 60 days prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, forward by first class mail to each person whose card is to expire a notification of the expiration of the card and an application which may be used to apply for renewal of the card. It is the obligation of the holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to notify the Department of State Police of any address change since the issuance of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card. Whenever any person moves from the residence address named on his or her card, the person shall within 21 calendar days thereafter notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of his or her old and new residence addresses and the card number held by him or her. Any person whose legal name has changed from the name on the card that he or she has been previously issued must apply for a corrected card within 30 calendar days after the change. The cost for a corrected card shall be $5 which shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund Firearm Owner's Notification Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 105. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 21-6, 24-1, 24-1.6, 24-2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3A, and 24-9 and by adding Sections 24-1.9, 24-1.10, and 24-4.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/21-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 21-6)

Sec. 21-6. Unauthorized Possession or Storage of Weapons.

(a) Whoever possesses or stores any weapon enumerated in Section 33A-1 in any building or on land supported in whole or in part with public funds or in any building on such land without prior written permission from the chief security officer for such land or building commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) The chief security officer must grant any reasonable request for permission under paragraph (a).

(c) This Section shall not apply to a person who has been issued a concealed carry license and is acting lawfully under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-685, eff. 6-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm possessed was uncased, loaded and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B) the firearm possessed was uncased, unloaded and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had a order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1107, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.9 new)

Sec. 24-1.9. Possession, delivery, sale, and purchase of assault weapons, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 caliber cartridges.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

(1) "Assault weapon" means:

(A) any rifle which has a belt fed ammunition system or which has a detachable magazine capable of holding more than 10 rounds of ammunition;

(B) a semi-automatic rifle that has the ability to accept a detachable magazine and has any of the following:

(i) a folding or telescoping stock; or

(ii) a shroud that is attached to, or partially or completely encircles the barrel, and that permits the shooter to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned;

(C) a semi-automatic pistol that has the ability to accept a detachable magazine and has any of the following:

(i) a folding or telescoping stock;

(ii) a shroud that is attached to, or partially or completely encircles the barrel, and that permits the shooter to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned; or

(iii) a manufactured weight of 50 ounces or more when the pistol is unloaded.

(D) a semi-automatic rifle with a fixed magazine that has the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds of ammunition;

(E) a semi-automatic shotgun that has:

(i) a folding or telescoping stock; and

(ii) contains its ammunition in a revolving cylinder; or

(iii) a fixed magazine capacity in excess of 5 rounds of ammunition, except as may be authorized under the Wildlife Code and excluding magazine extensions during the snow geese conservation order season; or

(iv) an ability to accept a detachable magazine of more than 5 rounds of ammunition.

"Assault weapon" does not include:

(A) any firearm that:

(i) is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action;

(ii) is an unserviceable firearm or has been made permanently inoperable;

(iii) is an antique firearm;

(iv) uses rimfire ammunition or cartridges; or

(iv) has been excluded as an assault weapon in a Department of Natural Resources rule. The Department of Natural Resources shall have the authority to adopt rules to further define exclusions of assault weapon types under this Section, provided the make, model, and caliber of the firearm excluded has a viable application to hunting game and conforms to accepted hunting principles of fair chase.

(B) any air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

For the purposes of this Section, a firearm is considered to have the ability to accept a detachable magazine unless the magazine or ammunition feeding device can only be removed through disassembly of the firearm action.

(2) "Assault weapon attachment" means any device capable of being attached to a firearm that is specifically designed for making or converting a firearm into any of the firearms listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a).

(3) "Antique firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in 18 U.S.C. 921 (a)(16).

(4) ".50 caliber rifle" means a centerfire rifle capable of firing a .50 caliber cartridge. The term does not include any antique firearm, any shotgun including a shotgun that has a rifle barrel, or any muzzle-loader which uses black powder for hunting or historical re-enactments.

(5) ".50 caliber cartridge" means a cartridge in .50 BMG caliber, either by designation or actual measurement, that is capable of being fired from a centerfire rifle. The term ".50 caliber cartridge" does not include any memorabilia or display item that is filled with a permanent inert substance or that is otherwise permanently altered in a manner that prevents ready modification for use as live ammunition or shotgun ammunition with a caliber measurement that is equal to or greater than .50 caliber.

(6) "Locking mechanism" means secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or a box or container capable of containing the firearm and that can be securely locked.

(b) The Department of State Police shall take all steps necessary to carry out the requirements of this Section within 180 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (d), (e), (f), and (h) of this Section, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly deliver, sell, or purchase or cause to be delivered, sold, or purchased or cause to be possessed by another, an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(d) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (e), (f), and (h) of this Section, 300 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly possess an assault weapon, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(e) This Section does not apply to a person who possessed an assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle prohibited by subsection (d) of this Section before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, provided the person has provided in a registration affidavit, under oath or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police on or after 180 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly but within 300 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly:

(1) his or her name;

(2) date of birth;

(3) Firearm Owner's Identification Card number;

(4) the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the weapon; and

(5) proof of a locking mechanism that properly fits the weapon. The affidavit shall include a statement that the weapon is owned by the person submitting the affidavit and that he or she owns a locking mechanism for the weapon.

The affidavit form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012."

Beginning 300 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the person may transfer the assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the weapon except to an heir, the person shall notify the Department of State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the weapon is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, complete an affidavit and pay the required registration fee under this Section. A person to whom the weapon is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

(f) This Section does not apply to a peace officer who has retired in good standing from a law enforcement agency of this State and who possesses an assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle prohibited by subsection (d) of this Section, if the weapon was lawfully possessed and acquired by the peace officer prior to retirement and the retired peace officer within 30 days of retirement registers the weapon with the Department of State Police and pays the required registration fee under this Section. The retired peace officer shall comply with the transfer and notification requirements in subsection (e) of this Section.

(g) For the purpose of registration required under subsections (e) and (f) of this Section, the Department of State Police shall assess a registration fee of $25 per person to the owner of an assault weapon and $25 per person to the owner of a .50 caliber rifle. The fees shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(h) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Acquisition and possession by a local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(4) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duties or while traveling to or from their place of duty.

(5) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and persons employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who have completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while in the performance of their official duties.

(6) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons, attachments, or ammunition to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of this subsection (h) to possess those items.

(7) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons, attachments, or ammunition for sale or transfer in another state.

(8) Possession of any firearm if that firearm is sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee and by USA Shooting, the national governing body for international shooting competition in the United States, but only when the firearm is in the actual possession of an Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach for the purpose of storage, transporting to and from Olympic target shooting practice or events if the firearm is broken down in a non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms, and when the Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach is engaging in those practices or events. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "firearm" is as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(9) Any non-resident who transports, within 24 hours, a weapon for any lawful purpose from any place where he or she may lawfully possess and carry that weapon to any other place where he or she may lawfully possess and carry that weapon if, during the transportation the weapon is unloaded, and neither the weapon nor any ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is directly accessible from the passenger compartment of the transporting vehicle. Provided that, in the case of a vehicle without a compartment separate from the driver's compartment the weapon or ammunition shall be contained in a locked container other than the glove compartment or console.

(10) Possession of a weapon at events taking place at the World Shooting and Recreational Complex at Sparta, only while engaged in the legal use of this weapon, or while traveling to or from this location if the weapon is broken down in a non-functioning state, or is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(11) Possession of a weapon only for hunting use expressly permitted under the Wildlife Code, or while traveling to or from a location authorized for this hunting use under the Wildlife Code if the weapon is broken down in a non-functioning state, or is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(12) The manufacture, transportation, possession, sale, or rental of blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, or the weapon's respective attachments, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted to acquire and possess these weapons or attachments for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

(i) Sentence.

(1) A person who knowingly delivers, sells, purchases, or possesses or causes to be delivered, sold, purchased, or possessed an assault weapon in violation of this Section commits a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation or for the possession or delivery of 2 or more of these weapons at the same time.

(2) A person who knowingly delivers, sells, purchases, or possesses or causes to be delivered, sold, purchased, or possessed in violation of this Section an assault weapon attachment commits a Class 4 felony for a first violation and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(3) A person who knowingly delivers, sells, purchases, or possesses or causes to be delivered, sold, purchased, or possessed in violation of this Section a .50 caliber rifle commits a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation or for the possession or delivery of 2 or more of these weapons at the same time.

(4) A person who knowingly delivers, sells, purchases, or possesses or causes to be delivered, sold, purchased, or possessed in violation of this Section a .50 caliber cartridge commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(5) Any other violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.10 new)

Sec. 24-1.10. Delivery or sale of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means:

(1) a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device that has a capacity of, or that can be readily restored or converted to accept, more than 10 rounds of ammunition; or

(2) any combination of parts from which a device described in paragraph (1) can be assembled.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include a tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm or any device that has been made permanently inoperable.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly deliver, sell, purchase, or cause to be delivered, sold, or purchased a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) A local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(4) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, for the performance of their official duties.

(5) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and persons employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who have completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission for the performance of their official duties.

(6) Sale of large capacity ammunition feeding devices to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of this subsection (c) to possess those devices.

(7) Sale of large capacity ammunition feeding devices for sale or transfer in another state.

(8) Sale or rental of large capacity ammunition feeding devices for blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted to acquire these devices for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

(d) Sentence. A person who knowingly delivers, sells, purchases, or causes to be delivered, sold, or purchased in violation of this Section a large capacity ammunition feeding device capable of holding more than 15 rounds of ammunition commits a Class 3 felony for a first violation and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent violation or for delivery or possession of 2 or more of these devices at the same time. Any other violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by an agency certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished within one hour from departure from home or place of employment, as the case may be. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force of at least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(6) A person who has been issued a concealed carry license and is acting lawfully under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer or to a person who has been issued a concealed carry license and is acting lawfully under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-465, eff. 8-22-11; 97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(b-5) Sells or gives any firearm to a person prohibited from possessing a firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(c) (Blank) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) (Blank) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) (Blank) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years.

(f) (Blank) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is intellectually disabled.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application and complete payment for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application and complete payment for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) if the transferor is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923), an approval number issued in accordance with Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b-5) (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)

Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm ammunition.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:

(1) He or she is under 18 years of age and has in his or her possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or

(2) He or she is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his or her possession; or

(2.5) He or she is prohibited from possessing a firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or

(3) (Blank) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(4) (Blank) He has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(5) (Blank) He is intellectually disabled and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or

(6) He or she has in his possession any explosive bullet.

For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap.

(b) Sentence.

Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3A)

Sec. 24-3A. Gunrunning.

(a) A person commits gunrunning when he or she transfers 3 or more firearms in violation of any of the paragraphs of Section 24-3 of this Code.

(b) Sentence. A person who commits gunrunning:

(1) is guilty of a Class 1 felony;

(2) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 8 years and not more than 40 years if the transfer is of not less than 11 firearms and not more than 20 firearms;

(3) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 15 10 years and not more than 50 years if the transfer is of more than 20 firearms. A person who commits gunrunning by transferring firearms to a person who, at the time of the commission of the offense, is under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 8 years.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-4.1 new)

Sec. 24-4.1. Report of lost or stolen firearms.

(a) A person, who possesses a firearm and either loses or misplaces the firearm or has the firearm stolen, must report the loss or theft to a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction within 24 hours after obtaining knowledge of the loss or theft.

(b) A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall take a written report and shall as soon as practical enter the firearm's serial number as stolen into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS).

(c) A person does not commit the offense if:

(1) the failure to report is due to an act of God, act of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to receive the report;

(2) the person calls 911 to make the report;

(3) the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to prevent the person from reporting; or

(4) the person's designee makes a report if the person is unable to make the report.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates subsection (a) is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(720 ILCS 5/24-9)

Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection; Ownership Requirements.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to believe that a minor under the age of 14 years who does not have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent, guardian, or person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:

(1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or

(2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or

(3) placed in some other location that a reasonable person would believe to be secure from a minor under the age of 14 years.

(a-5) A person who owns any firearm shall keep a record for each firearm owned that contains a description of the firearm and if available the firearm's serial number. If the firearm's serial number is not available, the record shall contain other information identifying the firearm.

(a-10) It is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to know that a person who is otherwise prohibited from obtaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm, unless the firearm is:

(1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable;

(2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or

(3) placed in some other location that a reasonable person would believe to be secure from a person.

(b) Sentence. A first violation of subsection (a-5) is a petty offense. A first violation of subsection (a) or (a-10) is person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and the person shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) Subsection (a) and (a-10) do does not apply:

(1) if the minor or prohibited person under 14 years of age gains access to a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or defense of another; or

(2) to any firearm obtained by a minor or prohibited person under the age of 14 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the minor or another person.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 110. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Section 112A-14 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member, as defined in this Article, an order of protection prohibiting such abuse shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, or Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Article.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, and Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse or willful deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping. The local law enforcement agency shall conduct a query with the Department of State Police concerning registered assault weapons under this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. The court shall issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act be turned over to the local law enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately mail the card, license, or both to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request be returned to the respondent at expiration of the order of protection.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms, or Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or concealed carry license cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 112A-5 and 112A-17 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Absent such an adjudication, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 115. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Section 5-6-3 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) if convicted of a felony or of any misdemeanor violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that was determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to trigger the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act and any and all firearms in his or her possession. The local law enforcement agency shall conduct a query with the Department of State Police concerning registered assault weapons under this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. The Court shall return to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses; and

(12) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the probation and court services fund.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-695, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 120. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/80)

Sec. 80. Stalking no contact orders; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of stalking, a stalking no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 95 on emergency orders or Section 100 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a stalking no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a stalking no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the petitioner. Modification and extension of prior stalking no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) A stalking no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; and

(5) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b-5) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-6) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(b-7) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(b-8) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such conduct.

(c) The court may award the petitioner costs and attorneys fees if a stalking no contact order is granted.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(e) If the stalking no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act and immediately return the card, license, or both to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office. Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as authorized in subsection (f) shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping. The local law enforcement agency shall conduct a query with the Department of State Police concerning registered assault weapons under this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(f) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the stalking no contact order.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 125. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 214 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/214) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)

Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member or that petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused, neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any Firearm Owner's Identification Card and, if applicable, a concealed carry license issued under the Gun Safety and Responsibility Act in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card, license, or both to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The court shall issue a warrant for seizure of any firearm in the possession of the respondent, to be kept by the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping, except as provided in subsection (b). The local law enforcement agency shall conduct a query with the Department of State Police concerning registered assault weapons under this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request, be returned to the respondent at the end of the order of protection. It is the respondent's responsibility to notify the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse, neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1985, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding, or acknowledgement, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect, or exploitation if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.