HB5540enr 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB5540 Enrolled LRB099 16003 AMC 40320 b

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2016 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 98-1174 through 99-492 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.36 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.36)

Sec. 4.36. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2026. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2026:

The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985.

The Collection Agency Act.

The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act.

The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

The Illinois Dental Practice Act.

The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act.

The Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

The Professional Geologist Licensing Act.

The Respiratory Care Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-26, eff. 7-10-15; 99-204, eff. 7-30-15; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; 99-427, eff. 8-21-15; 99-469, eff. 8-26-15; 99-492, eff. 12-31-15; revised 12-29-15.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.26 rep.)

Section 7. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.26.

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 5-45 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24 month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24 month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health, (iv) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (n) of this Section, (v) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (o) of this Section, or (vi) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(c-5) To facilitate the maintenance of the program of group health benefits provided to annuitants, survivors, and retired employees under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, rules to alter the contributions to be paid by the State, annuitants, survivors, retired employees, or any combination of those entities, for that program of group health benefits, shall be adopted as emergency rules. The adoption of those rules shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-24 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-712 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-10 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-597 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 93-20 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 94-48 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(m) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2008 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2008, including rules effective July 1, 2008, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (m) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(n) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2010 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-45 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2010 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (n) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (n) shall apply only to rules promulgated during Fiscal Year 2010.

(o) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2011 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-958 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2011 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (o) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (o) applies only to rules promulgated on or after the effective date of Public Act 96-958 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly through June 30, 2011.

(p) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 97-689, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 97-689 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (p) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 150-day limitation of the effective period of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p), and the effective period may continue through June 30, 2013. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (p) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(q) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement any provision of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (q) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (q). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (q) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(r) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (r) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (r). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (r) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(s) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Sections 5-5b.1 and 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, emergency rules to implement any provision of Section 5-5b.1 or Section 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (s) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (s) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2015. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any emergency rule adopted under this subsection (s) shall only apply to payments made for State fiscal year 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (s) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(t) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Article II of Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Article II of Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to the Emergency Telephone System Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (t) by the Department of State Police. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (t) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2016. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (t). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (t) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(u) (t) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the Burn Victims Relief Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (u) (t) by the Department of Insurance. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (u) (t) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to December 31, 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (u) (t) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 99-6, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 15. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures, school building safety and security, and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings meeting or portions of meetings of the advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-235, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 20. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 7.5, and 11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available in the library of the correctional facility where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including but not limited to power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) (ii) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-578, eff. 8-27-13; 98-695, eff. 7-3-14; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-346, eff. 1-1-16; revised 1-11-16.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) (bb) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 98-1045, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(5 ILCS 140/11) (from Ch. 116, par. 211)

Sec. 11. (a) Any person denied access to inspect or copy any public record by a public body may file suit for injunctive or declaratory relief.

(b) Where the denial is from a public body of the State, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body has its principal office or where the person denied access resides.

(c) Where the denial is from a municipality or other public body, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body is located.

(d) The circuit court shall have the jurisdiction to enjoin the public body from withholding public records and to order the production of any public records improperly withheld from the person seeking access. If the public body can show that exceptional circumstances exist, and that the body is exercising due diligence in responding to the request, the court may retain jurisdiction and allow the agency additional time to complete its review of the records.

(e) On motion of the plaintiff, prior to or after in camera inspection, the court shall order the public body to provide an index of the records to which access has been denied. The index shall include the following:

(i) A description of the nature or contents of each document withheld, or each deletion from a released document, provided, however, that the public body shall not be required to disclose the information which it asserts is exempt; and

(ii) A statement of the exemption or exemptions claimed for each such deletion or withheld document.

(f) In any action considered by the court, the court shall consider the matter de novo, and shall conduct such in camera examination of the requested records as it finds appropriate to determine if such records or any part thereof may be withheld under any provision of this Act. The burden shall be on the public body to establish that its refusal to permit public inspection or copying is in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Any public body that asserts that a record is exempt from disclosure has the burden of proving that it is exempt by clear and convincing evidence.

(g) In the event of noncompliance with an order of the court to disclose, the court may enforce its order against any public official or employee so ordered or primarily responsible for such noncompliance through the court's contempt powers.

(h) Except as to causes the court considers to be of greater importance, proceedings arising under this Section shall take precedence on the docket over all other causes and be assigned for hearing and trial at the earliest practicable date and expedited in every way.

(i) If a person seeking the right to inspect or receive a copy of a public record prevails in a proceeding under this Section, the court shall award such person reasonable attorney's attorneys' fees and costs. In determining what amount of attorney's fees is reasonable, the court shall consider the degree to which the relief obtained relates to the relief sought. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-542) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(j) If the court determines that a public body willfully and intentionally failed to comply with this Act, or otherwise acted in bad faith, the court shall also impose upon the public body a civil penalty of not less than $2,500 nor more than $5,000 for each occurrence. In assessing the civil penalty, the court shall consider in aggravation or mitigation the budget of the public body and whether the public body has previously been assessed penalties for violations of this Act. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-542) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 25. The State Records Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(5 ILCS 160/9) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.12)

Sec. 9. The head of each agency shall establish, and maintain an active, continuing program for the economical and efficient management of the records of the agency.

Such program:

(1) shall provide for effective controls over the creation, maintenance, and use of records in the conduct of current business and shall ensure that agency electronic records, as specified in Section 5-135 of the Electronic Commerce Security Act, are retained in a trustworthy manner so that the records, and the information contained in the records, are accessible and usable for reference for the duration of the retention period; all computer tape or disk maintenance and preservation procedures must be fully applied and, if equipment or programs providing access to the records are updated or replaced, the existing data must remain accessible in the successor format for the duration of the approved retention period;

(2) shall provide for cooperation with the Secretary in appointing a records officer and in applying standards, procedures, and techniques to improve the management of records, promote the maintenance and security of records deemed appropriate for preservation, and facilitate the segregation and disposal of records of temporary value; and

(3) shall provide for compliance with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder.

If an agency has delegated its authority to retain records to another agency, then the delegate agency shall maintain the same, or a more diligent, record retention methodology and record retention period as the original agency's program. If the delegate is from the legislative or judicial branch, then the delegate may use the same record retention methodology and record retention period that the delegate uses for similar records.

(Source: P.A. 97-932, eff. 8-10-12; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 30. The Filing of Copies Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 165/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 102)

Sec. 2. In order to be acceptable for filing, reproduced copies shall conform to the following standards:

(a) be Be facsimiles of the official form, produced by photo-offset, photoengraving, photocopying, or other similar reproduction process;

(b) be Be on paper of substantially the same weight and texture and of a quality at least as good as that used in the official form;

(c) substantially Substantially duplicate the colors of the official form;

(d) have Have a high degree of legibility, both as to the original form and as to matter filled in; the . The agency with which a report is required to be filed may reject any illegible reproduction and reject any process which fails to meet this standard;

(e) be Be on paper perforated in the same manner as the official form; and

(f) be Be of the same size as the official form, both as to the dimensions of the paper and the image produced.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 2551; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 35. The Intergovernmental Cooperation Act is amended by changing Section 3.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 220/3.5) (from Ch. 127, par. 743.5)

Sec. 3.5. Any expenditure of funds by a public agency organized pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement in accordance with the provisions of this Act and consisting of 5 public agencies or less, except for an intergovernmental risk management association, self-insurance pool or self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool, shall be in accordance with the Illinois Purchasing Act if the State is a party to the agreement, and shall be in accordance with any law or ordinance applicable to the public agency with the largest population which is a party to the agreement if the State is not a party to the agreement. If the State is not a party to the agreement and there is no such applicable law or ordinance, all purchases shall be subject to the provisions of the Governmental Joint Purchasing Act "An Act authorizing certain governmental units to purchase personal property, supplies and services jointly", approved August 15, 1961, as amended. Such self-insurance or insurance pools may enter into reinsurance agreements for the protection of their members.

(Source: P.A. 84-1431; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 40. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 10-10, 11-6, and 19-12.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or proposed question of public policy, as the case may be, and the objector's petition, the chairman of the electoral board other than the State Board of Elections shall send a call by registered or certified mail to each of the members of the electoral board, and to the objector who filed the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of a question of public policy, as the case may be, whose petitions are objected to, and shall also cause the sheriff of the county or counties in which such officers and persons reside to serve a copy of such call upon each of such officers and persons, which call shall set out the fact that the electoral board is required to meet to hear and pass upon the objections to nominations made for the office, designating it, and shall state the day, hour and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place shall be in the county court house in the county in the case of the County Officers Electoral Board, the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board or the Education Officers Electoral Board, except that the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board, and the Education Officers Electoral Board may meet at the location where the governing body of the municipality, township, or community college district, respectively, holds its regularly scheduled meetings, if that location is available; provided that voter records may be removed from the offices of an election authority only at the discretion and under the supervision of the election authority. In those cases where the State Board of Elections is the electoral board designated under Section 10-9, the chairman of the State Board of Elections shall, within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions for a proposed amendment to Article IV of the Constitution or proposed statewide question of public policy, send a call by registered or certified mail to the objector who files the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of the proposed Constitutional amendment or statewide question of public policy and shall state the day, hour, and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place may be in the Capitol Building or in the principal or permanent branch office of the State Board. The day of the meeting shall not be less than 3 nor more than 5 days after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers and the objector's petition by the chairman of the electoral board.

The electoral board shall have the power to administer oaths and to subpoena and examine witnesses and, at the request of either party and only upon a vote by a majority of its members, may authorize the chairman to issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of such books, papers, records and documents as may be evidence of any matter under inquiry before the electoral board, in the same manner as witnesses are subpoenaed in the Circuit Court.

Service of such subpoenas shall be made by any sheriff or other person in the same manner as in cases in such court and the fees of such sheriff shall be the same as is provided by law, and shall be paid by the objector or candidate who causes the issuance of the subpoena. In case any person so served shall knowingly neglect or refuse to obey any such subpoena, or to testify, the electoral board shall at once file a petition in the circuit court of the county in which such hearing is to be heard, or has been attempted to be heard, setting forth the facts, of such knowing refusal or neglect, and accompanying the petition with a copy of the citation and the answer, if one has been filed, together with a copy of the subpoena and the return of service thereon, and shall apply for an order of court requiring such person to attend and testify, and forthwith produce books and papers, before the electoral board. Any circuit court of the state, excluding the judge who is sitting on the electoral board, upon such showing shall order such person to appear and testify, and to forthwith produce such books and papers, before the electoral board at a place to be fixed by the court. If such person shall knowingly fail or refuse to obey such order of the court without lawful excuse, the court shall punish him or her by fine and imprisonment, as the nature of the case may require and may be lawful in cases of contempt of court.

The electoral board on the first day of its meeting shall adopt rules of procedure for the introduction of evidence and the presentation of arguments and may, in its discretion, provide for the filing of briefs by the parties to the objection or by other interested persons.

In the event of a State Electoral Board hearing on objections to a petition for an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution, or to a petition for a question of public policy to be submitted to the voters of the entire State, the certificates of the county clerks and boards of election commissioners showing the results of the random sample of signatures on the petition shall be prima facie valid and accurate, and shall be presumed to establish the number of valid and invalid signatures on the petition sheets reviewed in the random sample, as prescribed in Section 28-11 and 28-12 of this Code. Either party, however, may introduce evidence at such hearing to dispute the findings as to particular signatures. In addition to the foregoing, in the absence of competent evidence presented at such hearing by a party substantially challenging the results of a random sample, or showing a different result obtained by an additional sample, this certificate of a county clerk or board of election commissioners shall be presumed to establish the ratio of valid to invalid signatures within the particular election jurisdiction.

The electoral board shall take up the question as to whether or not the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions are in proper form, and whether or not they were filed within the time and under the conditions required by law, and whether or not they are the genuine certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions which they purport to be, and whether or not in the case of the certificate of nomination in question it represents accurately the decision of the caucus or convention issuing it, and in general shall decide whether or not the certificate of nomination or nominating papers or petitions on file are valid or whether the objections thereto should be sustained and the decision of a majority of the electoral board shall be final subject to judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1. The electoral board must state its findings in writing and must state in writing which objections, if any, it has sustained. A copy of the decision shall be served upon the parties to the proceedings in open proceedings before the electoral board. If a party does not appear for receipt of the decision, the decision shall be deemed to have been served on the absent party on the date when a copy of the decision is personally delivered or on the date when a copy of the decision is deposited in the United Unites States mail, in a sealed envelope or package, with postage prepaid, addressed to each party affected by the decision or to such party's attorney of record, if any, at the address on record for such person in the files of the electoral board.

Upon the expiration of the period within which a proceeding for judicial review must be commenced under Section 10-10.1, the electoral board shall, unless a proceeding for judicial review has been commenced within such period, transmit, by registered or certified mail, a certified copy of its ruling, together with the original certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions and the original objector's petition, to the officer or board with whom the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions, as objected to, were on file, and such officer or board shall abide by and comply with the ruling so made to all intents and purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; revised 10-14-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-6) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-6)

Sec. 11-6. Within 60 days after July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-691) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each election authority shall transmit to the principal office of the State Board of Elections and publish on any website maintained by the election authority maps in electronic portable document format (PDF) (.PDF) showing the current boundaries of all the precincts within its jurisdiction. Whenever election precincts in an election jurisdiction have been redivided or readjusted, the county board or board of election commissioners shall prepare maps in electronic portable document format (PDF) (.PDF) showing such election precinct boundaries no later than 90 days before the next scheduled election. The maps shall show the boundaries of all political subdivisions and districts. The county board or board of election commissioners shall immediately forward copies thereof to the chairman of each county central committee in the county, to each township, ward, or precinct committeeman, and each local election official whose political subdivision is wholly or partly in the county and, upon request, shall furnish copies thereof to each candidate for political or public office in the county and shall transmit copies thereof to the principal office of the State Board of Elections and publish copies thereof on any website maintained by the election authority.

(Source: P.A. 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; revised 10-14-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 45. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10a as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10a) (from Ch. 124, par. 110a)

Sec. 10a. Jurisdiction A - classification and pay. For positions in the Office of the Secretary of State with respect to the classification and pay:

(1) For the preparation, maintenance, and revision by the Director, subject to approval by the Commission, of a position classification plan for all positions subject to this Act, based upon similarity of duties performed, responsibilities assigned, and conditions of employment so that the same schedule of pay may be equitably applied to all positions in the same class. Unless the Commission disapproves such classification plan or any revision thereof within 30 calendar days, the Director shall allocate every such position to one of the classes in the plan. Any employee affected by the allocation of a position to a class shall after filing with the Director of Personnel within 30 calendar days of the allocation a request for reconsideration thereof in such manner and form as the Director may prescribe, be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard by the Director. If the employee does not accept the decision of the Director he may, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the reconsidered decision, appeal to the Merit Commission.

(2) For a pay plan to be prepared by the Director for all employees subject to this Act. Such pay plan may include provisions for uniformity of starting pay, an increment plan, area differentials, a delay not to exceed one year in the reduction of the pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after their appointments to such positions, prevailing rates of wages in those classifications in which employers are now paying or may hereafter pay such rates of wage and other provisions. Such pay plan shall become effective only after it has been approved by the Secretary of State. Amendments to the pay plan will be made in the same manner. Such pay plan shall provide that each employee shall be paid at one of the rates set forth in the pay plan for the class of position in which he is employed. Such pay plan shall provide for a fair and reasonable compensation for far services rendered.

(Source: P.A. 80-13; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 50. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, and 14C as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/2) (from Ch. 124, par. 22)

Sec. 2. Administration and powers and duties of the Administrator.

(a) The Secretary of State is the Administrator of this Act, and he is charged with the duty of observing, administering and enforcing the provisions of this Act.

(b) The Secretary is vested with the powers and duties for the proper administration of this Act as follows:

1. He shall organize the administration of this Act as he may deem necessary and appoint such subordinate officers, clerks and other employees as may be necessary.

2. From time to time, he may make, amend or rescind rules and regulations as may be in the public interest to implement the Act.

3. He may prescribe or provide suitable forms as necessary, including such forms as are necessary to establish that an applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card is a "person with a disability" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and establish that an applicant for a State identification card is a "homeless person" as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

4. He may prepare under the seal of the Secretary of State certified copies of any records utilized under this Act and any such certified copy shall be admissible in any proceeding in any court in like manner as the original thereof.

5. Records compiled under this Act shall be maintained for 6 years, but the Secretary may destroy such records with the prior approval of the State Records Commission.

6. He shall examine and determine the genuineness, regularity and legality of every application filed with him under this Act, and he may in all cases investigate the same, require additional information or proof or documentation from any applicant.

7. He shall require the payment of all fees prescribed in this Act, and all such fees received by him shall be placed in the Road Fund of the State treasury except as otherwise provided in Section 12 of this Act. Whenever any application to the Secretary for an identification card under this Act is accompanied by any fee, as required by law, and the application is denied after a review of eligibility, which may include facial recognition comparison, the applicant shall not be entitled to a refund of any fees paid.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(15 ILCS 335/14C) (from Ch. 124, par. 34C)

Sec. 14C. Making false application or affidavit.

(a) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

1. To display or present any document for the purpose of making application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity of the applicant;

2. To accept or allow to be accepted any document displayed or presented for the purpose of making application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity identify of the applicant;

3. To knowingly make any false affidavit or swear or affirm falsely to any matter or thing required by the terms of this Act to be sworn to or affirmed.

(b) Sentence.

1. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

2. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) This Section does not prohibit any lawfully authorized investigative, protective, law enforcement or other activity of any agency of the United States, State of Illinois or any other state or political subdivision thereof.

(d) The Secretary of State may confiscate any suspected fraudulent, fictitious, or altered documents submitted by an applicant in support of an application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 55. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of keeping unused prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly dispose of unused prescription drugs.

(E) Prescription and distribution of opioid antagonists.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice nurse prescriptive authority, or an advanced practice nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 60. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place the child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(a-5) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall place the child with the child's sibling or siblings under Section 7.4 of this Act unless the placement is not in each child's best interest, or is otherwise not possible under the Department's rules. If the child is not placed with a sibling under the Department's rules, the Department shall consider placements that are likely to develop, preserve, nurture, and support sibling relationships, where doing so is in each child's best interest.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department determines that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare based on the factors set forth in the Department's rules governing relative placements, and that the placement is consistent with the child's best interests, taking into consideration the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

When the Department first assumes custody of a child, in placing that child under this Act, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to identify, locate, and provide notice to all adult grandparents and other adult relatives of the child who are ready, willing, and able to care for the child. At a minimum, these efforts shall be renewed each time the child requires a placement change and it is appropriate for the child to be cared for in a home environment. The Department must document its efforts to identify, locate, and provide notice to such potential relative placements and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that a placement with any identified relative is not in the child's best interests or that the relative does not meet the requirements to be a relative caregiver, as set forth in Department rules or by statute, the Department must document the basis for that decision and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If, pursuant to the Department's rules, any person files an administrative appeal of the Department's decision not to place a child with a relative, it is the Department's burden to prove that the decision is consistent with the child's best interests.

When the Department determines that the child requires placement in an environment, other than a home environment, the Department shall continue to make reasonable efforts to identify and locate relatives to serve as visitation resources for the child and potential future placement resources, except when the Department determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests.

If the Department determines that efforts to identify and locate relatives would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are inappropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

When the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are appropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible future placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination, maintain the documentation in the child's case file, create a visitation or transition plan, or both, and incorporate the visitation or transition plan, or both, into the child's case plan. For the purpose of this subsection, any determination as to the child's best interests shall include consideration of the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; or (iv) is a fictive kin; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department, a "relative" may also include any person who would have qualified as a relative under this paragraph prior to the adoption, but only if the Department determines, and documents, that it would be in the child's best interests to consider this person a relative, based upon the factors for determining best interests set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision under this subsection to the contrary, a fictive kin with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection shall apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin. The Department shall not remove a child from the home of a fictive kin on the basis that the fictive kin fails to apply for licensure within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin, or fails to meet the standard for licensure. All other requirements established under the rules and procedures of the Department concerning the placement of a child, for whom the Department is legally responsible, with a relative shall apply. By June 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules establishing criteria and standards for placement, identification, and licensure of fictive kin.

For purposes of this subsection, "fictive kin" means any individual, unrelated by birth or marriage, who is shown to have close personal or emotional ties with the child or the child's family prior to the child's placement with the individual.

The provisions added to this subsection (b) by Public Act 98-846 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall become operative on and after June 1, 2015.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In rejecting placement of a child with an identified relative, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In evaluating the best interests of the child, the Department shall take into consideration the factors set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-340, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 65. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-817 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-817) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.19k)

Sec. 605-817. Family loan program.

(a) From amounts appropriated for such purpose, the Department in consultation with the Department of Human Services shall solicit proposals to establish programs to be known as family loan programs. Such programs shall provide small, no-interest loans to custodial parents with income below 200% of the federal poverty level and an who are working or enrolled in a post-secondary education program, to aid in covering the costs of unexpected expenses that could interfere with their ability to maintain employment or continue education. Loans awarded through a family loan program may be paid directly to a third party on behalf of a loan recipient and in either case shall not constitute income or resources for the purposes of public assistance and care so long as the funds are used for the intended purpose.

(b) The Director shall enter into written agreements with not-for-profit organizations or local government agencies to administer loan pools. Agreements shall be entered into with no more than 4 organizations or agencies, no more than one of which shall be located in the city of Chicago.

(c) Program sites shall be approved based on the demonstrated ability of the organization or governmental agency to secure funding from private or public sources sufficient to establish a loan pool to be maintained through repayment agreements entered into by eligible low-income families. Funds awarded by the Department to approved program sites shall be used for the express purposes of covering staffing and administration costs associated with administering the loan pool.

(Source: P.A. 91-372, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 70. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-305 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-305) (was 20 ILCS 805/63a23)

Sec. 805-305. Campsites and housing facilities. The Department has the power to provide facilities for overnight tent and trailer campsites camp sites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Department of Natural Resources may regulate, by administrative order, the fees to be charged for tent and trailer camping units at individual park areas based upon the facilities available. However, for campsites with access to showers or electricity, any Illinois resident who is age 62 or older or has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act shall be charged only one-half of the camping fee charged to the general public during the period Monday through Thursday of any week and shall be charged the same camping fee as the general public on all other days. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is age 62 or older for the use of a campsite camp site unit during the period Monday through Thursday of any week. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is a veteran with a disability or a former prisoner of war, as defined in Section 5 of the Department of Veterans Affairs Act. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois after returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States as an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces, the Illinois National Guard, or the Reserves of the United States Armed Forces for the amount of time that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized if the person (i) applies for a pass at the Department office in Springfield within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department or (ii) applies for a pass at a Regional Office of the Department within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department; any portion of a year that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized shall count as a full year. Nonresidents shall be charged the same fees as are authorized for the general public regardless of age. The Department shall provide by regulation for suitable proof of age, or either a valid driver's license or a "Golden Age Passport" issued by the federal government shall be acceptable as proof of age. The Department shall further provide by regulation that notice of these reduced admission fees be posted in a conspicuous place and manner.

Reduced fees authorized in this Section shall not apply to any charge for utility service.

For the purposes of this Section, "acceptable verification of service or mobilization" means official documentation from the Department of Defense or the appropriate Major Command showing mobilization dates or service abroad dates, including: (i) a DD-214, (ii) a letter from the Illinois Department of Military Affairs for members of the Illinois National Guard, (iii) a letter from the Regional Reserve Command for members of the Armed Forces Reserve, (iv) a letter from the Major Command covering Illinois for active duty members, (v) personnel records for mobilized State employees, and (vi) any other documentation that the Department, by administrative rule, deems acceptable to establish dates of mobilization or service abroad.

For the purposes of this Section, the term "service abroad" means active duty service outside of the 50 United States and the District of Columbia, and includes all active duty service in territories and possessions of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 75. The Recreational Trails of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 34 as follows:

(20 ILCS 862/34)

Sec. 34. Exception from display of Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamps. The operator of an off-highway vehicle shall not be required to display an Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamp if the off-highway vehicle is:

(1) owned and used by the United States, the State of Illinois, another state, or a political subdivision thereof, but these off-highway vehicles shall prominently display the name of the owner on the off-highway vehicle;

(2) operated on lands where the operator, his or her immediate family, or both are the sole owners of the land; this exception shall not apply to clubs, associations, or lands leased for hunting or recreational purposes;

(3) used only on local, national, or international competition circuits in events for which written permission has been obtained by the sponsoring or sanctioning body from the governmental unit having jurisdiction over the location of any event held in this State;

(4) (blank);

(5) used on an off-highway vehicle grant assisted site and the off-highway vehicle displays an a Off-Highway Vehicle Access decal;

(6) used in conjunction with a bona fide commercial business, including, but not limited to, agricultural and livestock production;

(7) a golf cart, regardless of whether the golf cart is currently being used for golfing purposes;

(8) displaying a valid motor vehicle registration issued by the Secretary of State or any other state;

(9) operated by an individual who either possesses an Illinois Identification Card issued to the operator by the Secretary of State that lists a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability or an original or photocopy of a valid motor vehicle disability placard issued to the operator by the Secretary of State, or is assisting a person with a disability who has a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability while using the same off-highway vehicle as the individual with a disability; or

(10) used only at commercial riding parks.

For the purposes of this Section, "golf cart" means a machine specifically designed for the purposes of transporting one or more persons and their golf clubs.

For the purposes of this Section, "local, national, or international competition circuit" means any competition circuit sponsored or sanctioned by an international, national, or state organization, including, but not limited to, the American Motorcyclist Association, or sponsored, sanctioned, or both by an affiliate organization of an international, national, or state organization which sanctions competitions, including trials or practices leading up to or in connection with those competitions.

For the purposes of this Section, "commercial riding parks" mean commercial properties used for the recreational operation of off-highway vehicles by the paying members of the park or paying guests.

(Source: P.A. 98-820, eff. 8-1-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 80. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1-17 and 1-42 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health care worker registry" or "registry" means the health care worker registry created by the Nursing Home Care Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health care worker registry.

(1) Reporting to the registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's health care worker registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the registry.

(6) Removal from registry. At any time after the report to the registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving health care worker registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to a patient in contravention of that patient's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the patient's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to a patient be considered abuse under this Section if the patient has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-711, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-323, eff. 8-7-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-42)

Sec. 1-42. Department Ambassador. Subject to appropriation, as part of a pilot program, the Department shall designate one or more officials or employees to serve as Department Ambassadors Ambassador. Department Ambassadors shall serve as a liaison between the Department and the public and shall have the following duties: (i) to inform the public about services available through the Department, (ii) to assist the public in accessing those services, (iii) to review the Department's methods of disseminating information, and (iv) to recommend and implement more efficient practices of providing services and information to the public where possible.

(Source: P.A. 98-1065, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 85. The Burn Victims Relief Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1410/15)

Sec. 15. Rulemaking. The Department of Insurance may adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Act. In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of this Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of this Act may be adopted by the Department in accordance with subsection (u) (t) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-26-15.)

Section 90. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, sexual orientation, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities.

The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report.

The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(8.5) To accept continuing education credit for mandated reporter training on how to recognize and report child abuse offered by the Department of Children and Family Services and completed by any person who holds a professional license issued by the Department and who is a mandated reporter under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this paragraph.

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act and notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing Act or administrative rule, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by the Department of Central Management Services, require that portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be made directly or through the Department to the Department of Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. For individuals licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the title "Retired" may be used in the profile required by the Patients' Right to Know Act. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-852), the Department shall promulgate rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar the individual from the licensure or certification sought, should the individual meet all other licensure requirements including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the relevant examinations.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-850, eff. 1-1-15; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-330, eff. 8-10-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 95. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2310-685 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-685)

Sec. 2310-685. Health care facility; policy to encourage participation in capital projects.

(a) A health care facility shall develop a policy to encourage the participation of minority-owned, women-owned, veteran-owned, and small business enterprises in capital projects undertaken by the health care facility.

(b) A health care system may develop a system-wide policy in order to comply with the requirement of subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) The policy required under this Section must be developed no later than 6 months after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-315) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(d) This Section does not apply to health care facilities with 100 or fewer beds, health care facilities located in a county with a total census population of less than 3,000,000, or health care facilities owned or operated by a unit of local government or the State or federal government.

(e) For the purpose of this Section, "health care facility" has the same meaning as set forth in the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-315, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-28-15.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-690)

Sec. 2310-690 2310-685. Cytomegalovirus public education.

(a) In this Section:

"CMV" means cytomegalovirus.

"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital facility, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

(b) The Department shall develop or approve and publish informational materials for women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants regarding:

(1) the incidence of CMV;

(2) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant;

(3) birth defects caused by congenital CMV;

(4) methods of diagnosing congenital CMV; and

(5) available preventive measures to avoid the infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

(c) The Department shall publish the information required under subsection (b) on its Internet website.

(d) The Department shall publish information to:

(1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and

(2) raise awareness of CMV among health care providers who provide care to expectant mothers or infants.

(e) The Department may solicit and accept the assistance of any relevant medical associations or community resources, including faith-based resources, to promote education about CMV under this Section.

(f) If a newborn infant fails the 2 initial hearing screenings in the hospital, then the hospital performing that screening shall provide to the parents of the newborn infant information regarding: (i) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; (ii) testing opportunities and options for CMV, including the opportunity to test for CMV before leaving the hospital; and (iii) early intervention services. Health care providers may use the materials developed by the Department for distribution to parents of newborn infants.

(Source: P.A. 99-424, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-28-15.)

Section 100. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/52)

Sec. 52. Applicability; definitions. In accordance with Section 6071 of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L. 109-171), as used in this Article:

"Departments". The term "Departments" means for the purposes of this Act, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family Services and Department of Public Health, unless otherwise noted.

"Home and community-based long-term care services". The term "home and community-based long-term care services" means, with respect to the State Medicaid program, a service aid, or benefit, home and community-based services, including, but not limited to, home health and personal care services, that are provided to a person with a disability, and are voluntarily accepted, as part of his or her long-term care that: (i) is provided under the State's qualified home and community-based program or that could be provided under such a program but is otherwise provided under the Medicaid program; (ii) is delivered in a qualified residence; and (iii) is necessary for the person with a disability to live in the community.

"ID/DD community care facility". The term "ID/DD community care facility", for the purposes of this Article, means a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility subject to licensure by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities (ICF-DDs), and a State-operated developmental center or mental health center, whether publicly or privately owned.

"Money Follows the Person" Demonstration. Enacted by the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, the Money Follows the Person (MFP) Rebalancing Demonstration is part of a comprehensive, coordinated strategy to assist states, in collaboration with stakeholders, to make widespread changes to their long-term care support systems. This initiative will assist states in their efforts to reduce their reliance on institutional care while developing community-based long-term care opportunities, enabling the elderly and people with disabilities to fully participate in their communities.

"Public funds" mean any funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the Departments of Human Services, on Aging, of Healthcare and Family Services and of Public Health for settings and services as defined in this Article.

"Qualified residence". The term "qualified residence" means, with respect to an eligible individual: (i) a home owned or leased by the individual or the individual's authorized representative (as defined by P.L. 109-171); (ii) an apartment with an individual lease, with lockable access and egress, and which includes living, sleeping, bathing, and cooking areas over which the individual or the individual's family has domain and control; or (iii) a residence, in a community-based residential setting, in which no more than 4 unrelated individuals reside. Where qualified residences are not sufficient to meet the demand of eligible individuals, time-limited exceptions to this definition may be developed through administrative rule.

"Self-directed services". The term "self-directed services" means, with respect to home and community-based long-term services for an eligible individual, those services for the individual that are planned and purchased under the direction and control of the individual or the individual's authorized representative, including the amount, duration, scope, provider, and location of such services, under the State Medicaid program consistent with the following requirements:

(a) Assessment: there is an assessment of the needs, capabilities, and preference of the individual with respect to such services.

(b) Individual service care or treatment plan: based on the assessment, there is development jointly with such individual or individual's authorized representative, a plan for such services for the individual that (i) specifies those services, if any, that the individual or the individual's authorized representative would be responsible for directing; (ii) identifies the methods by which the individual or the individual's authorized representative or an agency designated by an individual or representative will select, manage, and dismiss providers of such services.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 11-3-15.)

Section 105. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:

Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

Possession of a controlled substance under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

Offenses under the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of burglary tools under Section 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163, eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-635, eff. 1-1-15; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1009, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-378, eff. 1-1-16; 99-385, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 110. The Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2705-565 and 2705-605 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-565)

Sec. 2705-565. North Chicago property; study; conveyance.

(a) The Department shall perform a study of property owned by the Department consisting of approximately 160 acres located in North Chicago, south of IL Route 137, between IL Route 43 and US Route 41. The study shall include, but not be limited to, a survey of the property for the purpose of delineating jurisdictional wetlands in accordance with the Interagency Wetland Policy Act of 1989 and identifying threatened and endangered species in accordance with the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act, for the purpose of identifying property no longer needed for highway purposes.

(b) Upon completion of the study and for a period ending 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the City of North Chicago shall have an exclusive option to purchase for public purposes those portions of the property no longer needed for highway purposes for a consideration, which may be de minimis minimus, negotiated by the parties. The Department of Transportation is authorized to convey the excess property to the City of North Chicago pursuant to this Section within 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but may not otherwise convey or transfer the property during that period.

(c) Any conveyance to the City of North Chicago under this Section shall provide (i) that title to the property reverts to the State of Illinois if the property ceases to be used for public purposes and (ii) the City of North Chicago may lease the property but may not convey its ownership of the property to any party, other than the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 94-1045, eff. 7-24-06; revised 10-19-15.)

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-605)

Sec. 2705-605. Construction projects; notification of the public.

(a) The Department shall develop and publish a policy for the notification of members of the public prior to the commencement of construction projects which impact their communities. The policy shall include procedures for ensuring that the public is informed of construction projects, excluding emergency projects, which are estimated to require the closure of a street or lane of traffic for a period longer than 5 consecutive business days. The policy shall include procedures for the notification of local public officials and affected businesses of affected communities and shall provide the local public officials the opportunity to request a meeting with the Department prior to the initiation of the closure.

(b) The policy shall be completed and published on the Department's Internet website by January 1, 2013.

(c) The Department shall work with affected stakeholders, including residents, businesses, and other community members, before and during construction by considering various methods to mitigate and reduce project impacts to better serve those directly impacted by the improvement. Those methods could include, but need not be limited to, detour routing and temporary signage.

(Source: P.A. 97-992, eff. 1-1-13; 98-412, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 115. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by changing Section 2.01 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2.01) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.01)

Sec. 2.01. Veterans Home admissions.

(a) Any honorably discharged veteran is entitled to admission to an Illinois Veterans Home if the applicant meets the requirements of this Section.

(b) The veteran must:

(1) have served in the armed forces of the United States at least 1 day in World War II, the Korean Conflict, the Viet Nam Campaign, or the Persian Gulf Conflict between the dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or between any other present or future dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs as a war period, or have served in a hostile fire environment and has been awarded a campaign or expeditionary medal signifying his or her service, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(2) have served and been honorably discharged or retired from the armed forces of the United States for a service connected disability or injury, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(3) have served as an enlisted person at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before September 8, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(4) have served as an officer at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before October 17, 1981, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(5) have served on active duty in the armed forces of the United States for 24 months of continuous service or more, excluding active duty for training purposes only, and enlisted after September 7, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(6) have served as a reservist in the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard and the service included being called to federal active duty, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and who completed the term, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(7) have been discharged for reasons of hardship or released from active duty due to a reduction in the United States armed forces prior to the completion of the required period of service, regardless of the actual time served, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care; or

(8) have served in the National Guard or Reserve Forces of the United States and completed 20 years of satisfactory service, be otherwise eligible to receive reserve or active duty retirement benefits, and have been an Illinois resident for at least one year before applying for admission for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary care only.

(c) The veteran must have service accredited to the State of Illinois or have been a resident of this State for one year immediately preceding the date of application.

(d) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at Anna and Quincy, the veteran must have developed a disability by disease, wounds, or otherwise and because of the disability be incapable of earning a living.

(e) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at LaSalle and Manteno, the veteran must have developed a disability by disease, wounds, or otherwise and, for purposes of eligibility for nursing home care, require nursing care because of the disability.

(f) An individual who served during a time of conflict as set forth in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) subsection (a)(1) of this Section has preference over all other qualifying candidates, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care at any Illinois Veterans Home.

(g) A veteran or spouse, once admitted to an Illinois Veterans Home facility, is considered a resident for interfacility purposes.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-314, eff. 8-7-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 120. The Historic Preservation Agency Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3405/16) (from Ch. 127, par. 2716)

Sec. 16. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall have the following additional powers:

(a) To hire agents and employees necessary to carry out the duties and purposes of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency.

(b) To take all measures necessary to erect, maintain, preserve, restore, and conserve all State Historic Sites and State Memorials, except when supervision and maintenance is otherwise provided by law. This authorization includes the power, with the consent of the Board, to enter into contracts, acquire and dispose of real and personal property, and enter into leases of real and personal property. The Agency has the power to acquire, for purposes authorized by law, any real property in fee simple subject to a life estate in the seller in not more than 3 acres of the real property acquired, subject to the restrictions that the life estate shall be used for residential purposes only and that it shall be non-transferable.

(c) To provide recreational facilities, including campsites camp sites, lodges and cabins, trails, picnic areas, and related recreational facilities, at all sites under the jurisdiction of the Agency.

(d) To lay out, construct, and maintain all needful roads, parking areas, paths or trails, bridges, camp or lodge sites, picnic areas, lodges and cabins, and any other structures and improvements necessary and appropriate in any State historic site or easement thereto; and to provide water supplies, heat and light, and sanitary facilities for the public and living quarters for the custodians and keepers of State historic sites.

(e) To grant licenses and rights-of-way within the areas controlled by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency for the construction, operation, and maintenance upon, under or across the property, of facilities for water, sewage, telephone, telegraph, electric, gas, or other public service, subject to the terms and conditions as may be determined by the Agency.

(f) To authorize the officers, employees, and agents of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency, for the purposes of investigation and to exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested and that may be vested in it, to enter and cross all lands and waters in this State, doing no damage to private property.

(g) To transfer jurisdiction of or exchange any realty under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency to any other Department of the State Government, or to any agency of the Federal Government, or to acquire or accept Federal lands, when any transfer, exchange, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(h) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments and memorials erected by the State, except when the supervision and maintenance of public monuments and memorials is otherwise provided by law.

(i) To accept, hold, maintain, and administer, as trustee, property given in trust for educational or historic purposes for the benefit of the People of the State of Illinois and to dispose, with the consent of the Board, of any property under the terms of the instrument creating the trust.

(j) To lease concessions on any property under the jurisdiction of the Agency for a period not exceeding 25 years and to lease a concession complex at Lincoln's New Salem State Historic Site for which a cash incentive has been authorized under Section 5.1 of the Historic Preservation Agency Act for a period not to exceed 40 years. All leases, for whatever period, shall be made subject to the written approval of the Governor. All concession leases extending for a period in excess of 10 years, will contain provisions for the Agency to participate, on a percentage basis, in the revenues generated by any concession operation.

The Agency is authorized to allow for provisions for a reserve account and a leasehold account within Agency concession lease agreements for the purpose of setting aside revenues for the maintenance, rehabilitation, repair, improvement, and replacement of the concession facility, structure, and equipment of the Agency that are part of the leased premises.

The lessee shall be required to pay into the reserve account a percentage of gross receipts, as set forth in the lease, to be set aside and expended in a manner acceptable to the Agency by the concession lessee for the purpose of ensuring that an appropriate amount of the lessee's moneys are provided by the lessee to satisfy the lessee's incurred responsibilities for the operation of the concession facility under the terms and conditions of the concession lease.

The lessee account shall allow for the amortization of certain authorized expenses that are incurred by the concession lessee but that are not an obligation of the lessee under the terms and conditions of the lease agreement. The Agency may allow a reduction of up to 50% of the monthly rent due for the purpose of enabling the recoupment of the lessee's authorized expenditures during the term of the lease.

(k) To sell surplus agricultural products grown on land owned by or under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency, when the products cannot be used by the Agency.

(l) To enforce the laws of the State and the rules and regulations of the Agency in or on any lands owned, leased, or managed by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency.

(m) To cooperate with private organizations and agencies of the State of Illinois by providing areas and the use of staff personnel where feasible for the sale of publications on the historic and cultural heritage of the State and craft items made by Illinois craftsmen. These sales shall not conflict with existing concession agreements. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency is authorized to negotiate with the organizations and agencies for a portion of the monies received from sales to be returned to the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency's Historic Sites Fund for the furtherance of interpretive and restoration programs.

(n) To establish local bank or savings and loan association accounts, upon the written authorization of the Director, to temporarily hold income received at any of its properties. The local accounts established under this Section shall be in the name of the Historic Preservation Agency and shall be subject to regular audits. The balance in a local bank or savings and loan association account shall be forwarded to the Agency for deposit with the State Treasurer on Monday of each week if the amount to be deposited in a fund exceeds $500.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds as permitted by this Section, unless it has complied with the requirements established under Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(o) To accept, with the consent of the Board, offers of gifts, gratuities, or grants from the federal government, its agencies, or offices, or from any person, firm, or corporation.

(p) To make reasonable rules and regulations as may be necessary to discharge the duties of the Agency.

(q) With appropriate cultural organizations, to further and advance the goals of the Agency.

(r) To make grants for the purposes of planning, survey, rehabilitation, restoration, reconstruction, landscaping, and acquisition of Illinois properties (i) designated individually in the National Register of Historic Places, (ii) designated as a landmark under a county or municipal landmark ordinance, or (iii) located within a National Register of Historic Places historic district or a locally designated historic district when the Director determines that the property is of historic significance whenever an appropriation is made therefor by the General Assembly or whenever gifts or grants are received for that purpose and to promulgate regulations as may be necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of the grants.

Grantees may, as prescribed by rule, be required to provide matching funds for each grant. Grants made under this subsection shall be known as Illinois Heritage Grants.

Every owner of a historic property, or the owner's agent, is eligible to apply for a grant under this subsection.

(s) To establish and implement a pilot program for charging admission to State historic sites. Fees may be charged for special events, admissions, and parking or any combination; fees may be charged at all sites or selected sites. All fees shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall have the discretion to set and adjust reasonable fees at the various sites, taking into consideration various factors, including, but not limited to: cost of services furnished to each visitor, impact of fees on attendance and tourism, and the costs expended collecting the fees. The Agency shall keep careful records of the income and expenses resulting from the imposition of fees, shall keep records as to the attendance at each historic site, and shall report to the Governor and General Assembly by January 31 after the close of each year. The report shall include information on costs, expenses, attendance, comments by visitors, and any other information the Agency may believe pertinent, including:

(1) Recommendations as to whether fees should be continued at each State historic site.

(2) How the fees should be structured and imposed.

(3) Estimates of revenues and expenses associated with each site.

(t) To provide for overnight tent and trailer campsites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall charge rates similar to those charged by the Department of Conservation for the same or similar facilities and services.

(u) To engage in marketing activities designed to promote the sites and programs administered by the Agency. In undertaking these activities, the Agency may take all necessary steps with respect to products and services, including, but not limited to, retail sales, wholesale sales, direct marketing, mail order sales, telephone sales, advertising and promotion, purchase of product and materials inventory, design, printing and manufacturing of new products, reproductions, and adaptations, copyright and trademark licensing and royalty agreements, and payment of applicable taxes. In addition, the Agency shall have the authority to sell advertising in its publications and printed materials. All income from marketing activities shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-140, eff. 1-1-08; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 125. The Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3860/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 20. Powers and duties of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority. The Authority has the following powers, together with all powers incidental or necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act:

(1) The Authority shall create and administer the ILHIE using information systems and processes that are secure, are cost effective, and meet all other relevant privacy and security requirements under State and federal law.

(2) The Authority shall establish and adopt standards and requirements for the use of health information and the requirements for participation in the ILHIE by persons or entities including, but not limited to, health care providers, payors, and local health information exchanges.

(3) The Authority shall establish minimum standards for accessing the ILHIE to ensure that the appropriate security and privacy protections apply to health information, consistent with applicable federal and State standards and laws. The Authority shall have the power to suspend, limit, or terminate the right to participate in the ILHIE for non-compliance or failure to act, with respect to applicable standards and laws, in the best interests of patients, users of the ILHIE, or the public. The Authority may seek all remedies allowed by law to address any violation of the terms of participation in the ILHIE.

(4) The Authority shall identify barriers to the adoption of electronic health records systems, including researching the rates and patterns of dissemination and use of electronic health record systems throughout the State. The Authority shall make the results of the research available on its website.

(5) The Authority shall prepare educational materials and educate the general public on the benefits of electronic health records, the ILHIE, and the safeguards available to prevent unauthorized disclosure of health information.

(6) The Authority may appoint or designate an institutional review board in accordance with federal and State law to review and approve requests for research in order to ensure compliance with standards and patient privacy and security protections as specified in paragraph (3) of this Section.

(7) The Authority may enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its powers under this Act. The Authority's expenditures of private funds are exempt from the Illinois Procurement Code, pursuant to Section 1-10 of that Act. Notwithstanding this exception, the Authority shall comply with the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(8) The Authority may solicit and accept grants, loans, contributions, or appropriations from any public or private source and may expend those moneys, through contracts, grants, loans, or agreements, on activities it considers suitable to the performance of its duties under this Act.

(9) The Authority may determine, charge, and collect any fees, charges, costs, and expenses from any healthcare provider or entity in connection with its duties under this Act. Moneys collected under this paragraph (9) shall be deposited into the Health Information Exchange Fund.

(10) The Authority may, under the direction of the Executive Director, employ and discharge staff, including administrative, technical, expert, professional, and legal staff, as is necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this Act. The Authority may establish and administer standards of classification regarding compensation, benefits, duties, performance, and tenure for that staff and may enter into contracts of employment with members of that staff for such periods and on such terms as the Authority deems desirable. All employees of the Authority are exempt from the Personnel Code as provided by Section 4 of the Personnel Code.

(11) The Authority shall consult and coordinate with the Department of Public Health to further the Authority's collection of health information from health care providers for public health purposes. The collection of public health information shall include identifiable information for use by the Authority or other State agencies to comply with State and federal laws. Any identifiable information so collected shall be privileged and confidential in accordance with Sections 8-2101, 8-2102, 8-2103, 8-2104, and 8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(12) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange, shall be exempt from inspection and copying under the Freedom of Information Act. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(13) To address gaps in the adoption of, workforce preparation for, and exchange of electronic health records that result in regional and socioeconomic disparities in the delivery of care, the Authority may evaluate such gaps and provide resources as available, giving priority to healthcare providers serving a significant percentage of Medicaid or uninsured patients and in medically underserved or rural areas.

(Source: P.A. 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 130. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 12 and 14.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(10.5) Provide its rationale when voting on an item before it at a State Board meeting in order to comply with subsection (b) of Section 3-108 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board. Requests for a written decision shall be made within 15 days after the Board meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The transcript of the State Board meeting shall be incorporated into the Board's final decision. The staff of the Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The Board shall consider, for approval, the written draft of the final decision no later than the next scheduled Board meeting. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or exemption, the Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. The Subcommittee shall make recommendations to the Board no later than January 1, 2016 and every January thereafter pursuant to the Subcommittee's responsibility for the continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences and submit its recommendations to the Chairman of the Board no later than January 1, 2017. The Subcommittee shall evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

The Chairman of the Board shall appoint voting members of the Subcommittee, who shall serve for a period of 3 years, with one-third of the terms expiring each January, to be determined by lot. Appointees shall include, but not be limited to, recommendations from each of the 3 statewide long-term care associations, with an equal number to be appointed from each. Compliance with this provision shall be through the appointment and reappointment process. All appointees serving as of April 1, 2015 shall serve to the end of their term as determined by lot or until the appointee voluntarily resigns, whichever is earlier.

One representative from the Department of Public Health, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department on Aging, and the Department of Human Services may each serve as an ex-officio non-voting member of the Subcommittee. The Chairman of the Board shall select a Subcommittee Chair, who shall serve for a period of 3 years.

(16) Prescribe the format of the State Board Staff Report. A State Board Staff Report shall pertain to applications that include, but are not limited to, applications for permit or exemption, applications for permit renewal, applications for extension of the obligation period, applications requesting a declaratory ruling, or applications under the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act. State Board Staff Reports shall compare applications to the relevant review criteria under the Board's rules.

(17) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. An application for the re-establishment of a facility in connection with the relocation of the facility shall not be granted unless the applicant has a contractual relationship with at least one hospital to provide emergency and inpatient mental health services required by facility consumers, and at least one community mental health agency to provide oversight and assistance to facility consumers while living in the facility, and appropriate services, including case management, to assist them to prepare for discharge and reside stably in the community thereafter. No new facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall be established after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) except in connection with the relocation of an existing facility to a new location. An application for a new location shall not be approved unless there are adequate community services accessible to the consumers within a reasonable distance, or by use of public transportation, so as to facilitate the goal of achieving maximum individual self-care and independence. At no time shall the total number of authorized beds under this Act in facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 exceed the number of authorized beds on June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651).

(Source: P.A. 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-114, eff. 7-23-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-277, eff. 8-5-15; revised 10-15-15.)

(20 ILCS 3960/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.

(a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate, including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section, for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(2) The establishment, construction, modification, or change of ownership of a health care facility without a permit or exemption or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days after a formal written request for the information.

(5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this Section within 30 days of its imposition.

(a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the MC/DD Act. For facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any action described in this subsection (a-5) without also considering all such actions in the light of all relevant information available to the State Board, including whether the permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or voluntary plan of correction associated with any action described in this subsection (a-5).

(b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:

(1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit amount without first obtaining approval from the State Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i) the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the approved permit amount.

(2.5) A permit holder who fails to comply with the post-permit and reporting requirements set forth in Section 5 shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. This fine shall continue to accrue until the date that (i) the post-permit requirements are met and the post-permit reports are received by the State Board or (ii) the matter is referred by the State Board to the State Board's legal counsel. The accrued fine is not waived by the permit holder submitting the required information and reports. Prior to any fine beginning to accrue, the Board shall notify, in writing, a permit holder of the due date for the post-permit and reporting requirements no later than 30 days before the due date for the requirements. This paragraph (2.5) takes effect 6 months after August 27, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1115).

(3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or who establishes a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such acquisition or category of service established plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(4) A person who constructs, modifies, establishes, or changes ownership of a health care facility without first obtaining a permit or exemption shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit requirement. However, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-423 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-423 of the MC/DD Act and must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their intent to close. Facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act also must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their intent to reduce the number of beds for a facility.

(6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the information is not received by the State Board or Agency.

(b-5) The State Board may accept in-kind services instead of or in combination with the imposition of a fine. This authorization is limited to cases where the non-compliant individual or entity has waived the right to an administrative hearing or opportunity to appear before the Board regarding the non-compliant matter.

(c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section, the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10. Requests for an appearance before the State Board must be made within 30 days after receiving notice that a fine will be imposed.

(d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.

(e) Fines imposed under this Section shall continue to accrue until: (i) the date that the matter is referred by the State Board to the Board's legal counsel; or (ii) the date that the health care facility becomes compliant with the Act, whichever is earlier.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-114, eff. 7-23-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 135. The Illinois Holocaust and Genocide Commission Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5010/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 10. Composition of the Commission.

(a) The Commission is composed of 22 members as follows:

(1) 19 public members appointed by the Governor, one of whom which shall be a student; and

(2) 3 ex officio members as follows:

(A) the State Superintendent of Education;

(B) the Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education; and

(C) the Director of Veterans' Affairs.

(b) The President and Minority Leader of the Senate shall each designate a member or former member of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives shall each designate a member or former member of the House of Representatives to advise the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 98-793, eff. 7-28-14; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 140. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.866 and 5.867 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.866)

Sec. 5.866. The Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.867)

Sec. 5.867. The Illinois Secure Choice Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1150, eff. 6-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.868)

Sec. 5.868 5.866. The Illinois ABLE Accounts Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-145, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.869)

Sec. 5.869 5.866. The Women's Business Ownership Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-233, eff. 8-3-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.870)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 5.870 5.866. The U.S.S. Illinois Commissioning Fund. This Section is repealed on December 31, 2017.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.871)

Sec. 5.871 5.866. The George Bailey Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.872)

Sec. 5.872 5.866. The Parity Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.873)

Sec. 5.873 5.867. The Autism Care Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 9-29-15.)

Section 145. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 4f as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2016)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as a person with a disability under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Person with a disability" means a person with a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

an intellectual disability,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" means all contracts entered into by the State, any agency or department thereof, or any public institution of higher education, including community college districts, regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, which are not subject to federal reimbursement. "State contracts" does not include contracts awarded by a retirement system, pension fund, or investment board subject to Section 1-109.1 of the Illinois Pension Code. This definition shall control over any existing definition under this Act or applicable administrative rule.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or public institution of higher education for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "Public institutions of higher education" means the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the public community colleges of the State, and any other public universities, colleges, and community colleges now or hereafter established or authorized by the General Assembly.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and controlled by females shall be certified as a "female owned business". A business owned and controlled by females who are also minorities shall be certified as both a "female owned business" and a "minority owned business".

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the business.

(Source: P.A. 98-95, eff. 7-17-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-462, eff. 8-25-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(30 ILCS 575/4f)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2016)

Sec. 4f. Award of State contracts.

(1) It is hereby declared to be the public policy of the State of Illinois to promote and encourage each State agency and public institution of higher education to use businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities in the area of goods and services, including, but not limited to, insurance services, investment management services, information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services. Furthermore, each State agency and public institution of higher education shall utilize such firms to the greatest extent feasible within the bounds of financial and fiduciary prudence, and take affirmative steps to remove any barriers to the full participation of such firms in the procurement and contracting opportunities afforded.

(a) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards a contract for insurance services, for each State agency or public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use insurance brokers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total annual premiums or fees.

(b) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards a contract for investment services, for each State agency or public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use emerging investment managers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total funds under management. Furthermore, it is the aspirational goal that not less than 20% of the direct asset managers of the State funds be minorities, females, and persons with disabilities.

(c) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards contracts for information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services, for each State agency and public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use such firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act and lawyers who are minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total dollar amount of State contracts.

(d) When a community college awards a contract for insurance services, investment services, information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services, it shall be the aspirational goal of each community college to use businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined in this Act for not less than 20% of the total amount spent on contracts for these services collectively. When a community college awards contracts for investment services, contracts awarded to investment managers who are not emerging investment managers as defined in this Act shall not be considered businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities for the purposes of this Section.

(2) As used in this Section:

"Accounting services" means the measurement, processing and communication of financial information about economic entities including, but is not limited to, financial accounting, management accounting, auditing, cost containment and auditing services, taxation and accounting information systems.

"Architectural and engineering services" means professional services of an architectural or engineering nature, or incidental services, that members of the architectural and engineering professions, and individuals in their employ, may logically or justifiably perform, including studies, investigations, surveying and mapping, tests, evaluations, consultations, comprehensive planning, program management, conceptual designs, plans and specifications, value engineering, construction phase services, soils engineering, drawing reviews, preparation of operating and maintenance manuals, and other related services.

"Emerging investment manager" means an investment manager or claims consultant having assets under management below $10 billion or otherwise adjudicating claims.

"Information technology services" means, but is not limited to, specialized technology-oriented solutions by combining the processes and functions of software, hardware, networks, telecommunications, web designers, cloud developing resellers, and electronics.

"Insurance broker" means an insurance brokerage firm, claims administrator, or both, that procures, places all lines of insurance, or administers claims with annual premiums or fees of at least $5,000,000 but not more than $10,000,000.

"Legal services" means work performed by a lawyer including, but not limited to, contracts in anticipation of litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations.

(3) Each State agency and public institution institutions of higher education shall adopt policies that identify its plan and implementation procedures for increasing the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities.

(4) Except as provided in subsection (5), the Council shall file no later than March 1 of each year an annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report filed with the General Assembly shall be filed as required in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. This report shall: (i) identify the service firms used by each State agency and public institution of higher education, (ii) identify the actions it has undertaken to increase the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, including encouraging non-minority owned firms to use other service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as subcontractors when the opportunities arise, (iii) state any recommendations made by the Council to each State agency and public institution of higher education to increase participation by the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, and (iv) include the following:

(A) For insurance services: the names of the insurance brokers or claims consultants used, the total of risk managed by each State agency and public institution of higher education by insurance brokers, the total commissions, fees paid, or both, the lines or insurance policies placed, and the amount of premiums placed; and the percentage of the risk managed by insurance brokers, the percentage of total commission, fees paid, or both, the lines or insurance policies placed, and the amount of premiums placed with each by the insurance brokers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(B) For investment management services: the names of the investment managers used, the total funds under management of investment managers; the total commissions, fees paid, or both; the total and percentage of funds under management of emerging investment managers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, including the total and percentage of total commissions, fees paid, or both by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(C) The names of service firms, the percentage and total dollar amount paid for professional services by category by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(D) The names of service firms, the percentage and total dollar amount paid for services by category to firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(E) The total number of contracts awarded for services by category and the total number of contracts awarded to firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(5) For community college districts, the Business Enterprise Council shall only report the following information for each community college district: (i) the name of the community colleges in the district, (ii) the name and contact information of a person at each community college appointed to be the single point of contact for vendors owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities, (iii) the policy of the community college district concerning certified vendors, (iv) the certifications recognized by the community college district for determining whether a business is owned or controlled by a minority, female, or person with a disability, (v) outreach efforts conducted by the community college district to increase the use of certified vendors, (vi) the total expenditures by the community college district in the prior fiscal year in the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section and the amount paid to certified vendors in those divisions of work, and (vii) the total number of contracts entered into for the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section and the total number of contracts awarded to certified vendors providing these services to the community college district. The Business Enterprise Council shall not make any utilization reports under this Act for community college districts for Fiscal Year 2015 and Fiscal Year 2016, but shall make the report required by this subsection for Fiscal Year 2017 and for each fiscal year thereafter. The Business Enterprise Council shall report the information in items (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this subsection beginning in September of 2016. The Business Enterprise Council may collect the data needed to make its report from the Illinois Community College Board.

(6) The status of the utilization of services shall be discussed at each of the regularly scheduled Business Enterprise Council meetings. Time shall be allotted for the Council to receive, review, and discuss the progress of the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution institutions of higher education; and any evidence regarding past or present racial, ethnic, or gender-based discrimination which directly impacts a State agency or public institution institutions of higher education contracting with such firms. If after reviewing such evidence the Council finds that there is or has been such discrimination against a specific group, race or sex, the Council shall establish sheltered markets or adjust existing sheltered markets tailored to address the Council's specific findings for the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-462, eff. 8-25-15; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 150. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.39 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.39)

Sec. 8.39. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 99-176, 99-180, 99-228, or 99-466 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Student Transfer Achievement Reform Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-176, eff. 7-29-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-228, eff. 1-1-16; 99-316, eff. 1-1-16; 99-466, eff. 8-26-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 155. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 304 and 507DDD as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)

Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.

(a) In general. The business income of a person other than a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's business income is derived solely from this State. If a person other than a resident derives business income from this State and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, such person's business income shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4 reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, persons other than residents who derive business income from this State and one or more other states shall compute their apportionment factor by weighting their property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(1) Property factor.

(A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the average value of the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business in this State during the taxable year and the denominator of which is the average value of all the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable year.

(B) Property owned by the person is valued at its original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.

(C) The average value of property shall be determined by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the taxable year but the Director may require the averaging of monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably required to reflect properly the average value of the person's property.

(2) Payroll factor.

(A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount paid in this State during the taxable year by the person for compensation, and the denominator of which is the total compensation paid everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Compensation is paid in this State if:

(i) The individual's service is performed entirely within this State;

(ii) The individual's service is performed both within and without this State, but the service performed without this State is incidental to the individual's service performed within this State; or

(iii) Some of the service is performed within this State and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations, the place from which the service is directed or controlled is within this State, or the base of operations or the place from which the service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed, but the individual's residence is in this State.

(iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional athletes.

(a) General. The Illinois source income of a nonresident individual who is a member of a professional athletic team includes the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team during the taxable year which the number of duty days spent within this State performing services for the team in any manner during the taxable year bears to the total number of duty days spent both within and without this State during the taxable year.

(b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar team event are not considered duty days spent in this State. However, such travel days are considered in the total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart (iv):

(1) The term "professional athletic team" includes, but is not limited to, any professional baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey team.

(2) The term "member of a professional athletic team" includes those employees who are active players, players on the disabled list, and any other persons required to travel and who travel with and perform services on behalf of a professional athletic team on a regular basis. This includes, but is not limited to, coaches, managers, and trainers.

(3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all days during the taxable year from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in which they occur, including where a team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one tax year.

(A) Duty days shall also include days on which a member of a professional athletic team performs service for a team on a date that does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans"). Performing a service for a professional athletic team includes conducting training and rehabilitation activities, when such activities are conducted at team facilities.

(B) Also included in duty days are game days, practice days, days spent at team meetings, promotional caravans, preseason training camps, and days served with the team through all post-season games in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete.

(C) Duty days for any person who joins a team during the period from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes, or is scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day that person joins the team. Conversely, duty days for any person who leaves a team during this period shall end on the day that person leaves the team. Where a person switches teams during a taxable year, a separate duty-day calculation shall be made for the period the person was with each team.

(D) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is not compensated and is not performing services for the team in any manner, including days when such member of a professional athletic team has been suspended without pay and prohibited from performing any services for the team, shall not be treated as duty days.

(E) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is on the disabled list and does not conduct rehabilitation activities at facilities of the team, and is not otherwise performing services for the team in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days spent in this State. All days on the disabled list, however, are considered to be included in total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(4) The term "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" means the total compensation received during the taxable year for services performed:

(A) from the beginning of the official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete during that taxable year; and

(B) during the taxable year on a date which does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).

This compensation shall include, but is not limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described in this subpart, and any other type of compensation paid during the taxable year to a member of a professional athletic team for services performed in that year. This compensation does not include strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay, contract or option year buy-out payments, expansion or relocation payments, or any other payments not related to services performed for the team.

For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses" included in "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" subject to the allocation described in Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the season, including bonuses paid for championship, playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for selection to all-star league or other honorary positions; and bonuses paid for signing a contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus is not conditional upon the signee playing any games for the team or performing any subsequent services for the team or even making the team, the signing bonus is payable separately from the salary and any other compensation, and the signing bonus is nonrefundable.

(3) Sales factor.

(A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total sales of the person in this State during the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this State if:

(i) The property is delivered or shipped to a purchaser, other than the United States government, within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or other conditions of the sale; or

(ii) The property is shipped from an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this State and either the purchaser is the United States government or the person is not taxable in the state of the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned or leased by a person who has independently contracted with the seller for the printing of newspapers, periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible personal property are not in this State if the seller and purchaser would be members of the same unitary business group but for the fact that either the seller or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total business activity outside of the United States and the property is purchased for resale.

(B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property.

(i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark, or similar item of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is utilized in this State during the year the gross receipts are included in gross income.

(ii) Place of utilization.

(I) A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser from sales or leases of items produced, fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that state using the patent and of patented items produced within that state, divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the patent is utilized.

(II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of materials printed or published in that state divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the copyright is utilized.

(III) Trademarks and other items of intangible personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1) are utilized in the state in which the commercial domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.

(iii) If the state of utilization of an item of property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be determined from the taxpayer's books and records or from the books and records of any person related to the taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor.

(B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales, or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50% of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross income during the tax year and during each of the 2 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such determination shall be made on the basis of the gross receipts of the entire unitary business group.

(B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii), receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the customer's service address is in this State.

(i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Ancillary services" means services that are associated with or incidental to the provision of "telecommunications services", including but not limited to "detailed telecommunications billing", "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice mail services".

"Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99, in which common carriers are authorized to offer and provide radio telecommunications service for hire to subscribers in aircraft.

"Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging for telecommunications services where the price is measured by individual calls.

"Communications Channel" means a physical or virtual path of communications over which signals are transmitted between or among customer channel termination points.

"Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary service" that links two or more participants of an audio or video conference call and may include the provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging service" does not include the "telecommunications services" used to reach the conference bridge.

"Customer Channel Termination Point" means the location where the customer either inputs or receives the communications.

"Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an "ancillary service" of separately stating information pertaining to individual calls on a customer's billing statement.

"Directory assistance" means an "ancillary service" of providing telephone number information, and/or address information.

"Home service provider" means the facilities based carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts for the provision of mobile telecommunications services.

"Mobile telecommunications service" means commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as in effect on June 1, 1999.

"Place of primary use" means the street address representative of where the customer's use of the telecommunications service primarily occurs, which must be the residential street address or the primary business street address of the customer. In the case of mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary use" must be within the licensed service area of the home service provider.

"Post-paid telecommunication service" means the telecommunications service obtained by making a payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by charge made to a telephone number which is not associated with the origination or termination of the telecommunications service. A post-paid calling service includes telecommunications service, except a prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a telecommunication service.

"Prepaid telecommunication service" means the right to access exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize mobile wireless service as well as other non-telecommunication services, including but not limited to ancillary services, which must be paid for in advance that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Private communication service" means a telecommunication service that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels between or among termination points, regardless of the manner in which such channel or channels are connected, and includes switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any other associated services that are provided in connection with the use of such channel or channels.

"Service address" means:

(a) The location of the telecommunications equipment to which a customer's call is charged and from which the call originates or terminates, regardless of where the call is billed or paid;

(b) If the location in line (a) is not known, service address means the origination point of the signal of the telecommunications services first identified by either the seller's telecommunications system or in information received by the seller from its service provider where the system used to transport such signals is not that of the seller; and

(c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b) are not known, the service address means the location of the customer's place of primary use.

"Telecommunications service" means the electronic transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, or any other information or signals to a point, or between or among points. The term "telecommunications service" includes such transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, code or protocol of the content for purposes of transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to whether such service is referred to as voice over Internet protocol services or is classified by the Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:

(a) Data processing and information services that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and delivered by an electronic transmission to a purchaser when such purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the processed data or information;

(b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a customer's premises;

(c) Tangible personal property;

(d) Advertising, including but not limited to directory advertising.

(e) Billing and collection services provided to third parties;

(f) Internet access service;

(g) Radio and television audio and video programming services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of transmission, conveyance and routing of such services by the programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video programming services shall include but not be limited to cable service as defined in 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;

(h) "Ancillary services"; or

(i) Digital products "delivered electronically", including but not limited to software, music, video, reading materials or ring tones.

"Vertical service" means an "ancillary service" that is offered in connection with one or more "telecommunications services", which offers advanced calling features that allow customers to identify callers and to manage multiple calls and call connections, including "conference bridging services".

"Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service" that enables the customer to store, send or receive recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not include any "vertical services" that the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail service".

(ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in this State if either of the following applies:

(a) The call both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) The call either originates or terminates in this State and the service address is located in this State.

(iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the origination point of the telecommunication signal, as first identified by the service provider's telecommunication system or as identified by information received by the seller from its service provider if the system used to transport telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is located in this State.

(iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid telecommunications service or prepaid mobile telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar means of conveyance at a location in this State. Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service is in this State if the purchaser's billing information indicates a location in this State.

(v) Receipts from the sale of private communication services are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at each channel termination point in this State.

(b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total channel mileage between each channel termination point in this State.

(c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for service segments when those segments are between 2 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is located in this State and the other is located outside of this State, which segments are separately charged.

(d) The receipts from charges for service segments with a channel termination point located in this State and in two or more other states, and which segments are not separately billed, are in this State based on a percentage determined by dividing the number of customer channel termination points in this State by the total number of customer channel termination points.

(vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services for telecommunications service sold to customers at retail are in this State if the customer's primary place of use of telecommunications services associated with those ancillary services is in this State. If the seller of those ancillary services cannot determine where the associated telecommunications are located, then the ancillary services shall be based on the location of the purchaser.

(vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or from the sale of telecommunication services or ancillary services for resale are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of the receipts from access fees attributable to intrastate telecommunications service that both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) 50% of the receipts from access fees attributable to interstate telecommunications service if the interstate call either originates or terminates in this State.

(c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end user access line charges, if the customer's service address is in this State. As used in this subdivision, "interstate end user access line charges" includes, but is not limited to, the surcharge approved by the federal communications commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.

(d) Gross receipts from sales of telecommunication services or from ancillary services for telecommunications services sold to other telecommunication service providers for resale shall be sourced to this State using the apportionment concepts used for non-resale receipts of telecommunications services if the information is readily available to make that determination. If the information is not readily available, then the taxpayer may use any other reasonable and consistent method.

(B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are in this State if the broadcasting services are received in this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Advertising revenue" means consideration received by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or announcements in connection with the broadcasting of film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the programming, or from product placements in the programming.

"Audience factor" means the ratio that the audience or subscribers located in this State of a station, a network, or a cable system bears to the total audience or total subscribers for that station, network, or cable system. The audience factor for film or radio programming shall be determined by reference to the books and records of the taxpayer or by reference to published rating statistics provided the method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the taxpayer's activity in this State.

"Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting services" means the transmission or provision of film or radio programming, whether through the public airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite transmission, or by any other means of communication, either through a station, a network, or a cable system.

"Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast on television of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any other type of format or medium. Each episode of a series of films produced for television shall constitute separate "film" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

"Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast on radio of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any other format or medium. Each episode in a series of radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall constitute a separate "radio programming" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

(i) In the case of advertising revenue from broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and the service is received in this State if the commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this State.

(ii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration received from the recipient of the broadcast, the portion of the service that is received in this State is measured by the portion of the recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for such service that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total of those fees or other remuneration received from recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location of the recipients of its broadcast using the address of the recipient shown in its contracts with the recipient or using the billing address of the recipient in the taxpayer's records.

(iii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration from the person providing the programming, the portion of the broadcast service that is received by such station, network, or cable system in this State is measured by the portion of recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the amount of revenue related to such an arrangement that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or other total remuneration from the person providing the programming related to that broadcast multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for that broadcast.

(iv) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a network or station to a customer for broadcast in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that customer the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(v) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or station to another person for broadcasting in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that person, the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section 13.1 13-1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013.

(C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:

(i) The income-producing activity is performed in this State; or

(ii) The income-producing activity is performed both within and without this State and a greater proportion of the income-producing activity is performed within this State than without this State, based on performance costs.

(C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of the following criteria are met:

(i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property are in this State if the property is located in this State.

(ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not less than zero) and other items of income from intangible personal property, the sale is in this State if:

(a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer in the item of intangible personal property within the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue Code, the income or gain is received from a customer in this State. For purposes of this subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a resident of this State and, for all other customers, if the customer's commercial domicile is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile of a customer during a taxable year, the customer shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if the billing address of the customer, as shown in the records of the dealer, is in this State; or

(b) in all other cases, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed in this State or, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed both within and without this State, if a greater proportion of the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed within this State than in any other state, based on performance costs.

(iv) Sales of services are in this State if the services are received in this State. For the purposes of this section, gross receipts from the performance of services provided to a corporation, partnership, or trust may only be attributed to a state where that corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of business. If the state where the services are received is not readily determinable or is a state where the corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the service does not have a fixed place of business, the services shall be deemed to be received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be determined, the services shall be deemed to be received at the office of the customer to which the services are billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in which the services are received, the sale must be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules prescribing where specific types of service are received, including, but not limited to, publishing, and utility service.

(D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995, the following items of income shall not be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor: dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in construing this Section for taxable years ending before December 31, 1995.

(E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1, 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business group, such election shall apply to all members of such group for every tax year such group is in existence, but shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which that taxpayer is not a member of such group.

(b) Insurance companies.

(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as may be prescribed in lieu thereof.

(2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums written by an insurance company consists of premiums for reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable, may, at the election of the company, be determined on the basis of the proportion which premiums written for reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State by each ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a company under this paragraph for its first taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years, and may be altered only with the written permission of the Department, which shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(c) Financial organizations.

(1) In general. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the business income of a financial organization from sources within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the adjusted income of an international banking facility as determined in paragraph (2):

(A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for financial services rendered within this State;

(B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or other securities managed within this State;

(C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois customers, which are received within this State;

(D) Interest charged to customers at places of business maintained within this State for carrying debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and

(E) Any other gross income resulting from the operation as a financial organization within this State. In computing the amounts referred to in paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any amount received by a member of an affiliated group (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such corporation is an "includible corporation" under Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from another member of such group shall be included only to the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the recipient directly related thereto.

(2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008:

(A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an international banking facility is its income reduced by the amount of the floor amount.

(B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of the international banking facility by a fraction, not greater than one, which is determined as follows:

(i) The numerator shall be:

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the financial organization's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, as reported for its branches, agencies and offices within the state on its "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A, Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980, minus

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of an international banking facility), as reported by the financial institution for its branches, agencies and offices within the state, on the corresponding Schedule and lines of the Consolidated Report of Condition for the current taxable year, provided, however, that in no case shall the amount determined in this clause (the subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the preceding clause (the minuend); and

(ii) the denominator shall be the average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the international banking facility's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, which were recorded in its financial accounts for the current taxable year.

(C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities is altered so that the information required for determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution shall notify the Department and the Department may, by regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the use of an alternative source for such information. The financial institution shall also notify the Department should its international banking facility fail to qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such amendment or change alters the information used in determining the floor amount.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year. "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3) means gross income, including net taxable gain on disposition of assets, including securities and money market instruments, when derived from transactions and activities in the regular course of the financial organization's trade or business. The following examples are illustrative:

(i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are from sources in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from assets in the nature of loans that are secured primarily by real estate or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the security is located in this State.

(iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the debtor is a resident of this State.

(iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans and installment obligations that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts are from sources in this State if the office of the borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the regular course of business is located in this State. If the location of this office cannot be determined, the income and receipts shall be excluded from the numerator and denominator of the sales factor.

(v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition, service charges, merchant discount income, and other receipts from credit card receivables are from sources in this State if the card charges are regularly billed to a customer in this State.

(vi) Receipts from the performance of services, including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory, and brokerage services, are in this State if the services are received in this State within the meaning of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.

(vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers checks and money orders are from sources in this State if the checks and money orders are issued from a location within this State.

(viii) Receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero) and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include but are not limited to: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in such subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all such income from such assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such funds and such securities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such funds and such securities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such trading assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(D) Properly assigned, for purposes of this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means the investment or trading asset or activity is assigned to the fixed place of business with which it has a preponderance of substantive contacts. An investment or trading asset or activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed place of business without the State shall be presumed to have been properly assigned if:

(i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the regular course of its business, such asset or activity on its records to a fixed place of business consistent with federal or state regulatory requirements;

(ii) such assignment on its records is based upon substantive contacts of the asset or activity to such fixed place of business; and

(iii) the taxpayer uses such records reflecting assignment of such assets or activities for the filing of all state and local tax returns for which an assignment of such assets or activities to a fixed place of business is required.

(E) The presumption of proper assignment of an investment or trading asset or activity provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection may be rebutted upon a showing by the Department, supported by a preponderance of the evidence, that the preponderance of substantive contacts regarding such asset or activity did not occur at the fixed place of business to which it was assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the fixed place of business that has a preponderance of substantive contacts cannot be determined for an investment or trading asset or activity to which the presumption in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection does not apply or with respect to which that presumption has been rebutted, that asset or activity is properly assigned to the state in which the taxpayer's commercial domicile is located. For purposes of this subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed, subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's commercial domicile is in the state of the United States or the District of Columbia to which the greatest number of employees are regularly connected with the management of the investment or trading income or out of which they are working, irrespective of where the services of such employees are performed, as of the last day of the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For purposes of this subsection, the business income within this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the following:

(1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is located in this State.

(2) Receipts attributable to all other matching, execution, or clearing transactions, including without limitation receipts from the provision of matching, execution, or clearing services to another entity, multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013, 27.54%.

(3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State" under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.

"Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B), or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange, determined without regard to the prohibition in Section 1501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of this Section; provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or more of the business receipts of the unitary business group determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.

In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1) for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied to the taxpayer.

(d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):

(1) Such business income (other than that derived from transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of transportation by railroad, and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(2) Such business income derived from transportation by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil, 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a consideration.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from providing transportation services other than airline services shall be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that both originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that originates in one state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the miles traveled in this State bears to total miles everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall first be determined separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Surface Transportation Board, in the case of transportation by railroad; and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline transportation services shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts from passenger and freight airline transportation.

(e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection (a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this State by one or more members of the group, the business income attributable to this State by any such member or members shall be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.

(f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the person's goods, services, or other sources of business income, the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of the person's business activity, if reasonable:

(1) Separate accounting;

(2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;

(3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which will fairly represent the person's business activities or market in this State; or

(4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's business income.

(g) Cross reference. For allocation of business income by residents, see Section 301(a).

(h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:

(1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of the sales factor;

(2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales factor;

(3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000, the sales factor.

If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll, property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is equal to zero.

(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-478, eff. 1-1-14; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-19-15.)

(35 ILCS 5/507DDD)

Sec. 507DDD. Special Olympics Illinois and Special Children's Checkoff. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Special Olympics Illinois and Special Children's Charities Checkoff Fund as authorized by Public Act 99-423 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to an amended return. For the purpose of this Section, the Department of Revenue must distribute the moneys as provided in subsection 21.9(b) of the Illinois Lottery Law: (i) 75% of the moneys to Special Olympics Illinois to support the statewide training, competitions, and programs for future Special Olympics athletes; and (ii) 25% of the moneys to Special Children's Charities to support the City of Chicago-wide training, competitions, and programs for future Special Olympics athletes.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 160. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 165. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 170. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 9-195, 15-168, 15-169, 15-172, and 15-175 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/9-195)

Sec. 9-195. Leasing of exempt property.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-35, 15-55, 15-60, 15-100, 15-103, 15-160, and 15-185, when property which is exempt from taxation is leased to another whose property is not exempt, and the leasing of which does not make the property taxable, the leasehold estate and the appurtenances shall be listed as the property of the lessee thereof, or his or her assignee. Taxes on that property shall be collected in the same manner as on property that is not exempt, and the lessee shall be liable for those taxes. However, no tax lien shall attach to the exempt real estate. The changes made by Public Act 90-562 this amendatory Act of 1997 and by Public Act 91-513 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly are declaratory of existing law and shall not be construed as a new enactment. The changes made by Public Acts 88-221 and 88-420 that are incorporated into this Section by Public Act 88-670 this amendatory Act of 1993 are declarative of existing law and are not a new enactment.

(b) The provisions of this Section regarding taxation of leasehold interests in exempt property do not apply to any leasehold interest created pursuant to any transaction described in subsection (e) of Section 15-35, subsection (c-5) of Section 15-60, subsection (b) of Section 15-100, Section 15-103, Section 15-160, or Section 15-185 of this Code , or Section 6c of the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-219, eff. 7-31-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-169)

Sec. 15-169. Homestead exemption for veterans with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption, limited to the amounts set forth in subsections (b) and (b-3), is granted for property that is used as a qualified residence by a veteran with a disability.

(b) For taxable years prior to 2015, the amount of the exemption under this Section is as follows:

(1) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(2) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least 50%, but less than (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $2,500.

(b-3) For taxable years 2015 and thereafter:

(1) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 30% or more but less than 50%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $2,500;

(2) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 50% or more but less than 70%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(3) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 70% or more, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the property is exempt from taxation under this Code.

(b-5) If a homestead exemption is granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility operated by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person who qualified for the homestead exemption.

(c) The tax exemption under this Section carries over to the benefit of the veteran's surviving spouse as long as the spouse holds the legal or beneficial title to the homestead, permanently resides thereon, and does not remarry. If the surviving spouse sells the property, an exemption not to exceed the amount granted from the most recent ad valorem tax roll may be transferred to his or her new residence as long as it is used as his or her primary residence and he or she does not remarry.

(c-1) Beginning with taxable year 2015, nothing in this Section shall require the veteran to have qualified for or obtained the exemption before death if the veteran was killed in the line of duty.

(d) The exemption under this Section applies for taxable year 2007 and thereafter. A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-168 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(e) Each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable methods. The determination must be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

(f) For the purposes of this Section:

"Qualified residence" means real property, but less any portion of that property that is used for commercial purposes, with an equalized assessed value of less than $250,000 that is the primary residence of a veteran with a disability. Property rented for more than 6 months is presumed to be used for commercial purposes.

"Veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces on active duty or State active duty, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces and who has received an honorable discharge.

(Source: P.A. 98-1145, eff. 12-30-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-375, eff. 8-17-15; revised 10-9-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-175)

Sec. 15-175. General homestead exemption.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives, to a reduction in the equalized assessed value of homestead property equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the current assessment year above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth below. If however, the 1977 equalized assessed value upon which taxes were paid is subsequently determined by local assessing officials, the Property Tax Appeal Board, or a court to have been excessive, the equalized assessed value which should have been placed on the property for 1977 shall be used to determine the amount of the exemption.

(b) Except as provided in Section 15-176, the maximum reduction before taxable year 2004 shall be $4,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $3,500 in all other counties. Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, for taxable years 2004 through 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $5,000, for taxable year 2008, the maximum reduction is $5,500, and, for taxable years 2009 through 2011, the maximum reduction is $6,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2012 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $7,000 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $6,000 in all other counties. If a county has elected to subject itself to the provisions of Section 15-176 as provided in subsection (k) of that Section, then, for the first taxable year only after the provisions of Section 15-176 no longer apply, for owners who, for the taxable year, have not been granted a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption under Section 15-172 or a long-time occupant homestead exemption under Section 15-177, there shall be an additional exemption of $5,000 for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less.

(c) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if, based on the most recent assessment, the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current assessment year is greater than the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, the owner of the property shall automatically receive the exemption granted under this Section in an amount equal to the increase over the 1977 assessment up to the maximum reduction set forth in this Section.

(d) If in any assessment year beginning with the 2000 assessment year, homestead property has a pro-rata valuation under Section 9-180 resulting in an increase in the assessed valuation, a reduction in equalized assessed valuation equal to the increase in equalized assessed value of the property for the year of the pro-rata valuation above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977 shall be applied to the property on a proportionate basis for the period the property qualified as homestead property during the assessment year. The maximum proportionate homestead exemption shall not exceed the maximum homestead exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days the property qualified as homestead property.

(e) The chief county assessment officer may, when considering whether to grant a leasehold exemption under this Section, require the following conditions to be met:

(1) that a notarized application for the exemption, signed by both the owner and the lessee of the property, must be submitted each year during the application period in effect for the county in which the property is located;

(2) that a copy of the lease must be filed with the chief county assessment officer by the owner of the property at the time the notarized application is submitted;

(3) that the lease must expressly state that the lessee is liable for the payment of property taxes; and

(4) that the lease must include the following language in substantially the following form:

"Lessee shall be liable for the payment of real estate taxes with respect to the residence in accordance with the terms and conditions of Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/15-175). The permanent real estate index number for the premises is (insert number), and, according to the most recent property tax bill, the current amount of real estate taxes associated with the premises is (insert amount) per year. The parties agree that the monthly rent set forth above shall be increased or decreased pro rata (effective January 1 of each calendar year) to reflect any increase or decrease in real estate taxes. Lessee shall be deemed to be satisfying Lessee's liability for the above mentioned real estate taxes with the monthly rent payments as set forth above (or increased or decreased as set forth herein).".

In addition, if there is a change in lessee, or if the lessee vacates the property, then the chief county assessment officer may require the owner of the property to notify the chief county assessment officer of that change.

This subsection (e) does not apply to leasehold interests in property owned by a municipality.

(f) "Homestead property" under this Section includes residential property that is occupied by its owner or owners as his or their principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, which is occupied as a residence by a person who has an ownership interest therein, legal or equitable or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building which is a life care facility as defined in Section 15-170 and considered to be a cooperative under Section 15-170, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value shall be limited to the increase in the value above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth above, multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person or persons who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For purposes of this Section, the term "life care facility" has the meaning stated in Section 15-170.

"Household", as used in this Section, means the owner, the spouse of the owner, and all persons using the residence of the owner as their principal place of residence.

"Household income", as used in this Section, means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income", as used in this Section, has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

(g) In a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(h) Where married persons maintain and reside in separate residences qualifying as homestead property, each residence shall receive 50% of the total reduction in equalized assessed valuation provided by this Section.

(i) In all counties, the assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption and the amount of the exemption by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department, provided that the taxpayer applying for an additional general exemption under this Section shall submit to the chief county assessment officer an application with an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and, if married, the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall issue guidelines establishing a method for verifying the accuracy of the affidavits filed by applicants under this paragraph. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Additional General Homestead Exemption.

(i-5) This subsection (i-5) applies to counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. In the event of a sale of homestead property, the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. Upon receipt of a transfer declaration transmitted by the recorder pursuant to Section 31-30 of the Real Estate Transfer Tax Law for property receiving an exemption under this Section, the assessor shall mail a notice and forms to the new owner of the property providing information pertaining to the rules and applicable filing periods for applying or reapplying for homestead exemptions under this Code for which the property may be eligible. If the new owner fails to apply or reapply for a homestead exemption during the applicable filing period or the property no longer qualifies for an existing homestead exemption, the assessor shall cancel such exemption for any ensuing assessment year.

(j) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, in the event of a sale of homestead property the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may require the new owner of the property to apply for the homestead exemption for the following assessment year.

(k) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-7, eff. 4-23-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-164, eff. 7-28-15; revised 8-25-15.)

Section 175. The Electricity Excise Tax Law is amended by changing Section 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 640/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Election and registration to be self-assessing purchaser. Any purchaser for non-residential electric use may elect to register with the Department as a self-assessing purchaser and to pay the tax imposed by Section 2-4 directly to the Department, at the rate stated in that Section for self-assessing purchasers, rather than paying the tax to such purchaser's delivering supplier. The election by a purchaser to register as a self-assessing purchaser may not be revoked by the purchaser for at least 2 years thereafter. A purchaser who revokes his or her registration as a self-assessing purchaser shall not thereafter be permitted to register as a self-assessing purchaser within the succeeding 2 years. A self-assessing purchaser shall renew his or her registration every 2 years, or the registration shall be deemed to be revoked.

Application for a certificate of registration as a self-assessing purchaser shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by the Department and shall contain any reasonable information the Department may require. The self-assessing purchaser shall be required to disclose the name of the delivering supplier or suppliers and each account numbers for which the self-assessing purchaser elects to pay the tax imposed by Section 2-4 directly to the Department. Upon receipt of the application for a certificate of registration in proper form and payment of a an non-refundable biennial fee of $200, the Department shall issue to the applicant a certificate of registration that permits the person to whom it was issued to pay the tax incurred under this Law directly to the Department for a period of 2 years. The Department shall notify the delivering supplier or suppliers that the applicant has been registered as a self-assessing purchaser for the accounts listed by the self-assessing purchaser. A certificate of registration under this Section shall be renewed upon application and payment of a non-refundable biennial $200 fee, subject to revocation as provided by this Law, for additional 2-year periods from the date of its expiration unless otherwise notified by the Department.

Upon notification by the Department that an applicant has been registered as a self-assessing purchaser, the delivering supplier is no longer required to collect the tax imposed by this Act for the accounts specifically listed by the self-assessing purchaser, until the delivering supplier is notified by the Department as set forth below that the self-assessing purchaser's certificate of registration has been expired, revoked, or denied.

The Department may deny a certificate of registration to any applicant if the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant, is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer, of another self-assessing purchaser that is in default for moneys due under this Law.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section may, within 20 days after notice of such decision, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the Department shall give notice to such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Law and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to such person. In the absence of such a protest within 20 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given. Upon the expiration, revocation, or denial of a certificate of registration as a self-assessing purchaser, the Department of Revenue shall provide written notice of the expiration, revocation, or denial of the certificate to the self-assessing purchaser's delivering supplier or suppliers.

(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 8-1-98; 90-624, eff. 7-10-98; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 180. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 7-172.1 and 16-152 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/7-172.1) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-172.1)

Sec. 7-172.1. Actions to enforce payments by municipalities and instrumentalities.

(a) If any participating municipality or participating instrumentality fails to transmit to the Fund contributions required of it under this Article or contributions collected by it from its participating employees for the purposes of this Article for more than 60 days after the payment of such contributions is due, the Fund, after giving notice to such municipality or instrumentality, may certify to the State Comptroller the amounts of such delinquent payments in accordance with any applicable rules of the Comptroller, and the Comptroller shall deduct the amounts so certified or any part thereof from any payments of State funds to the municipality or instrumentality involved and shall remit the amount so deducted to the Fund. If State funds from which such deductions may be made are not available, the Fund may proceed against the municipality or instrumentality to recover the amounts of such delinquent payments in the appropriate circuit court.

(b) If any participating municipality fails to transmit to the Fund contributions required of it under this Article or contributions collected by it from its participating employees for the purposes of this Article for more than 60 days after the payment of such contributions is due, the Fund, after giving notice to such municipality, may certify the fact of such delinquent payment to the county treasurer of the county in which such municipality is located, who shall thereafter remit the amounts collected from the tax levied by the municipality under Section 7-171 directly to the Fund.

(c) If reports furnished to the Fund by the municipality or instrumentality involved are inadequate for the computation of the amounts of such delinquent payments, the Fund may provide for such audit of the records of the municipality or instrumentality as may be required to establish the amounts of such delinquent payments. The municipality or instrumentality shall make its records available to the Fund for the purpose of such audit. The cost of such audit shall be added to the amount of the delinquent payments and shall be recovered by the Fund from the municipality or instrumentality at the same time and in the same manner as the delinquent payments are recovered.

(Source: P.A. 99-8, eff. 7-9-15; 99-239, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-8-15.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-152) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-152)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 98-599, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 16-152. Contributions by members.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (a-5), each member shall make contributions for membership service to this System as follows:

(1) Effective July 1, 1998, contributions of 7.50% of salary towards the cost of the retirement annuity. Such contributions shall be deemed "normal contributions".

(2) Effective July 1, 1969 and, in the case of Tier 1 members, ending on June 30, 2014, contributions of 1/2 of 1% of salary toward the cost of the automatic annual increase in retirement annuity provided under Section 16-133.1.

(3) Effective July 24, 1959, contributions of 1% of salary towards the cost of survivor benefits. Such contributions shall not be credited to the individual account of the member and shall not be subject to refund except as provided under Section 16-143.2.

(4) Effective July 1, 2005, contributions of 0.40% of salary toward the cost of the early retirement without discount option provided under Section 16-133.2. This contribution shall cease upon termination of the early retirement without discount option as provided in Section 16-133.2.

(a-5) Beginning July 1, 2014, in lieu of the contribution otherwise required under paragraph (1) of subsection (a), each Tier 1 member shall contribute 7% of salary towards the cost of the retirement annuity. Contributions made pursuant to this subsection (a-5) shall be deemed "normal contributions".

(b) The minimum required contribution for any year of full-time teaching service shall be $192.

(c) Contributions shall not be required of any annuitant receiving a retirement annuity who is given employment as permitted under Section 16-118 or 16-150.1.

(d) A person who (i) was a member before July 1, 1998, (ii) retires with more than 34 years of creditable service, and (iii) does not elect to qualify for the augmented rate under Section 16-129.1 shall be entitled, at the time of retirement, to receive a partial refund of contributions made under this Section for service occurring after the later of June 30, 1998 or attainment of 34 years of creditable service, in an amount equal to 1.00% of the salary upon which those contributions were based.

(e) A member's contributions toward the cost of early retirement without discount made under item (a)(4) of this Section shall not be refunded if the member has elected early retirement without discount under Section 16-133.2 and has begun to receive a retirement annuity under this Article calculated in accordance with that election. Otherwise, a member's contributions toward the cost of early retirement without discount made under item (a)(4) of this Section shall be refunded according to whichever one of the following circumstances occurs first:

(1) The contributions shall be refunded to the member, without interest, within 120 days after the member's retirement annuity commences, if the member does not elect early retirement without discount under Section 16-133.2.

(2) The contributions shall be included, without interest, in any refund claimed by the member under Section 16-151.

(3) The contributions shall be refunded to the member's designated beneficiary (or if there is no beneficiary, to the member's estate), without interest, if the member dies without having begun to receive a retirement annuity under this Article.

(4) The contributions shall be refunded to the member, without interest, if the early retirement without discount option provided under subsection (d) of Section 16-133.2 is terminated. In that event, the System shall provide to the member, within 120 days after the option is terminated, an application for a refund of those contributions.

(Source: P.A. 98-42, eff. 6-28-13; 98-92, eff. 7-16-13; 98-599, eff. 6-1-14.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 98-599, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 16-152. Contributions by members.

(a) Each member shall make contributions for membership service to this System as follows:

(1) Effective July 1, 1998, contributions of 7.50% of salary towards the cost of the retirement annuity. Such contributions shall be deemed "normal contributions".

(2) Effective July 1, 1969, contributions of 1/2 of 1% of salary toward the cost of the automatic annual increase in retirement annuity provided under Section 16-133.1.

(3) Effective July 24, 1959, contributions of 1% of salary towards the cost of survivor benefits. Such contributions shall not be credited to the individual account of the member and shall not be subject to refund except as provided under Section 16-143.2.

(4) Effective July 1, 2005, contributions of 0.40% of salary toward the cost of the early retirement without discount option provided under Section 16-133.2. This contribution shall cease upon termination of the early retirement without discount option as provided in Section 16-133.2.

(b) The minimum required contribution for any year of full-time teaching service shall be $192.

(c) Contributions shall not be required of any annuitant receiving a retirement annuity who is given employment as permitted under Section 16-118 or 16-150.1.

(d) A person who (i) was a member before July 1, 1998, (ii) retires with more than 34 years of creditable service, and (iii) does not elect to qualify for the augmented rate under Section 16-129.1 shall be entitled, at the time of retirement, to receive a partial refund of contributions made under this Section for service occurring after the later of June 30, 1998 or attainment of 34 years of creditable service, in an amount equal to 1.00% of the salary upon which those contributions were based.

(e) A member's contributions toward the cost of early retirement without discount made under item (a)(4) of this Section shall not be refunded if the member has elected early retirement without discount under Section 16-133.2 and has begun to receive a retirement annuity under this Article calculated in accordance with that election. Otherwise, a member's contributions toward the cost of early retirement without discount made under item (a)(4) of this Section shall be refunded according to whichever one of the following circumstances occurs first:

(1) The contributions shall be refunded to the member, without interest, within 120 days after the member's retirement annuity commences, if the member does not elect early retirement without discount under Section 16-133.2.

(2) The contributions shall be included, without interest, in any refund claimed by the member under Section 16-151.

(3) The contributions shall be refunded to the member's designated beneficiary (or if there is no beneficiary, to the member's estate), without interest, if the member dies without having begun to receive a retirement annuity under this Article.

(4) The contributions shall be refunded to the member, without interest, if the early retirement without discount option provided under subsection (d) of Section 16-133.2 is terminated. In that event, the System shall provide to the member, within 120 days after the option is terminated, an application for a refund of those contributions.

(Source: P.A. 98-42, eff. 6-28-13; 98-92, eff. 7-16-13; revised 7-23-13.)

Section 185. The Innovation Development and Economy Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 40 as follows:

(50 ILCS 470/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act, the following words and phrases shall have the following meanings unless a different meaning clearly appears from the context:

"Base year" means the calendar year immediately prior to the calendar year in which the STAR bond district is established.

"Commence work" means the manifest commencement of actual operations on the development site, such as, erecting a building, general on-site and off-site grading and utility installations, commencing design and construction documentation, ordering lead-time materials, excavating the ground to lay a foundation or a basement, or work of like description which a reasonable person would recognize as being done with the intention and purpose to continue work until the project is completed.

"County" means the county in which a proposed STAR bond district is located.

"De minimis minimus" means an amount less than 15% of the land area within a STAR bond district.

"Department of Revenue" means the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

"Destination user" means an owner, operator, licensee, co-developer, subdeveloper, or tenant (i) that operates a business within a STAR bond district that is a retail store having at least 150,000 square feet of sales floor area; (ii) that at the time of opening does not have another Illinois location within a 70 mile radius; (iii) that has an annual average of not less than 30% of customers who travel from at least 75 miles away or from out-of-state, as demonstrated by data from a comparable existing store or stores, or, if there is no comparable existing store, as demonstrated by an economic analysis that shows that the proposed retailer will have an annual average of not less than 30% of customers who travel from at least 75 miles away or from out-of-state; and (iv) that makes an initial capital investment, including project costs and other direct costs, of not less than $30,000,000 for such retail store.

"Destination hotel" means a hotel (as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act) complex having at least 150 guest rooms and which also includes a venue for entertainment attractions, rides, or other activities oriented toward the entertainment and amusement of its guests and other patrons.

"Developer" means any individual, corporation, trust, estate, partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or other entity. The term does not include a not-for-profit entity, political subdivision, or other agency or instrumentality of the State.

"Director" means the Director of Revenue, who shall consult with the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in any approvals or decisions required by the Director under this Act.

"Economic impact study" means a study conducted by an independent economist to project the financial benefit of the proposed STAR bond project to the local, regional, and State economies, consider the proposed adverse impacts on similar projects and businesses, as well as municipalities within the projected market area, and draw conclusions about the net effect of the proposed STAR bond project on the local, regional, and State economies. A copy of the economic impact study shall be provided to the Director for review.

"Eligible area" means any improved or vacant area that (i) is contiguous and is not, in the aggregate, less than 250 acres nor more than 500 acres which must include only parcels of real property directly and substantially benefited by the proposed STAR bond district plan, (ii) is adjacent to a federal interstate highway, (iii) is within one mile of 2 State highways, (iv) is within one mile of an entertainment user, or a major or minor league sports stadium or other similar entertainment venue that had an initial capital investment of at least $20,000,000, and (v) includes land that was previously surface or strip mined. The area may be bisected by streets, highways, roads, alleys, railways, bike paths, streams, rivers, and other waterways and still be deemed contiguous. In addition, in order to constitute an eligible area one of the following requirements must be satisfied and all of which are subject to the review and approval of the Director as provided in subsection (d) of Section 15:

(a) the governing body of the political subdivision shall have determined that the area meets the requirements of a "blighted area" as defined under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act; or

(b) the governing body of the political subdivision shall have determined that the area is a blighted area as determined under the provisions of Section 11-74.3-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code; or

(c) the governing body of the political subdivision shall make the following findings:

(i) that the vacant portions of the area have remained vacant for at least one year, or that any building located on a vacant portion of the property was demolished within the last year and that the building would have qualified under item (ii) of this subsection;

(ii) if portions of the area are currently developed, that the use, condition, and character of the buildings on the property are not consistent with the purposes set forth in Section 5;

(iii) that the STAR bond district is expected to create or retain job opportunities within the political subdivision;

(iv) that the STAR bond district will serve to further the development of adjacent areas;

(v) that without the availability of STAR bonds, the projects described in the STAR bond district plan would not be possible;

(vi) that the master developer meets high standards of creditworthiness and financial strength as demonstrated by one or more of the following: (i) corporate debenture ratings of BBB or higher by Standard & Poor's Corporation or Baa or higher by Moody's Investors Service, Inc.; (ii) a letter from a financial institution with assets of $10,000,000 or more attesting to the financial strength of the master developer; or (iii) specific evidence of equity financing for not less than 10% of the estimated total STAR bond project costs;

(vii) that the STAR bond district will strengthen the commercial sector of the political subdivision;

(viii) that the STAR bond district will enhance the tax base of the political subdivision; and

(ix) that the formation of a STAR bond district is in the best interest of the political subdivision.

"Entertainment user" means an owner, operator, licensee, co-developer, subdeveloper, or tenant that operates a business within a STAR bond district that has a primary use of providing a venue for entertainment attractions, rides, or other activities oriented toward the entertainment and amusement of its patrons, occupies at least 20 acres of land in the STAR bond district, and makes an initial capital investment, including project costs and other direct and indirect costs, of not less than $25,000,000 for that venue.

"Feasibility study" means a feasibility study as defined in subsection (b) of Section 20.

"Infrastructure" means the public improvements and private improvements that serve the public purposes set forth in Section 5 of this Act and that benefit the STAR bond district or any STAR bond projects, including, but not limited to, streets, drives and driveways, traffic and directional signs and signals, parking lots and parking facilities, interchanges, highways, sidewalks, bridges, underpasses and overpasses, bike and walking trails, sanitary storm sewers and lift stations, drainage conduits, channels, levees, canals, storm water detention and retention facilities, utilities and utility connections, water mains and extensions, and street and parking lot lighting and connections.

"Local sales taxes" means any locally imposed taxes received by a municipality, county, or other local governmental entity arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within a STAR bond district, including business district sales taxes and STAR bond occupation taxes, and that portion of the net revenue realized under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act from transactions at places of business located within a STAR bond district that is deposited into the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund. For the purpose of this Act, "local sales taxes" does not include (i) any taxes authorized pursuant to the Local Mass Transit District Act or the Metro-East Park and Recreation District Act for so long as the applicable taxing district does not impose a tax on real property, (ii) county school facility occupation taxes imposed pursuant to Section 5-1006.7 of the Counties Code, or (iii) any taxes authorized under the Flood Prevention District Act.

"Local sales tax increment" means, with respect to local sales taxes administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, (i) all of the local sales tax paid by destination users, destination hotels, and entertainment users that is in excess of the local sales tax paid by destination users, destination hotels, and entertainment users for the same month in the base year, as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue, (ii) in the case of a municipality forming a STAR bond district that is wholly within the corporate boundaries of the municipality and in the case of a municipality and county forming a STAR bond district that is only partially within such municipality, that portion of the local sales tax paid by taxpayers that are not destination users, destination hotels, or entertainment users that is in excess of the local sales tax paid by taxpayers that are not destination users, destination hotels, or entertainment users for the same month in the base year, as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue, and (iii) in the case of a county in which a STAR bond district is formed that is wholly within a municipality, that portion of the local sales tax paid by taxpayers that are not destination users, destination hotels, or entertainment users that is in excess of the local sales tax paid by taxpayers that are not destination users, destination hotels, or entertainment users for the same month in the base year, as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue, but only if the corporate authorities of the county adopts an ordinance, and files a copy with the Department within the same time frames as required for STAR bond occupation taxes under Section 31, that designates the taxes referenced in this clause (iii) as part of the local sales tax increment under this Act. "Local sales tax increment" means, with respect to local sales taxes administered by a municipality, county, or other unit of local government, that portion of the local sales tax that is in excess of the local sales tax for the same month in the base year, as determined by the respective municipality, county, or other unit of local government. If any portion of local sales taxes are, at the time of formation of a STAR bond district, already subject to tax increment financing under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, then the local sales tax increment for such portion shall be frozen at the base year established in accordance with this Act, and all future incremental increases shall be included in the "local sales tax increment" under this Act. Any party otherwise entitled to receipt of incremental local sales tax revenues through an existing tax increment financing district shall be entitled to continue to receive such revenues up to the amount frozen in the base year. Nothing in this Act shall affect the prior qualification of existing redevelopment project costs incurred that are eligible for reimbursement under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act. In such event, prior to approving a STAR bond district, the political subdivision forming the STAR bond district shall take such action as is necessary, including amending the existing tax increment financing district redevelopment plan, to carry out the provisions of this Act. The Illinois Department of Revenue shall allocate the local sales tax increment only if the local sales tax is administered by the Department.

"Market study" means a study to determine the ability of the proposed STAR bond project to gain market share locally and regionally and to remain profitable past the term of repayment of STAR bonds.

"Master developer" means a developer cooperating with a political subdivision to plan, develop, and implement a STAR bond project plan for a STAR bond district. Subject to the limitations of Section 25, the master developer may work with and transfer certain development rights to other developers for the purpose of implementing STAR bond project plans and achieving the purposes of this Act. A master developer for a STAR bond district shall be appointed by a political subdivision in the resolution establishing the STAR bond district, and the master developer must, at the time of appointment, own or have control of, through purchase agreements, option contracts, or other means, not less than 50% of the acreage within the STAR bond district and the master developer or its affiliate must have ownership or control on June 1, 2010.

"Master development agreement" means an agreement between the master developer and the political subdivision to govern a STAR bond district and any STAR bond projects.

"Municipality" means the city, village, or incorporated town in which a proposed STAR bond district is located.

"Pledged STAR revenues" means those sales tax and revenues and other sources of funds pledged to pay debt service on STAR bonds or to pay project costs pursuant to Section 30. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, the following revenues shall not constitute pledged STAR revenues or be available to pay principal and interest on STAR bonds: any State sales tax increment or local sales tax increment from a retail entity initiating operations in a STAR bond district while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 25 miles of the STAR bond district. For purposes of this paragraph, "terminating operations" means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a STAR bond district within one year before or after initiating operations in the STAR bond district, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality (or county if such retail operation is not located within a municipality) in which the terminated operations were located that the closed location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

"Political subdivision" means a municipality or county which undertakes to establish a STAR bond district pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

"Project costs" means and includes the sum total of all costs incurred or estimated to be incurred on or following the date of establishment of a STAR bond district that are reasonable or necessary to implement a STAR bond district plan or any STAR bond project plans, or both, including costs incurred for public improvements and private improvements that serve the public purposes set forth in Section 5 of this Act. Such costs include without limitation the following:

(a) costs of studies, surveys, development of plans and specifications, formation, implementation, and administration of a STAR bond district, STAR bond district plan, any STAR bond projects, or any STAR bond project plans, including, but not limited to, staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning, or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected and no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years;

(b) property assembly costs, including, but not limited to, acquisition of land and other real property or rights or interests therein, located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to, parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, the clearing and grading of land, and importing additional soil and fill materials, or removal of soil and fill materials from the site;

(c) subject to paragraph (d), costs of buildings and other vertical improvements that are located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district and owned by a political subdivision or other public entity, including without limitation police and fire stations, educational facilities, and public restrooms and rest areas;

(c-1) costs of buildings and other vertical improvements that are located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district and owned by a destination user or destination hotel; except that only 2 destination users in a STAR bond district and one destination hotel are eligible to include the cost of those vertical improvements as project costs;

(c-5) costs of buildings; rides and attractions, which include carousels, slides, roller coasters, displays, models, towers, works of art, and similar theme and amusement park improvements; and other vertical improvements that are located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district and owned by an entertainment user; except that only one entertainment user in a STAR bond district is eligible to include the cost of those vertical improvements as project costs;

(d) costs of the design and construction of infrastructure and public works located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district that are reasonable or necessary to implement a STAR bond district plan or any STAR bond project plans, or both, except that project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building unless the political subdivision makes a reasonable determination in a STAR bond district plan or any STAR bond project plans, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the STAR bond district plan or any STAR bond project plans;

(e) costs of the design and construction of the following improvements located outside the boundaries of a STAR bond district, provided that the costs are essential to further the purpose and development of a STAR bond district plan and either (i) part of and connected to sewer, water, or utility service lines that physically connect to the STAR bond district or (ii) significant improvements for adjacent offsite highways, streets, roadways, and interchanges that are approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation. No other cost of infrastructure and public works improvements located outside the boundaries of a STAR bond district may be deemed project costs;

(f) costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within a STAR bond district;

(g) financing costs, including, but not limited to, all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any improvements in a STAR bond district or any STAR bond projects for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(h) to the extent the political subdivision by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from a STAR bond district or STAR bond projects necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of a STAR bond district plan or STAR bond project plans;

(i) interest cost incurred by a developer for project costs related to the acquisition, formation, implementation, development, construction, and administration of a STAR bond district, STAR bond district plan, STAR bond projects, or any STAR bond project plans provided that:

(i) payment of such costs in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the developer with regard to the STAR bond district or any STAR bond projects during that year; and

(ii) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total cost paid or incurred by the developer for a STAR bond district or STAR bond projects, plus project costs, excluding any property assembly costs incurred by a political subdivision pursuant to this Act;

(j) costs of common areas located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district;

(k) costs of landscaping and plantings, retaining walls and fences, man-made lakes and ponds, shelters, benches, lighting, and similar amenities located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district;

(l) costs of mounted building signs, site monument, and pylon signs located within the boundaries of a STAR bond district; or

(m) if included in the STAR bond district plan and approved in writing by the Director, salaries or a portion of salaries for local government employees to the extent the same are directly attributable to the work of such employees on the establishment and management of a STAR bond district or any STAR bond projects.

Except as specified in items (a) through (m), "project costs" shall not include:

(i) the cost of construction of buildings that are privately owned or owned by a municipality and leased to a developer or retail user for non-entertainment retail uses;

(ii) moving expenses for employees of the businesses locating within the STAR bond district;

(iii) property taxes for property located in the STAR bond district;

(iv) lobbying costs; and

(v) general overhead or administrative costs of the political subdivision that would still have been incurred by the political subdivision if the political subdivision had not established a STAR bond district.

"Project development agreement" means any one or more agreements, including any amendments thereto, between a master developer and any co-developer or subdeveloper in connection with a STAR bond project, which project development agreement may include the political subdivision as a party.

"Projected market area" means any area within the State in which a STAR bond district or STAR bond project is projected to have a significant fiscal or market impact as determined by the Director.

"Resolution" means a resolution, order, ordinance, or other appropriate form of legislative action of a political subdivision or other applicable public entity approved by a vote of a majority of a quorum at a meeting of the governing body of the political subdivision or applicable public entity.

"STAR bond" means a sales tax and revenue bond, note, or other obligation payable from pledged STAR revenues and issued by a political subdivision, the proceeds of which shall be used only to pay project costs as defined in this Act.

"STAR bond district" means the specific area declared to be an eligible area as determined by the political subdivision, and approved by the Director, in which the political subdivision may develop one or more STAR bond projects.

"STAR bond district plan" means the preliminary or conceptual plan that generally identifies the proposed STAR bond project areas and identifies in a general manner the buildings, facilities, and improvements to be constructed or improved in each STAR bond project area.

"STAR bond project" means a project within a STAR bond district which is approved pursuant to Section 20.

"STAR bond project area" means the geographic area within a STAR bond district in which there may be one or more STAR bond projects.

"STAR bond project plan" means the written plan adopted by a political subdivision for the development of a STAR bond project in a STAR bond district; the plan may include, but is not limited to, (i) project costs incurred prior to the date of the STAR bond project plan and estimated future STAR bond project costs, (ii) proposed sources of funds to pay those costs, (iii) the nature and estimated term of any obligations to be issued by the political subdivision to pay those costs, (iv) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the STAR bond project area, (v) an estimate of the equalized assessed valuation of the STAR bond district or applicable project area after completion of a STAR bond project, (vi) a general description of the types of any known or proposed developers, users, or tenants of the STAR bond project or projects included in the plan, (vii) a general description of the type, structure, and character of the property or facilities to be developed or improved, (viii) a description of the general land uses to apply to the STAR bond project, and (ix) a general description or an estimate of the type, class, and number of employees to be employed in the operation of the STAR bond project.

"State sales tax" means all of the net revenue realized under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act from transactions at places of business located within a STAR bond district, excluding that portion of the net revenue realized under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act from transactions at places of business located within a STAR bond district that is deposited into the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund.

"State sales tax increment" means (i) 100% of that portion of the State sales tax that is in excess of the State sales tax for the same month in the base year, as determined by the Department of Revenue, from transactions at up to 2 destination users, one destination hotel, and one entertainment user located within a STAR bond district, which destination users, destination hotel, and entertainment user shall be designated by the master developer and approved by the political subdivision and the Director in conjunction with the applicable STAR bond project approval, and (ii) 25% of that portion of the State sales tax that is in excess of the State sales tax for the same month in the base year, as determined by the Department of Revenue, from all other transactions within a STAR bond district. If any portion of State sales taxes are, at the time of formation of a STAR bond district, already subject to tax increment financing under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, then the State sales tax increment for such portion shall be frozen at the base year established in accordance with this Act, and all future incremental increases shall be included in the State sales tax increment under this Act. Any party otherwise entitled to receipt of incremental State sales tax revenues through an existing tax increment financing district shall be entitled to continue to receive such revenues up to the amount frozen in the base year. Nothing in this Act shall affect the prior qualification of existing redevelopment project costs incurred that are eligible for reimbursement under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act. In such event, prior to approving a STAR bond district, the political subdivision forming the STAR bond district shall take such action as is necessary, including amending the existing tax increment financing district redevelopment plan, to carry out the provisions of this Act.

"Substantial change" means a change wherein the proposed STAR bond project plan differs substantially in size, scope, or use from the approved STAR bond district plan or STAR bond project plan.

"Taxpayer" means an individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, trust, estate, or other entity that is subject to the Illinois Income Tax Act.

"Total development costs" means the aggregate public and private investment in a STAR bond district, including project costs and other direct and indirect costs related to the development of the STAR bond district.

"Traditional retail use" means the operation of a business that derives at least 90% of its annual gross revenue from sales at retail, as that phrase is defined by Section 1 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, but does not include the operations of destination users, entertainment users, restaurants, hotels, retail uses within hotels, or any other non-retail uses.

"Vacant" means that portion of the land in a proposed STAR bond district that is not occupied by a building, facility, or other vertical improvement.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 97-188, eff. 7-22-11; revised 10-16-15.)

(50 ILCS 470/40)

Sec. 40. Amendments to STAR bond district. Any addition of real property to a STAR bond district or any substantial change to a STAR bond district plan shall be subject to the same procedure for public notice, hearing, and approval as is required for the establishment of the STAR bond district pursuant to this Act.

(a) The addition or removal of land to or from a STAR bond district shall require the consent of the master developer of the STAR bond district.

(b) Any land that is outside of, but is contiguous to an established STAR bond district and is subsequently owned, leased, or controlled by the master developer shall be added to a STAR bond district at the request of the master developer and by approval of the political subdivision, provided that the land becomes a part of a STAR bond project area.

(c) If a political subdivision has undertaken a STAR bond project within a STAR bond district, and the political subdivision desires to subsequently remove more than a de minimis minimus amount of real property from the STAR bond district, then prior to any removal of property the political subdivision must provide a revised feasibility study showing that the pledged STAR revenues from the resulting STAR bond district within which the STAR bond project is located are estimated to be sufficient to pay the project costs. If the revenue from the resulting STAR bond district is insufficient to pay the project costs, then the property may not be removed from the STAR bond district. Any removal of real property from a STAR bond district shall be approved by a resolution of the governing body of the political subdivision.

(Source: P.A. 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 190. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 7 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 10.17 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include but not be limited to the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include but not be limited to courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of rape as well as interview techniques that are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) this amendatory Act of 1996. Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, and cultural competency.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates and use of force training which shall include scenario based training, or similar training approved by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.17)

Sec. 10.17. Crisis intervention team training. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training and Standards Board shall develop and approve a standard curriculum for a certified training program in crisis intervention addressing specialized policing responses to people with mental illnesses. The Board shall conduct Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training programs that train officers to identify signs and symptoms of mental illness, to de-escalate situations involving individuals who appear to have a mental illness, and connect that person in crisis to treatment. Officers who have successfully completed this program shall be issued a certificate attesting to their attendance of a Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training program.

(Source: P.A. 99-261, eff. 1-1-16.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.18)

Sec. 10.18 10.17. Training; administration of opioid antagonists. The Board shall conduct or approve an in-service training program for police officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 10.17, the term "police officers" includes full-time or part-time probationary police officers, permanent or part-time police officers, law enforcement officers, recruits, permanent or probationary county corrections officers, permanent or probationary county security officers, and court security officers. The term does not include auxiliary police officers as defined in Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 195. The Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act is amended by changing Sections 10-10 and 10-20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 706/10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Definitions. As used in is this Act:

"Badge" means an officer's department issued identification number associated with his or her position as a police officer with that department.

"Board" means the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board created by the Illinois Police Training Act.

"Business offense" means a petty offense for which the fine is in excess of $1,000.

"Community caretaking function" means a task undertaken by a law enforcement officer in which the officer is performing an articulable act unrelated to the investigation of a crime. "Community caretaking function" includes, but is not limited to, participating in town halls or other community outreach, helping a child find his or her parents, providing death notifications, and performing in-home or hospital well-being checks on the sick, elderly, or persons presumed missing.

"Fund" means the Law Enforcement Camera Grant Fund.

"In uniform" means a law enforcement officer who is wearing any officially authorized uniform designated by a law enforcement agency, or a law enforcement officer who is visibly wearing articles of clothing, a badge, tactical gear, gun belt, a patch, or other insignia that he or she is a law enforcement officer acting in the course of his or her duties.

"Law enforcement officer" or "officer" means any person employed by a State, county, municipality, special district, college, unit of government, or any other entity authorized by law to employ peace officers or exercise police authority and who is primarily responsible for the prevention or detection of crime and the enforcement of the laws of this State.

"Law enforcement agency" means all State agencies with law enforcement officers, county sheriff's offices, municipal, special district, college, or unit of local government police departments.

"Law enforcement-related encounters or activities" include, but are not limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, arrests, searches, interrogations, investigations, pursuits, crowd control, traffic control, non-community caretaking interactions with an individual while on patrol, or any other instance in which the officer is enforcing the laws of the municipality, county, or State. "Law enforcement-related encounter or activities" does not include when the officer is completing paperwork alone or only in the presence of another law enforcement officer.

"Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

"Officer-worn body camera" means an electronic camera system for creating, generating, sending, receiving, storing, displaying, and processing audiovisual recordings that may be worn about the person of a law enforcement officer.

"Peace officer" has the meaning provided in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Petty offense" means any offense for which a sentence of imprisonment is not an authorized disposition.

"Recording" means the process of capturing data or information stored on a recording medium as required under this Act.

"Recording medium" means any recording medium authorized by the Board for the retention and playback of recorded audio and video including, but not limited to, VHS, DVD, hard drive, cloud storage, solid state, digital, flash memory technology, or any other electronic medium.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

(50 ILCS 706/10-20)

Sec. 10-20. Requirements.

(a) The Board shall develop basic guidelines for the use of officer-worn body cameras by law enforcement agencies. The guidelines developed by the Board shall be the basis for the written policy which must be adopted by each law enforcement agency which employs the use of officer-worn body cameras. The written policy adopted by the law enforcement agency must include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Cameras must be equipped with pre-event recording, capable of recording at least the 30 seconds prior to camera activation, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(2) Cameras must be capable of recording for a period of 10 hours or more, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(3) Cameras must be turned on at all times when the officer is in uniform and is responding to calls for service or engaged in any law enforcement-related encounter or activity, that occurs while the officer is on duty on-duty.

(A) If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(B) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside of a patrol car which is equipped with a functioning in-car camera; however, the officer must turn on the camera upon exiting the patrol vehicle for law enforcement-related encounters.

(4) Cameras must be turned off when:

(A) the victim of a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible, that request is made on the recording;

(B) a witness of a crime or a community member who wishes to report a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible that request is made on the recording; or

(C) the officer is interacting with a confidential informant used by the law enforcement agency.

However, an officer may continue to record or resume recording a victim or a witness, if exigent circumstances exist, or if the officer has reasonable articulable suspicion that a victim or witness, or confidential informant has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. Under these circumstances, and unless impractical or impossible, the officer must indicate on the recording the reason for continuing to record despite the request of the victim or witness.

(4.5) Cameras may be turned off when the officer is engaged in community caretaking functions. However, the camera must be turned on when the officer has reason to believe that the person on whose behalf the officer is performing a community caretaking function has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(5) The officer must provide notice of recording to any person if the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy and proof of notice must be evident in the recording. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the officer from providing notice, notice must be provided as soon as practicable.

(6) For the purposes of redaction, labeling, or duplicating recordings, access to camera recordings shall be restricted to only those personnel responsible for those purposes. The recording officer and his or her supervisor may access and review recordings prior to completing incident reports or other documentation, provided that the officer or his or her supervisor discloses that fact in the report or documentation.

(7) Recordings made on officer-worn cameras must be retained by the law enforcement agency or by the camera vendor used by the agency, on a recording medium for a period of 90 days.

(A) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera be altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period.

(B) Following the 90-day storage period, any and all recordings made with an officer-worn body camera must be destroyed, unless any encounter captured on the recording has been flagged. An encounter is deemed to be flagged when:

(i) a formal or informal complaint has been filed;

(ii) the officer discharged his or her firearm or used force during the encounter;

(iii) death or great bodily harm occurred to any person in the recording;

(iv) the encounter resulted in a detention or an arrest, excluding traffic stops which resulted in only a minor traffic offense or business offense;

(v) the officer is the subject of an internal investigation or otherwise being investigated for possible misconduct;

(vi) the supervisor of the officer, prosecutor, defendant, or court determines that the encounter has evidentiary value in a criminal prosecution; or

(vii) the recording officer requests that the video be flagged for official purposes related to his or her official duties.

(C) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera relating to a flagged encounter be altered or destroyed prior to 2 years after the recording was flagged. If the flagged recording was used in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, the recording shall not be destroyed except upon a final disposition and order from the court.

(8) Following the 90-day storage period, recordings may be retained if a supervisor at the law enforcement agency designates the recording for training purposes. If the recording is designated for training purposes, the recordings may be viewed by officers, in the presence of a supervisor or training instructor, for the purposes of instruction, training, or ensuring compliance with agency policies.

(9) Recordings shall not be used to discipline law enforcement officers unless:

(A) a formal or informal complaint of misconduct has been made;

(B) a use of force incident has occurred;

(C) the encounter on the recording could result in a formal investigation under the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act; or

(D) as corroboration of other evidence of misconduct.

Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to limit or prohibit a law enforcement officer from being subject to an action that does not amount to discipline.

(10) The law enforcement agency shall ensure proper care and maintenance of officer-worn body cameras. Upon becoming aware, officers must as soon as practical document and notify the appropriate supervisor of any technical difficulties, failures, or problems with the officer-worn body camera or associated equipment. Upon receiving notice, the appropriate supervisor shall make every reasonable effort to correct and repair any of the officer-worn body camera equipment.

(11) No officer may hinder or prohibit any person, not a law enforcement officer, from recording a law enforcement officer in the performance of his or her duties in a public place or when the officer has no reasonable expectation of privacy. The law enforcement agency's written policy shall indicate the potential criminal penalties, as well as any departmental discipline, which may result from unlawful confiscation or destruction of the recording medium of a person who is not a law enforcement officer. However, an officer may take reasonable action to maintain safety and control, secure crime scenes and accident sites, protect the integrity and confidentiality of investigations, and protect the public safety and order.

(b) Recordings made with the use of an officer-worn body camera are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except that:

(1) if the subject of the encounter has a reasonable expectation of privacy, at the time of the recording, any recording which is flagged, due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm, shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act if:

(A) the subject of the encounter captured on the recording is a victim or witness; and

(B) the law enforcement agency obtains written permission of the subject or the subject's legal representative;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), any recording which is flagged due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) upon request, the law enforcement agency shall disclose, in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, the recording to the subject of the encounter captured on the recording or to the subject's attorney, or the officer or his or her legal representative.

For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), the subject of the encounter does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy if the subject was arrested as a result of the encounter. For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), "witness" does not include a person who is a victim or who was arrested as a result of the encounter.

Only recordings or portions of recordings responsive to the request shall be available for inspection or reproduction. Any recording disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act shall be redacted to remove identification of any person that appears on the recording and is not the officer, a subject of the encounter, or directly involved in the encounter. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall require the disclosure of any recording or portion of any recording which would be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall limit access to a camera recording for the purposes of complying with Supreme Court rules or the rules of evidence.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 200. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2017)

Sec. 75. Transfer of rights, functions, powers, duties, and property to Department of State Police; rules and standards; savings provisions.

(a) On January 1, 2016, the rights, functions, powers, and duties of the Illinois Commerce Commission as set forth in this Act and the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act existing prior to January 1, 2016, are transferred to and shall be exercised by the Department of State Police. On or before January 1, 2016, the Commission shall transfer and deliver to the Department all books, records, documents, property (real and personal), unexpended appropriations, and pending business pertaining to the rights, powers, duties, and functions transferred to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(b) The rules and standards of the Commission that are in effect on January 1, 2016 and that pertain to the rights, powers, duties, and functions transferred to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall become the rules and standards of the Department on January 1, 2016, and shall continue in effect until amended or repealed by the Department.

Any rules pertaining to the rights, powers, duties, and functions transferred to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly that have been proposed by the Commission but have not taken effect or been finally adopted by January 1, 2016, shall become proposed rules of the Department on January 1, 2016, and any rulemaking procedures that have already been completed by the Commission for those proposed rules need not be repealed.

As soon as it is practical after January 1, 2016, the Department shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to reflect the transfer of rights, powers, duties, and functions effected by Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. The Department may propose and adopt under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act any other rules necessary to consolidate and clarify those rules.

(c) The rights, powers, duties, and functions transferred to the Department by Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall be vested in and exercised by the Department subject to the provisions of this Act and the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act. An act done by the Department or an officer, employee, or agent of the Department in the exercise of the transferred rights, powers, duties, and functions shall have the same legal effect as if done by the Commission or an officer, employee, or agent of the Commission.

The transfer of rights, powers, duties, and functions to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly does not invalidate any previous action taken by or in respect to the Commission, its officers, employees, or agents. References to the Commission or its officers, employees, or agents in any document, contract, agreement, or law shall, in appropriate contexts, be deemed to refer to the Department or its officers, employees, or agents.

The transfer of rights, powers, duties, and functions to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly does not affect any person's rights, obligations, or duties, including any civil or criminal penalties applicable thereto, arising out of those transferred rights, powers, duties, and functions.

Public Act 99-6 This amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or cancelled, any right occurring or established, or any action or proceeding commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal case before January 1, 2016. Any such action or proceeding that pertains to a right, power, duty, or function transferred to the Department under Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly that is pending on that date may be prosecuted, defended, or continued by the Commission.

For the purposes of Section 9b of the State Finance Act, the Department is the successor to the Commission with respect to the rights, duties, powers, and functions transferred by Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(d) (c) The Department is authorized to enter into an intergovernmental agreement with the Commission for the purpose of having the Commission assist the Department and the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator in carrying out their duties and functions under this Act. The agreement may provide for funding for the Commission for its assistance to the Department and the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15; revised 11-9-15.)

Section 205. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3013, 3-8007, 3-9005, 5-1006.5, 5-1006.7, 5-12020, and 6-1003 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as soon as he knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal or accidental, including but not limited to deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any death due to a sex crime or a crime against nature;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician;

shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician the body may be moved with the coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the accident causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner or deputy coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, blood, and whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents and other tissues. When the coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by and the manner of death of decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such as the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois Department of State Police and shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgement which the coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors, the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Department of State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State, the coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-354, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-8007) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-8007)

Sec. 3-8007. Duties and jurisdiction of commission. The Merit Commission shall have the duties, pursuant to recognized merit principles of public employment, of certification for employment and promotion, and, upon complaint of the sheriff or State's Attorney states attorney as limited in this Division, to discipline or discharge as the circumstances may warrant. All full time deputy sheriffs shall be under the jurisdiction of this Act and the county board may provide that other positions, including jail officers, as defined in "An Act to revise the law in relation to jails and jailers", approved March 3, 1874, as now or hereafter amended (repealed), shall be under the jurisdiction of the Commission. There may be exempted from coverage by resolution of the county board a "chief deputy" or "chief deputies" who shall be vested with all authorities granted to deputy sheriffs pursuant to Section 3-6015. "Chief Deputy" or "Chief Deputies" as used in this Section include the personal assistant or assistants of the sheriff whether titled "chief deputy", "undersheriff" "under sheriff", or "administrative assistant".

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 11-9-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-9005) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-9005)

Sec. 3-9005. Powers and duties of State's attorney.

(a) The duty of each State's attorney shall be:

(1) To commence and prosecute all actions, suits, indictments and prosecutions, civil and criminal, in the circuit court for his county, in which the people of the State or county may be concerned.

(2) To prosecute all forfeited bonds and recognizances, and all actions and proceedings for the recovery of debts, revenues, moneys, fines, penalties and forfeitures accruing to the State or his county, or to any school district or road district in his county; also, to prosecute all suits in his county against railroad or transportation companies, which may be prosecuted in the name of the People of the State of Illinois.

(3) To commence and prosecute all actions and proceedings brought by any county officer in his official capacity.

(4) To defend all actions and proceedings brought against his county, or against any county or State officer, in his official capacity, within his county.

(5) To attend the examination of all persons brought before any judge on habeas corpus, when the prosecution is in his county.

(6) To attend before judges and prosecute charges of felony or misdemeanor, for which the offender is required to be recognized to appear before the circuit court, when in his power so to do.

(7) To give his opinion, without fee or reward, to any county officer in his county, upon any question or law relating to any criminal or other matter, in which the people or the county may be concerned.

(8) To assist the attorney general whenever it may be necessary, and in cases of appeal from his county to the Supreme Court, to which it is the duty of the attorney general to attend, he shall furnish the attorney general at least 10 days before such is due to be filed, a manuscript of a proposed statement, brief and argument to be printed and filed on behalf of the people, prepared in accordance with the rules of the Supreme Court. However, if such brief, argument or other document is due to be filed by law or order of court within this 10-day 10 day period, then the State's attorney shall furnish such as soon as may be reasonable.

(9) To pay all moneys received by him in trust, without delay, to the officer who by law is entitled to the custody thereof.

(10) To notify, by first class mail, complaining witnesses of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information.

(11) To perform such other and further duties as may, from time to time, be enjoined on him by law.

(12) To appear in all proceedings by collectors of taxes against delinquent taxpayers for judgments to sell real estate, and see that all the necessary preliminary steps have been legally taken to make the judgment legal and binding.

(13) To notify, by first-class mail, the State Superintendent of Education, the applicable regional superintendent of schools, and the superintendent of the employing school district or the chief school administrator of the employing nonpublic school, if any, upon the conviction of any individual known to possess a certificate or license issued pursuant to Article 21 or 21B, respectively, of the School Code of any offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of the School Code or any other felony conviction, providing the name of the certificate holder, the fact of the conviction, and the name and location of the court where the conviction occurred. The certificate holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice.

(b) The State's Attorney of each county shall have authority to appoint one or more special investigators to serve subpoenas and , summonses, make return of process, and conduct investigations which assist the State's Attorney in the performance of his duties. In counties of the first and second class, the fees for service of subpoenas and summonses are allowed by this Section and shall be consistent with those set forth in Section 4-5001 of this Act, except when increased by county ordinance as provided for in Section 4-5001. In counties of the third class, the fees for service of subpoenas and summonses are allowed by this Section and shall be consistent with those set forth in Section 4-12001 of this Act. A special investigator shall not carry firearms except with permission of the State's Attorney and only while carrying appropriate identification indicating his employment and in the performance of his assigned duties.

Subject to the qualifications set forth in this subsection, special investigators shall be peace officers and shall have all the powers possessed by investigators under the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

No special investigator employed by the State's Attorney shall have peace officer status or exercise police powers unless he or she successfully completes the basic police training course mandated and approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or such board waives the training requirement by reason of the special investigator's prior law enforcement experience or training or both. Any State's Attorney appointing a special investigator shall consult with all affected local police agencies, to the extent consistent with the public interest, if the special investigator is assigned to areas within that agency's jurisdiction.

Before a person is appointed as a special investigator, his fingerprints shall be taken and transmitted to the Department of State Police. The Department shall examine its records and submit to the State's Attorney of the county in which the investigator seeks appointment any conviction information concerning the person on file with the Department. No person shall be appointed as a special investigator if he has been convicted of a felony or other offense involving moral turpitude. A special investigator shall be paid a salary and be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in performing his assigned duties. The county board shall approve the salary and actual expenses and appropriate the salary and expenses in the manner prescribed by law or ordinance.

(c) The State's Attorney may request and receive from employers, labor unions, telephone companies, and utility companies location information concerning putative fathers and noncustodial parents for the purpose of establishing a child's paternity or establishing, enforcing, or modifying a child support obligation. In this subsection, "location information" means information about (i) the physical whereabouts of a putative father or noncustodial parent, (ii) the putative father or noncustodial parent's employer, or (iii) the salary, wages, and other compensation paid and the health insurance coverage provided to the putative father or noncustodial parent by the employer of the putative father or noncustodial parent or by a labor union of which the putative father or noncustodial parent is a member.

(d) For each State fiscal year, the State's Attorney of Cook County shall appear before the General Assembly and request appropriations to be made from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund to the State Treasurer for the purpose of providing assistance in the prosecution of capital cases in Cook County and for the purpose of providing assistance to the State in post-conviction proceedings in capital cases under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and in relation to petitions filed under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure in relation to capital cases. The State's Attorney may appear before the General Assembly at other times during the State's fiscal year to request supplemental appropriations from the Trust Fund to the State Treasurer.

(e) The State's Attorney shall have the authority to enter into a written agreement with the Department of Revenue for pursuit of civil liability under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 against persons who have issued to the Department checks or other orders in violation of the provisions of paragraph (1) of subsection (B) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, with the Department to retain the amount owing upon the dishonored check or order along with the dishonored check fee imposed under the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, with the balance of damages, fees, and costs collected under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or under Section 17-1a of that Code to be retained by the State's Attorney. The agreement shall not affect the allocation of fines and costs imposed in any criminal prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 99-169, eff. 7-28-15; revised 11-9-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.5)

Sec. 5-1006.5. Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation.

(a) The county board of any county may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for public safety, public facility, or transportation purposes in that county, if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question. If imposed, this tax shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments. By resolution, the county board may order the proposition to be submitted at any election. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for public highways or as authorized under the Illinois Highway Code, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range highway transportation plan as required or described in Section 5-301 of the Illinois Highway Code and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for passenger rail transportation, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range passenger rail transportation plan and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax.

If a tax is imposed for public facilities purposes, then the name of the project may be included in the proposition at the discretion of the county board as determined in the enabling resolution. For example, the "XXX Nursing Home" or the "YYY Museum".

The county clerk shall certify the question to the proper election authority, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law.

(1) The proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of the paragraph, "public safety purposes" means crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services.

Votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

Beginning on the January 1 or July 1, whichever is first, that occurs not less than 30 days after May 31, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-4) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, Adams County may impose a public safety retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax at the rate of 0.25%, as provided in the referendum approved by the voters on April 7, 2015, notwithstanding the omission of the additional information that is otherwise required to be printed on the ballot below the question pursuant to this item (1).

(2) The proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for improvements to roads and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for road improvements and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of this paragraph, transportation purposes means construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(3) The proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" means the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the proposition vote in favor of it, the county may impose the tax. A county may not submit more than one proposition authorized by this Section to the electors at any one time.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed by a county under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this Section, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this Section, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction returns and quarter monthly payments), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their sellers' tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracketed schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a service occupation tax shall also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the county), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Fund.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(c) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the County Public Safety or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside of the State treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county, and deposited by the county into its special fund created for the purposes of this Section, shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county, (ii) any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county, and (iii) any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in March of each year to each county that received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

A county may direct, by ordinance, that all or a portion of the taxes and penalties collected under the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety or Transportation be deposited into the Transportation Development Partnership Trust Fund.

(d) For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(e-5) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, the county board may, by ordinance, discontinue or lower the rate of the tax. If the county board lowers the tax rate or discontinues the tax, a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

(f) Beginning April 1, 1998 and through December 31, 2013, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate of tax, or any ordinance lowering the rate or discontinuing the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the filing.

Beginning January 1, 2014, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting an increase in the rate of tax, along with the ordinance adopted to impose the tax or increase the rate of the tax, or any ordinance adopted to lower the rate or discontinue the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of May, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

(g) When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

(h) This Section may be cited as the "Special County Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, or Transportation Law".

(i) For purposes of this Section, "public safety" includes, but is not limited to, crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services. The county may share tax proceeds received under this Section for public safety purposes, including proceeds received before August 4, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-124), with any fire protection district located in the county. For the purposes of this Section, "transportation" includes, but is not limited to, the construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation. For the purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" includes, but is not limited to, the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

(j) The Department may promulgate rules to implement Public Act 95-1002 only to the extent necessary to apply the existing rules for the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax for Public Safety to this new purpose for public facilities.

(Source: P.A. 98-584, eff. 8-27-13; 99-4, eff. 5-31-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 11-6-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.7)

Sec. 5-1006.7. School facility occupation taxes.

(a) In any county, a tax shall be imposed upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for school facility purposes if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). The tax under this Section shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments and may not exceed 1%.

This additional tax may not be imposed on the sale of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics. The Department of Revenue has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection. The Department shall deposit all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection into a special fund created for that purpose.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), then a service occupation tax must also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service.

This tax may not be imposed on sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this subsection.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definition of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that that reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the county), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to any bracketed schedules set forth by the Department.

(c) The tax under this Section may not be imposed until the question of imposing the tax has been submitted to the electors of the county at a regular election and approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question. For all regular elections held prior to August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, upon a resolution by the county board or a resolution by school district boards that represent at least 51% of the student enrollment within the county, the county board must certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held prior to August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall (name of county) be authorized to impose a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the county may, thereafter, impose the tax.

For all regular elections held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the regional superintendent of schools for the county must, upon receipt of a resolution or resolutions of school district boards that represent more than 50% of the student enrollment within the county, certify the question to the proper election authority for submission to the electors of the county at the next regular election at which the question lawfully may be submitted to the electors, all in accordance with the Election Code.

For all regular elections held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall a retailers' occupation tax and a service occupation tax (commonly referred to as a "sales tax") be imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) to be used exclusively for school facility purposes? The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then the tax shall be imposed at the rate set forth in the question.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "enrollment" means the head count of the students residing in the county on the last school day of September of each year, which must be reported on the Illinois State Board of Education Public School Fall Enrollment/Housing Report.

(d) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the regional superintendents of schools in counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each regional superintendent of schools and disbursed to him or her in accordance with Section 3-14.31 of the School Code, is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section, on behalf of the county, (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a regional superintendent of schools under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the regional superintendents of the schools provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the School Facility Occupation Tax Fund.

(e) For the purposes of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This subsection does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(f) Nothing in this Section may be construed to authorize a tax to be imposed upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(g) If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly at a rate below the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c), then the county board may, by ordinance, increase the rate of the tax up to the rate set forth in the question approved by a majority of electors of that county voting on the question as provided in subsection (c). If a county board imposes a tax under this Section pursuant to a referendum held before August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the board may, by ordinance, discontinue or reduce the rate of the tax. If a tax is imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then the county board may reduce or discontinue the tax, but only in accordance with subsection (h-5) of this Section. If, however, a school board issues bonds that are secured by the proceeds of the tax under this Section, then the county board may not reduce the tax rate or discontinue the tax if that rate reduction or discontinuance would adversely affect the school board's ability to pay the principal and interest on those bonds as they become due or necessitate the extension of additional property taxes to pay the principal and interest on those bonds. If the county board reduces the tax rate or discontinues the tax, then a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

Until January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

Beginning January 1, 2014, the results of any election that imposes, reduces, or discontinues a tax under this Section must be certified by the election authority, and any ordinance that increases or lowers the rate or discontinues the tax must be certified by the county clerk and, in each case, filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of May, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(h) For purposes of this Section, "school facility purposes" means (i) the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the capital facilities and (ii) the payment of bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued, including bonds or other obligations heretofore or hereafter issued to refund or to continue to refund bonds or other obligations issued, for school facility purposes, provided that the taxes levied to pay those bonds are abated by the amount of the taxes imposed under this Section that are used to pay those bonds. "School-facility purposes" also includes fire prevention, safety, energy conservation, accessibility, school security, and specified repair purposes set forth under Section 17-2.11 of the School Code.

(h-5) A county board in a county where a tax has been imposed under this Section pursuant to a referendum held on or after August 23, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-542) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may, by ordinance or resolution, submit to the voters of the county the question of reducing or discontinuing the tax. In the ordinance or resolution, the county board shall certify the question to the proper election authority in accordance with the Election Code. The election authority must submit the question in substantially the following form:

Shall the school facility retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax (commonly referred to as the "school facility sales tax") currently imposed in (name of county) at a rate of (insert rate) be (reduced to (insert rate))(discontinued)? If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in the affirmative, then, subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, the tax shall be reduced or discontinued as set forth in the question.

(i) This Section does not apply to Cook County.

(j) This Section may be cited as the County School Facility Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 98-584, eff. 8-27-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 11-6-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-12020)

Sec. 5-12020. Wind farms. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a county may establish standards for wind farms and electric-generating wind devices. The standards may include, without limitation, the height of the devices and the number of devices that may be located within a geographic area. A county may also regulate the siting of wind farms and electric-generating wind devices in unincorporated areas of the county outside of the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality and the 1.5 mile radius surrounding the zoning jurisdiction of a municipality. There shall be at least one public hearing not more than 30 days prior to a siting decision by the county board. Notice of the hearing shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county. A commercial wind energy facility owner, as defined in the Wind Energy Facilities Agricultural Impact Mitigation Act, must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to the date of the required public hearing. A commercial wind energy facility owner seeking an extension of a permit granted by a county prior to July 24, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-132) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to a decision by the county to grant the permit extension. Counties may allow test wind towers to be sited without formal approval by the county board. Any provision of a county zoning ordinance pertaining to wind farms that is in effect before August 16, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-203) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may continue in effect notwithstanding any requirements of this Section.

A county may not require a wind tower or other renewable energy system that is used exclusively by an end user to be setback more than 1.1 times the height of the renewable energy system from the end user's property line.

(Source: P.A. 99-123, eff. 1-1-16; 99-132, eff. 7-24-15; revised 11-6-15.)

(55 ILCS 5/6-1003) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-1003)

Sec. 6-1003. Further appropriations barred; transfers. After the adoption of the county budget, no further appropriations shall be made at any other time during such fiscal year, except as provided in this Division. Appropriations in excess of those authorized by the budget in order to meet an immediate emergency may be made at any meeting of the board by a two-thirds vote of all the members constituting such board, the vote to be taken by ayes and nays and entered on the record of the meeting. After the adoption of the county budget, transfers of appropriations may be made without a vote of the board; however, transfers of appropriations affecting personnel and capital may be made at any meeting of the board by a two-thirds vote of all the members constituting such board, the vote to be taken by ayes and nays and entered on the record of the meeting, provided for any type of transfer that the total amount appropriated for the fund is not affected.

(Source: P.A. 99-356, eff. 8-13-15; revised 11-9-15.)

Section 210. The County Economic Development Project Area Property Tax Allocation Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(55 ILCS 85/10) (from Ch. 34, par. 7010)

Sec. 10. Conflicts of interests, disclosure. If any member of the corporate authorities of a county, or any employee or consultant of the county involved in the planning, analysis, preparation or administration of an economic development plan or an economic development project, or any proposed economic development plan or any proposed economic development project, owns or controls any interest, direct or indirect, in any property included in any economic development project area or proposed economic development project area, he or she shall disclose the same in writing to the county clerk, which disclosure shall include the dates, terms and conditions of any disposition of any such interest. The disclosures shall be acknowledged by the corporate authorities of the county and entered upon the official records and files of the corporate authorities. Any such individual holding any such interest shall refrain from any further official involvement regarding such established or proposed economic development project area, economic development plan or economic development project, and shall also refrain from form voting on any matter pertaining to that project, plan or area and from communicating with any members of the corporate authorities of the county and no employee of the county shall acquire any interest, direct or indirect, in any real or personal property or rights or interest therein within an economic development project area or a proposed economic development project area after that person obtains knowledge of the project, plan or area or after the first public notice of the project, plan or area is given by the county, whichever shall first occur.

(Source: P.A. 86-1388; revised 11-9-15.)

Section 215. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-1.6 and 11-13-26 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.6)

Sec. 8-11-1.6. Non-home rule municipal retailers occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than on an item of tangible personal property that is titled and registered by an agency of this State's Government, at retail in the municipality. This tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the gross receipts from such sales made in the course of business. Any tax imposed by a municipality under this Section Sec. and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda, arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.7 of this Act.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section, may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant, instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which is hereby created.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town, including an incorporated town that has superseded a civil township.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 11-9-15.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-13-26)

Sec. 11-13-26. Wind farms. Notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(a) A municipality may regulate wind farms and electric-generating wind devices within its zoning jurisdiction and within the 1.5 mile radius surrounding its zoning jurisdiction. There shall be at least one public hearing not more than 30 days prior to a siting decision by the corporate authorities of a municipality. Notice of the hearing shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the municipality. A commercial wind energy facility owner, as defined in the Wind Energy Facilities Agricultural Impact Mitigation Act, must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to the date of the required public hearing. A commercial wind energy facility owner seeking an extension of a permit granted by a municipality prior to July 24, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-132) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly must enter into an agricultural impact mitigation agreement with the Department of Agriculture prior to a decision by the municipality to grant the permit extension. A municipality may allow test wind towers to be sited without formal approval by the corporate authorities of the municipality. Test wind towers must be dismantled within 3 years of installation. For the purposes of this Section, "test wind towers" are wind towers that are designed solely to collect wind generation data.

(b) A municipality may not require a wind tower or other renewable energy system that is used exclusively by an end user to be setback more than 1.1 times the height of the renewable energy system from the end user's property line. A setback requirement imposed by a municipality on a renewable energy system may not be more restrictive than as provided under this subsection. This subsection is a limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 99-123, eff. 1-1-16; 99-132, eff. 7-24-15; revised 11-6-15.)

Section 220. The Civic Center Code is amended by changing Sections 170-50 and 240-50 as follows:

(70 ILCS 200/170-50)

Sec. 170-50. Contracts. All contracts for sale of property of the value of more than $10,000 or for a an concession in or lease of property, including air rights, of the Authority for a term of more than one year shall be awarded to the highest responsible bidder, after advertising for bids. All construction contracts and contracts for supplies, materials, equipment and services, when the expense thereof will exceed $10,000, shall be let to the lowest responsible bidder, after advertising for bids, excepting (1) when repair parts, accessories, equipment or services are required for equipment or services previously furnished or contracted for; (2) when the nature of the services required is such that competitive bidding is not in the best interest of the public, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the services of accountants, architects, attorneys, engineers, physicians, superintendents of construction, and others possessing a high degree of skill; and (3) when services such as water, light, heat, power, telephone or telegraph are required.

All contracts involving less than $10,000 shall be let by competitive bidding to the lowest responsible bidder whenever possible, and in any event in a manner calculated to ensure the best interests of the public.

In determining the responsibility of any bidder, the Board may take into account the past record of dealings with the bidder, the bidder's experience, adequacy of equipment, and ability to complete performance within the time set, and other factors besides financial responsibility, but in no case shall any such contracts be awarded to any other than the highest bidder (in case of sale, concession or lease) or the lowest bidder (in case of purchase or expenditure) unless authorized or approved by a vote of at least three-fourths of the members of the Board, and unless such action is accompanied by a statement in writing setting forth the reasons for not awarding the contract to the highest or lowest bidder, as the case may be, which statement shall be kept on file in the principal office of the Authority and open to public inspection.

From the group of responsible bidders the lowest bidder shall be selected in the following manner: to all bids for sales the gross receipts of which are not taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, there shall be added an amount equal to the tax which would be payable under said Act, if applicable, and the lowest in amount of said adjusted bids and bids for sales the gross receipts of which are taxable under said Act shall be considered the lowest bid; provided, that, if said lowest bid relates to a sale not taxable under said Act, any contract entered into thereon shall be in the amount of the original bid not adjusted as aforesaid.

Contracts shall not be split into parts involving expenditures of less than $10,000 for the purposes of avoiding the provisions of this Section, and all such split contracts shall be void. If any collusion occurs among bidders or prospective bidders in restraint of freedom of competition, by agreement to bid a fixed amount or to refrain from bidding or otherwise, the bids of such bidders shall be void. Each bidder shall accompany his bid with a sworn statement that he has not been a party to any such agreement.

Members of the Board, officers and employees of the Authority, and their relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity by the terms of the civil law, are forbidden to be interested directly or indirectly in any contract for construction or maintenance work or for the delivery of materials, supplies or equipment.

The Board shall have the right to reject all bids and to readvertise for bids. If after any such advertisement no responsible and satisfactory bid, within the terms of the advertisement, shall be received, the Board may award such contract, without competitive bidding, provided that it shall not be less advantageous to the Authority than any valid bid received pursuant to advertisement.

The Board shall adopt rules and regulations to carry into effect the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-491, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-13-15.)

(70 ILCS 200/240-50)

Sec. 240-50. Contracts. All contracts for sale of property of the value of more than $10,000 or for a an concession in or lease of property including air rights, of the Authority for a term of more than one year shall be awarded to the highest responsible bidder, after advertising for bids. All construction contracts and contracts for supplies, materials, equipment and services, when the expense thereof will exceed $10,000, shall be let to the lowest responsible bidder, after advertising for bids, excepting (1) when repair parts, accessories, equipment or services are required for equipment or services previously furnished or contracted for; (2) when the nature of the services required is such that competitive bidding is not in the best interest of the public, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the services of accountants, architects, attorneys, engineers, physicians, superintendents of construction, and others possessing a high degree of skill; and (3) when services such as water, light, heat, power, telephone or telegraph are required.

All contracts involving less than $10,000 shall be let by competitive bidding to the lowest responsible bidder whenever possible, and in any event in a manner calculated to ensure the best interests of the public.

In determining the responsibility of any bidder, the Board may take in account the past record of dealings with the bidder, experience, adequacy of equipment, ability to complete performance within the time set, and other factors besides financial responsibility, but in no case shall any such contracts be awarded to any other than the highest bidder (in case of sale, concession or lease) or the lowest bidder (in case of purchase or expenditure) unless authorized or approved by the affirmative vote of at least 6 of the members of the Board present at a meeting at which a quorum is present, and unless such action is accompanied by a statement in writing setting forth the reasons for not awarding the contract to the highest or lowest bidder, as the case may be, which statement shall be kept on file in the principal office of the Authority and open to public inspection.

From the group of responsible bidders the lowest bidder shall be selected in the following manner: to all bids for sales the gross receipts of which are not taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, there shall be added an amount equal to the tax which would be payable under said Act, if applicable, and the lowest in amount of said adjusted bids and bids for sales the gross receipts of which are taxable under said Act shall be considered the lowest bid; provided, that, if said lowest bid relates to a sale not taxable under said Act, any contract entered into thereon shall be in the amount of the original bid not adjusted as aforesaid.

Contracts shall not be split into parts involving expenditures of less than $10,000 for the purposes of avoiding the provisions of this Section, and all such split contracts shall be void. If any collusion occurs among bidders or prospective bidders in restraint of freedom of competition, by agreement to bid a fixed amount or to refrain from bidding or otherwise, the bids of such bidders shall be void. Each bidder shall accompany his bid with a sworn statement that he has not been a party to any such agreement.

Members of the Board, officers and employees of the Authority, and their relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity by the terms of the civil law, are forbidden to be interested directly or indirectly in any contract for construction or maintenance work or for the delivery of materials, supplies or equipment.

The Board shall have the right to reject all bids and to readvertise for bids. If after any such advertisement no responsible and satisfactory bid, within the terms of the advertisement, shall be received, the Board may award such contract, without competitive bidding, provided that it shall not be less advantageous to the Authority than any valid bid received pursuant to advertisement.

The Board shall adopt rules and regulations to carry into effect the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-491, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 225. The Flood Prevention District Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(70 ILCS 750/25)

Sec. 25. Flood prevention retailers' and service occupation taxes.

(a) If the Board of Commissioners of a flood prevention district determines that an emergency situation exists regarding levee repair or flood prevention, and upon an ordinance confirming the determination adopted by the affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the county board of the county in which the district is situated, the county may impose a flood prevention retailers' occupation tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the territory of the district to provide revenue to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to secure the payment of bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act for a period not to exceed 25 years or as required to repay the bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act. The tax rate shall be 0.25% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) are subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) shall employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 1 through 1o, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a through 2h, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (a), a tax shall also be imposed under subsection (b) of this Section.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a flood prevention service occupation tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged within the territory of the district in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service to provide revenue to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to secure the payment of bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act for a period not to exceed 25 years or as required to repay the bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness. The tax rate shall be 0.25% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder.

In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are set forth in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State means the district), 2a through 2d, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the district), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax is a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 is the district), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State means the district), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and all provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

(c) The taxes imposed in subsections (a) and (b) may not be imposed on personal property titled or registered with an agency of the State; food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption); prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, and medical appliances; modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability; or insulin, urine testing materials, and syringes and needles used by diabetics.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the district to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(e) The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or a serviceman under the Service Occupation Tax Act permits the retailer or serviceman to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section.

(f) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside the State treasury.

On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers or servicemen have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county is equal to the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected from the county under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, (i) less 2% of that amount, which shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this Section on behalf of the county, (ii) plus an amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body; (iii) less an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county; and (iv) less any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county. When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller from the Department of the disbursement certification to the counties provided for in this Section, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

If the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, then the Department shall notify the Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the Treasurer out of the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund.

(g) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, then the county board shall, by ordinance, discontinue the tax upon the payment of all indebtedness of the flood prevention district. The tax shall not be discontinued until all indebtedness of the District has been paid.

(h) Any ordinance imposing the tax under this Section, or any ordinance that discontinues the tax, must be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax or change in the rate as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(j) County Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Fund. All proceeds received by a county from a tax distribution under this Section must be maintained in a special fund known as the [name of county] flood prevention occupation tax fund. The county shall, at the direction of the flood prevention district, use moneys in the fund to pay the costs of providing emergency levee repair and flood prevention and to pay bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness issued under this Act.

(k) This Section may be cited as the Flood Prevention Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 11-6-15.)

Section 230. The Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1835/22) (from Ch. 19, par. 722)

Sec. 22. Members of the Board shall hold office until their respective successors have been appointed and qualified. Any member may resign from his office to take effect when his successor has been appointed and qualified. The Governor may remove any member of the Board in case of incompetency, neglect of duty or malfeasance in office. He shall give such member a copy of the charges against him and an opportunity to be publicly heard in person or by counsel in his own defense upon not less than 10 days' day's notice. In case of failure to qualify within the time required, or of abandonment of his office, or in case of death, conviction of a felony or removal from office, the office of such member shall become vacant. Each vacancy shall be filled for the unexpired term by appointment in like manner as in case of expiration of the term of a member of the Board.

(Source: P.A. 76-1788; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 235. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/5) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 355)

Sec. 5. (a) The Board of Trustees of every District may establish or acquire any or all manner of mass transit facility. The Board may engage in the business of transportation of passengers on scheduled routes and by contract on nonscheduled routes within the territorial limits of the counties or municipalities creating the District, by whatever means it may decide. Its routes may be extended beyond such territorial limits with the consent of the governing bodies of the municipalities or counties into which such operation is extended.

(b) The Board of Trustees of every District may for the purposes of the District, acquire by gift, purchase, lease, legacy, condemnation, or otherwise and hold, use, improve, maintain, operate, own, manage or lease, as lessor or lessee, such cars, buses, equipment, buildings, structures, real and personal property, and interests therein, and services, lands for terminal and other related facilities, improvements and services, or any interest therein, including all or any part of the plant, land, buildings, equipment, vehicles, licenses, franchises, patents, property, service contracts and agreements of every kind and nature. Real property may be so acquired if it is situated within or partially within the area served by the District or if it is outside the area if it is desirable or necessary for the purposes of the District.

(c) The Board of Trustees of every District which establishes, provides, or acquires mass transit facilities or services may contract with any person or corporation or public or private entity for the operation or provision thereof upon such terms and conditions as the District shall determine.

(d) The Board of Trustees of every District shall have the authority to contract for any and all purposes of the District, including with an interstate transportation authority, or with another local Mass Transit District or any other municipal, public, or private corporation entity in the transportation business including the authority to contract to lease its or otherwise provide land, buildings, and equipment, and other related facilities, improvements, and services, for the carriage of passengers beyond the territorial limits of the District or to subsidize transit operations by a public or private or municipal corporation operating entity providing mass transit facilities.

(e) The Board of Trustees of every District shall have the authority to establish, alter and discontinue transportation routes and services and any or all ancillary or supporting facilities and services, and to establish and amend rate schedules for the transportation of persons thereon or for the public or private use thereof which rate schedules shall, together with any grants, receipts or income from other sources, be sufficient to pay the expenses of the District, the repair, maintenance and the safe and adequate operation of its mass transit facilities and public mass transportation system and to fulfill the terms of its debts, undertakings, and obligations.

(f) The Board of Trustees of every District shall have perpetual succession and shall have the following powers in addition to any others in this Act granted:

(1) to sue and be sued;

(2) to adopt and use a seal;

(3) to make and execute contracts loans, leases, subleases, installment purchase agreements, contracts, notes and other instruments evidencing financial obligations, and other instruments necessary or convenient in the exercise of its powers;

(4) to make, amend and repeal bylaws, rules and regulations not inconsistent with this Act;

(5) to sell, lease, sublease, license, transfer, convey or otherwise dispose of any of its real or personal property, or interests therein, in whole or in part, at any time upon such terms and conditions as it may determine, with public bidding if the value exceeds $1,000 at negotiated, competitive, public, or private sale;

(6) to invest funds, not required for immediate disbursement, in property, agreements, or securities legal for investment of public funds controlled by savings banks under applicable law;

(7) to mortgage, pledge, hypothecate or otherwise encumber all or any part of its real or personal property or other assets, or interests therein;

(8) to apply for, accept and use grants, loans or other financial assistance from any private entity or municipal, county, State or Federal governmental agency or other public entity;

(9) to borrow money from the United States Government or any agency thereof, or from any other public or private source, for the purposes of the District and, as evidence thereof, to issue its revenue bonds, payable solely from the revenue derived from the operation of the District. These bonds may be issued with maturities not exceeding 40 years from the date of the bonds, and in such amounts as may be necessary to provide sufficient funds, together with interest, for the purposes of the District. These bonds shall bear interest at a rate of not more than the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract of sale, payable semi-annually, may be made registerable as to principal, and may be made payable and callable as provided on any interest payment date at a price of par and accrued interest under such terms and conditions as may be fixed by the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the bonds. Bonds issued under this Section are negotiable instruments. They shall be executed by the chairman and members of the Board of Trustees, attested by the secretary, and shall be sealed with the corporate seal of the District. In case any Trustee or officer whose signature appears on the bonds or coupons ceases to hold that office before the bonds are delivered, such officer's signature, shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as though such officer had remained in office until the bonds were delivered. The bonds shall be sold in such manner and upon such terms as the Board of Trustees shall determine, except that the selling price shall be such that the interest cost to the District of the proceeds of the bonds shall not exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract of sale, payable semi-annually, computed to maturity according to the standard table of bond values.

The ordinance shall fix the amount of revenue bonds proposed to be issued, the maturity or maturities, the interest rate, which shall not exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract of sale, and all the details in connection with the bonds. The ordinance may contain such covenants and restrictions upon the issuance of additional revenue bonds thereafter, which will share equally in the revenue of the District, as may be deemed necessary or advisable for the assurance of the payment of the bonds first issued. Any District may also provide in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of bonds under this Section that the bonds, or such ones thereof as may be specified, shall, to the extent and in the manner prescribed, be subordinated and be junior in standing, with respect to the payment of principal and interest and the security thereof, to such other bonds as are designated in the ordinance.

The ordinance shall pledge the revenue derived from the operations of the District for the purpose of paying the cost of operation and maintenance of the District, and, as applicable, providing adequate depreciation funds, and paying the principal of and interest on the bonds of the District issued under this Section; .

(10) subject to Section 5.1, to levy a tax on property within the District at the rate of not to exceed .25% on the assessed value of such property in the manner provided in the "The Illinois Municipal Budget Law", approved July 12, 1937, as amended;

(11) to issue tax anticipation warrants;

(12) to contract with any school district in this State to provide for the transportation of pupils to and from school within such district pursuant to the provisions of Section 29-15 of the School Code;

(13) to provide for the insurance of any property, directors, officers, employees or operations of the District against any risk or hazard, and to self-insure or participate in joint self-insurance pools or entities to insure against such risk or hazard;

(14) to use its established funds, personnel, and other resources to acquire, construct, operate, and maintain bikeways and trails. Districts may cooperate with other governmental and private agencies in bikeway and trail programs; and

(15) to acquire, own, maintain, construct, reconstruct, improve, repair, operate or lease any light-rail public transportation system, terminal, terminal facility, public airport, or bridge or toll bridge across waters with any city, state, or both.

With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989, it is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

This Section shall be liberally construed to give effect to its purposes.

(Source: P.A. 93-590, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 240. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 4.03 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/4.03) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.03)

Sec. 4.03. Taxes.

(a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of the Authority, the Board may by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in Public Act 95-708 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly is intended to invalidate any taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-708) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law. The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act, including without limitation, conformity to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by this Section.

(c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for details of the tax.

(d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term "parking facility" means a parking area or structure having parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is regulated by parking meters.

(e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the metropolitan region. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1.25% of the gross receipts from sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan region in the business of making sales of service, who as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation tax by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act that is located in the metropolitan region; (2) 1.25% of the selling price of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will Counties the rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

(h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of $50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim. The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002 and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that amount in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.

(j) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including without limitation conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.

(l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers, users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid, which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act. The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales or uses.

(m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing, increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the first month to occur not less than 60 days following such adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance or resolution until the Department begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by Public Act 95-708 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The tax rates authorized by Public Act 95-708 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.

(n) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i) the amount of taxes collected in each County other than Cook County in the metropolitan region, (ii) the amount of taxes collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago, each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items (i), (ii), and (iii). Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment of two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.

(p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax authorized under paragraphs (e), (f) and (g) of this Section is in effect.

Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) shall remain in effect only until the time as any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) is imposed the Board may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other than an ordinance of the Board.

(q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations (including enforcement by the Regional Transportation Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the imposition of a tax under paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 245. The Water Commission Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3720/4) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 254)

Sec. 4. Taxes.

(a) The board of commissioners of any county water commission may, by ordinance, impose throughout the territory of the commission any or all of the taxes provided in this Section for its corporate purposes. However, no county water commission may impose any such tax unless the commission certifies the proposition of imposing the tax to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters residing in the territory at an election in accordance with the general election law, and the proposition has been approved by a majority of those voting on the proposition.

The proposition shall be in the form provided in Section 5 or shall be substantially in the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the (insert corporate name of county water commission) YES impose (state type of tax or ------------------------

taxes to be imposed) at the NO rate of 1/4%?

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Taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes.

(b) The board of commissioners may impose a County Water Commission Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the territory of the commission at a rate of 1/4% of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicine, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act and under subsection (e) of Section 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this paragraph is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b) a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a County Water Commission Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the territory of the commission, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the territory. The tax rate shall be 1/4% of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the territory of the commission), 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the territory of the commission), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the commission), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the territory of the commission), the first paragraph of Section 15, 15.5, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, and any tax for which servicemen may be liable under subsection (f) of Section Sec. 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(d) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a tax shall also imposed upon the privilege of using, in the territory of the commission, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the territory at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at a rate of 1/4% of the selling price of the tangible personal property within the territory, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the territory. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for a county water commission. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers, and except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act that are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under paragraph (g) of this Section.

(e) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(f) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the county water commission as of September 1 next following the adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing.

(g) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the commission. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois the amount to be paid to the commission, which shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the commission, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the commission, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amount to be paid to the commission, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment for the amount in accordance with the direction in the certification.

(h) Beginning June 1, 2016, any tax imposed pursuant to this Section may no longer be imposed or collected, unless a continuation of the tax is approved by the voters at a referendum as set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-298, eff. 8-9-13; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; revised 11-9-15.)

Section 250. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.25a, 2-3.25f, 2-3.64a-5, 5-2.2, 10-17a, 10-29, 14-8.02, 19-1, 21B-20, 21B-45, 22-30, 27-8.1, 27-24.2, 27A-5, 32-5, 34-2.4, and 34-8.1, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.163 and 22-80, and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10-20.56 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25a) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25a)

Sec. 2-3.25a. "School district" defined; additional standards.

(a) For the purposes of this Section and Sections 3.25b, 3.25c, 3.25d, 3.25e, and 3.25f of this Code, "school district" includes other public entities responsible for administering public schools, such as cooperatives, joint agreements, charter schools, special charter districts, regional offices of education, local agencies, and the Department of Human Services.

(b) In addition to the standards established pursuant to Section 2-3.25, the State Board of Education shall develop recognition standards for student performance and school improvement for all school districts and their individual schools, which must be an outcomes-based, balanced accountability measure. The State Board of Education is prohibited from having separate performance standards for students based on race or ethnicity.

Subject to the availability of federal, State, public, or private funds, the balanced accountability measure must be designed to focus on 2 components, student performance and professional practice. The student performance component shall count for 30% of the total balanced accountability measure, and the professional practice component shall count for 70% of the total balanced accountability measure. The student performance component shall focus on student outcomes and closing the achievement gaps within each school district and its individual schools using a Multiple Measure Index and Annual Measurable Objectives, as set forth in Section 2-3.25d of this Code. The professional practice component shall focus on the degree to which a school district, as well as its individual schools, is implementing evidence-based, best professional practices and exhibiting continued improvement. Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, the balanced accountability measure shall consist of only the student performance component, which shall account for 100% of the total balanced accountability measure. From the 2016-2017 school year through the 2021-2022 school year, the State Board of Education and a Balanced Accountability Measure Committee shall identify a number of school districts per the designated school years to begin implementing the balanced accountability measure, which includes both the student performance and professional practice components. By the 2021-2022 school year, all school districts must be implementing the balanced accountability measure, which includes both components. The Balanced Accountability Measure Committee shall consist of the following individuals: a representative of a statewide association representing regional superintendents of schools, a representative of a statewide association representing principals, a representative of an association representing principals in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, a representative of a statewide association representing school administrators, a representative of a statewide professional teachers' organization, a representative of a different statewide professional teachers' organization, an additional representative from either statewide professional teachers' organization, a representative of a professional teachers' organization in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, a representative of a statewide association representing school boards, and a representative of a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. The head of each association or entity listed in this paragraph shall appoint its respective representative. The State Superintendent of Education, in consultation with the Committee, may appoint no more than 2 additional individuals to the Committee, which individuals shall serve in an advisory role and must not have voting or other decision-making rights. The Committee is abolished on June 1, 2022.

Using a Multiple Measure Index consistent with subsection (a) of Section 2-3.25d of this Code, the student performance component shall consist of the following subcategories, each of which must be valued at 10%:

(1) achievement status;

(2) achievement growth; and

(3) Annual Measurable Objectives, as set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2-3.25d of this Code. Achievement status shall measure and assess college and career readiness, as well as the graduation rate. Achievement growth shall measure the school district's and its individual schools' student growth via this State's growth value tables. Annual Measurable Objectives shall measure the degree to which school districts, as well as their individual schools, are closing their achievement gaps among their student population and subgroups.

The professional practice component shall consist of the following subcategories:

(A) compliance;

(B) evidence-based best practices; and

(C) contextual improvement. Compliance, which shall count for 10%, shall measure the degree to which a school district and its individual schools meet the current State compliance requirements. Evidence-based best practices, which shall count for 30%, shall measure the degree to which school districts and their individual schools are adhering to a set of evidence-based quality standards and best practice for effective schools that include (i) continuous improvement, (ii) culture and climate, (iii) shared leadership, (iv) governance, (v) education and employee quality, (vi) family and community connections, and (vii) student and learning development and are further developed in consultation with the State Board of Education and the Balanced Accountability Measure Committee set forth in this subsection (b). Contextual improvement, which shall count for 30%, shall provide school districts and their individual schools the opportunity to demonstrate improved outcomes through local data, including without limitation school climate, unique characteristics, and barriers that impact the educational environment and hinder the development and implementation of action plans to address areas of school district and individual school improvement. Each school district, in good faith cooperation with its teachers or, where applicable, the exclusive bargaining representatives of its teachers, shall develop 2 measurable objectives to demonstrate contextual improvement, each of which must be equally weighted. Each school district shall begin such good faith cooperative development of these objectives no later than 6 months prior to the beginning of the school year in which the school district is to implement the professional practice component of the balanced accountability measure. The professional practice component must be scored using trained peer review teams that observe and verify school district practices using an evidence-based framework.

The balanced accountability measure shall combine the student performance and professional practice components into one summative score based on 100 points at the school district and individual-school level. A school district shall be designated as "Exceeds Standards - Exemplar" if the overall score is 100 to 90, "Meets Standards - Proficient" if the overall score is 89 to 75, "Approaching Standards - Needs Improvement" if the overall score is 74 to 60, and "Below Standards - Unsatisfactory" if the overall score is 59 to 0. The balanced accountability measure shall also detail both incentives that reward school districts for continued improved performance, as provided in Section 2-3.25c of this Code, and consequences for school districts that fail to provide evidence of continued improved performance, which may include presentation of a barrier analysis, additional school board and administrator training, or additional State assistance. Based on its summative score, a school district may be exempt from the balanced accountability measure for one or more school years. The State Board of Education, in collaboration with the Balanced Accountability Measure Committee set forth in this subsection (b), shall adopt rules that further implementation in accordance with the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-84, eff. 1-1-16; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-9-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25f) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25f)

Sec. 2-3.25f. State interventions.

(a) The State Board of Education shall provide technical assistance to assist with the development and implementation of School and District Improvement Plans.

Schools or school districts that fail to make reasonable efforts to implement an approved Improvement Plan may suffer loss of State funds by school district, attendance center, or program as the State Board of Education deems appropriate.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) Beginning in 2017, if, after 3 years following its identification as a priority district under Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code, a district does not make progress as measured by a reduction in achievement gaps commensurate with the targets in this State's approved accountability plan with the U.S. Department of Education, then the State Board of Education may (i) change the recognition status of the school district or school to nonrecognized or (ii) authorize the State Superintendent of Education to direct the reassignment of pupils or direct the reassignment or replacement of school district personnel. If a school district is nonrecognized in its entirety, it shall automatically be dissolved on July 1 following that nonrecognition and its territory realigned with another school district or districts by the regional board of school trustees in accordance with the procedures set forth in Section 7-11 of the School Code. The effective date of the nonrecognition of a school shall be July 1 following the nonrecognition.

(b-5) The State Board of Education shall also develop a system to provide assistance and resources to lower performing school districts. At a minimum, the State Board shall identify school districts to receive priority services, to be known as priority districts under Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code. The school district shall provide the exclusive bargaining representative with a 5-day notice that the district has been identified as a priority district. In addition, the State Board may, by rule, develop other categories of low-performing schools and school districts to receive services.

Based on the results of the district needs assessment under Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code, the State Board of Education shall work with the district to provide technical assistance and professional development, in partnership with the district, to implement a continuous improvement plan that would increase outcomes for students. The plan for continuous improvement shall be based on the results of the district needs assessment and shall be used to determine the types of services that are to be provided to each priority district. Potential services for a district may include monitoring adult and student practices, reviewing and reallocating district resources, developing a district leadership team, providing access to curricular content area specialists, and providing online resources and professional development.

The State Board of Education may require priority districts identified as having deficiencies in one or more core functions of the district needs assessment to undergo an accreditation process as provided in subsection (d) of Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code.

(c) All federal requirements apply to schools and school districts utilizing federal funds under Title I, Part A of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965.

(Source: P.A. 98-1155, eff. 1-9-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-203, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-9-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.64a-5)

Sec. 2-3.64a-5. State goals and assessment.

(a) For the assessment and accountability purposes of this Section, "students" includes those students enrolled in a public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law, a school operated by a regional office of education under Section 13A-3 of this Code, or a public school administered by a local public agency or the Department of Human Services.

(b) The State Board of Education shall establish the academic standards that are to be applicable to students who are subject to State assessments under this Section. The State Board of Education shall not establish any such standards in final form without first providing opportunities for public participation and local input in the development of the final academic standards. Those opportunities shall include a well-publicized period of public comment and opportunities to file written comments.

(c) Beginning no later than the 2014-2015 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually assess all students enrolled in grades 3 through 8 in English language arts and mathematics.

Beginning no later than the 2017-2018 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually assess all students in science at one grade in grades 3 through 5, at one grade in grades 6 through 8, and at one grade in grades 9 through 12.

The State Board of Education shall annually assess schools that operate a secondary education program, as defined in Section 22-22 of this Code, in English language arts and mathematics. The State Board of Education shall administer no more than 3 assessments, per student, of English language arts and mathematics for students in a secondary education program. One of these assessments shall include a college and career ready determination that shall be accepted by this State's public institutions of higher education, as defined in the Board of Higher Education Act, for the purpose of student application or admissions consideration.

Students who are not assessed for college and career ready determinations may not receive a regular high school diploma unless the student is exempted from taking State assessments under subsection (d) of this Section because (i) the student's individualized educational program developed under Article 14 of this Code identifies the State assessment as inappropriate for the student, (ii) the student is enrolled in a program of adult and continuing education, as defined in the Adult Education Act, (iii) the school district is not required to assess the individual student for purposes of accountability under federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 requirements, (iv) the student has been determined to be an English learner and has been enrolled in schools in the United States for less than 12 months, or (v) the student is otherwise identified by the State Board of Education, through rules, as being exempt from the assessment.

The State Board of Education shall not assess students under this Section in subjects not required by this Section.

Districts shall inform their students of the timelines and procedures applicable to their participation in every yearly administration of the State assessments. The State Board of Education shall establish periods of time in each school year during which State assessments shall occur to meet the objectives of this Section.

(d) Every individualized educational program as described in Article 14 shall identify if the State assessment or components thereof are appropriate for the student. The State Board of Education shall develop rules governing the administration of an alternate assessment that may be available to students for whom participation in this State's regular assessments is not appropriate, even with accommodations as allowed under this Section.

Students receiving special education services whose individualized educational programs identify them as eligible for the alternative State assessments nevertheless shall have the option of taking this State's regular assessment that includes a college and career ready determination, which shall be administered in accordance with the eligible accommodations appropriate for meeting these students' respective needs.

All students determined to be English learners shall participate in the State assessments, excepting those students who have been enrolled in schools in the United States for less than 12 months. Such students may be exempted from participation in one annual administration of the English language arts assessment. Any student determined to be an English learner shall receive appropriate assessment accommodations, including language supports, which shall be established by rule. Approved assessment accommodations must be provided until the student's English language skills develop to the extent that the student is no longer considered to be an English learner, as demonstrated through a State-identified English language proficiency assessment.

(e) The results or scores of each assessment taken under this Section shall be made available to the parents of each student.

In each school year, the scores attained by a student on the State assessment that includes a college and career ready determination must be placed in the student's permanent record and must be entered on the student's transcript pursuant to rules that the State Board of Education shall adopt for that purpose in accordance with Section 3 of the Illinois School Student Records Act. In each school year, the scores attained by a student on the State assessments administered in grades 3 through 8 must be placed in the student's temporary record.

(f) All schools shall administer an academic assessment of English language proficiency in oral language (listening and speaking) and reading and writing skills to all children determined to be English learners.

(g) All schools in this State that are part of the sample drawn by the National Center for Education Statistics, in collaboration with their school districts and the State Board of Education, shall administer the biennial academic assessments under the National Assessment of Educational Progress carried out under Section 411(b)(2) of the federal National Education Statistics Act of 1994 (20 U.S.C. 9010) if the U.S. Secretary of Education pays the costs of administering the assessments.

(h) Subject to available funds to this State for the purpose of student assessment, the State Board of Education shall provide additional assessments and assessment resources that may be used by school districts for local assessment purposes. The State Board of Education shall annually distribute a listing of these additional resources.

(i) For the purposes of this subsection (i), "academically based assessments" means assessments consisting of questions and answers that are measurable and quantifiable to measure the knowledge, skills, and ability of students in the subject matters covered by the assessments. All assessments administered pursuant to this Section must be academically based assessments. The scoring of academically based assessments shall be reliable, valid, and fair and shall meet the guidelines for assessment development and use prescribed by the American Psychological Association, the National Council on Measurement in Education, and the American Educational Research Association.

The State Board of Education shall review the use of all assessment item types in order to ensure that they are valid and reliable indicators of student performance aligned to the learning standards being assessed and that the development, administration, and scoring of these item types are justifiable in terms of cost.

(j) The State Superintendent of Education shall appoint a committee of no more than 21 members, consisting of parents, teachers, school administrators, school board members, assessment experts, regional superintendents of schools, and citizens, to review the State assessments administered by the State Board of Education. The Committee shall select one of its members as its chairperson. The Committee shall meet on an ongoing basis to review the content and design of the assessments (including whether the requirements of subsection (i) of this Section have been met), the time and money expended at the local and State levels to prepare for and administer the assessments, the collective results of the assessments as measured against the stated purpose of assessing student performance, and other issues involving the assessments identified by the Committee. The Committee shall make periodic recommendations to the State Superintendent of Education and the General Assembly concerning the assessments.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-185, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.163)

Sec. 2-3.163. Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) The Department of Human Services maintains a statewide database known as the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services that records information about individuals with developmental disabilities who are potentially in need of services.

(2) The Department of Human Services uses the data on Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services to select individuals for services as funding becomes available, to develop proposals and materials for budgeting, and to plan for future needs.

(3) Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services is available for children and adults with a developmental disability who have an unmet service need anticipated in the next 5 years.

(4) Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services is the first step toward getting developmental disabilities services in this State. If individuals are not on the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services waiting list, they are not in queue for State developmental disabilities services.

(5) Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services may be underutilized by children and their parents or guardians due to lack of awareness or lack of information.

(b) The State Board of Education may work with school districts to inform all students with developmental disabilities and their parents or guardians about the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database.

(c) Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services and State Board of Education shall develop and implement an online, computer-based training program for at least one designated employee in every public school in this State to educate him or her about the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database and steps to be taken to ensure children and adolescents are enrolled. The training shall include instruction for at least one designated employee in every public school in contacting the appropriate developmental disabilities Independent Service Coordination agency to enroll children and adolescents in the database. At least one designated employee in every public school shall ensure the opportunity to enroll in the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services database is discussed during annual individualized education program (IEP) meetings for all children and adolescents believed to have a developmental disability.

(d) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the Department of Human Services, shall inform parents and guardians of students through school districts about the Prioritization of Urgency of Need for Services waiting list.

(Source: P.A. 99-144, eff. 1-1-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.164)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 16, 2020)

Sec. 2-3.164 2-3.163. Attendance Commission.

(a) The Attendance Commission is created within the State Board of Education to study the issue of chronic absenteeism in this State and make recommendations for strategies to prevent chronic absenteeism. The Commission shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) The Director of the Department of Children and Family Services or his or her designee.

(2) The Chairperson of the State Board of Education or his or her designee.

(3) The Chairperson of the Board of Higher Education or his or her designee.

(4) The Secretary of the Department of Human Services or his or her designee.

(5) The Director of the Department of Public Health or his or her designee.

(6) The Chairperson of the Illinois Community College Board or his or her designee.

(7) The Chairperson of the State Charter School Commission or his or her designee.

(8) An individual that deals with children's disabilities, impairments, and social emotional issues, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education.

(9) One member from each of the following organizations, appointed by the State Superintendent of Education:

(A) A non-profit organization that advocates for students in temporary living situations.

(B) An Illinois-focused, non-profit organization that advocates for the well-being of all children and families in this State.

(C) An Illinois non-profit, anti-crime organization of law enforcement that researches and recommends early learning and youth development strategies to reduce crime.

(D) An Illinois non-profit organization that conducts community-organizing around family issues.

(E) A statewide professional teachers' organization.

(F) A different statewide professional teachers' organization.

(G) A professional teachers' organization in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(H) An association representing school administrators.

(I) An association representing school board members.

(J) An association representing school principals.

(K) An association representing regional superintendents of schools.

(L) An association representing parents.

(M) An association representing high school districts.

(N) An association representing large unit districts.

(O) An organization that advocates for healthier school environments in Illinois.

(P) An organization that advocates for the health and safety of Illinois youth and families by providing capacity building services.

(Q) A statewide association of local philanthropic organizations that advocates for effective educational, health, and human service policies to improve this State's communities.

(R) A statewide organization that advocates for partnerships among schools, families, and the community that provide access to support and remove barriers to learning and development, using schools as hubs.

(S) An organization representing statewide programs actively involved in truancy intervention.

Attendance Commission members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their travel expenses from appropriations to the State Board of Education available for that purpose and subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board.

(b) The Attendance Commission shall meet initially at the call of the State Superintendent of Education. The members shall elect a chairperson at their initial meeting. Thereafter, the Attendance Commission shall meet at the call of the chairperson. The Attendance Commission shall hold hearings on a periodic basis to receive testimony from the public regarding attendance.

(c) The Attendance Commission shall identify strategies, mechanisms, and approaches to help parents, educators, principals, superintendents, and the State Board of Education address and prevent chronic absenteeism and shall recommend to the General Assembly and State Board of Education:

(1) a standard for attendance and chronic absenteeism, defining attendance as a calculation of standard clock hours in a day that equal a full day based on instructional minutes for both a half day and a full day per learning environment;

(2) mechanisms to improve data systems to monitor and track chronic absenteeism across this State in a way that identifies trends from prekindergarten through grade 12 and allows the identification of students who need individualized chronic absenteeism prevention plans;

(3) mechanisms for reporting and accountability for schools and districts across this State, including creating multiple measure indexes for reporting;

(4) best practices for utilizing attendance and chronic absenteeism data to create multi-tiered systems of support and prevention that will result in students being ready for college and career; and

(5) new initiatives and responses to ongoing challenges presented by chronic absenteeism.

(d) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative support to the Commission. The Attendance Commission shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly and the State Board of Education no later than December 15 of each year.

(e) The Attendance Commission is abolished and this Section is repealed on December 16, 2020.

(Source: P.A. 99-432, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-5-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.165)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2016)

Sec. 2-3.165 2-3.163. Virtual education review committee.

(a) The State Superintendent of Education shall establish a review committee to review virtual education and course choice. The review committee shall consist of all of the following individuals appointed by the State Superintendent:

(1) One representative of the State Board of Education, who shall serve as chairperson.

(2) One parent.

(3) One educator representing a statewide professional teachers' organization.

(4) One educator representing a different statewide professional teachers' organization.

(5) One educator representing a professional teachers' organization in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(6) One school district administrator representing an association that represents school administrators.

(7) One school principal representing an association that represents school principals.

(8) One school board member representing an association that represents school board members.

(9) One special education administrator representing an association that represents special education administrators.

(10) One representative of a school district in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(11) One school principal representing an association that represents school principals in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(12) One representative of an education advocacy group that works with parents.

(13) One representative of an education public policy organization.

(14) One representative of an institution of higher education.

(15) One representative of a virtual school in this State. The review committee shall also consist of all of the following members appointed as follows:

(A) One member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate.

(B) One member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(C) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(D) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

Members of the review committee shall serve without compensation, but, subject to appropriation, members may be reimbursed for travel.

(b) The review committee shall meet at least 4 times, at the call of the chairperson, to review virtual education and course choice. This review shall include a discussion on virtual course access programs, including the ability of students to enroll in online coursework and access technology to complete courses. The review committee shall make recommendations on changes and improvements and provide best practices for virtual education and course choice in this State. The review committee shall determine funding mechanisms and district cost projections to administer course access programs.

(c) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the review committee.

(d) The review committee shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and General Assembly no later than May 31, 2016. Upon filing its report, the review committee is dissolved.

(e) This Section is repealed on June 1, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 99-442, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-5-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.166)

Sec. 2-3.166 2-3.163. Youth suicide awareness and prevention.

(a) This Section may be referred to as Ann Marie's Law.

(b) The State Board of Education shall do both of the following:

(1) In consultation with a youth suicide prevention organization operating in this State and organizations representing school boards and school personnel, develop a model youth suicide awareness and prevention policy that is consistent with subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) Compile, develop, and post on its publicly accessible Internet website both of the following, which may include materials already publicly available:

(A) Recommended guidelines and educational materials for training and professional development.

(B) Recommended resources and age-appropriate educational materials on youth suicide awareness and prevention.

(c) The model policy developed by the State Board of Education under subsection (b) of this Section and any policy adopted by a school board under subsection (d) of this Section shall include all of the following:

(1) A statement on youth suicide awareness and prevention.

(2) Protocols for administering youth suicide awareness and prevention education to staff and students.

(3) Methods of prevention, including procedures for early identification and referral of students at risk of suicide.

(4) Methods of intervention, including procedures that address an emotional or mental health safety plan for students identified as being at increased risk of suicide.

(5) Methods of responding to a student or staff suicide or suicide attempt.

(6) Reporting procedures.

(7) Recommended resources on youth suicide awareness and prevention programs, including current contact information for such programs.

(d) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, each school board shall review and update its current suicide awareness and prevention policy to be consistent with subsection (c) of this Section or adopt an age-appropriate youth suicide awareness and prevention policy consistent with subsection (c) of this Section, inform each school district employee and the parent or legal guardian of each student enrolled in the school district of such policy, and post such policy on the school district's publicly accessible Internet website. The policy adopted by a school board under this subsection (d) may be based upon the model policy developed by the State Board of Education under subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-443, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-5-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/5-2.2)

Sec. 5-2.2. Designation of trustees; Township 36 North, Range 13 East. After the April 5, 2011 consolidated election, the trustees of schools in Township 36 North, Range 13 East shall no longer be elected pursuant to the provisions of Sections 5-2, 5-2.1, 5-3, 5-4, 5-12, and 5-13 of this Code. Any such trustees elected before such date may complete the term to which that trustee was elected, but shall not be succeeded by election. Instead, the board of education or board of school directors of each of the elementary and high school districts that are subject to the jurisdiction of Township 36 North, Range 13 East shall appoint one of the members to serve as trustee of schools. The trustees of schools shall be appointed by each board of education or board of school directors within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and shall reorganize within 30 days after all the trustees of schools have been appointed or within 30 days after all the trustees of schools were due to have been appointed, whichever is sooner. Trustees of schools so appointed shall serve at the pleasure of the board of education or board of school directors appointing them, but in no event longer than 2 years unless reappointed.

A majority of members of the trustees of schools shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The trustees shall organize by appointing one of their number president, who shall hold the office for 2 years. If the president is absent from any meeting, or refuses to perform any of the duties of the office, a president pro-tempore may be appointed. Trustees who serve on the board as a result of appointment or election at the time of the reorganization shall continue to serve as a member of the trustees of schools, with no greater or lesser lessor authority than any other trustee, until such time as their elected term expires.

Each trustee of schools appointed by a board of education or board of school directors shall be entitled to indemnification and protection against claims and suits by the board that appointed that trustee of schools for acts or omissions as a trustee of schools in the same manner and to the same extent as the trustee of schools is entitled to indemnification and protection for acts or omissions as a member of the board of education or board of school directors under Section 10-20.20 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-631, eff. 12-8-11; revised 10-15-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data possessed by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation; and

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-648, eff. 7-1-14; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.56)

Sec. 10-20.56. E-learning days.

(a) The State Board of Education shall establish and maintain, for implementation in selected school districts during the 2015-2016, 2016-2017, and 2017-2018 school years, a pilot program for use of electronic-learning (e-learning) days, as described in this Section. The State Superintendent of Education shall select up to 3 school districts for this program, at least one of which may be an elementary or unit school district. The use of e-learning days may not begin until the second semester of the 2015-2016 school year, and the pilot program shall conclude with the end of the 2017-2018 school year. On or before June 1, 2019, the State Board shall report its recommendation for expansion, revision, or discontinuation of the program to the Governor and General Assembly.

(b) The school board of a school district selected by the State Superintendent of Education under subsection (a) of this Section may, by resolution, adopt a research-based program or research-based programs for e-learning days district-wide that shall permit student instruction to be received electronically while students are not physically present in lieu of the district's scheduled emergency days as required by Section 10-19 of this Code. The research-based program or programs may not exceed the minimum number of emergency days in the approved school calendar and must be submitted to the State Superintendent for approval on or before September 1st annually to ensure access for all students. The State Superintendent shall approve programs that ensure that the specific needs of all students are met, including special education students and English learners, and that all mandates are still met using the proposed research-based program. The e-learning program may utilize the Internet, telephones, texts, chat rooms, or other similar means of electronic communication for instruction and interaction between teachers and students that meet the needs of all learners.

(c) Before its adoption by a school board, a school district's initial proposal for an e-learning program or for renewal of such a program must be approved by the State Board of Education and shall follow a public hearing, at a regular or special meeting of the school board, in which the terms of the proposal must be substantially presented and an opportunity for allowing public comments must be provided. Notice of such public hearing must be provided at least 10 days prior to the hearing by:

(1) publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the school district;

(2) written or electronic notice designed to reach the parents or guardians of all students enrolled in the school district; and

(3) written or electronic notice designed to reach any exclusive collective bargaining representatives of school district employees and all those employees not in a collective bargaining unit.

(d) A proposal for an e-learning program must be timely approved by the State Board of Education if the requirements specified in this Section have been met and if, in the view of the State Board of Education, the proposal contains provisions designed to reasonably and practicably accomplish the following:

(1) to ensure and verify at least 5 clock hours of instruction or school work for each student participating in an e-learning day;

(2) to ensure access from home or other appropriate remote facility for all students participating, including computers, the Internet, and other forms of electronic communication that must be utilized in the proposed program;

(3) to ensure appropriate learning opportunities for students with special needs;

(4) to monitor and verify each student's electronic participation;

(5) to address the extent to which student participation is within the student's control as to the time, pace, and means of learning;

(6) to provide effective notice to students and their parents or guardians of the use of particular days for e-learning;

(7) to provide staff and students with adequate training for e-learning days' participation;

(8) to ensure an opportunity for any collective bargaining negotiations with representatives of the school district's employees that would be legally required; and

(9) to review and revise the program as implemented to address difficulties confronted.

The State Board of Education's approval of a school district's initial e-learning program and renewal of the e-learning program shall be for a term of 3 years.

(e) The State Board of Education may adopt rules governing its supervision and review of e-learning programs consistent with the provision of this Section. However, in the absence of such rules, school districts may submit proposals for State Board of Education consideration under the authority of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-194, eff. 7-30-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.57)

Sec. 10-20.57 10-20.56. Carbon monoxide alarm required.

(a) In this Section:

"Approved carbon monoxide alarm" and "alarm" have the meaning ascribed to those terms in the Carbon Monoxide Alarm Detector Act.

"Carbon monoxide detector" and "detector" mean a device having a sensor that responds to carbon monoxide gas and that is connected to an alarm control unit and approved in accordance with rules adopted by the State Fire Marshal.

(b) A school board shall require that each school under its authority be equipped with approved carbon monoxide alarms or carbon monoxide detectors. The alarms must be powered as follows:

(1) For a school designed before January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-470) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, alarms powered by batteries are permitted. In accordance with Section 17-2.11 of this Code, alarms permanently powered by the building's electrical system and monitored by any required fire alarm system are also permitted. Fire prevention and safety tax levy proceeds or bond proceeds may be used for alarms.

(2) For a school designed on or after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-470) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, alarms must be permanently powered by the building's electrical system or be an approved carbon monoxide detection system. An installation required in this subdivision (2) must be monitored by any required fire alarm system.

Alarms or detectors must be located within 20 feet of a carbon monoxide emitting device. Alarms or detectors must be in operating condition and be inspected annually. A school is exempt from the requirements of this Section if it does not have or is not close to any sources of carbon monoxide. A school must require plans, protocols, and procedures in response to the activation of a carbon monoxide alarm or carbon monoxide detection system.

(Source: P.A. 99-470, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-29)

Sec. 10-29. Remote educational programs.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "remote educational program" means an educational program delivered to students in the home or other location outside of a school building that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) A student may participate in the program only after the school district, pursuant to adopted school board policy, and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code determine that a remote educational program will best serve the student's individual learning needs. The adopted school board policy shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(A) Criteria for determining that a remote educational program will best serve a student's individual learning needs. The criteria must include consideration of, at a minimum, a student's prior attendance, disciplinary record, and academic history.

(B) Any limitations on the number of students or grade levels that may participate in a remote educational program.

(C) A description of the process that the school district will use to approve participation in the remote educational program. The process must include without limitation a requirement that, for any student who qualifies to receive services pursuant to the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004, the student's participation in a remote educational program receive prior approval from the student's individualized education program team.

(D) A description of the process the school district will use to develop and approve a written remote educational plan that meets the requirements of subdivision (5) of this subsection (a).

(E) A description of the system the school district will establish to calculate the number of clock hours a student is participating in instruction in accordance with the remote educational program.

(F) A description of the process for renewing a remote educational program at the expiration of its term.

(G) Such other terms and provisions as the school district deems necessary to provide for the establishment and delivery of a remote educational program.

(2) The school district has determined that the remote educational program's curriculum is aligned to State learning standards and that the program offers instruction and educational experiences consistent with those given to students at the same grade level in the district.

(3) The remote educational program is delivered by instructors that meet the following qualifications:

(A) they are certificated under Article 21 of this Code;

(B) they meet applicable highly qualified criteria under the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001; and

(C) they have responsibility for all of the following elements of the program: planning instruction, diagnosing learning needs, prescribing content delivery through class activities, assessing learning, reporting outcomes to administrators and parents and guardians, and evaluating the effects of instruction.

(4) During the period of time from and including the opening date to the closing date of the regular school term of the school district established pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code, participation in a remote educational program may be claimed for general State aid purposes under Section 18-8.05 of this Code on any calendar day, notwithstanding whether the day is a day of pupil attendance or institute day on the school district's calendar or any other provision of law restricting instruction on that day. If the district holds year-round classes in some buildings, the district shall classify each student's participation in a remote educational program as either on a year-round or a non-year-round schedule for purposes of claiming general State aid. Outside of the regular school term of the district, the remote educational program may be offered as part of any summer school program authorized by this Code.

(5) Each student participating in a remote educational program must have a written remote educational plan that has been approved by the school district and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code. The school district and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code must approve any amendment to a remote educational plan. The remote educational plan must include, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Specific achievement goals for the student aligned to State learning standards.

(B) A description of all assessments that will be used to measure student progress, which description shall indicate the assessments that will be administered at an attendance center within the school district.

(C) A description of the progress reports that will be provided to the school district and the person or persons authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code.

(D) Expectations, processes, and schedules for interaction between a teacher and student.

(E) A description of the specific responsibilities of the student's family and the school district with respect to equipment, materials, phone and Internet service, and any other requirements applicable to the home or other location outside of a school building necessary for the delivery of the remote educational program.

(F) If applicable, a description of how the remote educational program will be delivered in a manner consistent with the student's individualized education program required by Section 614(d) of the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 or plan to ensure compliance with Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

(G) A description of the procedures and opportunities for participation in academic and extra-curricular activities and programs within the school district.

(H) The identification of a parent, guardian, or other responsible adult who will provide direct supervision of the program. The plan must include an acknowledgment by the parent, guardian, or other responsible adult that he or she may engage only in non-teaching duties not requiring instructional judgment or the evaluation of a student. The plan shall designate the parent, guardian, or other responsible adult as non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel under subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 of this Code.

(I) The identification of a school district administrator who will oversee the remote educational program on behalf of the school district and who may be contacted by the student's parents with respect to any issues or concerns with the program.

(J) The term of the student's participation in the remote educational program, which may not extend for longer than 12 months, unless the term is renewed by the district in accordance with subdivision (7) of this subsection (a).

(K) A description of the specific location or locations in which the program will be delivered. If the remote educational program is to be delivered to a student in any location other than the student's home, the plan must include a written determination by the school district that the location will provide a learning environment appropriate for the delivery of the program. The location or locations in which the program will be delivered shall be deemed a long distance teaching reception area under subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 of this Code.

(L) Certification by the school district that the plan meets all other requirements of this Section.

(6) Students participating in a remote educational program must be enrolled in a school district attendance center pursuant to the school district's enrollment policy or policies. A student participating in a remote educational program must be tested as part of all assessments administered by the school district pursuant to Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code at the attendance center in which the student is enrolled and in accordance with the attendance center's assessment policies and schedule. The student must be included within all accountability determinations for the school district and attendance center under State and federal law.

(7) The term of a student's participation in a remote educational program may not extend for longer than 12 months, unless the term is renewed by the school district. The district may only renew a student's participation in a remote educational program following an evaluation of the student's progress in the program, a determination that the student's continuation in the program will best serve the student's individual learning needs, and an amendment to the student's written remote educational plan addressing any changes for the upcoming term of the program.

For purposes of this Section, a remote educational program does not include instruction delivered to students through an e-learning program approved under Section 10-20.56 of this Code.

(b) A school district may, by resolution of its school board, establish a remote educational program.

(c) Clock hours of instruction by students in a remote educational program meeting the requirements of this Section may be claimed by the school district and shall be counted as school work for general State aid purposes in accordance with and subject to the limitations of Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(d) The impact of remote educational programs on wages, hours, and terms and conditions of employment of educational employees within the school district shall be subject to local collective bargaining agreements.

(e) The use of a home or other location outside of a school building for a remote educational program shall not cause the home or other location to be deemed a public school facility.

(f) A remote educational program may be used, but is not required, for instruction delivered to a student in the home or other location outside of a school building that is not claimed for general State aid purposes under Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(g) School districts that, pursuant to this Section, adopt a policy for a remote educational program must submit to the State Board of Education a copy of the policy and any amendments thereto, as well as data on student participation in a format specified by the State Board of Education. The State Board of Education may perform or contract with an outside entity to perform an evaluation of remote educational programs in this State.

(h) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary to ensure compliance by remote educational programs with the requirements of this Section and other applicable legal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-194, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-9-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, Evaluation and Placement of Children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and be informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if they disagree with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent and the State Board of Education the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while waiting placement in the appropriate special education class.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf or the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include without limitation information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. Such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. Any parent who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(o) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-219, eff. 8-9-13; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in the Local Government Debt Limitation Act "An Act to limit the indebtedness of counties having a population of less than 500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal corporations having a population of less than 300,000", approved February 15, 1928, as amended.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of August 14, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-757) this amendatory Act of 1998.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-105) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, North Shore School District 112 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $150,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of new buildings and improving the sites thereof and the building and equipping of additions to, altering, repairing, equipping, and renovating existing buildings and improving the sites thereof are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $150,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-110) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Sandoval Community Unit School District 501 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 20, 2012.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required because of the age and current condition of the Sandoval Elementary School building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 19, 2017, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the election held on March 20, 2012.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-110) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 98-617, eff. 1-7-14; 98-912, eff. 8-15-14; 98-916, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-390, eff. 8-18-15; revised 10-13-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-20)

Sec. 21B-20. Types of licenses. Before July 1, 2013, the State Board of Education shall implement a system of educator licensure, whereby individuals employed in school districts who are required to be licensed must have one of the following licenses: (i) a professional educator license; (ii) a professional educator license with stipulations; or (iii) a substitute teaching license. References in law regarding individuals certified or certificated or required to be certified or certificated under Article 21 of this Code shall also include individuals licensed or required to be licensed under this Article. The first year of all licenses ends on June 30 following one full year of the license being issued.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to govern the requirements for licenses and endorsements under this Section.

(1) Professional Educator License. Persons who (i) have successfully completed an approved educator preparation program and are recommended for licensure by the Illinois institution offering the educator preparation program, (ii) have successfully completed the required testing under Section 21B-30 of this Code, (iii) have successfully completed coursework on the psychology of, the identification of, and the methods of instruction for the exceptional child, including without limitation children with learning disabilities, (iv) have successfully completed coursework in methods of reading and reading in the content area, and (v) have met all other criteria established by rule of the State Board of Education shall be issued a Professional Educator License. All Professional Educator Licenses are valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the license being issued. The Professional Educator License shall be endorsed with specific areas and grade levels in which the individual is eligible to practice.

Individuals can receive subsequent endorsements on the Professional Educator License. Subsequent endorsements shall require a minimum of 24 semester hours of coursework in the endorsement area, unless otherwise specified by rule, and passage of the applicable content area test.

(2) Educator License with Stipulations. An Educator License with Stipulations shall be issued an endorsement that limits the license holder to one particular position or does not require completion of an approved educator program or both.

An individual with an Educator License with Stipulations must not be employed by a school district or any other entity to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

An Educator License with Stipulations may be issued with the following endorsements:

(A) Provisional educator. A provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds an educator license with a minimum of 15 semester hours in content coursework from another state, U.S. territory, or foreign country and who, at the time of applying for an Illinois license, does not meet the minimum requirements under Section 21B-35 of this Code, but does, at a minimum, meet the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement, from a regionally accredited college or university or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement.

(ii) Has passed or passes a test of basic skills and content area test, as required by Section 21B-30 of this Code, prior to or within one year after issuance of the provisional educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations. If an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations endorsed for provisional educator has not passed a test of basic skills and applicable content area test or tests within one year after issuance of the endorsement, the endorsement shall expire on June 30 following one full year of the endorsement being issued. If such an individual has passed the test of basic skills and applicable content area test or tests either prior to issuance of the endorsement or within one year after issuance of the endorsement, the endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 2 years of the license being issued, during which time any and all coursework deficiencies must be met and any and all additional testing deficiencies must be met.

In addition, a provisional educator endorsement for principals or superintendents may be issued if the individual meets the requirements set forth in subdivisions (1) and (3) of subsection (b-5) of Section 21B-35 of this Code. Applicants who have not been entitled by an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education shall not receive a provisional educator endorsement if the person completed an alternative licensure program in another state, unless the program has been determined to be equivalent to Illinois program requirements.

Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Section, a service member or spouse of a service member may obtain a Professional Educator License with Stipulations, and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, if he or she holds a valid teaching certificate or license in good standing from another state, meets the qualifications of educators outlined in Section 21B-15 of this Code, and has not engaged in any misconduct that would prohibit an individual from obtaining a license pursuant to Illinois law, including without limitation any administrative rules of the State Board of Education.

In this Section, "service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

A provisional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 2 years of the license being issued, provided that any remaining testing and coursework deficiencies are met as set forth in this Section. Failure to satisfy all stated deficiencies shall mean the individual, including any service member or spouse who has obtained a Professional Educator License with Stipulations and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, is ineligible to receive a Professional Educator License at that time. An Educator License with Stipulations endorsed for provisional educator shall not be renewed for individuals who hold an Educator License with Stipulations and who have held a position in a public school or non-public school recognized by the State Board of Education.

(B) Alternative provisional educator. An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Successfully completed the first phase of the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers, as described in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The alternative provisional educator endorsement is valid for 2 years of teaching and may be renewed for a third year by an individual meeting the requirements set forth in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(C) Alternative provisional superintendent. An alternative provisional superintendent endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations entitles the holder to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent in a school district's central office. This endorsement may only be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a master's degree in a management field other than education.

(ii) Been employed for a period of at least 5 years in a management level position in a field other than education.

(iii) Successfully completed the first phase of an alternative route to superintendent endorsement program, as provided in Section 21B-55 of this Code.

(iv) Passed a test of basic skills and content area tests required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The endorsement may be registered for 2 fiscal years in order to complete one full year of serving as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(D) Resident teacher endorsement. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited institution of higher education with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Enrolled in an approved Illinois educator preparation program.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 4 years of teaching and shall not be renewed.

A resident teacher may teach only under the direction of a licensed teacher, who shall act as the resident mentor teacher, and may not teach in place of a licensed teacher. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall no longer be valid after June 30, 2017.

(E) Career and technical educator. A career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 60 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and has a minimum of 2,000 hours of experience outside of education in each area to be taught.

The career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed. For individuals who were issued the career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

(F) Part-time provisional career and technical educator or provisional career and technical educator. A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement or a provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 8,000 hours of work experience in the skill for which the applicant is seeking the endorsement. It is the responsibility of each employing school board and regional office of education to provide verification, in writing, to the State Superintendent of Education at the time the application is submitted that no qualified teacher holding a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations with a career and technical educator endorsement is available and that actual circumstances require such issuance.

The provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed only one time for 5 years. For individuals who were issued the provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed one time if the individual passes a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code, and has completed a minimum of 20 semester hours from a regionally accredited institution.

A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for teaching no more than 2 courses of study for grades 6 through 12. The part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years if the individual makes application for renewal.

(G) Transitional bilingual educator. A transitional bilingual educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for the purpose of providing instruction in accordance with Article 14C of this Code to an applicant who provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Possesses adequate speaking, reading, and writing ability in the language other than English in which transitional bilingual education is offered.

(ii) Has the ability to successfully communicate in English.

(iii) Either possessed, within 5 years previous to his or her applying for a transitional bilingual educator endorsement, a valid and comparable teaching certificate or comparable authorization issued by a foreign country or holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

A transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall be valid for prekindergarten through grade 12, is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued, and shall not be renewed.

Persons holding a transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall not be employed to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

(H) Language endorsement. In an effort to alleviate the shortage of teachers speaking a language other than English in the public schools, an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations may also apply for a language endorsement, provided that the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds a transitional bilingual endorsement.

(ii) Has demonstrated proficiency in the language for which the endorsement is to be issued by passing the applicable language content test required by the State Board of Education.

(iii) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

(iv) Has passed a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A language endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for prekindergarten through grade 12 for the same validity period as the individual's transitional bilingual educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations and shall not be renewed.

(I) Visiting international educator. A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an individual who is being recruited by a particular school district that conducts formal recruitment programs outside of the United States to secure the services of qualified teachers and who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States.

(ii) Has been prepared as a teacher at the grade level for which he or she will be employed.

(iii) Has adequate content knowledge in the subject to be taught.

(iv) Has an adequate command of the English language.

A holder of a visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall be permitted to teach in bilingual education programs in the language that was the medium of instruction in his or her teacher preparation program, provided that he or she passes the English Language Proficiency Examination or another test of writing skills in English identified by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 3 years and shall not be renewed.

(J) Paraprofessional educator. A paraprofessional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent and either holds an associate's degree or a minimum of 60 semester hours of credit from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or has passed a test of basic skills required under Section 21B-30 of this Code. The paraprofessional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed through application and payment of the appropriate fee, as required under Section 21B-40 of this Code. An individual who holds only a paraprofessional educator endorsement is not subject to additional requirements in order to renew the endorsement.

(K) Chief school business official. A chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test.

The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Educator License with Stipulations of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, or accounting and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

The chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed if the license holder completes renewal requirements as required for individuals who hold a Professional Educator License endorsed for chief school business official under Section 21B-45 of this Code and such rules as may be adopted by the State Board of Education.

(3) Substitute Teaching License. A Substitute Teaching License may be issued to qualified applicants for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Substitute Teaching License must hold a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for 5 years and may be renewed if the individual has passed a test of basic skills, as authorized under Section 21B-30 of this Code. An individual who has passed a test of basic skills for the first licensure renewal is not required to retake the test again for further renewals.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked or has not met the renewal requirements for licensure, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Substitute Teaching License.

A substitute teacher may only teach in the place of a licensed teacher who is under contract with the employing board. If, however, there is no licensed teacher under contract because of an emergency situation, then a district may employ a substitute teacher for no longer than 30 calendar days per each vacant position in the district if the district notifies the appropriate regional office of education within 5 business days after the employment of the substitute teacher in the emergency situation. An emergency situation is one in which an unforeseen vacancy has occurred and (i) a teacher is unable to fulfill his or her contractual duties or (ii) teacher capacity needs of the district exceed previous indications, and the district is actively engaged in advertising to hire a fully licensed teacher for the vacant position.

There is no limit on the number of days that a substitute teacher may teach in a single school district, provided that no substitute teacher may teach for longer than 90 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. A substitute teacher who holds a Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations shall not teach for more than 120 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. The limitations in this paragraph (3) on the number of days a substitute teacher may be employed do not apply to any school district operating under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-28, eff. 7-1-13; 98-751, eff. 1-1-15; 99-35, eff. 1-1-16; 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-14-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-45)

Sec. 21B-45. Professional Educator License renewal.

(a) Individuals holding a Professional Educator License are required to complete the licensure renewal requirements as specified in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code.

Individuals holding a Professional Educator License shall meet the renewal requirements set forth in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code. If an individual holds a license endorsed in more than one area that has different renewal requirements, that individual shall follow the renewal requirements for the position for which he or she spends the majority of his or her time working.

(b) All Professional Educator Licenses not renewed as provided in this Section shall lapse on September 1 of that year. Lapsed licenses may be immediately reinstated upon (i) payment by the applicant of a $500 penalty to the State Board of Education or (ii) the demonstration of proficiency by completing 9 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education in the content area that most aligns with one or more of the educator's endorsement areas. Any and all back fees, including without limitation registration fees owed from the time of expiration of the license until the date of reinstatement, shall be paid and kept in accordance with the provisions in Article 3 of this Code concerning an institute fund and the provisions in Article 21B of this Code concerning fees and requirements for registration. Licenses not registered in accordance with Section 21B-40 of this Code shall lapse after a period of 6 months from the expiration of the last year of registration. An unregistered license is invalid after September 1 for employment and performance of services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative and in a charter school. Any license or endorsement may be voluntarily surrendered by the license holder. A voluntarily surrendered license, except a substitute teaching license issued under Section 21B-20 of this Code, shall be treated as a revoked license. An Educator License with Stipulations with only a paraprofessional endorsement does not lapse.

(c) From July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, per fiscal year.

(d) Beginning July 1, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee may create a professional development plan each year. The plan shall address one or more of the endorsements that are required of his or her educator position if the licensee is employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative. If the licensee is employed in a charter school, the plan shall address that endorsement or those endorsements most closely related to his or her educator position. Licensees employed and performing services in any other Illinois schools may participate in the renewal requirements by adhering to the same process.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the licensee's professional development activities shall align with one or more of the following criteria:

(1) activities are of a type that engage participants over a sustained period of time allowing for analysis, discovery, and application as they relate to student learning, social or emotional achievement, or well-being;

(2) professional development aligns to the licensee's performance;

(3) outcomes for the activities must relate to student growth or district improvement;

(4) activities align to State-approved standards; and

(5) higher education coursework.

(e) For each renewal cycle, each professional educator licensee shall engage in professional development activities. Prior to renewal, the licensee shall enter electronically into the Educator Licensure Information System (ELIS) the name, date, and location of the activity, the number of professional development hours, and the provider's name. The following provisions shall apply concerning professional development activities:

(1) Each licensee shall complete a total of 120 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(2) Beginning with his or her first full 5-year cycle, any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is not working in a position requiring such endorsement shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, in each 5-year renewal cycle in which the administrative endorsement was held for at least one year. The Illinois Administrators' Academy course may count toward the total of 120 hours per 5-year cycle.

(3) Any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement or an individual with a Teacher Leader endorsement serving in an administrative capacity at least 50% of the day shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, each fiscal year in addition to 100 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in accordance with this Code.

(4) Any licensee holding a current National Board for Professional Teaching Standards (NBPTS) master teacher designation shall complete a total of 60 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license.

(5) Licensees working in a position that does not require educator licensure or working in a position for less than 50% for any particular year are considered to be exempt and shall be required to pay only the registration fee in order to renew and maintain the validity of the license.

(6) Licensees who are retired and qualify for benefits from a State retirement system shall notify the State Board of Education using ELIS, and the license shall be maintained in retired status. An individual with a license in retired status shall not be required to complete professional development activities or pay registration fees until returning to a position that requires educator licensure. Upon returning to work in a position that requires the Professional Educator License, the licensee shall immediately pay a registration fee and complete renewal requirements for that year. A license in retired status cannot lapse.

(7) For any renewal cycle in which professional development hours were required, but not fulfilled, the licensee shall complete any missed hours to total the minimum professional development hours required in this Section prior to September 1 of that year. For any fiscal year or renewal cycle in which an Illinois Administrators' Academy course was required but not completed, the licensee shall complete any missed Illinois Administrators' Academy courses prior to September 1 of that year. The licensee may complete all deficient hours and Illinois Administrators' Academy courses while continuing to work in a position that requires that license until September 1 of that year.

(8) Any licensee who has not fulfilled the professional development renewal requirements set forth in this Section at the end of any 5-year renewal cycle is ineligible to register his or her license and may submit an appeal to the State Superintendent of Education for reinstatement of the license.

(9) If professional development opportunities were unavailable to a licensee, proof that opportunities were unavailable and request for an extension of time beyond August 31 to complete the renewal requirements may be submitted from April 1 through June 30 of that year to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. If an extension is approved, the license shall remain valid during the extension period.

(10) Individuals who hold exempt licenses prior to December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall commence the annual renewal process with the first scheduled registration due after December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(f) At the time of renewal, each licensee shall respond to the required questions under penalty of perjury.

(g) The following entities shall be designated as approved to provide professional development activities for the renewal of Professional Educator Licenses:

(1) The State Board of Education.

(2) Regional offices of education and intermediate service centers.

(3) Illinois professional associations representing the following groups that are approved by the State Superintendent of Education:

(A) school administrators;

(B) principals;

(C) school business officials;

(D) teachers, including special education teachers;

(E) school boards;

(F) school districts;

(G) parents; and

(H) school service personnel.

(4) Regionally accredited institutions of higher education that offer Illinois-approved educator preparation programs and public community colleges subject to the Public Community College Act.

(5) Illinois public school districts, charter schools authorized under Article 27A of this Code, and joint educational programs authorized under Article 10 of this Code for the purposes of providing career and technical education or special education services.

(6) A not-for-profit organization that, as of December 31, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1147) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, has had or has a grant from or a contract with the State Board of Education to provide professional development services in the area of English Learning to Illinois school districts, teachers, or administrators.

(7) State agencies, State boards, and State commissions.

(8) (7) Museums as defined in Section 10 of the Museum Disposition of Property Act.

(h) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall make available professional development opportunities that satisfy at least one of the following:

(1) increase the knowledge and skills of school and district leaders who guide continuous professional development;

(2) improve the learning of students;

(3) organize adults into learning communities whose goals are aligned with those of the school and district;

(4) deepen educator's content knowledge;

(5) provide educators with research-based instructional strategies to assist students in meeting rigorous academic standards;

(6) prepare educators to appropriately use various types of classroom assessments;

(7) use learning strategies appropriate to the intended goals;

(8) provide educators with the knowledge and skills to collaborate; or

(9) prepare educators to apply research to decision-making.

(i) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall do the following:

(1) align professional development activities to the State-approved national standards for professional learning;

(2) meet the professional development criteria for Illinois licensure renewal;

(3) produce a rationale for the activity that explains how it aligns to State standards and identify the assessment for determining the expected impact on student learning or school improvement;

(4) maintain original documentation for completion of activities; and

(5) provide license holders with evidence of completion of activities.

(j) The State Board of Education shall conduct annual audits of approved providers, except for school districts, which shall be audited by regional offices of education and intermediate service centers. The State Board of Education shall complete random audits of licensees.

(1) Approved providers shall annually submit to the State Board of Education a list of subcontractors used for delivery of professional development activities for which renewal credit was issued and other information as defined by rule.

(2) Approved providers shall annually submit data to the State Board of Education demonstrating how the professional development activities impacted one or more of the following:

(A) educator and student growth in regards to content knowledge or skills, or both;

(B) educator and student social and emotional growth; or

(C) alignment to district or school improvement plans.

(3) The State Superintendent of Education shall review the annual data collected by the State Board of Education, regional offices of education, and intermediate service centers in audits to determine if the approved provider has met the criteria and should continue to be an approved provider or if further action should be taken as provided in rules.

(k) Registration fees shall be paid for the next renewal cycle between April 1 and June 30 in the last year of each 5-year renewal cycle using ELIS. If all required professional development hours for the renewal cycle have been completed and entered by the licensee, the licensee shall pay the registration fees for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(l) Beginning July 1, 2014, any professional educator licensee endorsed for school support personnel who is employed and performing services in Illinois public schools and who holds an active and current professional license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation related to the endorsement areas on the Professional Educator License shall be deemed to have satisfied the continuing professional development requirements provided for in this Section. Such individuals shall be required to pay only registration fees to renew the Professional Educator License. An individual who does not hold a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall complete professional development requirements for the renewal of a Professional Educator License provided for in this Section.

(m) Appeals to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board must be made within 30 days after receipt of notice from the State Superintendent of Education that a license will not be renewed based upon failure to complete the requirements of this Section. A licensee may appeal that decision to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board in a manner prescribed by rule.

(1) Each appeal shall state the reasons why the State Superintendent's decision should be reversed and shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the State Board of Education.

(2) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall review each appeal regarding renewal of a license within 90 days after receiving the appeal in order to determine whether the licensee has met the requirements of this Section. The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board may hold an appeal hearing or may make its determination based upon the record of review, which shall consist of the following:

(A) the regional superintendent of education's rationale for recommending nonrenewal of the license, if applicable;

(B) any evidence submitted to the State Superintendent along with the individual's electronic statement of assurance for renewal; and

(C) the State Superintendent's rationale for nonrenewal of the license.

(3) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall notify the licensee of its decision regarding license renewal by certified mail, return receipt requested, no later than 30 days after reaching a decision. Upon receipt of notification of renewal, the licensee, using ELIS, shall pay the applicable registration fee for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(n) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as may be necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-610, eff. 12-27-13; 98-1147, eff. 12-31-14; 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-130, eff. 7-24-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse prescriptive authority for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse prescriptive.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced advance practice nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to their his or her school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to their his or her school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and its related facilities;

(3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 911;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-795, eff. 8-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-13-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80)

Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for student athletes.

(b) In this Section:

"Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

"Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach them or train them in the fundamental skills of an interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head coaches and assistant coaches.

"Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Game official" means a person who officiates at an interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois Elementary School Association.

"Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, generally outside of school instructional hours, under the direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities.

"Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

"Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice nurse.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, including a charter school.

"Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a school.

(c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year.

(d) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each concussion oversight team shall also establish a return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom after that student is believed to have experienced a concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the student was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight team. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team.

(e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic athletic activity for a school year until the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and reading written information that explains concussion prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be approved by the Illinois High School Association.

(f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the following persons believes the student might have sustained a concussion during the practice or competition:

(1) a coach;

(2) a physician;

(3) a game official;

(4) an athletic trainer;

(5) the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student;

(6) the student; or

(7) any other person deemed appropriate under the school's return-to-play protocol.

(g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted to practice or compete again following the force or impact believed to have caused the concussion until:

(1) the student has been evaluated, using established medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by the student or the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student) or an athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician;

(2) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-play protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to play;

(3) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to learn;

(4) the treating physician or athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician has provided a written statement indicating that, in the physician's professional judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn; and

(5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student:

(A) have acknowledged that the student has completed the requirements of the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to return to play;

(B) have provided the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) and the person who has supervisory responsibilities under this subsection (g); and

(C) have signed a consent form indicating that the person signing:

(i) has been informed concerning and consents to the student participating in returning to play in accordance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols;

(ii) understands the risks associated with the student returning to play and returning to learn and will comply with any ongoing requirements in the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; and

(iii) consents to the disclosure to appropriate persons, consistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and return-to-learn recommendations of the treating physician or the athletic trainer, as the case may be.

A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not authorize a student's return to play or return to learn.

The district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team.

(h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, for coaches and game officials of interscholastic athletic activities, training courses that provide for not less than 2 hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated list of individuals and organizations authorized by the Association to provide the training.

(2) The following persons must take a training course in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an authorized training provider at least once every 2 years:

(A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity;

(B) a nurse who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team and is an employee, representative, or agent of a school;

(C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic activity; and

(D) a nurse who serves on a volunteer basis as a member of a concussion oversight team for a school.

(3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education course in the subject matter of concussions.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h):

(A) a coach or game officials, as the case may be, must take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h).

(B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an athletic trainer continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; and

(C) a nurse must take a course concerning the subject matter of concussions that has been approved for continuing education credit by the Department.

(5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school.

(6) A physician, athletic trainer, or nurse who is not in compliance with the training requirements under this subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a training course in the subject of concussions must initially complete the training not later than September 1, 2016.

(i) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be:

(1) in writing;

(2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team;

(3) approved by the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school;

(4) distributed to all appropriate personnel;

(5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the school; and

(6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities.

(j) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as necessary to administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-81)

Sec. 22-81 22-80. Heroin and opioid prevention pilot program. By January 1, 2017, the State Board of Education and the Department of Human Services shall develop and establish a 3-year heroin and opioid drug prevention pilot program that offers educational materials and instruction on heroin and opioid abuse to all school districts in the State for use at their respective public elementary and secondary schools. A school district's participation in the pilot program shall be voluntary. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human Services shall reimburse a school district that decides to participate in the pilot program for any costs it incurs in connection with its participation in the pilot program. Each school district that participates in the pilot program shall have the discretion to determine which grade levels the school district will instruct under the program.

The pilot program must use effective, research-proven, interactive teaching methods and technologies, and must provide students, parents, and school staff with scientific, social, and emotional learning content to help them understand the risk of drug use. Such learning content must specifically target the dangers of prescription pain medication and heroin abuse. The Department may contract with a health education organization to fulfill the requirements of the pilot program.

The State Board of Education, the Department of Human Services, and any contracted organization shall submit an annual report to the General Assembly that includes: (i) a list of school districts participating in the pilot program; (ii) the grade levels each school district instructs under the pilot program; and (iii) any findings regarding the effectiveness of the pilot program.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include the collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-24.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-24.2)

Sec. 27-24.2. Safety education; driver education course. Instruction shall be given in safety education in each of grades one through though 8, equivalent to one class period each week, and any school district which maintains grades 9 through 12 shall offer a driver education course in any such school which it operates. Its curriculum shall include content dealing with Chapters 11, 12, 13, 15, and 16 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the rules adopted pursuant to those Chapters insofar as they pertain to the operation of motor vehicles, and the portions of the Litter Control Act relating to the operation of motor vehicles. The course of instruction given in grades 10 through 12 shall include an emphasis on the development of knowledge, attitudes, habits, and skills necessary for the safe operation of motor vehicles, including motorcycles insofar as they can be taught in the classroom, and instruction on distracted driving as a major traffic safety issue. In addition, the course shall include instruction on special hazards existing at and required safety and driving precautions that must be observed at emergency situations, highway construction and maintenance zones, and railroad crossings and the approaches thereto. The course of instruction required of each eligible student at the high school level shall consist of a minimum of 30 clock hours of classroom instruction and a minimum of 6 clock hours of individual behind-the-wheel instruction in a dual control car on public roadways taught by a driver education instructor endorsed by the State Board of Education. Both the classroom instruction part and the practice driving part of such driver education course shall be open to a resident or non-resident student attending a non-public school in the district wherein the course is offered. Each student attending any public or non-public high school in the district must receive a passing grade in at least 8 courses during the previous 2 semesters prior to enrolling in a driver education course, or the student shall not be permitted to enroll in the course; provided that the local superintendent of schools (with respect to a student attending a public high school in the district) or chief school administrator (with respect to a student attending a non-public high school in the district) may waive the requirement if the superintendent or chief school administrator, as the case may be, deems it to be in the best interest of the student. A student may be allowed to commence the classroom instruction part of such driver education course prior to reaching age 15 if such student then will be eligible to complete the entire course within 12 months after being allowed to commence such classroom instruction.

Such a course may be commenced immediately after the completion of a prior course. Teachers of such courses shall meet the certification requirements of this Act and regulations of the State Board as to qualifications.

Subject to rules of the State Board of Education, the school district may charge a reasonable fee, not to exceed $50, to students who participate in the course, unless a student is unable to pay for such a course, in which event the fee for such a student must be waived. However, the district may increase this fee to an amount not to exceed $250 by school board resolution following a public hearing on the increase, which increased fee must be waived for students who participate in the course and are unable to pay for the course. The total amount from driver education fees and reimbursement from the State for driver education must not exceed the total cost of the driver education program in any year and must be deposited into the school district's driver education fund as a separate line item budget entry. All moneys deposited into the school district's driver education fund must be used solely for the funding of a high school driver education program approved by the State Board of Education that uses driver education instructors endorsed by the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 96-734, eff. 8-25-09; 97-145, eff. 7-14-11; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-456)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act.

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to the General Assembly a report on the effect of virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on student performance, the costs associated with virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 24-24 and 34-84A of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention; and

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting; and

(11) Section 22-80 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 98-16, eff. 5-24-13; 98-639, eff. 6-9-14; 98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-783, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1059, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-325, eff. 8-10-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-456)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act.

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to the General Assembly a report on the effect of virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on student performance, the costs associated with virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention; and

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting; and

(11) Section 22-80 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 98-16, eff. 5-24-13; 98-639, eff. 6-9-14; 98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-783, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1059, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-325, eff. 8-10-15; 99-456, eff. 9-15-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/32-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 32-5)

Sec. 32-5. Bond issues - District boundaries coextensive with city. For the purpose of building or repairing schoolhouses or purchasing or improving school sites, including the purchase of school sites outside the boundaries of the school district and building school buildings thereon as provided by Section 10-20.10 of this Act, any special charter district governed by a special charter, and special or general school laws, whose boundaries are coextensive with or greater than the boundaries of any incorporated city, town or village, where authorized by a majority of all the votes cast on the proposition may borrow money and as evidence of the indebtedness, may issue bonds in denominations of not less than $100 nor more than $1,000, for a term not to exceed 20 years bearing interest at a rate not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract, payable annually, semi-annually, or quarterly, ct signed by the president and secretary of the school board of the district; provided, that the amount borrowed shall not exceed, including existing indebtedness, 5% of the taxable property of such school district, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes previous to incurring such indebtedness.

With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989, it is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 86-4; revised 10-9-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-2.4) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-2.4)

Sec. 34-2.4. School improvement plan. A 3-year 3 year local school improvement plan shall be developed and implemented at each attendance center. This plan shall reflect the overriding purpose of the attendance center to improve educational quality. The local school principal shall develop a school improvement plan in consultation with the local school council, all categories of school staff, parents and community residents. Once the plan is developed, reviewed by the professional personnel leadership committee, and approved by the local school council, the principal shall be responsible for directing implementation of the plan, and the local school council shall monitor its implementation. After the termination of the initial 3-year 3 year plan, a new 3-year 3 year plan shall be developed and modified as appropriate on an annual basis.

The school improvement plan shall be designed to achieve priority goals including but not limited to:

(a) assuring that students show significant progress toward meeting and exceeding State performance standards in State mandated learning areas, including the mastery of higher order thinking skills in these areas;

(b) assuring that students attend school regularly and graduate from school at such rates that the district average equals or surpasses national norms;

(c) assuring that students are adequately prepared for and aided in making a successful transition to further education and life experience;

(d) assuring that students are adequately prepared for and aided in making a successful transition to employment; and

(e) assuring that students are, to the maximum extent possible, provided with a common learning experience that is of high academic quality and that reflects high expectations for all students' capacities to learn.

With respect to these priority goals, the school improvement plan shall include but not be limited to the following:

(a) an analysis of data collected in the attendance center and community indicating the specific strengths and weaknesses of the attendance center in light of the goals specified above, including data and analysis specified by the State Board of Education pertaining to specific measurable outcomes for student performance, the attendance centers, and their instructional programs;

(b) a description of specific annual objectives the attendance center will pursue in achieving the goals specified above;

(c) a description of the specific activities the attendance center will undertake to achieve its objectives;

(d) an analysis of the attendance center's staffing pattern and material resources, and an explanation of how the attendance center's planned staffing pattern, the deployment of staff, and the use of material resources furthers the objectives of the plan;

(e) a description of the key assumptions and directions of the school's curriculum and the academic and non-academic programs of the attendance center, and an explanation of how this curriculum and these programs further the goals and objectives of the plan;

(f) a description of the steps that will be taken to enhance educational opportunities for all students, regardless of gender, including English learners, students with disabilities, low-income students, and minority students;

(g) a description of any steps which may be taken by the attendance center to educate parents as to how they can assist children at home in preparing their children to learn effectively;

(h) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to coordinate its efforts with, and to gain the participation and support of, community residents, business organizations, and other local institutions and individuals;

(i) a description of any staff development program for all school staff and volunteers tied to the priority goals, objectives, and activities specified in the plan;

(j) a description of the steps the local school council will undertake to monitor implementation of the plan on an ongoing basis;

(k) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to ensure that teachers have working conditions that provide a professional environment conducive to fulfilling their responsibilities;

(l) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to ensure teachers the time and opportunity to incorporate new ideas and techniques, both in subject matter and teaching skills, into their own work;

(m) a description of the steps the attendance center will take to encourage pride and positive identification with the attendance center through various athletic activities; and

(n) a description of the student need for and provision of services to special populations, beyond the standard school programs provided for students in grades K through 12 and those enumerated in the categorical programs cited in item d of part 4 of Section 34-2.3, including financial costs of providing same and a timeline for implementing the necessary services, including but not limited, when applicable, to ensuring the provisions of educational services to all eligible children aged 4 years for the 1990-91 school year and thereafter, reducing class size to State averages in grades K-3 for the 1991-92 school year and thereafter and in all grades for the 1993-94 school year and thereafter, and providing sufficient staff and facility resources for students not served in the regular classroom setting.

Based on the analysis of data collected indicating specific strengths and weaknesses of the attendance center, the school improvement plan may place greater emphasis from year to year on particular priority goals, objectives, and activities.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-8.1)

Sec. 34-8.1. Principals. Principals shall be employed to supervise the operation of each attendance center. Their powers and duties shall include but not be limited to the authority (i) to direct, supervise, evaluate, and suspend with or without pay or otherwise discipline all teachers, assistant principals, and other employees assigned to the attendance center in accordance with board rules and policies and (ii) to direct all other persons assigned to the attendance center pursuant to a contract with a third party to provide services to the school system. The right to employ, discharge, and layoff shall be vested solely with the board, provided that decisions to discharge or suspend non-certified employees, including disciplinary layoffs, and the termination of certified employees from employment pursuant to a layoff or reassignment policy are subject to review under the grievance resolution procedure adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. The grievance resolution procedure adopted by the board shall provide for final and binding arbitration, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the arbitrator's decision may include all make-whole relief, including without limitation reinstatement. The principal shall fill positions by appointment as provided in this Section and may make recommendations to the board regarding the employment, discharge, or layoff of any individual. The authority of the principal shall include the authority to direct the hours during which the attendance center shall be open and available for use provided the use complies with board rules and policies, to determine when and what operations shall be conducted within those hours, and to schedule staff within those hours. Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of the principal, the Engineer In Charge shall be accountable for the safe, economical operation of the plant and grounds and shall also be responsible for orientation, training, and supervising the work of Engineers, Trainees, school maintenance assistants, custodial workers and other plant operation employees under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to performance of the engineer in charge. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action, which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish procedures for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the engineer in charge.

Under the direction of, and subject to the authority of, the principal, the Food Service Manager is responsible at all times for the proper operation and maintenance of the lunch room to which he is assigned and shall also be responsible for the orientation, training, and supervising the work of cooks, bakers, porters, and lunchroom attendants under his or her direction.

There shall be established by the Board a system of semi-annual evaluations conducted by the principal as to the performance of the food service manager. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the principal from conducting additional evaluations. An overall numerical rating shall be given by the principal based on the evaluation conducted by the principal. An unsatisfactory numerical rating shall result in disciplinary action which may include, without limitation and in the judgment of the principal, loss of promotion or bidding procedure, reprimand, suspension with or without pay, or recommended dismissal. The board shall establish rules for conducting the evaluation and reporting the results to the food service manager.

Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to require the employment or assignment of an Engineer-In-Charge or a Food Service Manager for each attendance center.

Principals shall be employed to supervise the educational operation of each attendance center. If a principal is absent due to extended illness or leave of or absence, an assistant principal may be assigned as acting principal for a period not to exceed 100 school days. Each principal shall assume administrative responsibility and instructional leadership, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations of the board, for the planning, operation and evaluation of the educational program of the attendance center to which he is assigned. The principal shall submit recommendations to the general superintendent concerning the appointment, dismissal, retention, promotion, and assignment of all personnel assigned to the attendance center; provided, that from and after September 1, 1989: (i) if any vacancy occurs in a position at the attendance center or if an additional or new position is created at the attendance center, that position shall be filled by appointment made by the principal in accordance with procedures established and provided by the Board whenever the majority of the duties included in that position are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision, and each such appointment so made by the principal shall be made and based upon merit and ability to perform in that position without regard to seniority or length of service, provided, that such appointments shall be subject to the Board's desegregation obligations, including but not limited to the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan in U.S. v. Chicago Board of Education; (ii) the principal shall submit recommendations based upon merit and ability to perform in the particular position, without regard to seniority or length of service, to the general superintendent concerning the appointment of any teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, security guard and any other personnel which is to be made by the general superintendent whenever less than a majority of the duties of that teacher, teacher aide, counselor, clerk, hall guard, and security guard and any other personnel are to be performed at the attendance center which is under the principal's supervision; and (iii) subject to law and the applicable collective bargaining agreements, the authority and responsibilities of a principal with respect to the evaluation of all teachers and other personnel assigned to an attendance center shall commence immediately upon his or her appointment as principal of the attendance center, without regard to the length of time that he or she has been the principal of that attendance center.

Notwithstanding the existence of any other law of this State, nothing in this Act shall prevent the board from entering into a contract with a third party for services currently performed by any employee or bargaining unit member.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, each principal may approve contracts, binding on the board, in the amount of no more than $10,000, if the contract is endorsed by the Local School Council.

Unless otherwise prohibited by law or by rule of the board, the principal shall provide to local school council members copies of all internal audits and any other pertinent information generated by any audits or reviews of the programs and operation of the attendance center.

Each principal shall hold a valid administrative certificate issued or exchanged in accordance with Article 21 and endorsed as required by that Article for the position of principal. The board may establish or impose academic, educational, examination, and experience requirements and criteria that are in addition to those established and required by Article 21 for issuance of a valid certificate endorsed for the position of principal as a condition of the nomination, selection, appointment, employment, or continued employment of a person as principal of any attendance center, or as a condition of the renewal of any principal's performance contract.

The board shall specify in its formal job description for principals, and from and after July 1, 1990 shall specify in the 4 year performance contracts for use with respect to all principals, that his or her primary responsibility is in the improvement of instruction. A majority of the time spent by a principal shall be spent on curriculum and staff development through both formal and informal activities, establishing clear lines of communication regarding school goals, accomplishments, practices and policies with parents and teachers. The principal, with the assistance of the local school council, shall develop a school improvement plan as provided in Section 34-2.4 and, upon approval of the plan by the local school council, shall be responsible for directing implementation of the plan. The principal, with the assistance of the professional personnel leadership committee, shall develop the specific methods and contents of the school's curriculum within the board's system-wide curriculum standards and objectives and the requirements of the school improvement plan. The board shall ensure that all principals are evaluated on their instructional leadership ability and their ability to maintain a positive education and learning climate. It shall also be the responsibility of the principal to utilize resources of proper law enforcement agencies when the safety and welfare of students and teachers are threatened by illegal use of drugs and alcohol, by illegal use or possession of weapons, or by illegal gang activity.

Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the board and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers from entering into an agreement under Section 34-85c of this Code to establish alternative procedures for teacher evaluation, remediation, and removal for cause after remediation, including an alternative system for peer evaluation and recommendations, for teachers assigned to schools identified in that agreement.

On or before October 1, 1989, the Board of Education, in consultation with any professional organization representing principals in the district, shall promulgate rules and implement a lottery for the purpose of determining whether a principal's existing performance contract (including the performance contract applicable to any principal's position in which a vacancy then exists) expires on June 30, 1990 or on June 30, 1991, and whether the ensuing 4 year performance contract begins on July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991. The Board of Education shall establish and conduct the lottery in such manner that of all the performance contracts of principals (including the performance contracts applicable to all principal positions in which a vacancy then exists), 50% of such contracts shall expire on June 30, 1990, and 50% shall expire on June 30, 1991. All persons serving as principal on May 1, 1989, and all persons appointed as principal after May 1, 1989 and prior to July 1, 1990 or July 1, 1991, in a manner other than as provided by Section 34-2.3, shall be deemed by operation of law to be serving under a performance contract which expires on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991; and unless such performance contract of any such principal is renewed (or such person is again appointed to serve as principal) in the manner provided by Section 34-2.2 or 34-2.3, the employment of such person as principal shall terminate on June 30, 1990 or June 30, 1991.

Commencing on July 1, 1990, or on July 1, 1991, and thereafter, the principal of each attendance center shall be the person selected in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3 to serve as principal of that attendance center under a 4 year performance contract. All performance contracts of principals expiring after July 1, 1990, or July 1, 1991, shall commence on the date specified in the contract, and the renewal of their performance contracts and the appointment of principals when their performance contracts are not renewed shall be governed by Sections 34-2.2 and 34-2.3. Whenever a vacancy in the office of a principal occurs for any reason, the vacancy shall be filled by the selection of a new principal to serve under a 4 year performance contract in the manner provided by Section 34-2.3.

The board of education shall develop and prepare, in consultation with the organization representing principals, a performance contract for use at all attendance centers, and shall furnish the same to each local school council. The term of the performance contract shall be 4 years, unless the principal is retained by the decision of a hearing officer pursuant to subdivision 1.5 of Section 34-2.3, in which case the contract shall be extended for 2 years. The performance contract of each principal shall consist of the uniform performance contract, as developed or from time to time modified by the board, and such additional criteria as are established by a local school council pursuant to Section 34-2.3 for the performance contract of its principal.

During the term of his or her performance contract, a principal may be removed only as provided for in the performance contract except for cause. He or she shall also be obliged to follow the rules of the board of education concerning conduct and efficiency.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, or in the event a principal is appointed to any position of superintendent or higher position, or voluntarily resigns his position of principal, his or her employment as a principal shall terminate and such former principal shall not be reinstated to the position from which he or she was promoted to principal, except that he or she, if otherwise qualified and certified in accordance with Article 21, shall be placed by the board on appropriate eligibility lists which it prepares for use in the filling of vacant or additional or newly created positions for teachers. The principal's total years of service to the board as both a teacher and a principal, or in other professional capacities, shall be used in calculating years of experience for purposes of being selected as a teacher into new, additional or vacant positions.

In the event the performance contract of a principal is not renewed or a principal is not reappointed as principal under a new performance contract, such principal shall be eligible to continue to receive his or her previously provided level of health insurance benefits for a period of 90 days following the non-renewal of the contract at no expense to the principal, provided that such principal has not retired.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-510, eff. 8-28-07; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 255. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 144, par. 30)

Sec. 9. Scholarships for children of veterans. For each of the following periods of hostilities, each county shall be entitled, annually, to one honorary scholarship in the University, for the benefit of the children of persons who served in the armed forces of the United States, except that the total number of scholarships annually granted to recipients from each county may not exceed 3: any time between September 16, 1940 and the termination of World War II, any time during the national emergency between June 25, 1950 and January 31, 1955, any time during the Viet Nam conflict between January 1, 1961 and May 7, 1975, any time during the siege of Beirut and the Grenada Conflict between June 14, 1982 and December 15, 1983, or any time on or after August 2, 1990 and until Congress or the President orders that persons in service are no longer eligible for the Southwest Asia Service Medal, Operation Enduring Freedom, and Operation Iraqi Freedom. Preference for scholarships shall be given to the children of persons who are deceased or to the children of persons who have a disability. Such scholarships shall be granted to such pupils as shall, upon public examination, conducted as the board of trustees of the University may determine, be decided to have attained the greatest proficiency in the branches of learning usually taught in the secondary schools, and who shall be of good moral character, and not less than 15 years of age. Such pupils, so selected, shall be entitled to receive, without charge for tuition, instruction in any or all departments of the University for a term of at least 4 consecutive years. Such pupils shall conform, in all respects, to the rules and regulations of the University, established for the government of the pupils in attendance.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-377, eff. 8-17-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 260. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Section 46 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/46) (from Ch. 17, par. 4447)

Sec. 46. Loans and interest rate.

(1) A credit union may make loans to its members for such purpose and upon such security and terms, including rates of interest, as the credit committee, credit manager, or loan officer approves. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law in connection with extensions of credit, a credit union may elect to contract for and receive interest and fees and other charges for extensions of credit subject only to the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under this Act, except that extensions of credit secured by residential real estate shall be subject to the laws applicable thereto. The rates of interest to be charged on loans to members shall be set by the board of directors of each individual credit union in accordance with Section 30 of this Act and such rates may be less than, but may not exceed, the maximum rate set forth in this Section. A borrower may repay his loan prior to maturity, in whole or in part, without penalty. The credit contract may provide for the payment by the member and receipt by the credit union of all costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney's fees and collection agency charges, incurred by the credit union to collect or enforce the debt in the event of a delinquency by the member, or in the event of a breach of any obligation of the member under the credit contract. A contingency or hourly arrangement established under an agreement entered into by a credit union with an attorney or collection agency to collect a loan of a member in default shall be presumed prima facie reasonable.

(2) Credit unions may make loans based upon the security of any interest or equity in real estate, subject to rules and regulations promulgated by the Secretary. In any contract or loan which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or conveyance in the nature of a mortgage, on residential real estate, the interest which is computed, calculated, charged, or collected pursuant to such contract or loan, or pursuant to any regulation or rule promulgated pursuant to this Act, may not be computed, calculated, charged or collected for any period of time occurring after the date on which the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties, is paid in full.

For purposes of this subsection (2) of this Section 46, a prepayment shall mean the payment of the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties if incurred or charged, on any date before the date specified in the contract or loan agreement on which the total indebtedness shall be paid in full, or before the date on which all payments, if timely made, shall have been made. In the event of a prepayment of the indebtedness which is made on a date after the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged, or collected but before the next date on which interest on the indebtedness was to be calculated, computed, charged, or collected, the lender may calculate, charge and collect interest on the indebtedness for the period which elapsed between the date on which the prepayment is made and the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged or collected at a rate equal to 1/360 of the annual rate for each day which so elapsed, which rate shall be applied to the indebtedness outstanding as of the date of prepayment. The lender shall refund to the borrower any interest charged or collected which exceeds that which the lender may charge or collect pursuant to the preceding sentence. The provisions of Public Act 84-941 this amendatory Act of 1985 shall apply only to contracts or loans entered into on or after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-941) this amendatory Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, a credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by an interest or equity in real property may engage in making revolving credit loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust on such real property or by security assignments of beneficial interests in land trusts.

For purposes of this Section, "revolving credit" has the meaning defined in Section 4.1 of the Interest Act.

Any mortgage or deed of trust given to secure a revolving credit loan may, and when so expressed therein shall, secure not only the existing indebtedness but also such future advances, whether such advances are obligatory or to be made at the option of the lender, or otherwise, as are made within twenty years from the date thereof, to the same extent as if such future advances were made on the date of the execution of such mortgage or deed of trust, although there may be no advance made at the time of execution of such mortgage or other instrument, and although there may be no indebtedness outstanding at the time any advance is made. The lien of such mortgage or deed of trust, as to third persons without actual notice thereof, shall be valid as to all such indebtedness and future advances form the time said mortgage or deed of trust is filed for record in the office of the recorder of deeds or the registrar of titles of the county where the real property described therein is located. The total amount of indebtedness that may be so secured may increase or decrease from time to time, but the total unpaid balance so secured at any one time shall not exceed a maximum principal amount which must be specified in such mortgage or deed of trust, plus interest thereon, and any disbursements made for the payment of taxes, special assessments, or insurance on said real property, with interest on such disbursements.

Any such mortgage or deed of trust shall be valid and have priority over all subsequent liens and encumbrances, including statutory liens, except taxes and assessments levied on said real property.

(4-5) For purposes of this Section, "real estate" and "real property" include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

(5) Compliance with federal or Illinois preemptive laws or regulations governing loans made by a credit union chartered under this Act shall constitute compliance with this Act.

(6) Credit unions may make residential real estate mortgage loans on terms and conditions established by the United States Department of Agriculture through its Rural Development Housing and Community Facilities Program. The portion of any loan in excess of the appraised value of the real estate shall be allocable only to the guarantee fee required under the program.

(7) For a renewal, refinancing, or restructuring of an existing loan at the credit union that is secured by an interest or equity in real estate, a new appraisal of the collateral shall not be required when (i) no new moneys are advanced other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs, or (ii) there has been no obvious or material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the real estate that threatens the adequacy of the credit union's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new moneys. The Department reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subsection (7) whenever the Department believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-149, eff. 1-1-16; 99-331, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 265. The Corporate Fiduciary Act is amended by changing Section 5-10.5 as follows:

(205 ILCS 620/5-10.5)

Sec. 5-10.5. Disclosure of records. A corporate fiduciary may not disclose to any person, except to the customer or the customer's duly authorized agent, any records pertaining to the fiduciary relationship between the corporate fiduciary and the customer unless:

(1) the instrument or court order establishing the fiduciary relationship permits the record to be disclosed under the circumstances;

(2) applicable law authorizes the disclosure;

(3) disclosure by the corporate fiduciary is necessary to perform a transaction or act that is authorized by the instrument or court order establishing the fiduciary relationship relation ship; or

(4) Section 48.1 of the Illinois Banking Act would permit a bank to disclose the record to the same extent under the circumstances.

For purposes of this Section, "customer" means the person or individual who contracted to establish the fiduciary relationship or who executed any instrument or document from which the fiduciary relationship was established, a person authorized by the customer to provide such direction or, if the instrument, law, or court order so permits, the beneficiaries of the fiduciary relationship.

(Source: P.A. 89-364, eff. 8-18-95; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 270. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advanced advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff consulting committee in consultation with the anesthesia service and included in the medical staff consulting committee policies.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 275. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166)

Sec. 6. All reports of suspected abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the Department's central register established under Section 14 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established under Section 13, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. No long term care facility administrator, agent or employee, or any other person, shall screen reports or otherwise withhold any reports from the Department, and no long term care facility, department of State government, or other agency shall establish any rules, criteria, standards or guidelines to the contrary. Every long term care facility, department of State government and other agency whose employees are required to make or cause to be made reports under Section 4 shall notify its employees of the provisions of that Section and of this Section, and provide to the Department documentation that such notification has been given. The Department of Human Services shall train all of its mental health and developmental disabilities employees in the detection and reporting of suspected abuse and neglect of residents. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be transmitted to appropriate Department offices and municipal health departments that have responsibility for licensing long term care facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act. All reports received through offices of the Department shall be forwarded to the central register, in a manner and form described by the Department. The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected abuse and neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Reports shall also be made in writing deposited in the U.S. mail, postage prepaid, within 24 hours after having reasonable cause to believe that the condition of the resident resulted from abuse or neglect. Such reports may in addition be made to the local law enforcement agency in the same manner. However, in the event a report is made to the local law enforcement agency, the reporter also shall immediately so inform the Department. The Department shall initiate an investigation of each report of resident abuse and neglect under this Act, whether oral or written, as provided for in Section 3-702 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 2-208 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, Section 3-702 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-702 of the MC/DD Act, except that reports of abuse which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours of such report. The Department may delegate to law enforcement officials or other public agencies the duty to perform such investigation.

With respect to investigations of reports of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services, the Department shall transmit copies of such reports to the Department of State Police, the Department of Human Services, and the Inspector General appointed under Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act. If the Department receives a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a recipient of services as defined in Section 1-123 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, the Department shall transmit copies of such report to the Inspector General and the Directors of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act. When requested by the Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, or the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department, the Department of Human Services and the Department of State Police shall make available a copy of the final investigative report regarding investigations conducted by their respective agencies on incidents of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions or individuals receiving services at community agencies under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services. Such final investigative report shall not contain witness statements, investigation notes, draft summaries, results of lie detector tests, investigative files or other raw data which was used to compile the final investigative report. Specifically, the final investigative report of the Department of State Police shall mean the Director's final transmittal letter. The Department of Human Services shall also make available a copy of the results of disciplinary proceedings of employees involved in incidents of abuse or neglect to the Directors. All identifiable information in reports provided shall not be further disclosed except as provided by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to limit or construe the power or authority granted to the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, pursuant to any other State or federal statute.

With respect to investigations of reported resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall effect with appropriate law enforcement agencies formal agreements concerning methods and procedures for the conduct of investigations into the criminal histories of any administrator, staff assistant or employee of the nursing home or other person responsible for the residents care, as well as for other residents in the nursing home who may be in a position to abuse, neglect or exploit the patient. Pursuant to the formal agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies, the Department may request information with respect to whether the person or persons set forth in this paragraph have ever been charged with a crime and if so, the disposition of those charges. Unless the criminal histories of the subjects involved crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall be entitled only to information limited in scope to charges and their dispositions. In cases where prior crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect are involved, a more detailed report can be made available to authorized representatives of the Department, pursuant to the agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies. Any criminal charges and their disposition information obtained by the Department shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department, except as required herein, to authorized representatives or delegates of the Department, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Department who is not duly authorized to handle resident abuse or neglect investigations.

The Department shall effect formal agreements with appropriate law enforcement agencies in the various counties and communities to encourage cooperation and coordination in the handling of resident abuse or neglect cases pursuant to this Act. The Department shall adopt and implement methods and procedures to promote statewide uniformity in the handling of reports of abuse and neglect under this Act, and those methods and procedures shall be adhered to by personnel of the Department involved in such investigations and reporting. The Department shall also make information required by this Act available to authorized personnel within the Department, as well as its authorized representatives.

The Department shall keep a continuing record of all reports made pursuant to this Act, including indications of the final determination of any investigation and the final disposition of all reports.

The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the incidence of abuse and neglect of long term care facility residents, with special attention to residents who are persons with mental disabilities. The report shall include but not be limited to data on the number and source of reports of suspected abuse or neglect filed under this Act, the nature of any injuries to residents, the final determination of investigations, the type and number of cases where abuse or neglect is determined to exist, and the final disposition of cases.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 280. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-113, 2-201.5, and 3-702 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/1-113) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-113)

Sec. 1-113. "Facility" or "long-term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or any other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care or nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as those terms are defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the federal Federal Social Security Act. It also includes homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "Community Living Facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "Supportive Residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(12) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(13) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013; or

(14) A facility licensed under the MC/DD Act; or .

(15) (14) A medical foster home, as defined in 38 CFR 17.73, that is under the oversight of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-376, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-201.5)

Sec. 2-201.5. Screening prior to admission.

(a) All persons age 18 or older seeking admission to a nursing facility must be screened to determine the need for nursing facility services prior to being admitted, regardless of income, assets, or funding source. Screening for nursing facility services shall be administered through procedures established by administrative rule. Screening may be done by agencies other than the Department as established by administrative rule. This Section applies on and after July 1, 1996. No later than October 1, 2010, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in collaboration with the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health, shall file administrative rules providing for the gathering, during the screening process, of information relevant to determining each person's potential for placing other residents, employees, and visitors at risk of harm.

(a-1) Any screening performed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall include a determination of whether any person is being considered for admission to a nursing facility due to a need for mental health services. For a person who needs mental health services, the screening shall also include an evaluation of whether there is permanent supportive housing, or an array of community mental health services, including but not limited to supported housing, assertive community treatment, and peer support services, that would enable the person to live in the community. The person shall be told about the existence of any such services that would enable the person to live safely and humanely and about available appropriate nursing home services that would enable the person to live safely and humanely, and the person shall be given the assistance necessary to avail himself or herself of any available services.

(a-2) Pre-screening for persons with a serious mental illness shall be performed by a psychiatrist, a psychologist, a registered nurse certified in psychiatric nursing, a licensed clinical professional counselor, or a licensed clinical social worker, who is competent to (i) perform a clinical assessment of the individual, (ii) certify a diagnosis, (iii) make a determination about the individual's current need for treatment, including substance abuse treatment, and recommend specific treatment, and (iv) determine whether a facility or a community-based program is able to meet the needs of the individual.

For any person entering a nursing facility, the pre-screening agent shall make specific recommendations about what care and services the individual needs to receive, beginning at admission, to attain or maintain the individual's highest level of independent functioning and to live in the most integrated setting appropriate for his or her physical and personal care and developmental and mental health needs. These recommendations shall be revised as appropriate by the pre-screening or re-screening agent based on the results of resident review and in response to changes in the resident's wishes, needs, and interest in transition.

Upon the person entering the nursing facility, the Department of Human Services or its designee shall assist the person in establishing a relationship with a community mental health agency or other appropriate agencies in order to (i) promote the person's transition to independent living and (ii) support the person's progress in meeting individual goals.

(a-3) The Department of Human Services, by rule, shall provide for a prohibition on conflicts of interest for pre-admission screeners. The rule shall provide for waiver of those conflicts by the Department of Human Services if the Department of Human Services determines that a scarcity of qualified pre-admission screeners exists in a given community and that, absent a waiver of conflicts, an insufficient number of pre-admission screeners would be available. If a conflict is waived, the pre-admission screener shall disclose the conflict of interest to the screened individual in the manner provided for by rule of the Department of Human Services. For the purposes of this subsection, a "conflict of interest" includes, but is not limited to, the existence of a professional or financial relationship between (i) a PAS-MH corporate or a PAS-MH agent and (ii) a community provider or long-term care facility.

(b) In addition to the screening required by subsection (a), a facility, except for those licensed under the MC/DD Act, shall, within 24 hours after admission, request a criminal history background check pursuant to the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for all persons age 18 or older seeking admission to the facility, unless (i) a background check was initiated by a hospital pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 6.09 of the Hospital Licensing Act or a pre-admission background check was conducted by the Department of Veterans' Affairs 30 days prior to admittance into an Illinois Veterans Home; (ii) the transferring resident is immobile; or (iii) the transferring resident is moving into hospice. The exemption provided in item (ii) or (iii) of this subsection (b) shall apply only if a background check was completed by the facility the resident resided at prior to seeking admission to the facility and the resident was transferred to the facility with no time passing during which the resident was not institutionalized. If item (ii) or (iii) of this subsection (b) applies, the prior facility shall provide a copy of its background check of the resident and all supporting documentation, including, when applicable, the criminal history report and the security assessment, to the facility to which the resident is being transferred. Background checks conducted pursuant to this Section shall be based on the resident's name, date of birth, and other identifiers as required by the Department of State Police. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the facility shall initiate a fingerprint-based check, unless the fingerprint check is waived by the Director of Public Health based on verification by the facility that the resident is completely immobile or that the resident meets other criteria related to the resident's health or lack of potential risk which may be established by Departmental rule. A waiver issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid only while the resident is immobile or while the criteria supporting the waiver exist. The facility shall provide for or arrange for any required fingerprint-based checks to be taken on the premises of the facility. If a fingerprint-based check is required, the facility shall arrange for it to be conducted in a manner that is respectful of the resident's dignity and that minimizes any emotional or physical hardship to the resident.

(c) If the results of a resident's criminal history background check reveal that the resident is an identified offender as defined in Section 1-114.01, the facility shall do the following:

(1) Immediately notify the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, in collaboration with the Department of Public Health, that the resident is an identified offender.

(2) Within 72 hours, arrange for a fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiry to be requested on the identified offender resident. The inquiry shall be based on the subject's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprint images, and other identifiers required by the Department of State Police. The inquiry shall be processed through the files of the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to locate any criminal history record information that may exist regarding the subject. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish to the Department of State Police, pursuant to an inquiry under this paragraph (2), any criminal history record information contained in its files.

The facility shall comply with all applicable provisions contained in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act.

All name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries shall be submitted to the Department of State Police electronically in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police may charge the facility a fee for processing name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries. The fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The fee shall not exceed the actual cost of processing the inquiry.

(d) (Blank).

(e) The Department shall develop and maintain a de-identified database of residents who have injured facility staff, facility visitors, or other residents, and the attendant circumstances, solely for the purposes of evaluating and improving resident pre-screening and assessment procedures (including the Criminal History Report prepared under Section 2-201.6) and the adequacy of Department requirements concerning the provision of care and services to residents. A resident shall not be listed in the database until a Department survey confirms the accuracy of the listing. The names of persons listed in the database and information that would allow them to be individually identified shall not be made public. Neither the Department nor any other agency of State government may use information in the database to take any action against any individual, licensee, or other entity, unless the Department or agency receives the information independent of this subsection (e). All information collected, maintained, or developed under the authority of this subsection (e) for the purposes of the database maintained under this subsection (e) shall be treated in the same manner as information that is subject to Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-314, eff. 8-7-15; 99-453, eff. 8-24-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-702) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-702)

Sec. 3-702. (a) A person who believes that this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act may have been violated may request an investigation. The request may be submitted to the Department in writing, by telephone, by electronic means, or by personal visit. An oral complaint shall be reduced to writing by the Department. The Department shall make available, through its website and upon request, information regarding the oral and phone intake processes and the list of questions that will be asked of the complainant. The Department shall request information identifying the complainant, including the name, address and telephone number, to help enable appropriate follow-up. The Department shall act on such complaints via on-site visits or other methods deemed appropriate to handle the complaints with or without such identifying information, as otherwise provided under this Section. The complainant shall be informed that compliance with such request is not required to satisfy the procedures for filing a complaint under this Act. The Department must notify complainants that complaints with less information provided are far more difficult to respond to and investigate.

(b) The substance of the complaint shall be provided in writing to the licensee, owner, or administrator no earlier than at the commencement of an on-site inspection of the facility which takes place pursuant to the complaint.

(c) The Department shall not disclose the name of the complainant unless the complainant consents in writing to the disclosure or the investigation results in a judicial proceeding, or unless disclosure is essential to the investigation. The complainant shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the complaint before disclosure. Upon the request of the complainant, the Department may permit the complainant or a representative of the complainant to accompany the person making the on-site inspection of the facility.

(d) Upon receipt of a complaint, the Department shall determine whether this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act has been or is being violated. The Department shall investigate all complaints alleging abuse or neglect within 7 days after the receipt of the complaint except that complaints of abuse or neglect which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours after receipt of the complaint. All other complaints shall be investigated within 30 days after the receipt of the complaint. The Department employees investigating a complaint shall conduct a brief, informal exit conference with the facility to alert its administration of any suspected serious deficiency that poses a direct threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident to enable an immediate correction for the alleviation or elimination of such threat. Such information and findings discussed in the brief exit conference shall become a part of the investigating record but shall not in any way constitute an official or final notice of violation as provided under Section 3-301. All complaints shall be classified as "an invalid report", "a valid report", or "an undetermined report". For any complaint classified as "a valid report", the Department must determine within 30 working days if any rule or provision of this Act has been or is being violated.

(d-1) The Department shall, whenever possible, combine an on-site investigation of a complaint in a facility with other inspections in order to avoid duplication of inspections.

(e) In all cases, the Department shall inform the complainant of its findings within 10 days of its determination unless otherwise indicated by the complainant, and the complainant may direct the Department to send a copy of such findings to another person. The Department's findings may include comments or documentation provided by either the complainant or the licensee pertaining to the complaint. The Department shall also notify the facility of such findings within 10 days of the determination, but the name of the complainant or residents shall not be disclosed in this notice to the facility. The notice of such findings shall include a copy of the written determination; the correction order, if any; the warning notice, if any; the inspection report; or the State licensure form on which the violation is listed.

(f) A written determination, correction order, or warning notice concerning a complaint, together with the facility's response, shall be available for public inspection, but the name of the complainant or resident shall not be disclosed without his consent.

(g) A complainant who is dissatisfied with the determination or investigation by the Department may request a hearing under Section 3-703. The facility shall be given notice of any such hearing and may participate in the hearing as a party. If a facility requests a hearing under Section 3-703 which concerns a matter covered by a complaint, the complainant shall be given notice and may participate in the hearing as a party. A request for a hearing by either a complainant or a facility shall be submitted in writing to the Department within 30 days after the mailing of the Department's findings as described in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall conduct a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(g-5) The Department shall conduct an annual review and make a report concerning the complaint process that includes the number of complaints received, the breakdown of anonymous and non-anonymous complaints and whether the complaints were substantiated or not, the total number of substantiated complaints, and any other complaint information requested by the Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board created under Section 2-204 of this Act or the Illinois Long-Term Care Council created under Section 4.04a of the Illinois Act on the Aging. This report shall be provided to the Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board and the Illinois Long-Term Care Council. The Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board and the Illinois Long-Term Care Council shall review the report and suggest any changes deemed necessary to the Department for review and action, including how to investigate and substantiate anonymous complaints.

(h) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(8) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-988, eff. 8-18-14; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 285. The MC/DD Act is amended by changing Section 2-104.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 46/2-104.2)

Sec. 2-104.2. Do Not Resuscitate Orders. Every facility licensed under this Act shall establish a policy for the implementation of physician orders limiting resuscitation such as those commonly referred to as "Do Not Resuscitate" orders. This policy may only prescribe the format, method of documentation and duration of any physician orders limiting resuscitation. Any orders under this policy shall be honored by the facility. The Department of Public Health Uniform POLST DNR/POLST form or a copy of that form or a previous version of the uniform form shall be honored by the facility.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 290. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-101.05 and 1-113 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/1-101.05)

Sec. 1-101.05. Prior law.

(a) This Act provides for licensure of intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities under this Act instead of under the Nursing Home Care Act. On and after July 1, 2010 (the effective date of this Act), those facilities shall be governed by this Act instead of the Nursing Home Care Act.

On and after July 29, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-180) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, long-term care for under age 22 facilities shall be known as medically complex for the developmentally disabled facilities and governed by the MC/DD Act instead of this Act.

(b) If any other Act of the General Assembly changes, adds, or repeals a provision of the Nursing Home Care Act that is the same as or substantially similar to a provision of this Act, then that change, addition, or repeal in the Nursing Home Care Act shall be construed together with this Act until July 1, 2010 and not thereafter.

(c) Nothing in this Act affects the validity or effect of any finding, decision, or action made or taken by the Department or the Director under the Nursing Home Care Act before July 1, 2010 (the effective date of this Act) with respect to a facility subject to licensure under this Act. That finding, decision, or action shall continue to apply to the facility on and after July 1, 2010 (the effective date of this Act). Any finding, decision, or action with respect to the facility made or taken on or after July 1, 2010 (the effective date of this Act) shall be made or taken as provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

(210 ILCS 47/1-113)

Sec. 1-113. Facility. "ID/DD facility" or "facility" means an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities, whether operated for profit or not, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes intermediate care facilities for the intellectually disabled as the term is defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefore, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "supportive residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(12) A home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs; or

(13) Any MC/DD facility licensed under the MC/DD Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 295. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 6.09, 10.2, and 10.7 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.09) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.09)

Sec. 6.09. (a) In order to facilitate the orderly transition of aged patients and patients with disabilities from hospitals to post-hospital care, whenever a patient who qualifies for the federal Medicare program is hospitalized, the patient shall be notified of discharge at least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital. With regard to pending discharges to a skilled nursing facility, the hospital must notify the case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, at least 24 hours prior to discharge. When the assessment is completed in the hospital, the case coordination unit shall provide the discharge planner with a copy of the prescreening information and accompanying materials, which the discharge planner shall transmit when the patient is discharged to a skilled nursing facility. If home health services are ordered, the hospital must inform its designated case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, of the pending discharge and must provide the patient with the case coordination unit's telephone number and other contact information.

(b) Every hospital shall develop procedures for a physician with medical staff privileges at the hospital or any appropriate medical staff member to provide the discharge notice prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. The procedures must include prohibitions against discharging or referring a patient to any of the following if unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered: (i) a board and care facility, as defined in the Board and Care Home Act; (ii) an assisted living and shared housing establishment, as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act; (iv) a supportive living facility, as defined in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or (v) a free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act if licensure, certification, or registration is required. The Department of Public Health shall annually provide hospitals with a list of licensed, certified, or registered board and care facilities, assisted living and shared housing establishments, nursing homes, supportive living facilities, facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and hospice facilities. Reliance upon this list by a hospital shall satisfy compliance with this requirement. The procedure may also include a waiver for any case in which a discharge notice is not feasible due to a short length of stay in the hospital by the patient, or for any case in which the patient voluntarily desires to leave the hospital before the expiration of the 24 hour period.

(c) At least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital, the patient shall receive written information on the patient's right to appeal the discharge pursuant to the federal Medicare program, including the steps to follow to appeal the discharge and the appropriate telephone number to call in case the patient intends to appeal the discharge.

(d) Before transfer of a patient to a long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act where elderly persons reside, a hospital shall as soon as practicable initiate a name-based criminal history background check by electronic submission to the Department of State Police for all persons between the ages of 18 and 70 years; provided, however, that a hospital shall be required to initiate such a background check only with respect to patients who:

(1) are transferring to a long term care facility for the first time;

(2) have been in the hospital more than 5 days;

(3) are reasonably expected to remain at the long term care facility for more than 30 days;

(4) have a known history of serious mental illness or substance abuse; and

(5) are independently ambulatory or mobile for more than a temporary period of time.

A hospital may also request a criminal history background check for a patient who does not meet any of the criteria set forth in items (1) through (5).

A hospital shall notify a long term care facility if the hospital has initiated a criminal history background check on a patient being discharged to that facility. In all circumstances in which the hospital is required by this subsection to initiate the criminal history background check, the transfer to the long term care facility may proceed regardless of the availability of criminal history results. Upon receipt of the results, the hospital shall promptly forward the results to the appropriate long term care facility. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the hospital shall have no additional duty or obligation to seek additional information from, or about, the patient.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151.2)

Sec. 10.2. Because the candid and conscientious evaluation of clinical practices is essential to the provision of adequate hospital care, it is the policy of this State to encourage peer review by health care providers. Therefore, no hospital and no individual who is a member, agent, or employee of a hospital, hospital medical staff, hospital administrative staff, or hospital governing board shall be liable for civil damages as a result of the acts, omissions, decisions, or any other conduct, except those involving wilful or wanton misconduct, of a medical utilization committee, medical review committee, patient care audit committee, medical care evaluation committee, quality review committee, credential committee, peer review committee, or any other committee or individual whose purpose, directly or indirectly, is internal quality control or medical study to reduce morbidity or mortality, or for improving patient care within a hospital, or the improving or benefiting of patient care and treatment, whether within a hospital or not, or for the purpose of professional discipline including institution of a summary suspension in accordance with Section 10.4 of this Act and the medical staff bylaws. Nothing in this Section shall relieve any individual or hospital from liability arising from treatment of a patient. Any individual or hospital from liability arising from treatment of a patient. For the purposes of this Section, "wilful and wanton misconduct" means a course of action that shows actual or deliberate intention to harm or that, if not intentional, shows an utter indifference to or conscious disregard for a person's own safety and the safety of others.

(Source: P.A. 91-448, eff. 8-6-99; revised 10-9-15.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.7)

Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.

All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery at the hospital. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not a hospital employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advanced advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws. The medical staff shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed by the hospital.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the anesthesia service.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the hospital's alternative policy.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 300. The Illinois Migrant Labor Camp Law is amended by changing Sections 4 and 6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 110/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 185.4)

Sec. 4. Applications for a license to operate or maintain a Migrant Labor Camp or for a renewal thereof shall be made upon paper or electronic forms to be furnished by the Department. Such application shall include:

(a) The name and address of the applicant or applicants. If the applicant is a partnership, the names and addresses of all the partners shall also be given. If the applicant is a corporation, the names and addresses of the principal officers of the corporation shall be given.

(b) The approximate legal description and the address of the tract of land upon which the applicant proposes to operate and maintain such Migrant Labor Camp.

(c) A general plan or sketch of the campsite camp site showing the location of the buildings or facilities together with a description of the buildings, of the water supply, of the toilet, bathing, and laundry facilities, and of the fire protection equipment.

(d) The date upon which the occupancy and use of the Migrant Labor Camp will commence.

The application for the original license or for any renewal thereof shall be accompanied by a fee of $100.

Application for the original license or for a renewal of the license shall be filed with the Department at least 10 business days prior to the date on which the occupancy and use of such camp is to commence. The camp shall be ready for inspection at least 5 business days prior to the date upon which the occupancy and use of such camp is to commence.

(Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 98-1034, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-14-15.)

(210 ILCS 110/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 185.6)

Sec. 6. Upon receipt of an application for a license, the Department shall inspect, at its earliest opportunity, the campsite camp site and the facilities described in the application. If the Department finds that the Migrant Labor Camp described in the application meets and complies with the provisions of this Act and the rules of the Department in relation thereto, the Director shall issue a license to the applicant for the operation of the camp.

If the application is denied, the Department shall notify the applicant in writing of such denial setting forth the reasons therefor. If the conditions constituting the basis for such denial are remediable, the applicant may correct such conditions and notify the Department in writing indicating therein the manner in which such conditions have been remedied. Notifications of corrections shall be processed in the same manner as the original application.

(Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 98-1034, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 305. The Tanning Facility Permit Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(210 ILCS 145/80) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 8351-80)

Sec. 80. Public nuisance.

(a) Any tanning facility operating without a valid permit or operating on a revoked permit shall be guilty of committing a public nuisance.

(b) A person convicted of knowingly maintaining a public nuisance commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each subsequent offense under this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) The Attorney General of this State or the State's States Attorney of the county wherein the nuisance exists may commence an action to abate the nuisance. The court may without notice or bond enter a temporary restraining order or a preliminary injunction to enjoin the defendant from operating in violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-636; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 310. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 131.4, 143a, 147.1, 356g, 356z.2, 460, 512.59, 902, and 1202 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/131.4) (from Ch. 73, par. 743.4)

Sec. 131.4. Acquisition of control of or merger with domestic company.

(a) No person other than the issuer may make a tender for or a request or invitation for tenders of, or enter into an agreement to exchange securities for, or seek to acquire or acquire shareholders' proxies to vote or seek to acquire or acquire in the open market, or otherwise, any voting security of a domestic company or acquire policyholders' proxies of a domestic company or any entity that controls a domestic company, for consideration if, after the consummation thereof, that person would, directly or indirectly, (or by conversion or by exercise of any right to acquire) be in control of the company, and no person may enter into an agreement to merge or consolidate with or otherwise to acquire control of a domestic company, unless the offer, request, invitation, or agreement is conditioned on receiving the approval of the Director based on Section 131.8 of this Article and no such acquisition of control or a merger with a domestic company may be consummated unless the person has filed with the Director and has sent to the company a statement containing the information required by Section 131.5 and the Director has approved the transaction or granted an exemption. Prior to the acquisition, the Director may conclude that a statement need not be filed by the acquiring party if the acquiring party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Director that:

(1) such transaction will not result in the change of control of the domestic company; or

(2) (blank);

(3) the acquisition of, or attempt to acquire control of, such other person is subject to requirements in the jurisdiction of its domicile which are substantially similar to those contained in this Section and Sections 131.5 through 131.12; or

(4) the control of the policyholders' proxies is being acquired solely by virtue of the holders official office and not as the result of any agreement or for any consideration.

The purpose of this Section is to afford to the Director the opportunity to review acquisitions in order to determine whether or not the acquisition would be adverse to the interests of the existing and future policyholders of the company.

(b) For purposes of this Section, any controlling person of a domestic company seeking to divest its controlling interest in the domestic company in any manner shall file with the Director, with a copy to the company, confidential notice of its proposed divestiture at least 30 days prior to the cessation of control. The Director shall determine those instances in which the party or parties seeking to divest or to acquire a controlling interest in a company shall be required to file for and obtain approval of the transaction. The information shall remain confidential until the conclusion of the transaction unless the Director, in his or her discretion, determines that confidential treatment shall interfere with enforcement of this Section. If the statement referred to in subsection (a) of this Section is otherwise filed in connection with the proposed divestiture divesture or related acquisition, this subsection (b) shall not apply.

(c) For purposes of this Section, a domestic company shall include any person controlling a domestic company unless the person, as determined by the Director, is either directly or through its affiliates primarily engaged in business other than the business of insurance. For the purposes of this Section, "person" shall not include any securities broker holding, in the usual and customary broker's function, less than 20% of the voting securities of an insurance company or of any person that controls an insurance company.

(Source: P.A. 98-609, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-14-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/143a) (from Ch. 73, par. 755a)

Sec. 143a. Uninsured and hit and run motor vehicle coverage.

(1) No policy insuring against loss resulting from liability imposed by law for bodily injury or death suffered by any person arising out of the ownership, maintenance or use of a motor vehicle that is designed for use on public highways and that is either required to be registered in this State or is principally garaged in this State shall be renewed, delivered, or issued for delivery in this State unless coverage is provided therein or supplemental thereto, in limits for bodily injury or death set forth in Section 7-203 of the Illinois Vehicle Code for the protection of persons insured thereunder who are legally entitled to recover damages from owners or operators of uninsured motor vehicles and hit-and-run motor vehicles because of bodily injury, sickness or disease, including death, resulting therefrom. Uninsured motor vehicle coverage does not apply to bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death resulting therefrom, of an insured while occupying a motor vehicle owned by, or furnished or available for the regular use of the insured, a resident spouse or resident relative, if that motor vehicle is not described in the policy under which a claim is made or is not a newly acquired or replacement motor vehicle covered under the terms of the policy. The limits for any coverage for any vehicle under the policy may not be aggregated with the limits for any similar coverage, whether provided by the same insurer or another insurer, applying to other motor vehicles, for purposes of determining the total limit of insurance coverage available for bodily injury or death suffered by a person in any one accident. No policy shall be renewed, delivered, or issued for delivery in this State unless it is provided therein that any dispute with respect to the coverage and the amount of damages shall be submitted for arbitration to the American Arbitration Association and be subject to its rules for the conduct of arbitration hearings as to all matters except medical opinions. As to medical opinions, if the amount of damages being sought is equal to or less than the amount provided for in Section 7-203 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, then the current American Arbitration Association Rules shall apply. If the amount being sought in an American Arbitration Association case exceeds that amount as set forth in Section 7-203 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, then the Rules of Evidence that apply in the circuit court for placing medical opinions into evidence shall govern. Alternatively, disputes with respect to damages and the coverage shall be determined in the following manner: Upon the insured requesting arbitration, each party to the dispute shall select an arbitrator and the 2 arbitrators so named shall select a third arbitrator. If such arbitrators are not selected within 45 days from such request, either party may request that the arbitration be submitted to the American Arbitration Association. Any decision made by the arbitrators shall be binding for the amount of damages not exceeding $75,000 for bodily injury to or death of any one person, $150,000 for bodily injury to or death of 2 or more persons in any one motor vehicle accident, or the corresponding policy limits for bodily injury or death, whichever is less. All 3-person arbitration cases proceeding in accordance with any uninsured motorist coverage conducted in this State in which the claimant is only seeking monetary damages up to the limits set forth in Section 7-203 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be subject to the following rules:

(A) If at least 60 days' written notice of the intention to offer the following documents in evidence is given to every other party, accompanied by a copy of the document, a party may offer in evidence, without foundation or other proof:

(1) bills, records, and reports of hospitals, doctors, dentists, registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, physical therapists, and other healthcare providers;

(2) bills for drugs, medical appliances, and prostheses;

(3) property repair bills or estimates, when identified and itemized setting forth the charges for labor and material used or proposed for use in the repair of the property;

(4) a report of the rate of earnings and time lost from work or lost compensation prepared by an employer;

(5) the written opinion of an opinion witness, the deposition of a witness, and the statement of a witness that the witness would be allowed to express if testifying in person, if the opinion or statement is made by affidavit or by certification as provided in Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure;

(6) any other document not specifically covered by any of the foregoing provisions that is otherwise admissible under the rules of evidence.

Any party receiving a notice under this paragraph (A) may apply to the arbitrator or panel of arbitrators, as the case may be, for the issuance of a subpoena directed to the author or maker or custodian of the document that is the subject of the notice, requiring the person subpoenaed to produce copies of any additional documents as may be related to the subject matter of the document that is the subject of the notice. Any such subpoena shall be issued in substantially similar form and served by notice as provided by Illinois Supreme Court Rule 204(a)(4). Any such subpoena shall be returnable not less than 5 days before the arbitration hearing.

(B) Notwithstanding the provisions of Supreme Court Rule 213(g), a party who proposes to use a written opinion of an expert or opinion witness or the testimony of an expert or opinion witness at the hearing may do so provided a written notice of that intention is given to every other party not less than 60 days prior to the date of hearing, accompanied by a statement containing the identity of the witness, his or her qualifications, the subject matter, the basis of the witness's conclusions, and his or her opinion.

(C) Any other party may subpoena the author or maker of a document admissible under this subsection, at that party's expense, and examine the author or maker as if under cross-examination. The provisions of Section 2-1101 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be applicable to arbitration hearings, and it shall be the duty of a party requesting the subpoena to modify the form to show that the appearance is set before an arbitration panel and to give the time and place set for the hearing.

(D) The provisions of Section 2-1102 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be applicable to arbitration hearings under this subsection.

(2) No policy insuring against loss resulting from liability imposed by law for property damage arising out of the ownership, maintenance, or use of a motor vehicle shall be renewed, delivered, or issued for delivery in this State with respect to any private passenger or recreational motor vehicle that is designed for use on public highways and that is either required to be registered in this State or is principally garaged in this State and is not covered by collision insurance under the provisions of such policy, unless coverage is made available in the amount of the actual cash value of the motor vehicle described in the policy or $15,000 whichever is less, subject to a $250 deductible, for the protection of persons insured thereunder who are legally entitled to recover damages from owners or operators of uninsured motor vehicles and hit-and-run motor vehicles because of property damage to the motor vehicle described in the policy.

There shall be no liability imposed under the uninsured motorist property damage coverage required by this subsection if the owner or operator of the at-fault uninsured motor vehicle or hit-and-run motor vehicle cannot be identified. This subsection shall not apply to any policy which does not provide primary motor vehicle liability insurance for liabilities arising from the maintenance, operation, or use of a specifically insured motor vehicle.

Each insurance company providing motor vehicle property damage liability insurance shall advise applicants of the availability of uninsured motor vehicle property damage coverage, the premium therefor, and provide a brief description of the coverage. That information need be given only once and shall not be required in any subsequent renewal, reinstatement or reissuance, substitute, amended, replacement or supplementary policy. No written rejection shall be required, and the absence of a premium payment for uninsured motor vehicle property damage shall constitute conclusive proof that the applicant or policyholder has elected not to accept uninsured motorist property damage coverage.

An insurance company issuing uninsured motor vehicle property damage coverage may provide that:

(i) Property damage losses recoverable thereunder shall be limited to damages caused by the actual physical contact of an uninsured motor vehicle with the insured motor vehicle.

(ii) There shall be no coverage for loss of use of the insured motor vehicle and no coverage for loss or damage to personal property located in the insured motor vehicle.

(iii) Any claim submitted shall include the name and address of the owner of the at-fault uninsured motor vehicle, or a registration number and description of the vehicle, or any other available information to establish that there is no applicable motor vehicle property damage liability insurance.

Any dispute with respect to the coverage and the amount of damages shall be submitted for arbitration to the American Arbitration Association and be subject to its rules for the conduct of arbitration hearings or for determination in the following manner: Upon the insured requesting arbitration, each party to the dispute shall select an arbitrator and the 2 arbitrators so named shall select a third arbitrator. If such arbitrators are not selected within 45 days from such request, either party may request that the arbitration be submitted to the American Arbitration Association. Any arbitration proceeding under this subsection seeking recovery for property damages shall be subject to the following rules:

(A) If at least 60 days' written notice of the intention to offer the following documents in evidence is given to every other party, accompanied by a copy of the document, a party may offer in evidence, without foundation or other proof:

(1) property repair bills or estimates, when identified and itemized setting forth the charges for labor and material used or proposed for use in the repair of the property;

(2) the written opinion of an opinion witness, the deposition of a witness, and the statement of a witness that the witness would be allowed to express if testifying in person, if the opinion or statement is made by affidavit or by certification as provided in Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure;

(3) any other document not specifically covered by any of the foregoing provisions that is otherwise admissible under the rules of evidence.

Any party receiving a notice under this paragraph (A) may apply to the arbitrator or panel of arbitrators, as the case may be, for the issuance of a subpoena directed to the author or maker or custodian of the document that is the subject of the notice, requiring the person subpoenaed to produce copies of any additional documents as may be related to the subject matter of the document that is the subject of the notice. Any such subpoena shall be issued in substantially similar form and served by notice as provided by Illinois Supreme Court Rule 204(a)(4). Any such subpoena shall be returnable not less than 5 days before the arbitration hearing.

(B) Notwithstanding the provisions of Supreme Court Rule 213(g), a party who proposes to use a written opinion of an expert or opinion witness or the testimony of an expert or opinion witness at the hearing may do so provided a written notice of that intention is given to every other party not less than 60 days prior to the date of hearing, accompanied by a statement containing the identity of the witness, his or her qualifications, the subject matter, the basis of the witness's conclusions, and his or her opinion.

(C) Any other party may subpoena the author or maker of a document admissible under this subsection, at that party's expense, and examine the author or maker as if under cross-examination. The provisions of Section 2-1101 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be applicable to arbitration hearings, and it shall be the duty of a party requesting the subpoena to modify the form to show that the appearance is set before an arbitration panel and to give the time and place set for the hearing.

(D) The provisions of Section 2-1102 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be applicable to arbitration hearings under this subsection.

(3) For the purpose of the coverage, the term "uninsured motor vehicle" includes, subject to the terms and conditions of the coverage, a motor vehicle where on, before or after the accident date the liability insurer thereof is unable to make payment with respect to the legal liability of its insured within the limits specified in the policy because of the entry by a court of competent jurisdiction of an order of rehabilitation or liquidation by reason of insolvency on or after the accident date. An insurer's extension of coverage, as provided in this subsection, shall be applicable to all accidents occurring after July 1, 1967 during a policy period in which its insured's uninsured motor vehicle coverage is in effect. Nothing in this Section may be construed to prevent any insurer from extending coverage under terms and conditions more favorable to its insureds than is required by this Section.

(4) In the event of payment to any person under the coverage required by this Section and subject to the terms and conditions of the coverage, the insurer making the payment shall, to the extent thereof, be entitled to the proceeds of any settlement or judgment resulting from the exercise of any rights of recovery of the person against any person or organization legally responsible for the property damage, bodily injury or death for which the payment is made, including the proceeds recoverable from the assets of the insolvent insurer. With respect to payments made by reason of the coverage described in subsection (3), the insurer making such payment shall not be entitled to any right of recovery against the tortfeasor tort-feasor in excess of the proceeds recovered from the assets of the insolvent insurer of the tortfeasor tort-feasor.

(5) This amendatory Act of 1967 (Laws of Illinois 1967, page 875) shall not be construed to terminate or reduce any insurance coverage or any right of any party under this Code in effect before July 1, 1967. Public Act 86-1155 This amendatory Act of 1990 shall not be construed to terminate or reduce any insurance coverage or any right of any party under this Code in effect before its effective date.

(6) Failure of the motorist from whom the claimant is legally entitled to recover damages to file the appropriate forms with the Safety Responsibility Section of the Department of Transportation within 120 days of the accident date shall create a rebuttable presumption that the motorist was uninsured at the time of the injurious occurrence.

(7) An insurance carrier may upon good cause require the insured to commence a legal action against the owner or operator of an uninsured motor vehicle before good faith negotiation with the carrier. If the action is commenced at the request of the insurance carrier, the carrier shall pay to the insured, before the action is commenced, all court costs, jury fees and sheriff's fees arising from the action.

The changes made by Public Act 90-451 this amendatory Act of 1997 apply to all policies of insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on and after January 1, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-451) this amendatory Act of 1997.

(8) The changes made by Public Act 98-927 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to all policies of insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-927) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-242, eff. 1-1-14; 98-927, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-15-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/147.1) (from Ch. 73, par. 759.1)

Sec. 147.1. Sale of insurance company shares.

(1) No shares of the capital stock of a domestic stock company shall be sold or offered for sale to the public in this State by an issuer, underwriter, dealer or controlling person in respect of such shares without first procuring from the Director a permit so to do.

(2) Unless the context otherwise indicates the following terms as used in this Section shall have the following meanings:

(a) The word "issuer" shall mean every company which shall have issued or proposes to issue any such shares of capital stock. ,

(b) The word "underwriter" shall mean any person who has purchased such shares of capital stock from an issuer or controlling person with a view to, or sells such shares of capital stock for an issuer or a controlling person in connection with, the distribution thereof, or participates or has a participation in the direct or indirect underwriting of such distribution; but such term shall not include a person whose interest is limited to a commission or discount from an underwriter or dealer not in excess of the usual and customary distributor's distributer's or seller's commission or discount or not in excess of any applicable statutory maximum commission or discount. An underwriter shall be deemed to be no longer an underwriter of an issue of shares of capital stock after he has completely disposed of his allotment of such shares or, if he did not purchase the shares, after he has ceased to sell such shares for the issuer or controlling person.

(c) The word "dealer" shall mean any person other than an issuer, a controlling person, a bank organized under the banking laws of this State or of the United States, a trust company organized under the laws of this State, an insurance company or a salesman, who engages in this State, either for all or part of his time, directly or indirectly, as agent, broker or principal, in the business of offering, selling, buying and selling, or otherwise dealing or trading in shares of capital stock of insurance companies.

(d) The words "controlling person" shall mean any person selling such shares of capital stock, or group of persons acting in concert in the sale of such shares, owning beneficially (and in the absence of knowledge, or reasonable grounds of belief, to the contrary, record ownership shall for the purposes hereof be presumed to be beneficial ownership) either:

(i) 25% or Or more of the outstanding voting shares of the issuer of such shares where no other person owns or controls a greater percentage of such shares, or

(ii) such Such number of outstanding number of shares of the issuer as would enable such person, or group of persons, to elect a majority of the Board of Directors of such issuer.

(e) The word "salesman" shall mean an individual, other than an issuer, an underwriter, a dealer or a controlling person, employed or appointed or authorized by an issuer, an underwriter, a dealer or a controlling person to sell such shares in this State. The partners or officers of an issuer, an underwriter, a dealer or a controlling person shall not be deemed to be a salesman within the meaning of this definition.

(3) The provisions of this Section shall not apply to any of the following transactions:

(a) The sale in good faith, whether through a dealer or otherwise, of such shares by a vendor who is not an issuer, underwriter, dealer or controlling person in respect of such shares, and who, being the bona fide owner of such shares deposes thereof for his own account; provided, that such sale is not made directly or indirectly for the benefit of the issuer or of an underwriter or controlling person.

(b) The sale, issuance or exchange by an issuer of its shares to or with its own shareholders, if no commission or other remuneration is paid or given directly or indirectly for or on account of the procuring or soliciting of such sale or exchange (other than a fee paid to underwriters based on their undertaking to purchase any shares not purchased by shareholders in connection with such sale or exchange), or the issuance by an issuer of its shares to a holder of convertible securities pursuant to a conversion provision granted at the time of issuance of such convertible securities, provided that no commission or other remuneration is paid or given directly or indirectly thereon on account of the procuring or soliciting of such conversion and no consideration from the holder in addition to the surrender or cancellation of the convertible security is required to effect the conversion.

(c) The sale of such shares to any corporation, bank, savings institution, trust company, insurance company, building and loan association, dealer, pension fund or pension trust, employees profit sharing trust or to any association engaged as a substantial part of its business or operations in purchasing or holding securities, or to any trust in respect of which a bank or trust company is trustee or co-trustee.

(d) The sale of such shares by an executor, administrator, guardian, receiver or trustee in insolvency or bankruptcy or at any judicial sale or at a public sale by auction held at an advertised time and place or the sale of such shares in good faith and not for the purpose of avoiding the provisions of this Section by a pledgee of such shares pledged for a bona fide debt.

(e) Such other transaction as may be declared by ruling of the Director to be exempt from the provisions of this Section.

(4) Prior to the issuance of any permit under this Section, there shall be delivered to the Director two copies of the following:

(a) the prospectus which is to be used in connection with the sale of such shares;

(b) the underwriting and selling agreements, if any;

(c) the subscription agreement;

(d) the depository agreement under which the subscription proceeds are to be held;

(e) any and all other documents, agreements, contracts and other papers of whatever nature which are to be used in connection with or relative to the sale of such shares, which may be required by the Director.

(5) The Director shall within a reasonable time examine the documents submitted to him and unless he finds from said documents that the sale of said shares is inequitable or would work or tend to work a fraud or deceit upon the purchasers thereof, he shall issue a permit authorizing the sale of said shares.

(6) The Director shall have the power to prescribe such rules and regulations relating to the sale, issuance, and offering of said shares as will effectuate the purpose of this section to the end that no inequity, fraud or deceit will be perpetrated upon the purchasers thereof.

(7) If the Director finds that any of the provisions of this Section or of the rules and regulations adopted pursuant hereto have been violated or that the sale, issuance or offering of any such shares is inequitable or works or tends to work a fraud or deceit upon the purchasers thereof he may refuse to issue a permit to sell, issue or offer such shares or may, after notice and hearing, revoke such permit. The action of the Director in refusing, after due application therefor in form prescribed by the Director, or revoking, any such permit shall be subject to judicial review in the manner prescribed by the insurance laws of this State.

(8) Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Section shall be guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction thereof shall be fined not less than $1,000 nor more than the greater of either $5,000 or twice the whole amount, received upon the sale of shares in violation of this Section and may in addition, if a natural person, be convicted of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 84-502; revised 10-21-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/356g) (from Ch. 73, par. 968g)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-407)

Sec. 356g. Mammograms; mastectomies.

(a) Every insurer shall provide in each group or individual policy, contract, or certificate of insurance issued or renewed for persons who are residents of this State, coverage for screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer within the provisions of the policy, contract, or certificate. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(5) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with radiation exposure delivery of less than 1 rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(a-5) Coverage as described by subsection (a) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(a-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (a-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(b) No policy of accident or health insurance that provides for the surgical procedure known as a mastectomy shall be issued, amended, delivered, or renewed in this State unless that coverage also provides for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas.

Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

Written notice of the availability of coverage under this Section shall be delivered to the insured upon enrollment and annually thereafter. An insurer may not deny to an insured eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or to renew coverage under the terms of the plan solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this Section. An insurer may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(c) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-407)

Sec. 356g. Mammograms; mastectomies.

(a) Every insurer shall provide in each group or individual policy, contract, or certificate of insurance issued or renewed for persons who are residents of this State, coverage for screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer within the provisions of the policy, contract, or certificate. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(5) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with radiation exposure delivery of less than 1 rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis. As used in this Section, the term "breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

(a-5) Coverage as described by subsection (a) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(a-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (a-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(b) No policy of accident or health insurance that provides for the surgical procedure known as a mastectomy shall be issued, amended, delivered, or renewed in this State unless that coverage also provides for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas.

Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

Written notice of the availability of coverage under this Section shall be delivered to the insured upon enrollment and annually thereafter. An insurer may not deny to an insured eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or to renew coverage under the terms of the plan solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this Section. An insurer may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(c) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-407 (see Section 99 of P.A. 99-407 for its effective date); 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.2)

Sec. 356z.2. Coverage for adjunctive services in dental care.

(a) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after January 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 92-764) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall cover charges incurred, and anesthetics provided, in conjunction with dental care that is provided to a covered individual in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center if any of the following applies:

(1) the individual is a child age 6 or under;

(2) the individual has a medical condition that requires hospitalization or general anesthesia for dental care; or

(3) the individual is a person with a disability.

(a-5) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-141) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall cover charges incurred, and anesthetics provided by a dentist with a permit provided under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act, in conjunction with dental care that is provided to a covered individual in a dental office, oral surgeon's office, hospital, or ambulatory surgical treatment center if the individual is under age 19 and has been diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder as defined in Section 10 of the Autism Spectrum Disorders Reporting Act or a developmental disability. A covered individual shall be required to make 2 visits to the dental care provider prior to accessing other coverage under this subsection.

For purposes of this subsection, "developmental disability" means a disability that is attributable to an intellectual disability or a related condition, if the related condition meets all of the following conditions:

(1) it is attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other condition, other than mental illness, found to be closely related to an intellectual disability because that condition results in impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior similar to that of individuals with an intellectual disability and requires treatment or services similar to those required for those individuals; for purposes of this definition, autism is considered a related condition;

(2) it is manifested before the individual reaches age 22;

(3) it is likely to continue indefinitely; and

(4) it results in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity: self-care, language, learning, mobility, self-direction, and capacity for independent living.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "ambulatory surgical treatment center" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

For purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person, regardless of age, with a chronic disability if the chronic disability meets all of the following conditions:

(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments.

(2) It is likely to continue.

(3) It results in substantial functional limitations in one or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) self-care;

(B) receptive and expressive language;

(C) learning;

(D) mobility;

(E) capacity for independent living; or

(F) economic self-sufficiency.

(c) The coverage required under this Section may be subject to any limitations, exclusions, or cost-sharing provisions that apply generally under the insurance policy.

(d) This Section does not apply to a policy that covers only dental care.

(e) Nothing in this Section requires that the dental services be covered.

(f) The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specified disease policies, nor to policies or contracts designed for issuance to persons eligible for coverage under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, known as Medicare, or any other similar coverage under State or federal governmental plans.

(Source: P.A. 99-141, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-15-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/460) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.7)

Sec. 460. Competitive market; approval of rates Market, Approval of Rates.

(a) Beginning January 1, 1983, a competitive market is presumed to exist unless the Director, after a hearing, determines that a reasonable degree of competition does not exist in the market and the Director issues a ruling to that effect. For purposes of this Article only, market shall mean the statewide workers' compensation and employers' liability lines of business. In determining whether a reasonable degree of competition exists, the Director shall consider relevant tests of workable competition pertaining to market structure, market performance and market conduct. Such tests may include, but need not be limited to, the following: size and number of firms actively engaged in the market, market shares and changes in market shares of firms, ease of entry and exit from a given market, underwriting restriction, and whether profitability for companies generally in the market is unreasonably high. The determination of competition involves the interaction of the various tests and the weight given to specific tests depends upon the particular situation and pattern of test results.

In determining whether or not a competitive market exists, the Director shall monitor the degree of competition in this State. In doing so, he shall utilize existing relevant information, analytical systems and other sources; cause or participate in the development of new relevant information, analytical systems and other sources; or rely on some combination thereof. Such activities may be conducted internally within the Department of Insurance, in cooperation with other state insurance departments, through outside contractors, or in any other appropriate manner.

(b) If the Director finds that a reasonable degree of competition does not exist in a market, he may require that the insurers in that market file supporting information in support of existing rates. If the Director believes that such rates may violate any of the requirements of this Article, he shall call a hearing prior to any disapproval. If the Director determines that a competitive market does not exist in the workers' compensation market as provided in a ruling pursuant to this Section, then every company must prefile every manual of classifications, rules, rates, rating plans, rating schedules, and every modification of the foregoing covered by such rule. Such filing shall be made at least 30 days prior to its taking effect, and such prefiling requirement shall remain in effect as long as there is a ruling in effect pursuant to this Section that a reasonable degree of competition does not exist.

(c) The Director shall disapprove a rate if he finds that the rate is excessive, inadequate or unfairly discriminatory as defined in Section 456. An insurer whose rates have been disapproved shall be given a hearing upon a written request made within 30 days after the disapproval order.

If the Director disapproves a rate, he shall issue an order specifying in what respects it fails to meet the requirements of this Article and stating when within a reasonable period thereafter such rate shall be discontinued for any policy issued or renewed after a date specified in the order. The order shall be issued within 30 days after the close of the hearing or within such reasonable time extension as the Director may fix. Such order may include a provision for premium adjustment for the period after the effective date of the order for policies in effect on such date.

(d) Whenever an insurer has no legally effective rates as a result of the Director's disapproval of rates or other act, the Director shall on request of the insurer specify interim rates for the insurer that are high enough to protect the interest of all parties and may order that a specified portion of the premiums be placed in an escrow account approved by him. When new rates become legally effective, the Director shall order the escrowed funds or any overcharge in the interim rates to be distributed appropriately, except that refunds to policyholders that are de minimis minimus shall not be required.

(Source: P.A. 82-939; revised 10-21-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/512.59) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.59-59)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 512.59. Performance standards applicable to all Public Insurance Adjusters.

(a) A Public Insurance Adjuster shall not represent that he is a representative of an insurance company, a fire department, or the State of Illinois, or that he is a fire investigator, or that his services are required for the insured to submit a claim to the insured's insurance company, or that he may provide legal advice or representation to the insured. A Public Insurance Adjuster may represent that he has been licensed by the State of Illinois.

(b) A Public Insurance Adjuster shall not agree to any loss settlement without the insured's knowledge and consent and shall provide the insured with a document setting forth the scope, amount, and value of the damages prior to requesting the insured for authority to settling any loss.

(c) If the Public Insurance Adjuster refers the insured to a contractor, the Public Insurance Adjuster warrants that all work will be performed in a workmanlike manner and conform to all statutes, ordinances and codes. Should the work not be completed in a workmanlike manner, the Public Insurance Adjuster shall be responsible for any and all costs and expense required to complete or repair the work in a workmanlike manner.

(d) In all cases where the loss giving rise to the claim for which the Public Insurance Adjuster was retained arise from damage to a personal residence, the insurance proceeds shall be delivered in person to the named insured or his or her designee. Where proceeds paid by an insurance company are paid jointly to the insured and the Public Insurance Adjuster, the insured shall release such portion of the proceeds which are due the Public Insurance Adjuster within 30 calendar days after the insured's receipt of the insurance company's check, money order, draft, or release of funds. If the proceeds are not so released to the insured within 30 calendar days, the insured shall provide the Public Insurance Adjuster with a written explanation of the reason for the delay.

(e) A Public Insurance Adjuster may not propose or attempt to propose to any person that the Public Insurance Adjuster represent that person while a loss-producing occurrence is continuing nor while the fire department or its representatives are engaged at the damaged premises nor between the hours of 7:00 p.m. and 8:00 a.m..

(f) A Public Insurance Adjuster shall not advance money or any valuable consideration to an insured pending adjustment of a claim.

(g) A Public Insurance Adjuster shall not provide legal advice or representation to the insured, or engage in the unauthorized practice of law.

(Source: P.A. 95-213, eff. 1-1-08; revised 10-21-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/902) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.602)

Sec. 902. "Entire contract Contract" specified.) Each group legal expense insurance policy shall provide that the policy, the application of the employer, or executive officer or trustee of any association, and the individual applications, if any, of the employees, members or employees of members insured shall constitute the entire contract between the parties, and that all statements made by the employer, or the executive officer or trustee, or by the individual employees, members or employees of members shall, in the absence of fraud, be deemed representations and not warranties warrantees, and that no such statement shall be used in defense to a claim under the policy, unless it is contained in a written application.

(Source: P.A. 81-1361; revised 10-21-15.)

(215 ILCS 5/1202) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.902)

Sec. 1202. Duties. The Director shall:

(a) determine the relationship of insurance premiums and related income as compared to insurance costs and expenses and provide such information to the General Assembly and the general public;

(b) study the insurance system in the State of Illinois, and recommend to the General Assembly what it deems to be the most appropriate and comprehensive cost containment system for the State;

(c) respond to the requests by agencies of government and the General Assembly for special studies and analysis of data collected pursuant to this Article. Such reports shall be made available in a form prescribed by the Director. The Director may also determine a fee to be charged to the requesting agency to cover the direct and indirect costs for producing such a report, and shall permit affected insurers the right to review the accuracy of the report before it is released. The fees shall be deposited into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund and credited to the account of the Department of Insurance;

(d) make an interim report to the General Assembly no later than August 15, 1987, and an a annual report to the General Assembly no later than July 1 every year thereafter which shall include the Director's findings and recommendations regarding its duties as provided under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-226, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 315. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 13-703 and 16-108.5 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/13-703) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 13-703)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2017)

Sec. 13-703. (a) The Commission shall design and implement a program whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications device capable of servicing the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability together with a single party line, at no charge additional to the basic exchange rate, to any subscriber who is certified as having a hearing or speech disability by a licensed physician, speech-language pathologist, audiologist or a qualified State agency and to any subscriber which is an organization serving the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability as determined and specified by the Commission pursuant to subsection (d).

(b) The Commission shall design and implement a program, whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications relay system, using third party intervention to connect those persons having a hearing or speech disability with persons of normal hearing by way of intercommunications devices and the telephone system, making available reasonable access to all phases of public telephone service to persons who have a hearing or speech disability. In order to design a telecommunications relay system which will meet the requirements of those persons with a hearing or speech disability available at a reasonable cost, the Commission shall initiate an investigation and conduct public hearings to determine the most cost-effective method of providing telecommunications relay service to those persons who have a hearing or speech disability when using telecommunications devices and therein solicit the advice, counsel, and physical assistance of Statewide nonprofit consumer organizations that serve persons with hearing or speech disabilities in such hearings and during the development and implementation of the system. The Commission shall phase in this program, on a geographical basis, as soon as is practicable, but no later than June 30, 1990.

(c) The Commission shall establish a competitively neutral rate recovery mechanism that establishes charges in an amount to be determined by the Commission for each line of a subscriber to allow telecommunications carriers providing local exchange service to recover costs as they are incurred under this Section. Beginning no later than April 1, 2016, and on a yearly basis thereafter, the Commission shall initiate a proceeding to establish the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service in a manner consistent with this subsection (c) and subsection (f) of this Section. The Commission shall issue its order establishing the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and purchasers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service on or prior to June 1 of each year, and such amount shall take effect June 1 of each year.

Telecommunications carriers, wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall have 60 days from the date the Commission files its order to implement the new rate established by the order.

(d) The Commission shall determine and specify those organizations serving the needs of those persons having a hearing or speech disability that shall receive a telecommunications device and in which offices the equipment shall be installed in the case of an organization having more than one office. For the purposes of this Section, "organizations serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities" means centers for independent living as described in Section 12a of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act and not-for-profit organizations whose primary purpose is serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities. The Commission shall direct the telecommunications carriers subject to its jurisdiction and this Section to comply with its determinations and specifications in this regard.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Prepaid wireless telecommunications service" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Retail transaction" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Seller" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service" includes, without otherwise limiting the meaning of the term, telecommunications carriers which are purely mutual concerns, having no rates or charges for services, but paying the operating expenses by assessment upon the members of such a company and no other person.

"Wireless carrier" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(f) Interconnected VoIP service providers, sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service, and wireless carriers in Illinois shall collect and remit assessments determined in accordance with this Section in a competitively neutral manner in the same manner as a telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service. However, the assessment imposed on consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall be collected by the seller from the consumer and imposed per retail transaction as a percentage of that retail transaction on all retail transactions occurring in this State. The assessment on subscribers of wireless carriers and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall not be imposed or collected prior to June 1, 2016.

Sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall remit the assessments to the Department of Revenue on the same form and in the same manner which they remit the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act. For the purposes of display on the consumers' receipts, the rates of the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and the assessment under this Section may be combined. In administration and enforcement of this Section, the provisions of Sections 15 and 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act (except subsections (a), (a-5), (b-5), (e), and (e-5) of Section 15 and subsections (c) and (e) of Section 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and, from June 29, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-6) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the seller shall be permitted to deduct and retain 3% of the assessments that are collected by the seller from consumers and that are remitted and timely filed with the Department) that are not inconsistent with this Section, shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Section to the same extent as if those provisions were included in this Section. The Department shall deposit all assessments and penalties collected under this Section into the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount available to the Commission for distribution out of the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The amount certified shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body or fund. The amount paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund shall not include any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department to retailers under this Section or any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were payable to a different taxing body or fund but were erroneously paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The Commission shall distribute all the funds to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation and the funds may only be used in accordance with the provisions of this Section. The Department shall deduct 2% of all amounts deposited in the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund during every year of remitted assessments. Of the 2% deducted by the Department, one-half shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund to reimburse the Department for its direct costs of administering the collection and remittance of the assessment. The remaining one-half shall be transferred into the Public Utilities Fund to reimburse the Commission for its costs of distributing to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation the amount certified by the Department for distribution. The amount to be charged or assessed under subsections (c) and (f) is not imposed on a provider or the consumer for wireless Lifeline service where the consumer does not pay the provider for the service. Where the consumer purchases from the provider optional minutes, texts, or other services in addition to the federally funded Lifeline benefit, a consumer must pay the charge or assessment, and it must be collected by the seller according to subsection (f).

Interconnected VoIP services shall not be considered an intrastate telecommunications service for the purposes of this Section in a manner inconsistent with federal law or Federal Communications Commission regulation.

(g) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(h) The Commission may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(220 ILCS 5/16-108.5)

Sec. 16-108.5. Infrastructure investment and modernization; regulatory reform.

(a) (Blank).

(b) For purposes of this Section, "participating utility" means an electric utility or a combination utility serving more than 1,000,000 customers in Illinois that voluntarily elects and commits to undertake (i) the infrastructure investment program consisting of the commitments and obligations described in this subsection (b) and (ii) the customer assistance program consisting of the commitments and obligations described in subsection (b-10) of this Section, notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and without obtaining any approvals from the Commission or any other agency other than as set forth in this Section, regardless of whether any such approval would otherwise be required. "Combination utility" means a utility that, as of January 1, 2011, provided electric service to at least one million retail customers in Illinois and gas service to at least 500,000 retail customers in Illinois. A participating utility shall recover the expenditures made under the infrastructure investment program through the ratemaking process, including, but not limited to, the performance-based formula rate and process set forth in this Section.

During the infrastructure investment program's peak program year, a participating utility other than a combination utility shall create 2,000 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, and a participating utility that is a combination utility shall create 450 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois related to the provision of electric service. These jobs shall include direct jobs, contractor positions, and induced jobs, but shall not include any portion of a job commitment, not specifically contingent on an amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly becoming law, between a participating utility and a labor union that existed on December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and that has not yet been fulfilled. A portion of the full-time equivalent jobs created by each participating utility shall include incremental personnel hired subsequent to December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. For purposes of this Section, "peak program year" means the consecutive 12-month period with the highest number of full-time equivalent jobs that occurs between the beginning of investment year 2 and the end of investment year 4.

A participating utility shall meet one of the following commitments, as applicable:

(1) Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility other than a combination utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or, beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, except as provided in subsection (b-5):

(A) over a 5-year period, invest an estimated $1,300,000,000 in electric system upgrades, modernization projects, and training facilities, including, but not limited to:

(i) distribution infrastructure improvements totaling an estimated $1,000,000,000, including underground residential distribution cable injection and replacement and mainline cable system refurbishment and replacement projects;

(ii) training facility construction or upgrade projects totaling an estimated $10,000,000, provided that, at a minimum, one such facility shall be located in a municipality having a population of more than 2 million residents and one such facility shall be located in a municipality having a population of more than 150,000 residents but fewer than 170,000 residents; any such new facility located in a municipality having a population of more than 2 million residents must be designed for the purpose of obtaining, and the owner of the facility shall apply for, certification under the United States Green Building Council's Leadership in Energy Efficiency Design Green Building Rating System;

(iii) wood pole inspection, treatment, and replacement programs;

(iv) an estimated $200,000,000 for reducing the susceptibility of certain circuits to storm-related damage, including, but not limited to, high winds, thunderstorms, and ice storms; improvements may include, but are not limited to, overhead to underground conversion and other engineered outcomes for circuits; the participating utility shall prioritize the selection of circuits based on each circuit's historical susceptibility to storm-related damage and the ability to provide the greatest customer benefit upon completion of the improvements; to be eligible for improvement, the participating utility's ability to maintain proper tree clearances surrounding the overhead circuit must not have been impeded by third parties; and

(B) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $1,300,000,000 to upgrade and modernize its transmission and distribution infrastructure and in Smart Grid electric system upgrades, including, but not limited to:

(i) additional smart meters;

(ii) distribution automation;

(iii) associated cyber secure data communication network; and

(iv) substation micro-processor relay upgrades.

(2) Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility that is a combination utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or, beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, except as provided in subsection (b-5):

(A) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $265,000,000 in electric system upgrades, modernization projects, and training facilities, including, but not limited to:

(i) distribution infrastructure improvements totaling an estimated $245,000,000, which may include bulk supply substations, transformers, reconductoring, and rebuilding overhead distribution and sub-transmission lines, underground residential distribution cable injection and replacement and mainline cable system refurbishment and replacement projects;

(ii) training facility construction or upgrade projects totaling an estimated $1,000,000; any such new facility must be designed for the purpose of obtaining, and the owner of the facility shall apply for, certification under the United States Green Building Council's Leadership in Energy Efficiency Design Green Building Rating System; and

(iii) wood pole inspection, treatment, and replacement programs; and

(B) over a 10-year period, invest an estimated $360,000,000 to upgrade and modernize its transmission and distribution infrastructure and in Smart Grid electric system upgrades, including, but not limited to:

(i) additional smart meters;

(ii) distribution automation;

(iii) associated cyber secure data communication network; and

(iv) substation micro-processor relay upgrades.

For purposes of this Section, "Smart Grid electric system upgrades" shall have the meaning set forth in subsection (a) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act.

The investments in the infrastructure investment program described in this subsection (b) shall be incremental to the participating utility's annual capital investment program, as defined by, for purposes of this subsection (b), the participating utility's average capital spend for calendar years 2008, 2009, and 2010 as reported in the applicable Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) Form 1; provided that where one or more utilities have merged, the average capital spend shall be determined using the aggregate of the merged utilities' capital spend reported in FERC Form 1 for the years 2008, 2009, and 2010. A participating utility may add reasonable construction ramp-up and ramp-down time to the investment periods specified in this subsection (b). For each such investment period, the ramp-up and ramp-down time shall not exceed a total of 6 months.

Within 60 days after filing a tariff under subsection (c) of this Section, a participating utility shall submit to the Commission its plan, including scope, schedule, and staffing, for satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments pursuant to this subsection (b). The submitted plan shall include a schedule and staffing plan for the next calendar year. The plan shall also include a plan for the creation, operation, and administration of a Smart Grid test bed as described in subsection (c) of Section 16-108.8. The plan need not allocate the work equally over the respective periods, but should allocate material increments throughout such periods commensurate with the work to be undertaken. No later than April 1 of each subsequent year, the utility shall submit to the Commission a report that includes any updates to the plan, a schedule for the next calendar year, the expenditures made for the prior calendar year and cumulatively, and the number of full-time equivalent jobs created for the prior calendar year and cumulatively. If the utility is materially deficient in satisfying a schedule or staffing plan, then the report must also include a corrective action plan to address the deficiency. The fact that the plan, implementation of the plan, or a schedule changes shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of the infrastructure investment program, plan, or schedule. Further, no later than 45 days following the last day of the first, second, and third quarters of each year of the plan, a participating utility shall submit to the Commission a verified quarterly report for the prior quarter that includes (i) the total number of full-time equivalent jobs created during the prior quarter, (ii) the total number of employees as of the last day of the prior quarter, (iii) the total number of full-time equivalent hours in each job classification or job title, (iv) the total number of incremental employees and contractors in support of the investments undertaken pursuant to this subsection (b) for the prior quarter, and (v) any other information that the Commission may require by rule.

With respect to the participating utility's peak job commitment, if, after considering the utility's corrective action plan and compliance thereunder, the Commission enters an order finding, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility did not satisfy its peak job commitment described in this subsection (b) for reasons that are reasonably within its control, then the Commission shall also determine, after consideration of the evidence, including, but not limited to, evidence submitted by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the utility, the deficiency in the number of full-time equivalent jobs during the peak program year due to such failure. The Commission shall notify the Department of any proceeding that is initiated pursuant to this paragraph. For each full-time equivalent job deficiency during the peak program year that the Commission finds as set forth in this paragraph, the participating utility shall, within 30 days after the entry of the Commission's order, pay $6,000 to a fund for training grants administered under Section 605-800 of the The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law, which shall not be a recoverable expense.

With respect to the participating utility's investment amount commitments, if, after considering the utility's corrective action plan and compliance thereunder, the Commission enters an order finding, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility is not satisfying its investment amount commitments described in this subsection (b), then the utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. In such event, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

If the Commission finds that a participating utility is no longer eligible to update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, or the performance-based formula rate is otherwise terminated, then the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under this subsection (b) shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order.

In meeting the obligations of this subsection (b), to the extent feasible and consistent with State and federal law, the investments under the infrastructure investment program should provide employment opportunities for all segments of the population and workforce, including minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises, and shall not, consistent with State and federal law, discriminate based on race or socioeconomic status.

(b-5) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Commission from investigating the prudence and reasonableness of the expenditures made under the infrastructure investment program during the annual review required by subsection (d) of this Section and shall, as part of such investigation, determine whether the utility's actual costs under the program are prudent and reasonable. The fact that a participating utility invests more than the minimum amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section or its plan shall not imply imprudence or unreasonableness.

If the participating utility finds that it is implementing its plan for satisfying the infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section at a cost below the estimated amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section, then the utility may file a petition with the Commission requesting that it be permitted to satisfy its commitments by spending less than the estimated amounts specified in subsection (b) of this Section. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving, or approving as modified, or denying each such petition within 150 days after the filing of the petition.

In no event, absent General Assembly approval, shall the capital investment costs incurred by a participating utility other than a combination utility in satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section exceed $3,000,000,000 or, for a participating utility that is a combination utility, $720,000,000. If the participating utility's updated cost estimates for satisfying its infrastructure investment program commitments described in subsection (b) of this Section exceed the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5), then it shall submit a report to the Commission that identifies the increased costs and explains the reason or reasons for the increased costs no later than the year in which the utility estimates it will exceed the limitation. The Commission shall review the report and shall, within 90 days after the participating utility files the report, report to the General Assembly its findings regarding the participating utility's report. If the General Assembly does not amend the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5), then the utility may modify its plan so as not to exceed the limitation imposed by this subsection (b-5) and may propose corresponding changes to the metrics established pursuant to subparagraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, and the Commission may modify the metrics and incremental savings goals established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section accordingly.

(b-10) All participating utilities shall make contributions for an energy low-income and support program in accordance with this subsection. Beginning no later than 180 days after a participating utility files a performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, or beginning no later than January 1, 2012 if such utility files such performance-based formula rate tariff within 14 days of December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, and without obtaining any approvals from the Commission or any other agency other than as set forth in this Section, regardless of whether any such approval would otherwise be required, a participating utility other than a combination utility shall pay $10,000,000 per year for 5 years and a participating utility that is a combination utility shall pay $1,000,000 per year for 10 years to the energy low-income and support program, which is intended to fund customer assistance programs with the primary purpose being avoidance of imminent disconnection. Such programs may include:

(1) a residential hardship program that may partner with community-based organizations, including senior citizen organizations, and provides grants to low-income residential customers, including low-income senior citizens, who demonstrate a hardship;

(2) a program that provides grants and other bill payment concessions to veterans with disabilities who demonstrate a hardship and members of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or members of the Illinois National Guard who are on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor and who demonstrate a hardship;

(3) a budget assistance program that provides tools and education to low-income senior citizens to assist them with obtaining information regarding energy usage and effective means of managing energy costs;

(4) a non-residential special hardship program that provides grants to non-residential customers such as small businesses and non-profit organizations that demonstrate a hardship, including those providing services to senior citizen and low-income customers; and

(5) a performance-based assistance program that provides grants to encourage residential customers to make on-time payments by matching a portion of the customer's payments or providing credits towards arrearages.

The payments made by a participating utility pursuant to this subsection (b-10) shall not be a recoverable expense. A participating utility may elect to fund either new or existing customer assistance programs, including, but not limited to, those that are administered by the utility.

Programs that use funds that are provided by a participating utility to reduce utility bills may be implemented through tariffs that are filed with and reviewed by the Commission. If a utility elects to file tariffs with the Commission to implement all or a portion of the programs, those tariffs shall, regardless of the date actually filed, be deemed accepted and approved, and shall become effective on December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. The participating utilities whose customers benefit from the funds that are disbursed as contemplated in this Section shall file annual reports documenting the disbursement of those funds with the Commission. The Commission has the authority to audit disbursement of the funds to ensure they were disbursed consistently with this Section.

If the Commission finds that a participating utility is no longer eligible to update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, or the performance-based formula rate is otherwise terminated, then the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under this subsection (b-10) shall immediately terminate.

(c) A participating utility may elect to recover its delivery services costs through a performance-based formula rate approved by the Commission, which shall specify the cost components that form the basis of the rate charged to customers with sufficient specificity to operate in a standardized manner and be updated annually with transparent information that reflects the utility's actual costs to be recovered during the applicable rate year, which is the period beginning with the first billing day of January and extending through the last billing day of the following December. In the event the utility recovers a portion of its costs through automatic adjustment clause tariffs on October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the utility may elect to continue to recover these costs through such tariffs, but then these costs shall not be recovered through the performance-based formula rate. In the event the participating utility, prior to December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, filed electric delivery services tariffs with the Commission pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act that are related to the recovery of its electric delivery services costs that are still pending on December 30, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-646) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the participating utility shall, at the time it files its performance-based formula rate tariff with the Commission, also file a notice of withdrawal with the Commission to withdraw the electric delivery services tariffs previously filed pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act. Upon receipt of such notice, the Commission shall dismiss with prejudice any docket that had been initiated to investigate the electric delivery services tariffs filed pursuant to Section 9-201 of this Act, and such tariffs and the record related thereto shall not be the subject of any further hearing, investigation, or proceeding of any kind related to rates for electric delivery services.

The performance-based formula rate shall be implemented through a tariff filed with the Commission consistent with the provisions of this subsection (c) that shall be applicable to all delivery services customers. The Commission shall initiate and conduct an investigation of the tariff in a manner consistent with the provisions of this subsection (c) and the provisions of Article IX of this Act to the extent they do not conflict with this subsection (c). Except in the case where the Commission finds, after notice and hearing, that a participating utility is not satisfying its investment amount commitments under subsection (b) of this Section, the performance-based formula rate shall remain in effect at the discretion of the utility. The performance-based formula rate approved by the Commission shall do the following:

(1) Provide for the recovery of the utility's actual costs of delivery services that are prudently incurred and reasonable in amount consistent with Commission practice and law. The sole fact that a cost differs from that incurred in a prior calendar year or that an investment is different from that made in a prior calendar year shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of that cost or investment.

(2) Reflect the utility's actual year-end capital structure for the applicable calendar year, excluding goodwill, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law.

(3) Include a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the following:

(A) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and

(B) 580 basis points.

At such time as the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System ceases to include the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication, the monthly average yields of the U.S. Treasury bonds then having the longest duration published by the Board of Governors in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication shall instead be used for purposes of this paragraph (3).

(4) Permit and set forth protocols, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law, for the following:

(A) recovery of incentive compensation expense that is based on the achievement of operational metrics, including metrics related to budget controls, outage duration and frequency, safety, customer service, efficiency and productivity, and environmental compliance. Incentive compensation expense that is based on net income or an affiliate's earnings per share shall not be recoverable under the performance-based formula rate;

(B) recovery of pension and other post-employment benefits expense, provided that such costs are supported by an actuarial study;

(C) recovery of severance costs, provided that if the amount is over $3,700,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility or $10,000,000 for a participating utility that serves more than 3 million retail customers, then the full amount shall be amortized consistent with subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (4);

(D) investment return at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of long-term debt, on the pension assets as, and in the amount, reported in Account 186 (or in such other Account or Accounts as such asset may subsequently be recorded) of the utility's most recently filed FERC Form 1, net of deferred tax benefits;

(E) recovery of the expenses related to the Commission proceeding under this subsection (c) to approve this performance-based formula rate and initial rates or to subsequent proceedings related to the formula, provided that the recovery shall be amortized over a 3-year period; recovery of expenses related to the annual Commission proceedings under subsection (d) of this Section to review the inputs to the performance-based formula rate shall be expensed and recovered through the performance-based formula rate;

(F) amortization over a 5-year period of the full amount of each charge or credit that exceeds $3,700,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility or $10,000,000 for a participating utility that serves more than 3 million retail customers in the applicable calendar year and that relates to a workforce reduction program's severance costs, changes in accounting rules, changes in law, compliance with any Commission-initiated audit, or a single storm or other similar expense, provided that any unamortized balance shall be reflected in rate base. For purposes of this subparagraph (F), changes in law includes any enactment, repeal, or amendment in a law, ordinance, rule, regulation, interpretation, permit, license, consent, or order, including those relating to taxes, accounting, or to environmental matters, or in the interpretation or application thereof by any governmental authority occurring after October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly;

(G) recovery of existing regulatory assets over the periods previously authorized by the Commission;

(H) historical weather normalized billing determinants; and

(I) allocation methods for common costs.

(5) Provide that if the participating utility's earned rate of return on common equity related to the provision of delivery services for the prior rate year (calculated using costs and capital structure approved by the Commission as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (c), consistent with this Section, in accordance with Commission rules and orders, including, but not limited to, adjustments for goodwill, and after any Commission-ordered disallowances and taxes) is more than 50 basis points higher than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section), then the participating utility shall apply a credit through the performance-based formula rate that reflects an amount equal to the value of that portion of the earned rate of return on common equity that is more than 50 basis points higher than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section) for the prior rate year, adjusted for taxes. If the participating utility's earned rate of return on common equity related to the provision of delivery services for the prior rate year (calculated using costs and capital structure approved by the Commission as provided in subparagraph (2) of this subsection (c), consistent with this Section, in accordance with Commission rules and orders, including, but not limited to, adjustments for goodwill, and after any Commission-ordered disallowances and taxes) is more than 50 basis points less than the return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section), then the participating utility shall apply a charge through the performance-based formula rate that reflects an amount equal to the value of that portion of the earned rate of return on common equity that is more than 50 basis points less than the rate of return on common equity calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) (after adjusting for any penalties to the rate of return on common equity applied pursuant to the performance metrics provision of subsection (f) of this Section) for the prior rate year, adjusted for taxes.

(6) Provide for an annual reconciliation, as described in subsection (d) of this Section, with interest, of the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, with what the revenue requirement would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

The utility shall file, together with its tariff, final data based on its most recently filed FERC Form 1, plus projected plant additions and correspondingly updated depreciation reserve and expense for the calendar year in which the tariff and data are filed, that shall populate the performance-based formula rate and set the initial delivery services rates under the formula. For purposes of this Section, "FERC Form 1" means the Annual Report of Major Electric Utilities, Licensees and Others that electric utilities are required to file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission under the Federal Power Act, Sections 3, 4(a), 304 and 209, modified as necessary to be consistent with 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 415 as of May 1, 2011. Nothing in this Section is intended to allow costs that are not otherwise recoverable to be recoverable by virtue of inclusion in FERC Form 1.

After the utility files its proposed performance-based formula rate structure and protocols and initial rates, the Commission shall initiate a docket to review the filing. The Commission shall enter an order approving, or approving as modified, the performance-based formula rate, including the initial rates, as just and reasonable within 270 days after the date on which the tariff was filed, or, if the tariff is filed within 14 days after October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, then by May 31, 2012. Such review shall be based on the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, the Commission applies in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The initial rates shall take effect within 30 days after the Commission's order approving the performance-based formula rate tariff.

Until such time as the Commission approves a different rate design and cost allocation pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, rate design and cost allocation across customer classes shall be consistent with the Commission's most recent order regarding the participating utility's request for a general increase in its delivery services rates.

Subsequent changes to the performance-based formula rate structure or protocols shall be made as set forth in Section 9-201 of this Act, but nothing in this subsection (c) is intended to limit the Commission's authority under Article IX and other provisions of this Act to initiate an investigation of a participating utility's performance-based formula rate tariff, provided that any such changes shall be consistent with paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection (c). Any change ordered by the Commission shall be made at the same time new rates take effect following the Commission's next order pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, provided that the new rates take effect no less than 30 days after the date on which the Commission issues an order adopting the change.

A participating utility that files a tariff pursuant to this subsection (c) must submit a one-time $200,000 filing fee at the time the Chief Clerk of the Commission accepts the filing, which shall be a recoverable expense.

In the event the performance-based formula rate is terminated, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive rate adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs. At such time that the performance-based formula rate is terminated, the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under subsection (b) of this Section shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order issued under subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Subsequent to the Commission's issuance of an order approving the utility's performance-based formula rate structure and protocols, and initial rates under subsection (c) of this Section, the utility shall file, on or before May 1 of each year, with the Chief Clerk of the Commission its updated cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate for the applicable rate year and the corresponding new charges. Each such filing shall conform to the following requirements and include the following information:

(1) The inputs to the performance-based formula rate for the applicable rate year shall be based on final historical data reflected in the utility's most recently filed annual FERC Form 1 plus projected plant additions and correspondingly updated depreciation reserve and expense for the calendar year in which the inputs are filed. The filing shall also include a reconciliation of the revenue requirement that was in effect for the prior rate year (as set by the cost inputs for the prior rate year) with the actual revenue requirement for the prior rate year (determined using a year-end rate base) that uses amounts reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1 that reports the actual costs for the prior rate year. Any over-collection or under-collection indicated by such reconciliation shall be reflected as a credit against, or recovered as an additional charge to, respectively, with interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, the charges for the applicable rate year. Provided, however, that the first such reconciliation shall be for the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section and shall reconcile (i) the revenue requirement or requirements established by the rate order or orders in effect from time to time during such calendar year (weighted, as applicable) with (ii) the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for that calendar year calculated pursuant to the performance-based formula rate using (A) actual costs for that year as reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1, and (B) for the first such reconciliation only, the cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of 590 basis points plus the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication. The first such reconciliation is not intended to provide for the recovery of costs previously excluded from rates based on a prior Commission order finding of imprudence or unreasonableness. Each reconciliation shall be certified by the participating utility in the same manner that FERC Form 1 is certified. The filing shall also include the charge or credit, if any, resulting from the calculation required by paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of this Section.

Notwithstanding anything that may be to the contrary, the intent of the reconciliation is to ultimately reconcile the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, with what the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for the applicable calendar year would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

(2) The new charges shall take effect beginning on the first billing day of the following January billing period and remain in effect through the last billing day of the next December billing period regardless of whether the Commission enters upon a hearing pursuant to this subsection (d).

(3) The filing shall include relevant and necessary data and documentation for the applicable rate year that is consistent with the Commission's rules applicable to a filing for a general increase in rates or any rules adopted by the Commission to implement this Section. Normalization adjustments shall not be required. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or Act or any rule or other requirement adopted by the Commission, a participating utility that is a combination utility with more than one rate zone shall not be required to file a separate set of such data and documentation for each rate zone and may combine such data and documentation into a single set of schedules.

Within 45 days after the utility files its annual update of cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate, the Commission shall have the authority, either upon complaint or its own initiative, but with reasonable notice, to enter upon a hearing concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility to be recovered during the applicable rate year that are reflected in the inputs to the performance-based formula rate derived from the utility's FERC Form 1. During the course of the hearing, each objection shall be stated with particularity and evidence provided in support thereof, after which the utility shall have the opportunity to rebut the evidence. Discovery shall be allowed consistent with the Commission's Rules of Practice, which Rules shall be enforced by the Commission or the assigned hearing examiner. The Commission shall apply the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, in the hearing as it would apply in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The Commission shall not, however, have the authority in a proceeding under this subsection (d) to consider or order any changes to the structure or protocols of the performance-based formula rate approved pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. In a proceeding under this subsection (d), the Commission shall enter its order no later than the earlier of 240 days after the utility's filing of its annual update of cost inputs to the performance-based formula rate or December 31. The Commission's determinations of the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred for the applicable calendar year shall be final upon entry of the Commission's order and shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other Commission proceeding, case, docket, order, rule or regulation, provided, however, that nothing in this subsection (d) shall prohibit a party from petitioning the Commission to rehear or appeal to the courts the order pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

In the event the Commission does not, either upon complaint or its own initiative, enter upon a hearing within 45 days after the utility files the annual update of cost inputs to its performance-based formula rate, then the costs incurred for the applicable calendar year shall be deemed prudent and reasonable, and the filed charges shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other proceeding, case, docket, order, rule, or regulation.

A participating utility's first filing of the updated cost inputs, and any Commission investigation of such inputs pursuant to this subsection (d) shall proceed notwithstanding the fact that the Commission's investigation under subsection (c) of this Section is still pending and notwithstanding any other law, order, rule, or Commission practice to the contrary.

(e) Nothing in subsections (c) or (d) of this Section shall prohibit the Commission from investigating, or a participating utility from filing, revenue-neutral tariff changes related to rate design of a performance-based formula rate that has been placed into effect for the utility. Following approval of a participating utility's performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, the utility shall make a filing with the Commission within one year after the effective date of the performance-based formula rate tariff that proposes changes to the tariff to incorporate the findings of any final rate design orders of the Commission applicable to the participating utility and entered subsequent to the Commission's approval of the tariff. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter its order approving, or approving with modification, the proposed changes to the performance-based formula rate tariff within 240 days after the utility's filing. Following such approval, the utility shall make a filing with the Commission during each subsequent 3-year period that either proposes revenue-neutral tariff changes or re-files the existing tariffs without change, which shall present the Commission with an opportunity to suspend the tariffs and consider revenue-neutral tariff changes related to rate design.

(f) Within 30 days after the filing of a tariff pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, each participating utility shall develop and file with the Commission multi-year metrics designed to achieve, ratably (i.e., in equal segments) over a 10-year period, improvement over baseline performance values as follows:

(1) Twenty percent improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010.

(2) Fifteen percent improvement in the system Customer Average Interruption Duration Index, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010.

(3) For a participating utility other than a combination utility, 20% improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index for its Southern Region, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010. For purposes of this paragraph (3), Southern Region shall have the meaning set forth in the participating utility's most recent report filed pursuant to Section 16-125 of this Act.

(3.5) For a participating utility other than a combination utility, 20% improvement in the System Average Interruption Frequency Index for its Northeastern Region, using a baseline of the average of the data from 2001 through 2010. For purposes of this paragraph (3.5), Northeastern Region shall have the meaning set forth in the participating utility's most recent report filed pursuant to Section 16-125 of this Act.

(4) Seventy-five percent improvement in the total number of customers who exceed the service reliability targets as set forth in subparagraphs (A) through (C) of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 411.140 as of May 1, 2011, using 2010 as the baseline year.

(5) Reduction in issuance of estimated electric bills: 90% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility, and 56% improvement for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average number of estimated bills for the years 2008 through 2010.

(6) Consumption on inactive meters: 90% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility, and 56% improvement for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average unbilled kilowatthours for the years 2009 and 2010.

(7) Unaccounted for energy: 50% improvement for a participating utility other than a combination utility using a baseline of the non-technical line loss unaccounted for energy kilowatthours for the year 2009.

(8) Uncollectible expense: reduce uncollectible expense by at least $30,000,000 for a participating utility other than a combination utility and by at least $3,500,000 for a participating utility that is a combination utility, using a baseline of the average uncollectible expense for the years 2008 through 2010.

(9) Opportunities for minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises: design a performance metric regarding the creation of opportunities for minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises consistent with State and federal law using a base performance value of the percentage of the participating utility's capital expenditures that were paid to minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises in 2010.

The definitions set forth in 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 411.20 as of May 1, 2011 shall be used for purposes of calculating performance under paragraphs (1) through (3.5) of this subsection (f), provided, however, that the participating utility may exclude up to 9 extreme weather event days from such calculation for each year, and provided further that the participating utility shall exclude 9 extreme weather event days when calculating each year of the baseline period to the extent that there are 9 such days in a given year of the baseline period. For purposes of this Section, an extreme weather event day is a 24-hour calendar day (beginning at 12:00 a.m. and ending at 11:59 p.m.) during which any weather event (e.g., storm, tornado) caused interruptions for 10,000 or more of the participating utility's customers for 3 hours or more. If there are more than 9 extreme weather event days in a year, then the utility may choose no more than 9 extreme weather event days to exclude, provided that the same extreme weather event days are excluded from each of the calculations performed under paragraphs (1) through (3.5) of this subsection (f).

The metrics shall include incremental performance goals for each year of the 10-year period, which shall be designed to demonstrate that the utility is on track to achieve the performance goal in each category at the end of the 10-year period. The utility shall elect when the 10-year period shall commence for the metrics set forth in subparagraphs (1) through (4) and (9) of this subsection (f), provided that it begins no later than 14 months following the date on which the utility begins investing pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, and when the 10-year period shall commence for the metrics set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f), provided that it begins no later than 14 months following the date on which the Commission enters its order approving the utility's Advanced Metering Infrastructure Deployment Plan pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act.

The metrics and performance goals set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f) are based on the assumptions that the participating utility may fully implement the technology described in subsection (b) of this Section, including utilizing the full functionality of such technology and that there is no requirement for personal on-site notification. If the utility is unable to meet the metrics and performance goals set forth in subparagraphs (5) through (8) of this subsection (f) for such reasons, and the Commission so finds after notice and hearing, then the utility shall be excused from compliance, but only to the limited extent achievement of the affected metrics and performance goals was hindered by the less than full implementation.

(f-5) The financial penalties applicable to the metrics described in subparagraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, as applicable, shall be applied through an adjustment to the participating utility's return on equity of no more than a total of 30 basis points in each of the first 3 years, of no more than a total of 34 basis points in each of the 3 years thereafter, and of no more than a total of 38 basis points in each of the 4 years thereafter, as follows:

(1) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (f) of this Section,

(A) for each year that a participating utility other than a combination utility does not achieve the annual goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points; and

(B) for each year that a participating utility that is a combination utility does not achieve the annual goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 10 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 12 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 14 basis points.

(2) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(3) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (3.5) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that a participating utility other than a combination utility does not achieve both such goals, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(4) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced as follows: during years 1 through 3, by 5 basis points; during years 4 through 6, by 6 basis points; and during years 7 through 10, by 7 basis points.

(5) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to subparagraph (5) of subsection (f) of this Section, for each year that the participating utility does not achieve at least 95% of each such goal, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced by 5 basis points for each such unachieved goal.

(6) With respect to each of the incremental annual performance goals established pursuant to paragraphs (6), (7), and (8) of subsection (f) of this Section, as applicable, which together measure non-operational customer savings and benefits relating to the implementation of the Advanced Metering Infrastructure Deployment Plan, as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, the performance under each such goal shall be calculated in terms of the percentage of the goal achieved. The percentage of goal achieved for each of the goals shall be aggregated, and an average percentage value calculated, for each year of the 10-year period. If the utility does not achieve an average percentage value in a given year of at least 95%, the participating utility's return on equity shall be reduced by 5 basis points.

The financial penalties shall be applied as described in this subsection (f-5) for the 12-month period in which the deficiency occurred through a separate tariff mechanism, which shall be filed by the utility together with its metrics. In the event the formula rate tariff established pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section terminates, the utility's obligations under subsection (f) of this Section and this subsection (f-5) shall also terminate, provided, however, that the tariff mechanism established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section and this subsection (f-5) shall remain in effect until any penalties due and owing at the time of such termination are applied.

The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order within 120 days after the metrics are filed approving, or approving with modification, a participating utility's tariff or mechanism to satisfy the metrics set forth in subsection (f) of this Section. On June 1 of each subsequent year, each participating utility shall file a report with the Commission that includes, among other things, a description of how the participating utility performed under each metric and an identification of any extraordinary events that adversely impacted the utility's performance. Whenever a participating utility does not satisfy the metrics required pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section, the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order approving financial penalties in accordance with this subsection (f-5). The Commission-approved financial penalties shall be applied beginning with the next rate year. Nothing in this Section shall authorize the Commission to reduce or otherwise obviate the imposition of financial penalties for failing to achieve one or more of the metrics established pursuant to subparagraph (1) through (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

(g) On or before July 31, 2014, each participating utility shall file a report with the Commission that sets forth the average annual increase in the average amount paid per kilowatthour for residential eligible retail customers, exclusive of the effects of energy efficiency programs, comparing the 12-month period ending May 31, 2012; the 12-month period ending May 31, 2013; and the 12-month period ending May 31, 2014. For a participating utility that is a combination utility with more than one rate zone, the weighted average aggregate increase shall be provided. The report shall be filed together with a statement from an independent auditor attesting to the accuracy of the report. The cost of the independent auditor shall be borne by the participating utility and shall not be a recoverable expense. "The average amount paid per kilowatthour" shall be based on the participating utility's tariffed rates actually in effect and shall not be calculated using any hypothetical rate or adjustments to actual charges (other than as specified for energy efficiency) as an input.

In the event that the average annual increase exceeds 2.5% as calculated pursuant to this subsection (g), then Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act, other than this subsection, shall be inoperative as they relate to the utility and its service area as of the date of the report due to be submitted pursuant to this subsection and the utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. In such event, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs, and the participating utility's voluntary commitments and obligations under subsection (b) of this Section shall immediately terminate, except for the utility's obligation to pay an amount already owed to the fund for training grants pursuant to a Commission order issued under subsection (b) of this Section.

In the event that the average annual increase is 2.5% or less as calculated pursuant to this subsection (g), then the performance-based formula rate shall remain in effect as set forth in this Section.

For purposes of this Section, the amount per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis, and the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes exclusive of any increases in taxes or new taxes imposed after October 26, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-616) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. For purposes of this Section, "eligible retail customers" shall have the meaning set forth in Section 16-111.5 of this Act.

The fact that this Section becomes inoperative as set forth in this subsection shall not be construed to mean that the Commission may reexamine or otherwise reopen prudence or reasonableness determinations already made.

(h) Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act, other than this subsection, are inoperative after December 31, 2019 for every participating utility, after which time a participating utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. At such time, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

By December 31, 2017, the Commission shall prepare and file with the General Assembly a report on the infrastructure program and the performance-based formula rate. The report shall include the change in the average amount per kilowatthour paid by residential customers between June 1, 2011 and May 31, 2017. If the change in the total average rate paid exceeds 2.5% compounded annually, the Commission shall include in the report an analysis that shows the portion of the change due to the delivery services component and the portion of the change due to the supply component of the rate. The report shall include separate sections for each participating utility.

In the event Sections 16-108.5, 16-108.6, 16-108.7, and 16-108.8 of this Act do not become inoperative after December 31, 2019, then these Sections are inoperative after December 31, 2022 for every participating utility, after which time a participating utility shall no longer be eligible to annually update the performance-based formula rate tariff pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. At such time, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as new rates are set pursuant to Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

The fact that this Section becomes inoperative as set forth in this subsection shall not be construed to mean that the Commission may reexamine or otherwise reopen prudence or reasonableness determinations already made.

(i) While a participating utility may use, develop, and maintain broadband systems and the delivery of broadband services, voice-over-internet-protocol services, telecommunications services, and cable and video programming services for use in providing delivery services and Smart Grid functionality or application to its retail customers, including, but not limited to, the installation, implementation and maintenance of Smart Grid electric system upgrades as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, a participating utility is prohibited from offering to its retail customers broadband services or the delivery of broadband services, voice-over-internet-protocol services, telecommunications services, or cable or video programming services, unless they are part of a service directly related to delivery services or Smart Grid functionality or applications as defined in Section 16-108.6 of this Act, and from recovering the costs of such offerings from retail customers.

(j) Nothing in this Section is intended to legislatively overturn the opinion issued in Commonwealth Edison Co. v. Ill. Commerce Comm'n, Nos. 2-08-0959, 2-08-1037, 2-08-1137, 1-08-3008, 1-08-3030, 1-08-3054, 1-08-3313 cons. (Ill. App. Ct. 2d Dist. Sept. 30, 2010). Public Act 97-616 This amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall not be construed as creating a contract between the General Assembly and the participating utility, and shall not establish a property right in the participating utility.

(k) The changes made in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are intended to be a restatement and clarification of existing law, and intended to give binding effect to the provisions of House Resolution 1157 adopted by the House of Representatives of the 97th General Assembly and Senate Resolution 821 adopted by the Senate of the 97th General Assembly that are reflected in paragraph (3) of this subsection. In addition, Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly preempts and supersedes any final Commission orders entered in Docket Nos. 11-0721, 12-0001, 12-0293, and 12-0321 to the extent inconsistent with the amendatory language added to subsections (c) and (d).

(1) No earlier than 5 business days after May 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-15) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each participating utility shall file any tariff changes necessary to implement the amendatory language set forth in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and a revised revenue requirement under the participating utility's performance-based formula rate. The Commission shall enter a final order approving such tariff changes and revised revenue requirement within 21 days after the participating utility's filing.

(2) Notwithstanding anything that may be to the contrary, a participating utility may file a tariff to retroactively recover its previously unrecovered actual costs of delivery service that are no longer subject to recovery through a reconciliation adjustment under subsection (d) of this Section. This retroactive recovery shall include any derivative adjustments resulting from the changes to subsections (c) and (d) of this Section by Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Such tariff shall allow the utility to assess, on current customer bills over a period of 12 monthly billing periods, a charge or credit related to those unrecovered costs with interest at the utility's weighted average cost of capital during the period in which those costs were unrecovered. A participating utility may file a tariff that implements a retroactive charge or credit as described in this paragraph for amounts not otherwise included in the tariff filing provided for in paragraph (1) of this subsection (k). The Commission shall enter a final order approving such tariff within 21 days after the participating utility's filing.

(3) The tariff changes described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (k) shall relate only to, and be consistent with, the following provisions of Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly: paragraph (2) of subsection (c) regarding year-end capital structure, subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) regarding pension assets, and subsection (d) regarding the reconciliation components related to year-end rate base and interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital.

(4) Nothing in this subsection is intended to effect a dismissal of or otherwise affect an appeal from any final Commission orders entered in Docket Nos. 11-0721, 12-0001, 12-0293, and 12-0321 other than to the extent of the amendatory language contained in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section of Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(l) Each participating utility shall be deemed to have been in full compliance with all requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, subsection (c) of this Section, Section 16-108.6 of this Act, and all Commission orders entered pursuant to Sections 16-108.5 and 16-108.6 of this Act, up to and including May 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-15) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. The Commission shall not undertake any investigation of such compliance and no penalty shall be assessed or adverse action taken against a participating utility for noncompliance with Commission orders associated with subsection (b) of this Section, subsection (c) of this Section, and Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to such date. Each participating utility other than a combination utility shall be permitted, without penalty, a period of 12 months after such effective date to take actions required to ensure its infrastructure investment program is in compliance with subsection (b) of this Section and with Section 16-108.6 of this Act. Provided further: (1) if this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly takes effect on or before June 15, 2013, the following subparagraphs shall apply to a participating utility other than a combination utility:

(A) if the Commission has initiated a proceeding pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act that is pending as of May 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-15) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the order entered in such proceeding shall, after notice and hearing, accelerate the commencement of the meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298;

(B) if the Commission has entered an order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to May 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-15) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that does not accelerate the commencement of the meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298, then the utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298; the Commission shall reopen the proceeding in which it entered its order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act and shall, after notice and hearing, enter an amendatory order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan within 90 days after the utility's filing; or

(C) if the Commission has not initiated a proceeding pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act prior to May 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-15) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298 and the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, approve or approve as modified such plan within 90 days after the utility's filing; .

(2) if this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly takes effect after June 15, 2013, then each participating utility other than a combination utility shall file with the Commission, within 45 days after such effective date, a plan for accelerating the commencement of the utility's meter deployment schedule approved in the final Commission order on rehearing entered in Docket No. 12-0298; the Commission shall reopen the most recent proceeding in which it entered an order pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 16-108.6 of this Act and within 90 days after the utility's filing shall, after notice and hearing, enter an amendatory order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan, provided that if there was no such prior proceeding the Commission shall open a new proceeding and within 90 days after the utility's filing shall, after notice and hearing, enter an order that approves or approves as modified such accelerated plan.

Any schedule for meter deployment approved by the Commission pursuant to subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (l) shall take into consideration procurement times for meters and other equipment and operational issues. Nothing in Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall shorten or extend the end dates for the 5-year or 10-year periods set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or Section 16-108.6 of this Act. Nothing in this subsection is intended to address whether a participating utility has, or has not, satisfied any or all of the metrics and performance goals established pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section.

(m) The provisions of Public Act 98-15 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(Source: P.A. 98-15, eff. 5-22-13; 98-1175, eff. 6-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 320. The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(225 ILCS 5/18) (from Ch. 111, par. 7618)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 18. Investigations; notice and hearing. The Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of any person or persons holding or claiming to hold a license. The Department shall, before refusing to issue or to renew a license or disciplining a registrant, at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify in writing the applicant or licensee of the nature of the charges and the time and place that a hearing will be held on the charges. The Department shall direct the applicant or licensee to file a written answer under oath within 20 days after the service of the notice. In case the person fails to file an answer after receiving notice, his or her license or certificate may, in the discretion of the Department, be suspended, revoked, or placed on probationary status, or the Department may take whatever disciplinary action deemed proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for such action under this Act. At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Department shall proceed to hear the charges, and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample opportunity to present such statements, testimony, evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the charges or to their defense. The Department may continue a hearing from time to time. The written notice and any notice in the subsequent proceeding may be served by registered or certified mail to the licensee's address of record.

(Source: P.A. 99-469, eff. 8-26-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 325. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 2.06 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.06) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.06)

Sec. 2.06. "Child care institution" means a child care facility where more than 7 children are received and maintained for the purpose of providing them with care or training or both. The term "child care institution" includes residential schools, primarily serving ambulatory children with disabilities, and those operating a full calendar year, but does not include:

(a) any Any State-operated institution for child care established by legislative action;

(b) any Any juvenile detention or shelter care home established and operated by any county or child protection district established under the "Child Protection Act";

(c) any Any institution, home, place or facility operating under a license pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(d) any Any bona fide boarding school in which children are primarily taught branches of education corresponding to those taught in public schools, grades one through 12, or taught in public elementary schools, high schools, or both elementary and high schools, and which operates on a regular academic school year basis; or

(e) any Any facility licensed as a "group home" as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 330. The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 130 as follows:

(225 ILCS 37/130)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2019)

Sec. 130. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is expressly adopted and incorporated in this Act as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of paragraph (c) of Section 10-65 16 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which provides that at hearings the certificate holder has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, or continuation, or renewal of the certificate, is specifically excluded. For the purpose of this Act, the notice required under Section 10-25 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed to the last known address of a party.

(Source: P.A. 89-61, eff. 6-30-95; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 335. The Patients' Right to Know Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 61/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the following definitions shall have the following meanings, except where the context requires otherwise:

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Disciplinary Board" means the Medical Disciplinary Board.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches or a chiropractic physician licensed to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 97-280, eff. 8-9-11; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 340. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 50-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of courses at a college, university, or approved school, customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from the calendar year.

"Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty credentials CNM, CNP, CRNA, or CNS after their name. All advanced practice nurses may only practice in accordance with national certification and this Act.

"Approved program of professional nursing education" and "approved program of practical nursing education" are programs of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the Secretary.

"Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health care professionals working together, each contributing one's respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive patient care.

"Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health care professional.

"Credentialed" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Current nursing practice update course" means a planned nursing education curriculum approved by the Department consisting of activities that have educational objectives, instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and updating content and specifically planned for those nurses previously licensed in the United States or its territories and preparing for reentry into nursing practice.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, or similar organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily to the provision, management, or support of health care services and that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control of the hospital. For the purposes of this definition, "control" means having at least an equal or a majority ownership or membership interest. A hospital affiliate shall be 100% owned or controlled by any combination of hospitals, their parent corporations, or physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois. "Hospital affiliate" does not include a health maintenance organization regulated under the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or her ability to deliver competent patient care.

"License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a registered professional nurse who has completed all requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except the certification examination and has applied to take the next available certification exam and received a temporary license from the Department.

"License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam and has applied for a license from the Department. A license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N.".

"Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment, and skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical nursing education program. Practical nursing includes assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care professional determined by the Department.

"Privileged" means the authorization granted by the governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or organization to provide specific patient care services within well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the credentialing process.

"Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" and the abbreviation, "R.N.".

"Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession based on the understanding of the human condition across the life span and environment and includes all nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means of completion of an approved professional nursing education program. A registered professional nurse provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatric physician, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a physician assistant or by an advanced practice nurse; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of individuals who assist the registered professional nurse implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or corrective measures.

"Professional assistance program for nurses" means a professional assistance program that meets criteria established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance addiction.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good standing.

"Written collaborative agreement" means a written agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician pursuant to Section 65-35.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-330, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 345. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/19.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 19.1. Dispensing opioid antagonists naloxone antidotes.

(a) Due to the recent rise in opioid-related deaths in Illinois and the existence of an opioid antagonist that can reverse the deadly effects of overdose, the General Assembly finds that in order to avoid further loss where possible, it is responsible to allow greater access of such an antagonist to those populations at risk of overdose.

(b) Notwithstanding any general or special law to the contrary, a licensed pharmacist may dispense an opioid antagonist in accordance with written, standardized procedures or protocols developed by the Department with the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services if the procedures or protocols are filed at the pharmacy before implementation and are available to the Department upon request.

(c) Before dispensing an opioid antagonist pursuant to this Section, a pharmacist shall complete a training program approved by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act. The training program shall include, but not be limited to, proper documentation and quality assurance.

(d) For the purpose of this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 350. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is either prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist or used following the physician's orders or written instructions, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, other physical therapist, or other health care provider any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed.

(11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 355. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 115 as follows:

(225 ILCS 106/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the Secretary.

"Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all of the following activities:

(1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through non-invasive means, provided that the collection and review does not include the individual's interpretation of the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel in a timely manner.

(4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.

(5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.

(6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb syringe.

(7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.

(8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel who is present and performing routine airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is connected to the ventilator.

"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities that involve any of the following:

(1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of education or training in respiratory care.

(2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the patient.

(3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning patient care.

(4) The administration of aerosol medication or medical gas.

(5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial airway.

(6) Mechanical ventilatory support.

(7) Patient assessment.

(8) Patient education.

(9) The transferring of oxygen devices, for purposes of patient transport, with a liter flow greater than 6 liters per minute, and the transferring of oxygen devices at any liter flow being delivered to patients less than 12 years of age.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.

"Licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice nurse, or a licensed physician assistant.

"Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

"Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes the professional to supervise an individual who is not licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.

"Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an individual is responsible for directing the actions of another individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.

"Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, therapeutic services, cardiopulmonary disease management, and rehabilitative services under the order of a licensed health care professional for an individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general physical response of individuals to respiratory care services, including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms, reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit abnormal characteristics; the administration of pharmacological and therapeutic agents and procedures related to respiratory care services; the collection of blood specimens and other bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of, cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but not limited to, blood gas analysis; development, implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a licensed health care professional; application, operation, and management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of life support, including, but not limited to, hemodynamic cardiovascular support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.

"Respiratory care education program" means a course of academic study leading to eligibility for registry or certification in respiratory care. The training is to be approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and shall include an evaluation of competence through a standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board to be both valid and reliable.

"Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The person is engaged in the practice of cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill necessary to administer respiratory care.

(2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to the licensed health care professional in relation to the technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory care modalities.

(3) The person is able to function in situations of unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual judgment.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(225 ILCS 106/115)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 115. Subpoena; depositions; oaths. The Department has the power to subpoena and to bring before it any person, exhibit, book, document, record, file, or any other material and to take testimony either orally or by deposition, or both, with the same fees and mileage and in the same manner as prescribed proscribed in civil cases in the courts of this State.

The Secretary, the designated hearing officer, and every member of the Board has the power to administer oaths to witnesses at any hearing which the Department is authorized to conduct, and any other oaths authorized in any Act administered by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 360. The Perfusionist Practice Act is amended by changing Section 125 as follows:

(225 ILCS 125/125)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 125. Record of proceedings. The Department, at its expense, shall preserve a record of all proceedings at a formal hearing conducted pursuant to Section 120 of this Act. The notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in the nature of pleadings and written motions filed in the proceedings, the transcript of testimony, the report of the Board or hearing officer, and orders of the Department shall be the record of the proceeding. The Department shall supply a transcript of the record to a person interested in the hearing on payment of the fee required under Section 2105-115 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law Section 60f of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 91-580, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 365. The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 2-4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 410/2-4) (from Ch. 111, par. 1702-4)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 2-4. Licensure as a barber teacher; qualifications. A person is qualified to receive a license as a barber teacher if that person files an application on forms provided by the Department, pays the required fee, and:

a. Is at least 18 years of age;

b. Has graduated from high school or its equivalent;

c. Has a current license as a barber or cosmetologist;

d. Has graduated from a barber school or school of cosmetology approved by the Department having:

(1) completed a total of 500 hours in barber teacher training extending over a period of not less than 3 months nor more than 2 years and has had 3 years of practical experience as a licensed barber;

(2) completed a total of 1,000 hours of barber teacher training extending over a period of not less than 6 months nor more than 2 years; or

(3) completed the cosmetology teacher training as specified in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 3-4 of this Act and completed a supplemental barbering course as established by rule;

e. Has passed an examination authorized by the Department to determine fitness to receive a license as a barber teacher or a cosmetology teacher; and

f. Has met any other requirements set forth in this Act.

An applicant who is issued a license as a barber teacher is not required to maintain a barber license in order to practice barbering as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-911, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-427, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 370. The Collection Agency Act is amended by changing Section 2.04 as follows:

(225 ILCS 425/2.04) (from Ch. 111, par. 2005.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 2.04. Child support debt.

(a) Collection agencies engaged in the business of collecting child support debt owing under a court order as provided under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, or similar laws of other states are not restricted (i) in the frequency of contact with an obligor who is in arrears, whether by phone, mail, or other means, (ii) from contacting the employer of an obligor who is in arrears, (iii) from publishing or threatening to publish a list of obligors in arrears, (iv) from disclosing or threatening to disclose an arrearage that the obligor disputes, but for which a verified notice of delinquency has been served under the Income Withholding for Support Act (or any of its predecessors, Section 10-16.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 706.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, Section 22 of the Non-Support Punishment Act, Section 26.1 of the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, or Section 20 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984), or (v) from engaging in conduct that would not cause a reasonable person mental or physical illness. For purposes of this subsection, "obligor" means an individual who owes a duty to make periodic payments, under a court order, for the support of a child. "Arrearage" means the total amount of an obligor's unpaid child support obligations.

(a-5) A collection agency may not impose a fee or charge, including costs, for any child support payments collected through the efforts of a federal, State, or local government agency, including but not limited to child support collected from federal or State tax refunds, unemployment benefits, or Social Security benefits.

No collection agency that collects child support payments shall (i) impose a charge or fee, including costs, for collection of a current child support payment, (ii) fail to apply collections to current support as specified in the order for support before applying collection to arrears or other amounts, or (iii) designate a current child support payment as arrears or other amount owed. In all circumstances, the collection agency shall turn over to the obligee all support collected in a month up to the amount of current support required to be paid for that month.

As to any fees or charges, including costs, retained by the collection agency, that agency shall provide documentation to the obligee demonstrating that the child support payments resulted from the actions of the agency.

After collection of the total amount or arrearage, including statutory interest, due as of the date of execution of the collection contract, no further fees may be charged.

(a-10) The Department shall determine a fee rate of not less than 25% but not greater than 35%, based upon presentation by the licensees as to costs to provide the service and a fair rate of return. This rate shall be established by administrative rule.

Without prejudice to the determination by the Department of the appropriate rate through administrative rule, a collection agency shall impose a fee of not more than 29% of the amount of child support actually collected by the collection agency subject to the provisions of subsection (a-5). This interim rate is based upon the March 2002 General Account Office report "Child Support Enforcement", GAO-02-349. This rate shall apply until a fee rate is established by administrative rule.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules necessary to administer and enforce the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 375. The Illinois Livestock Dealer Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(225 ILCS 645/9) (from Ch. 111, par. 409)

Sec. 9. The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend or revoke a license on any of the following grounds:

a. Material misstatement in the application for original license or in the application for any renewal license under this Act;

b. Wilful disregard or violation of this Act, or of any other Act relative to the purchase and sale of livestock, feeder swine or horses, or of any regulation or rule issued pursuant thereto;

c. Wilfully aiding or abetting another in the violation of this Act or of any regulation or rule issued pursuant thereto;

d. Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person;

e. Conviction of any felony, if the Department determines, after investigation, that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

f. Conviction of any crime an essential element of which is misstatement, fraud or dishonesty;

g. Conviction of a violation of any law in Illinois or any Departmental rule or regulation relating to livestock;

h. Making substantial misrepresentations or false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade or induce in connection with the livestock industry;

i. Pursuing a continued course of misrepresentation of or making false promises through advertising, salesmen, agents or otherwise in connection with the livestock industry;

j. Failure to possess the necessary qualifications or to meet the requirements of this Act for the issuance or holding a license;

k. Failure to pay for livestock after purchase;

l. Issuance of checks for payment of livestock when funds are insufficient;

m. Determination by a Department audit that the licensee or applicant is insolvent;

n. Operating without adequate bond coverage or its equivalent required for licensees; .

o. Failing to remit the assessment required in Section 9 of the Beef Market Development Act upon written complaint of the Checkoff Division of the Illinois Beef Association Board of Governors.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 99-389, eff. 8-18-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 380. The Raffles and Poker Runs Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(230 ILCS 15/1) (from Ch. 85, par. 2301)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act the terms defined in this Section have the meanings given them.

"Net proceeds" means the gross receipts from the conduct of raffles, less reasonable sums expended for prizes, local license fees and other reasonable operating expenses incurred as a result of operating a raffle or poker run.

"Key location" means the location where the poker run concludes and the prize or prizes are awarded.

"Poker run" means a prize-awarding event organized by an organization licensed under this Act in which participants travel to multiple predetermined locations, including a key location, to play a randomized game based on an element of chance. "Poker run" includes dice runs, marble runs, or other events where the objective is to build the best hand or highest score by obtaining an item or playing a randomized game at each location.

"Raffle" means a form of lottery, as defined in Section 28-2(b) of the Criminal Code of 2012, conducted by an organization licensed under this Act, in which:

(1) the player pays or agrees to pay something of value for a chance, represented and differentiated by a number or by a combination of numbers or by some other medium, one or more of which chances is to be designated the winning chance;

(2) the winning chance is to be determined through a drawing or by some other method based on an element of chance by an act or set of acts on the part of persons conducting or connected with the lottery, except that the winning chance shall not be determined by the outcome of a publicly exhibited sporting contest.

"Raffle" does not include a savings promotion raffle authorized under Section 5g of the Illinois Banking Act, Section 7008 of the Savings Bank Act, Section 42.7 of the Illinois Credit Union Act, Section 5136B of the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 25a), or Section 4 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1463).

(Source: P.A. 98-644, eff. 6-10-14; 99-149, eff. 1-1-16; 99-405, eff. 8-19-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 385. The Bingo License and Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1.3 as follows:

(230 ILCS 25/1.3)

Sec. 1.3. Restrictions on licensure. Licensing for the conducting of bingo is subject to the following restrictions:

(1) The license application, when submitted to the Department, must contain a sworn statement attesting to the not-for-profit character of the prospective licensee organization, signed by a person listed on the application as an owner, officer, or other person in charge of the necessary day-to-day operations of that organization.

(2) The license application shall be prepared in accordance with the rules of the Department.

(3) The licensee shall prominently display the license in the area where the licensee conducts bingo. The licensee shall likewise display, in the form and manner as prescribed by the Department, the provisions of Section 8 of this Act.

(4) Each license shall state the day of the week, hours and at which location the licensee is permitted to conduct bingo games.

(5) A license is not assignable or transferable.

(6) A license authorizes the licensee to conduct the game commonly known as bingo, in which prizes are awarded on the basis of designated numbers or symbols on a card conforming to numbers or symbols selected at random.

(7) The Department may, on special application made by any organization having a bingo license, issue a special permit for conducting bingo on other days not exceeding 5 consecutive days, except that a licensee may conduct bingo at the Illinois State Fair or any county fair held in Illinois during each day that the fair is held, without a fee. Bingo games conducted at the Illinois State Fair or a county fair shall not require a special permit. No more than 2 special permits may be issued in one year to any one organization.

(8) Any organization qualified for a license but not holding one may, upon application and payment of a nonrefundable fee of $50, receive a limited license to conduct bingo games at no more than 2 indoor or outdoor festivals in a year for a maximum of 5 consecutive days on each occasion. No more than 2 limited licenses under this item (7) may be issued to any organization in any year. A limited license must be prominently displayed at the site where the bingo games are conducted.

(9) Senior citizens organizations and units of local government may conduct bingo without a license or fee, subject to the following conditions:

(A) bingo shall be conducted only (i) at a facility that is owned by a unit of local government to which the corporate authorities have given their approval and that is used to provide social services or a meeting place to senior citizens, (ii) in common areas in multi-unit federally assisted rental housing maintained solely for elderly persons and persons with disabilities, or (iii) at a building owned by a church or veterans organization;

(B) the price paid for a single card shall not exceed 50 cents;

(C) the aggregate retail value of all prizes or merchandise awarded in any one game of bingo shall not exceed $10;

(D) no person or organization shall participate in the management or operation of bingo under this item (9) if the person or organization would be ineligible for a license under this Section; and

(E) no license is required to provide premises for bingo conducted under this item (9).

(10) Bingo equipment shall not be used for any purpose other than for the play of bingo.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-177, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 390. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-3.40 and by changing Sections 5-1, 6-4, and 6-11 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/1-3.40)

Sec. 1-3.40. Manufacturer class license holder. "Manufacturer class license holder" means any holder of a Manufacturer's license as provided in Section 5-1 of this Act. The Manufacturer's licenses are: a Class 1. Distiller, a Class 2. Rectifier, a Class 3. Brewer, a Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, a Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, a Class 6. First Class Winemaker, a Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, a Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, a Class 9. Craft Distiller, and a Class 10. Craft Brewer and any future Manufacturer's licenses established by law.

(Source: P.A. 99-282, eff. 8-5-15.)

(235 ILCS 5/1-3.42)

Sec. 1-3.42 1-3.40. Class 2 brewer. "Class 2 brewer" means a person who is a holder of a brewer license or non-resident dealer license who manufactures up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year for sale to a licensed importing distributor or distributor.

(Source: P.A. 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; revised 10-28-15.)

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class 10. Class 1 Brewer, Class 11. Class 2 Brewer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license,

(r) Winery shipper's license.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a first-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the manufacture of up to 30,000 gallons of spirits by distillation for one year after March 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1166) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and up to 35,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year thereafter and the storage of such spirits. If a craft distiller licensee is not affiliated with any other manufacturer, then the craft distiller licensee may sell such spirits to distributors in this State and up to 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees to the extent permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act.

Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on July 28, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1367) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to pay the initial licensing fee.

Class 10. A class 1 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 930,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 1 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 930,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 930,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 1 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors and to retail licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act.

Class 11. A class 2 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 2 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 2 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors, but shall not make sales or deliveries to any other licensee. If the State Commission provides prior approval, a class 2 brewer licensee may annually transfer up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer manufactured by that class 2 brewer licensee to the premises of a licensed class 2 brewer wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor to licensed distributors or importing distributors and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration. The State Commission shall post a list of registered agents on the Commission's website.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. Nothing in Public Act 95-634 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer, deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance. Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows: Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i) the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee to only (i) manufacture up to 155,000 gallons of beer per year only on the premises specified in the license, (ii) make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or, with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on another brew pub licensed premises that is wholly owned and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, (iii) store the beer upon the premises, (iv) sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises for off-premises consumption no more than 155,000 gallons per year so long as such sales are only made in-person, (v) sell and offer for sale at retail for use and consumption on the premises specified in the license any form of alcoholic liquor purchased from a licensed distributor or importing distributor, and (vi) with the prior approval of the Commission, annually transfer no more than 155,000 gallons of beer manufactured on the premises to a licensed brew pub wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

A brew pub licensee shall not under any circumstance sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the brew pub licensee to retail licensees.

A person who holds a class 2 brewer license may simultaneously hold a brew pub license if the class 2 brewer (i) does not, under any circumstance, sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the class 2 brewer to retail licensees; (ii) does not hold more than 3 brew pub licenses in this State; (iii) does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year, including the beer manufactured at the brew pub; and (iv) is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a licensed brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer who before July 1, 2015 manufactured less than than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and held a brew pub license on or before July 1, 2015 may (i) continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license for the licensed premises and (ii) manufacture more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license if that brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer does not simultaneously hold a class 1 brewer license and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or that produces any other alcoholic liquor.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12 month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a true copy of its current license in any state in which it is licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery shipper's license must also complete an application form that provides any other information the Commission deems necessary. The application form shall include an acknowledgement consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of ensuring compliance with Public Act 95-634 this amendatory Act.

A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act.

A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r) must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this amendatory Act.

Pursuant to paragraph (5.1) or (5.3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, the State Commission may receive, respond to, and investigate any complaint and impose any of the remedies specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12.

(Source: P.A. 98-394, eff. 8-16-13; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; revised 10-27-15.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-4) (from Ch. 43, par. 121)

Sec. 6-4. (a) No person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller, or a wine manufacturer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person shall be issued an importing distributor's or distributor's license, nor shall any person licensed by any licensing authority as an importing distributor, distributor or retailer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer or associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person be issued a distiller's license or a wine manufacturer's license; and no person or persons licensed as a distiller by any licensing authority shall have any interest, directly or indirectly, with such distributor or importing distributor.

However, an importing distributor or distributor, which on January 1, 1985 is owned by a brewer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of the importing distributor or distributor referred to in this paragraph, may own or acquire an ownership interest of more than 5% of the outstanding shares of a wine manufacturer and be issued a wine manufacturer's license by any licensing authority.

(b) The foregoing provisions shall not apply to any person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller or wine manufacturer, or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who shall have been heretofore licensed by the State Commission as either an importing distributor or distributor during the annual licensing period expiring June 30, 1947, and shall actually have made sales regularly to retailers.

(c) Provided, however, that in such instances where a distributor's or importing distributor's license has been issued to any distiller or wine manufacturer or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who has, during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, sold or distributed as such licensed distributor or importing distributor alcoholic liquors and wines to retailers, such distiller or wine manufacturer or any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer holding such distributor's or importing distributor's license may continue to sell or distribute to retailers such alcoholic liquors and wines which are manufactured, distilled, processed or marketed by distillers and wine manufacturers whose products it sold or distributed to retailers during the whole or any part of its licensing periods; and such additional brands and additional products may be added to the line of such distributor or importing distributor, provided, that such brands and such products were not sold or distributed by any distributor or importing distributor licensed by the State Commission during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, but can not sell or distribute to retailers any other alcoholic liquors or wines.

(d) It shall be unlawful for any distiller licensed anywhere to have any stock ownership or interest in any distributor's or importing distributor's license wherein any other person has an interest therein who is not a distiller and does not own more than 5% of any stock in any distillery. Nothing herein contained shall apply to such distillers or their subsidiaries or affiliates, who had a distributor's or importing distributor's license during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, which license was owned in whole by such distiller, or subsidiaries or affiliates of such distiller.

(e) Any person licensed as a brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer shall be permitted to sell on the licensed premises to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts such business beer manufactured by the brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises. Such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the brewer license and, other than a manufacturer of beer as stated above, no manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee or agent, or shareholder shall be issued a retailer's license, nor shall any person having a retailer's license, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative or agent, or shareholder be issued a manufacturer's license or importing distributor's license.

A person who holds a class 1 or class 2 brewer license and is authorized by this Section to sell beer to non-licensees shall not sell beer to non-licensees from more than 3 total brewer or commonly owned brew pub licensed locations in this State. The class 1 or class 2 brewer shall designate to the State Commission the brewer or brew pub locations from which it will sell beer to non-licensees.

A person licensed as a craft distiller not affiliated with any other person manufacturing spirits may be authorized by the Commission to sell up to 2,500 gallons of spirits produced by the person to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts business permitting only the retail sale of spirits manufactured at such premises. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises, and such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the craft distiller license. A craft distiller licensed for retail sale shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any of the foregoing prohibitions, a limited wine manufacturer may sell at retail at its manufacturing site for on or off premises consumption and may sell to distributors. A limited wine manufacturer licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(h) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-47 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall not diminish or impair the rights of any person, whether a distiller, wine manufacturer, agent, or affiliate thereof, who requested in writing and submitted documentation to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015 to be approved for a retail license pursuant to what has heretofore been subsection (f); provided that, on or before that date, the State Commission considered the intent of that person to apply for the retail license under that subsection and, by recorded vote, the State Commission approved a resolution indicating that such a license application could be lawfully approved upon that person duly filing a formal application for a retail license and if that person, within 90 days of the State Commission appearance and recorded vote, first filed an application with the appropriate local commission, which application was subsequently approved by the appropriate local commission prior to consideration by the State Commission of that person's application for a retail license. It is further provided that the State Commission may approve the person's application for a retail license or renewals of such license if such person continues to diligently adhere to all representations made in writing to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015, or thereafter, or in the affidavit filed by that person with the State Commission to support the issuance of a retail license and to abide by all applicable laws and duly adopted rules.

(Source: P.A. 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; revised 10-30-15.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-11)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of July 10, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-617) this amendatory Act of 1998.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are parallel, on different streets, and separated by an alley;

(2) the southeast corner of the premises are at least 350 feet from the southwest corner of the school;

(3) the school was built in 1978;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and has held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises at a different location for more than 7 years; and

(7) the premises is at least 2,300 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 6,100 and 6,150 square feet.

(l) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 80 feet apart and no greater than 85 feet apart;

(3) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and on November 15, 2006 held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises for at least 14 different locations;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the premises is at least 3,200 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 7,150 and 7,200 square feet; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(m) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises and the church are perpendicular, and the primary entrance of the premises faces South while the primary entrance of the church faces West and the distance between the two entrances is more than 100 feet;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises lot line and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(3) the church was established at the current location in 1916 and the present structure was erected in 1925;

(4) the premises is a single story, single use building with at least 1,750 square feet and no more than 2,000 square feet;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(6) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(n) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(2) the school is located within subarea E of City of Chicago Residential Business Planned Development Number 70;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food; and

(5) the administration of City of Chicago School District 299 has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of the license.

(o) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises is located on a street that runs perpendicular to the street on which the church is located;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 60 feet;

(6) the premises is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet; and

(7) the premises was built in the year 1909.

For purposes of this subsection (o), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(p) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the backdoor of the premises, which is used as an emergency exit, and the church is at least 80 feet;

(2) the church was established at the current location in 1889; and

(3) liquor has been sold on the premises since at least 1985.

(q) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church-owned property if:

(1) the premises is located within a larger building operated as a grocery store;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 720 square feet and the area of the larger building exceeds 18,000 square feet;

(3) the larger building containing the premises is within 100 feet of the nearest property line of a church-owned property on which a church-affiliated school is located;

(4) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on within the larger building;

(5) the primary entrance of the larger building and the premises and the primary entrance of the church-affiliated school are on different, parallel streets, and the distance between the 2 primary entrances is more than 100 feet;

(6) the larger building is separated from the church-owned property and church-affiliated school by an alley;

(7) the larger building containing the premises and the church building front are on perpendicular streets and are separated by a street; and

(8) (Blank).

(r) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance, renewal, or maintenance of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the primary entrance of the church and the primary entrance of the restaurant are at least 100 feet apart;

(2) the restaurant has operated on the ground floor and lower level of a multi-story, multi-use building for more than 40 years;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is conducted primarily in the below-grade level of the restaurant to which the only public access is by a staircase located inside the restaurant; and

(5) the restaurant has held a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises for more than 40 years.

(s) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population more than 5,000 and less than 10,000 and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the church was established at the location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued;

(2) a license for sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued before January 1, 2007; and

(3) a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 2007, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days.

(t) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant that is established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and a church if:

(1) the restaurant is located inside a five-story building with over 16,800 square feet of commercial space;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 31,050 square feet;

(3) the area of the restaurant does not exceed 5,800 square feet;

(4) the building has no less than 78 condominium units;

(5) the construction of the building in which the restaurant is located was completed in 2006;

(6) the building has 10 storefront properties, 3 of which are used for the restaurant;

(7) the restaurant will open for business in 2010;

(8) the building is north of the school and separated by an alley; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church and either the alderman of the ward in which the school is located or the principal of the school have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (t).

(u) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises operates as a restaurant and has been in operation since February 2008;

(2) the applicant is the owner of the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(5) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(6) the rear lot of the school and the rear corner of the building that the premises occupy are separated by an alley;

(7) the distance from the southwest corner of the property line of the school and the northeast corner of the building that the premises occupy is at least 16 feet, 5 inches;

(8) the distance from the rear door of the premises to the southwest corner of the property line of the school is at least 93 feet;

(9) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(10) the school's main structure was erected in 1902 and an addition was built to the main structure in 1959; and

(11) the principal of the school and the alderman in whose district the premises are located have expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(v) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the total land area of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is more than 600,000 square feet;

(2) the premises for which the license or renewal is sought has more than 600 parking stalls;

(3) the total area of all buildings on the premises for which the license or renewal is sought exceeds 140,000 square feet;

(4) the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is separated from the property line of the school by a street;

(5) the distance from the school's property line to the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is at least 60 feet;

(6) as of June 14, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-9) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is located in the Illinois Medical District.

(w) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises occupy the first floor and basement of a 2-story building that is 106 years old;

(4) the premises is at least 7,000 square feet and located on a lot that is at least 11,000 square feet;

(5) the premises is located directly west of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(6) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(7) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 130 feet; and

(8) the church has been at its location for at least 40 years.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the church has been operating in its current location since 1973;

(3) the premises has been operating in its current location since 1988;

(4) the church and the premises are owned by the same parish;

(5) the premises is used for cultural and educational purposes;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his support of the issuance of the license;

(8) the premises is a 2-story building of approximately 23,000 square feet; and

(9) the premises houses a ballroom on its ground floor of approximately 5,000 square feet.

(y) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) according to the municipality, the distance between the east property line of the premises and the west property line of the school is 97.8 feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the school has been operating since 1959;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the school are located on the same street;

(7) the street on which the entrances of the premises and the school are located is a major diagonal thoroughfare;

(8) the premises is a single-story building of approximately 2,900 square feet; and

(9) the premises is used for commercial purposes only.

(z) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is a free-standing building that has "drive-through" pharmacy service;

(8) the premises has approximately 14,490 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 799 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs east-west and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is located across the street from a national grocery chain outlet;

(8) the premises has approximately 16,148 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 992 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs north-south and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(4) the premises is across the street from the church;

(5) the street on which the premises and the church are located is a major arterial street that runs east-west;

(6) the church is an elder-led and Bible-based Assyrian church;

(7) the premises and the church are both single-story buildings;

(8) the storefront directly west of the church is being used as a restaurant; and

(9) the distance between the northern-most property line of the premises and the southern-most property line of the church is 65 feet.

(cc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of October 25, 2011, the licensee has 1,767 stores operating nationwide, 87 stores operating in the State, and 10 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 124,000 square feet of space in the basement and first and second floors of a building located across the street from a school;

(6) the school opened in August of 2009 and occupies approximately 67,000 square feet of space; and

(7) the building in which the premises shall be located has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places since April 17, 1970.

(dd) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that was purchased from the municipality at a fair market price;

(2) the premises is constructed on land that was previously used as a parking facility for public safety employees;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(4) the main entrance to the store is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the school;

(5) the premises is to be new construction;

(6) the school is a private school;

(7) the principal of the school has given written approval for the license;

(8) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license;

(9) the grocery store level of the premises is between 60,000 and 70,000 square feet; and

(10) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates 2 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality.

(ee) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that once contained an industrial steel facility;

(2) the premises is located on land that has undergone environmental remediation;

(3) the premises is located within a retail complex containing retail stores where some of the stores sell alcoholic beverages;

(4) the principal activity of any restaurant in the retail complex is the sale of food, and the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the grocery store;

(6) the entrance to any business that sells alcoholic liquor is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(7) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license; and

(8) the principal of the school has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(ff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises is a one and one-half-story building of approximately 10,000 square feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are at least 300 feet apart and no more than 400 feet apart;

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his support for the issuance of the license; and

(7) the principal of the school has expressed, in writing, that there is no objection to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ff).

(gg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the property on which the church is located and the property on which the premises are located are both within a district originally listed on the National Register of Historic Places on February 14, 1979;

(3) the property on which the premises are located contains one or more multi-story buildings that are at least 95 years old and have no more than three stories;

(4) the building in which the church is located is at least 120 years old;

(5) the property on which the church is located is immediately adjacent to and west of the property on which the premises are located;

(6) the western boundary of the property on which the premises are located is no less than 118 feet in length and no more than 122 feet in length;

(7) as of December 31, 2012, both the church property and the property on which the premises are located are within 250 feet of City of Chicago Business-Residential Planned Development Number 38;

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For the purposes of this subsection, "banquet facility" means the part of the building that is located on the floor above a restaurant and caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(hh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a hotel and at an outdoor patio area attached to the hotel that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the hotel;

(2) the hotel is located within the City of Chicago Business Planned Development Number 468; and

(3) the hospital is located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(ii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant and at an outdoor patio area attached to the restaurant that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is not the principal business carried on by the licensee and is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the restaurant has been operated on the street level of a 2-story building located on a corner lot since 2008;

(3) the restaurant is between 3,700 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is no more than 6,200 square feet;

(4) the primary entrance to the restaurant and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(5) the street on which the restaurant and the church are located is a major east-west street;

(6) the restaurant and the church are separated by a one-way northbound street;

(7) the church is located to the west of and no more than 65 feet from the restaurant; and

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing.

(jj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located east of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(4) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 175 feet;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 40 feet;

(6) the licensee has been operating at the premises since 2012;

(7) the church was constructed in 1904;

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (jj).

(kk) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 169,048 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from a tuition-based preschool; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 191,535 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from an elementary school; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(mm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio or sidewalk cafe, or both, attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) as a restaurant, the premises may or may not offer catering as an incidental part of food service;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant is conducted in space owned by a hospital or an entity owned or controlled by, under common control with, or that controls a hospital, and the chief hospital administrator has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(4) the hospital is an adult acute care facility primarily located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(nn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises are a building that was constructed in 1913 and opened on May 24, 1915 as a vaudeville theater, and the premises were converted to a motion picture theater in 1935;

(4) the church was constructed in 1889 with a stone exterior;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(oo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque, church, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the mosque, church, or other place of worship are perpendicular and are on different streets;

(2) the primary entrance to the premises faces West and the primary entrance to the mosque, church, or other place of worship faces South;

(3) the distance between the 2 primary entrances is at least 100 feet;

(4) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established in a location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued;

(5) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established on or around January 1, 2011;

(6) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued on or before January 1, 1985;

(7) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 1985, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days; and

(8) the premises are a single-story, single-use building of at least 3,000 square feet and no more than 3,380 square feet.

(pp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established on premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of at least one church if:

(1) the sale of liquor shall not be the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the premises are at least 2,000 square feet and no more than 10,000 square feet and is located in a single-story building;

(3) the property on which the premises are located is within an area that, as of 2009, was designated as a Renewal Community by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development;

(4) the property on which the premises are located and the properties on which the churches are located are on the same street;

(5) the property on which the premises are located is immediately adjacent to and east of the property on which at least one of the churches is located;

(6) the property on which the premises are located is across the street and southwest of the property on which another church is located;

(7) the principal religious leaders of the churches have indicated their support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For purposes of this subsection (pp), "banquet facility" means the part of the building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(qq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on premises that are located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school are at least 200 feet apart and no greater than 300 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 66 feet apart and no greater than 81 feet apart;

(3) the premises are a single-story, steel-framed commercial building with at least 18,042 square feet, and was constructed in 1925 and 1997;

(4) the owner of the business operated within the premises has been the general manager of a similar supermarket within one mile from the premises, which has had a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor since 2002, and is in good standing with the City of Chicago;

(5) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(6) the alderman of the ward has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the principal of the school has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(rr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a club that leases space to a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a building of approximately 1,750 square feet and is rented by the owners of the grocery store from a family member;

(4) the property line of the premises is approximately 68 feet from the property line of the club;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the club where the school leases space are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the director of the club renting space to the school has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(ss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are located within a 15 unit building with 13 residential apartments and 2 commercial spaces, and the licensee will occupy both commercial spaces;

(2) a restaurant has been operated on the premises since June 2011;

(3) the restaurant currently occupies 1,075 square feet, but will be expanding to include 975 additional square feet;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(5) the premises are located south of the church and on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 93 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(7) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 72 feet;

(8) the building in which the restaurant is located was built in 1910;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ss).

(tt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was previously authorized by a package goods liquor license;

(4) the premises are at least 40,000 square feet with 25 parking spaces in the contiguous surface lot to the north of the store and 93 parking spaces on the roof;

(5) the shortest distance between the lot line of the parking lot of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(6) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 180 feet;

(7) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 257 feet from the main entrance of the premises; and

(8) the applicant is the owner of 10 similar grocery stores within the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 30 years.

(uu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are located in a building that is approximately 68,000 square feet with 157 parking spaces on property that was previously vacant land;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 500 feet from the entrance of the premises, which faces north;

(5) the church and the premises are separated by an alley;

(6) the applicant is the owner of 9 similar grocery stores in the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 40 years; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is primary to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located south of the church and on perpendicular streets and are separated by a driveway;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 15 feet;

(6) the premises are less than 100 feet from the church center, but greater than 100 feet from the area within the building where church services are held;

(7) the premises are 25,830 square feet and sit on a lot that is 0.48 acres;

(8) the premises were once designated as a Korean American Presbyterian Church and were once used as a Masonic Temple;

(9) the premises were built in 1910;

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(11) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (vv).

For the purposes of this subsection (vv), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(ww) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is located within Sub Area III of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended; and

(2) the premises are located within Sub Area I, Sub Area II, or Sub Area IV of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended.

(xx) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of wine or wine-related products is the exclusive business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart and are located on different streets;

(3) the building in which the premises are located and the building in which the church is located are separated by an alley;

(4) the premises consists of less than 2,000 square feet of floor area dedicated to the sale of wine or wine-related products;

(5) the premises are located on the first floor of a 2-story building that is at least 99 years old and has a residential unit on the second floor; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(yy) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 27-story hotel containing 191 guest rooms;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises and is limited to a restaurant located on the first floor of the hotel;

(3) the hotel is adjacent to the church;

(4) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(5) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (yy); and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(zz) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 15-story hotel containing 143 guest rooms;

(2) the premises are approximately 85,691 square feet;

(3) a restaurant is operated on the premises;

(4) the restaurant is located in the first floor lobby of the hotel;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the hotel is located approximately 50 feet from the church and is separated from the church by a public street on the ground level and by air space on the upper level, which is where the public entrances are located;

(7) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (zz); and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aaa) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the grocery store;

(2) the premises are newly constructed on land that was formerly used by the Young Men's Christian Association;

(3) the grocery store is located within a planned development that was approved by the municipality in 2007;

(4) the premises are located in a multi-building, mixed-use complex;

(5) the entrance to the grocery store is located more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(6) the entrance to the grocery store is located across the street from the back of the school building, which is not used for student or public access;

(7) the grocery store executed a binding lease for the property in 2008;

(8) the premises consist of 2 levels and occupy more than 80,000 square feet;

(9) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality; and

(10) the director of the school has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bbb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are located in a single-story building of primarily brick construction containing at least 6 commercial units constructed before 1940;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are less than 4,000 square feet;

(5) the church established its congregation in 1891 and completed construction of the church building in 1990;

(6) the premises are located south of the church;

(7) the premises and church are located on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street; and

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(ccc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) as of March 14, 2007, the premises are located in a City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development No. 1052;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store and comprises no more than 10% of the total in-store sales;

(4) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality;

(5) the premises are new construction when the license is first issued;

(6) the constructed premises are to be no less than 50,000 square feet;

(7) the school is a private church-affiliated school;

(8) the premises and the property containing the church and church-affiliated school are located on perpendicular streets and the school and church are adjacent to one another;

(9) the pastor of the church and school has expressed, in writing, support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ddd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the business has been issued a license from the municipality to allow the business to operate a theater on the premises;

(2) the theater has less than 200 seats;

(3) the premises are approximately 2,700 to 3,100 square feet of space;

(4) the premises are located to the north of the church;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any church within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any school within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(7) the premises are located in a building that is at least 100 years old; and

(8) any church or school located within 100 feet of the premises has indicated its support for the issuance or renewal of the license to the premises in writing.

(eee) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the applicant on the premises;

(3) a family-owned restaurant has operated on the premises since 1957;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(6) the church was established at its current location and the present structure was erected before 1900;

(7) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 75 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(8) the school is affiliated with the church;

(9) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing;

(10) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her lack of an objection to the issuance of the license.

(fff) (yy) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a one-story building containing approximately 10,000 square feet and are rented by the owners of the grocery store;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises occurs in a retail area of the grocery store that is approximately 3,500 square feet;

(5) the grocery store has operated at the location since 1984;

(6) the grocery store is closed on Sundays;

(7) the property on which the premises are located is a corner lot that is bound by 3 streets and an alley, where one street is a one-way street that runs north-south, one street runs east-west, and one street runs northwest-southeast;

(8) the property line of the premises is approximately 16 feet from the property line of the building where the church is located;

(9) the premises are separated from the building containing the church by a public alley;

(10) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(11) representatives of the church have delivered a written statement that the church does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (fff) (yy); and

(12) the alderman of the ward in which the grocery store is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(Source: P.A. 98-274, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-571, eff. 8-27-13; 98-592, eff. 11-15-13; 98-1092, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1158, eff. 1-9-15; 99-46, eff. 7-15-15; 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-477, eff. 8-27-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; revised 11-4-15.)

Section 395. The Grain Code is amended by changing Section 15-10 as follows:

(240 ILCS 40/15-10)

Sec. 15-10. De minimis minimus violations.

(a) If a licensee commits a de minimis minimus violation of this Code, the Director may, in his or her discretion, and without further action, issue a warning letter to the licensee.

(b) For the purposes of this Article, a de minimis minimus violation exists when a licensee:

(1) violates the maximum allowable speculative limits of item (a)(2) of Section 10-10 by 1,000 bushels or less;

(2) has total grain quantity deficiency violations that do not exceed $1,000 as determined by the formula set forth in subsection (c) of Section 15-20; or

(3) has total grain quality deficiency violations that do not exceed $1,000 as determined by the formula set forth in subsection (d) of Section 15-20.

(Source: P.A. 89-287, eff. 1-1-96; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 400. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 5-5e, 5-16.8, 5-30, 10-25, and 10-25.5 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-407)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439) this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, admission documents shall be submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-236, eff. 8-3-15; 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-13-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-407)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis. As used in this Section, the term "breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439) this amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, admission documents shall be submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-236, eff. 8-3-15; 99-407 (see Section 99 of P.A. 99-407 for its effective date); 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-13-15.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5e)

Sec. 5-5e. Adjusted rates of reimbursement.

(a) Rates or payments for services in effect on June 30, 2012 shall be adjusted and services shall be affected as required by any other provision of Public Act 97-689 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. In addition, the Department shall do the following:

(1) Delink the per diem rate paid for supportive living facility services from the per diem rate paid for nursing facility services, effective for services provided on or after May 1, 2011.

(2) Cease payment for bed reserves in nursing facilities and specialized mental health rehabilitation facilities; for purposes of therapeutic home visits for individuals scoring as TBI on the MDS 3.0, beginning June 1, 2015, the Department shall approve payments for bed reserves in nursing facilities and specialized mental health rehabilitation facilities that have at least a 90% occupancy level and at least 80% of their residents are Medicaid eligible. Payment shall be at a daily rate of 75% of an individual's current Medicaid per diem and shall not exceed 10 days in a calendar month.

(2.5) Cease payment for bed reserves for purposes of inpatient hospitalizations to intermediate care facilities for persons with development disabilities, except in the instance of residents who are under 21 years of age.

(3) Cease payment of the $10 per day add-on payment to nursing facilities for certain residents with developmental disabilities.

(b) After the application of subsection (a), notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary and to the extent permitted by federal law, on and after July 1, 2012, the rates of reimbursement for services and other payments provided under this Code shall further be reduced as follows:

(1) Rates or payments for physician services, dental services, or community health center services reimbursed through an encounter rate, and services provided under the Medicaid Rehabilitation Option of the Illinois Title XIX State Plan shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(2) Rates or payments, or the portion thereof, paid to a provider that is operated by a unit of local government or State University that provides the non-federal share of such services shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(3) Rates or payments for hospital services delivered by a hospital defined as a Safety-Net Hospital under Section 5-5e.1 of this Code shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(4) Rates or payments for hospital services delivered by a Critical Access Hospital, which is an Illinois hospital designated as a critical care hospital by the Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F, shall not be further reduced, except as provided in Section 5-5b.1.

(5) Rates or payments for Nursing Facility Services shall only be further adjusted pursuant to Section 5-5.2 of this Code.

(6) Rates or payments for services delivered by long term care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act and developmental training services shall not be further reduced.

(7) Rates or payments for services provided under capitation rates shall be adjusted taking into consideration the rates reduction and covered services required by Public Act 97-689 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(8) For hospitals not previously described in this subsection, the rates or payments for hospital services shall be further reduced by 3.5%, except for payments authorized under Section 5A-12.4 of this Code.

(9) For all other rates or payments for services delivered by providers not specifically referenced in paragraphs (1) through (8), rates or payments shall be further reduced by 2.7%.

(c) Any assessment imposed by this Code shall continue and nothing in this Section shall be construed to cause it to cease.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, subject to federal approval under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, rates or payments for services provided for the purpose of transitioning children from a hospital to home placement or other appropriate setting by a children's community-based health care center authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act shall be $683 per day.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, subject to federal approval under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, rates or payments for home health visits shall be $72.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, subject to federal approval under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, rates or payments for the certified nursing assistant component of the home health agency rate shall be $20.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1166, eff. 6-1-15; 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, and 356z.6 of the Illinois Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30)

Sec. 5-30. Care coordination.

(a) At least 50% of recipients eligible for comprehensive medical benefits in all medical assistance programs or other health benefit programs administered by the Department, including the Children's Health Insurance Program Act and the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, shall be enrolled in a care coordination program by no later than January 1, 2015. For purposes of this Section, "coordinated care" or "care coordination" means delivery systems where recipients will receive their care from providers who participate under contract in integrated delivery systems that are responsible for providing or arranging the majority of care, including primary care physician services, referrals from primary care physicians, diagnostic and treatment services, behavioral health services, in-patient and outpatient hospital services, dental services, and rehabilitation and long-term care services. The Department shall designate or contract for such integrated delivery systems (i) to ensure enrollees have a choice of systems and of primary care providers within such systems; (ii) to ensure that enrollees receive quality care in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner; and (iii) to ensure that coordinated care programs meet the diverse needs of enrollees with developmental, mental health, physical, and age-related disabilities.

(b) Payment for such coordinated care shall be based on arrangements where the State pays for performance related to health care outcomes, the use of evidence-based practices, the use of primary care delivered through comprehensive medical homes, the use of electronic medical records, and the appropriate exchange of health information electronically made either on a capitated basis in which a fixed monthly premium per recipient is paid and full financial risk is assumed for the delivery of services, or through other risk-based payment arrangements.

(c) To qualify for compliance with this Section, the 50% goal shall be achieved by enrolling medical assistance enrollees from each medical assistance enrollment category, including parents, children, seniors, and people with disabilities to the extent that current State Medicaid payment laws would not limit federal matching funds for recipients in care coordination programs. In addition, services must be more comprehensively defined and more risk shall be assumed than in the Department's primary care case management program as of January 25, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1501) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(d) The Department shall report to the General Assembly in a separate part of its annual medical assistance program report, beginning April, 2012 until April, 2016, on the progress and implementation of the care coordination program initiatives established by the provisions of Public Act 96-1501 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. The Department shall include in its April 2011 report a full analysis of federal laws or regulations regarding upper payment limitations to providers and the necessary revisions or adjustments in rate methodologies and payments to providers under this Code that would be necessary to implement coordinated care with full financial risk by a party other than the Department.

(e) Integrated Care Program for individuals with chronic mental health conditions.

(1) The Integrated Care Program shall encompass services administered to recipients of medical assistance under this Article to prevent exacerbations and complications using cost-effective, evidence-based practice guidelines and mental health management strategies.

(2) The Department may utilize and expand upon existing contractual arrangements with integrated care plans under the Integrated Care Program for providing the coordinated care provisions of this Section.

(3) Payment for such coordinated care shall be based on arrangements where the State pays for performance related to mental health outcomes on a capitated basis in which a fixed monthly premium per recipient is paid and full financial risk is assumed for the delivery of services, or through other risk-based payment arrangements such as provider-based care coordination.

(4) The Department shall examine whether chronic mental health management programs and services for recipients with specific chronic mental health conditions do any or all of the following:

(A) Improve the patient's overall mental health in a more expeditious and cost-effective manner.

(B) Lower costs in other aspects of the medical assistance program, such as hospital admissions, emergency room visits, or more frequent and inappropriate psychotropic drug use.

(5) The Department shall work with the facilities and any integrated care plan participating in the program to identify and correct barriers to the successful implementation of this subsection (e) prior to and during the implementation to best facilitate the goals and objectives of this subsection (e).

(f) A hospital that is located in a county of the State in which the Department mandates some or all of the beneficiaries of the Medical Assistance Program residing in the county to enroll in a Care Coordination Program, as set forth in Section 5-30 of this Code, shall not be eligible for any non-claims based payments not mandated by Article V-A of this Code for which it would otherwise be qualified to receive, unless the hospital is a Coordinated Care Participating Hospital no later than 60 days after June 14, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-689) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly or 60 days after the first mandatory enrollment of a beneficiary in a Coordinated Care program. For purposes of this subsection, "Coordinated Care Participating Hospital" means a hospital that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) The hospital has entered into a contract to provide hospital services with one or more MCOs to enrollees of the care coordination program.

(2) The hospital has not been offered a contract by a care coordination plan that the Department has determined to be a good faith offer and that pays at least as much as the Department would pay, on a fee-for-service basis, not including disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments or any other supplemental adjustment or add-on payment to the base fee-for-service rate, except to the extent such adjustments or add-on payments are incorporated into the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

As used in this subsection (f), "MCO" means any entity which contracts with the Department to provide services where payment for medical services is made on a capitated basis.

(g) No later than August 1, 2013, the Department shall issue a purchase of care solicitation for Accountable Care Entities (ACE) to serve any children and parents or caretaker relatives of children eligible for medical assistance under this Article. An ACE may be a single corporate structure or a network of providers organized through contractual relationships with a single corporate entity. The solicitation shall require that:

(1) An ACE operating in Cook County be capable of serving at least 40,000 eligible individuals in that county; an ACE operating in Lake, Kane, DuPage, or Will Counties be capable of serving at least 20,000 eligible individuals in those counties and an ACE operating in other regions of the State be capable of serving at least 10,000 eligible individuals in the region in which it operates. During initial periods of mandatory enrollment, the Department shall require its enrollment services contractor to use a default assignment algorithm that ensures if possible an ACE reaches the minimum enrollment levels set forth in this paragraph.

(2) An ACE must include at a minimum the following types of providers: primary care, specialty care, hospitals, and behavioral healthcare.

(3) An ACE shall have a governance structure that includes the major components of the health care delivery system, including one representative from each of the groups listed in paragraph (2).

(4) An ACE must be an integrated delivery system, including a network able to provide the full range of services needed by Medicaid beneficiaries and system capacity to securely pass clinical information across participating entities and to aggregate and analyze that data in order to coordinate care.

(5) An ACE must be capable of providing both care coordination and complex case management, as necessary, to beneficiaries. To be responsive to the solicitation, a potential ACE must outline its care coordination and complex case management model and plan to reduce the cost of care.

(6) In the first 18 months of operation, unless the ACE selects a shorter period, an ACE shall be paid care coordination fees on a per member per month basis that are projected to be cost neutral to the State during the term of their payment and, subject to federal approval, be eligible to share in additional savings generated by their care coordination.

(7) In months 19 through 36 of operation, unless the ACE selects a shorter period, an ACE shall be paid on a pre-paid capitation basis for all medical assistance covered services, under contract terms similar to Managed Care Organizations (MCO), with the Department sharing the risk through either stop-loss insurance for extremely high cost individuals or corridors of shared risk based on the overall cost of the total enrollment in the ACE. The ACE shall be responsible for claims processing, encounter data submission, utilization control, and quality assurance.

(8) In the fourth and subsequent years of operation, an ACE shall convert to a Managed Care Community Network (MCCN), as defined in this Article, or Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to the Illinois Insurance Code, accepting full-risk capitation payments.

The Department shall allow potential ACE entities 5 months from the date of the posting of the solicitation to submit proposals. After the solicitation is released, in addition to the MCO rate development data available on the Department's website, subject to federal and State confidentiality and privacy laws and regulations, the Department shall provide 2 years of de-identified summary service data on the targeted population, split between children and adults, showing the historical type and volume of services received and the cost of those services to those potential bidders that sign a data use agreement. The Department may add up to 2 non-state government employees with expertise in creating integrated delivery systems to its review team for the purchase of care solicitation described in this subsection. Any such individuals must sign a no-conflict disclosure and confidentiality agreement and agree to act in accordance with all applicable State laws.

During the first 2 years of an ACE's operation, the Department shall provide claims data to the ACE on its enrollees on a periodic basis no less frequently than monthly.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the Department's mandate to enroll 50% of its beneficiaries into care coordination systems by January 1, 2015, using all available care coordination delivery systems, including Care Coordination Entities (CCE), MCCNs, or MCOs, nor be construed to affect the current CCEs, MCCNs, and MCOs selected to serve seniors and persons with disabilities prior to that date.

Nothing in this subsection precludes the Department from considering future proposals for new ACEs or expansion of existing ACEs at the discretion of the Department.

(h) Department contracts with MCOs and other entities reimbursed by risk based capitation shall have a minimum medical loss ratio of 85%, shall require the entity to establish an appeals and grievances process for consumers and providers, and shall require the entity to provide a quality assurance and utilization review program. Entities contracted with the Department to coordinate healthcare regardless of risk shall be measured utilizing the same quality metrics. The quality metrics may be population specific. Any contracted entity serving at least 5,000 seniors or people with disabilities or 15,000 individuals in other populations covered by the Medical Assistance Program that has been receiving full-risk capitation for a year shall be accredited by a national accreditation organization authorized by the Department within 2 years after the date it is eligible to become accredited. The requirements of this subsection shall apply to contracts with MCOs entered into or renewed or extended after June 1, 2013.

(h-5) The Department shall monitor and enforce compliance by MCOs with agreements they have entered into with providers on issues that include, but are not limited to, timeliness of payment, payment rates, and processes for obtaining prior approval. The Department may impose sanctions on MCOs for violating provisions of those agreements that include, but are not limited to, financial penalties, suspension of enrollment of new enrollees, and termination of the MCO's contract with the Department. As used in this subsection (h-5), "MCO" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 5-30.1 of this Code.

(i) Unless otherwise required by federal law, Medicaid Managed Care Entities shall not divulge, directly or indirectly, including by sending a bill or explanation of benefits, information concerning the sensitive health services received by enrollees of the Medicaid Managed Care Entity to any person other than providers and care coordinators caring for the enrollee and employees of the entity in the course of the entity's internal operations. The Medicaid Managed Care Entity may divulge information concerning the sensitive health services if the enrollee who received the sensitive health services requests the information from the Medicaid Managed Care Entity and authorized the sending of a bill or explanation of benefits. Communications including, but not limited to, statements of care received or appointment reminders either directly or indirectly to the enrollee from the health care provider, health care professional, and care coordinators, remain permissible.

For the purposes of this subsection, the term "Medicaid Managed Care Entity" includes Care Coordination Entities, Accountable Care Entities, Managed Care Organizations, and Managed Care Community Networks.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "sensitive health services" means mental health services, substance abuse treatment services, reproductive health services, family planning services, services for sexually transmitted infections and sexually transmitted diseases, and services for sexual assault or domestic abuse. Services include prevention, screening, consultation, examination, treatment, or follow-up.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to relieve a Medicaid Managed Care Entity or the Department of any duty to report incidents of sexually transmitted infections to the Department of Public Health or to the local board of health in accordance with regulations adopted under a statute or ordinance or to report incidents of sexually transmitted infections as necessary to comply with the requirements under Section 5 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or as otherwise required by State or federal law.

The Department shall create policy in order to implement the requirements in this subsection.

(j) (i) Managed Care Entities (MCEs), including MCOs and all other care coordination organizations, shall develop and maintain a written language access policy that sets forth the standards, guidelines, and operational plan to ensure language appropriate services and that is consistent with the standard of meaningful access for populations with limited English proficiency. The language access policy shall describe how the MCEs will provide all of the following required services:

(1) Translation (the written replacement of text from one language into another) of all vital documents and forms as identified by the Department.

(2) Qualified interpreter services (the oral communication of a message from one language into another by a qualified interpreter).

(3) Staff training on the language access policy, including how to identify language needs, access and provide language assistance services, work with interpreters, request translations, and track the use of language assistance services.

(4) Data tracking that identifies the language need.

(5) Notification to participants on the availability of language access services and on how to access such services.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-106, eff. 1-1-16; 99-181, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-26-15.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-25)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-157)

Sec. 10-25. Administrative liens and levies on real property for past-due child support.

(a) Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, the State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of responsible relatives in their real property in the amount of past-due child support owing pursuant to an order for child support entered under Sections 10-10 and 10-11 of this Code, or under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015.

(b) The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by each responsible relative affected, and any final administrative decision rendered by the Illinois Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(c) When enforcing a lien under subsection (a) of this Section, the Illinois Department shall have the authority to execute notices of administrative liens and levies, which shall contain the name and address of the responsible relative, a legal description of the real property to be levied, the fact that a lien is being claimed for past-due child support, and such other information as the Illinois Department may by rule prescribe. The Illinois Department shall record the notice of lien with the recorder or registrar of titles of the county or counties in which the real estate is located.

(d) The State's lien under subsection (a) shall be enforceable upon the recording or filing of a notice of lien with the recorder or registrar of titles of the county or counties in which the real estate is located. The lien shall be prior to any lien thereafter recorded or filed and shall be notice to a subsequent purchaser, assignor, or encumbrancer of the existence and nature of the lien. The lien shall be inferior to the lien of general taxes, special assessment, and special taxes heretofore or hereafter levied by any political subdivision or municipal corporation of the State.

In the event that title to the land to be affected by the notice of lien is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act, the notice shall be filed in the office of the registrar of titles as a memorial or charge upon each folium of the register of titles affected by the notice; but the State shall not have a preference over the rights of any bona fide purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lien holders registered prior to the registration of the notice.

(e) The recorder or registrar of titles of each county shall procure a file labeled "Child Support Lien Notices" and an index book labeled "Child Support Lien Notices". When notice of any lien is presented to the recorder or registrar of titles for filing, the recorder or registrar of titles shall file it in numerical order in the file and shall enter it alphabetically in the index. The entry shall show the name and last known address of the person named in the notice, the serial number of the notice, the date and hour of filing, and the amount of child support due at the time when the lien is filed.

(f) The Illinois Department shall not be required to furnish bond or make a deposit for or pay any costs or fees of any court or officer thereof in any legal proceeding involving the lien.

(g) To protect the lien of the State for past-due child support, the Illinois Department may, from funds that are available for that purpose, pay or provide for the payment of necessary or essential repairs, purchase tax certificates, pay balances due on land contracts, or pay or cause to be satisfied any prior liens on the property to which the lien hereunder applies.

(h) A lien on real property under this Section shall be released pursuant to Section 12-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) The Illinois Department, acting in behalf of the State, may foreclose the lien in a judicial proceeding to the same extent and in the same manner as in the enforcement of other liens. The process, practice, and procedure for the foreclosure shall be the same as provided in the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-157)

Sec. 10-25. Administrative liens and levies on real property for past-due child support and for fines against a payor who wilfully fails to withhold or pay over income pursuant to a properly served income withholding notice or otherwise fails to comply with any duties imposed by the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(a) Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, the State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of responsible relatives in their real property in the amount of past-due child support owing pursuant to an order for child support entered under Sections 10-10 and 10-11 of this Code, or under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015.

(a-5) The State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of a payor, as that term is described in the Income Withholding for Support Act, in the payor's real property in the amount of any fine imposed by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(b) The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by each responsible relative or payor affected, and any final administrative decision rendered by the Illinois Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(c) When enforcing a lien under subsection (a) of this Section, the Illinois Department shall have the authority to execute notices of administrative liens and levies, which shall contain the name and address of the responsible relative or payor, a legal description of the real property to be levied, the fact that a lien is being claimed for past-due child support or for the fines imposed on a payor pursuant to the Income Withholding for Support Act, and such other information as the Illinois Department may by rule prescribe. The Illinois Department shall record the notice of lien with the recorder or registrar of titles of the county or counties in which the real estate is located.

(d) The State's lien under subsection (a) shall be enforceable upon the recording or filing of a notice of lien with the recorder or registrar of titles of the county or counties in which the real estate is located. The lien shall be prior to any lien thereafter recorded or filed and shall be notice to a subsequent purchaser, assignor, or encumbrancer of the existence and nature of the lien. The lien shall be inferior to the lien of general taxes, special assessment, and special taxes heretofore or hereafter levied by any political subdivision or municipal corporation of the State.

In the event that title to the land to be affected by the notice of lien is registered under the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act, the notice shall be filed in the office of the registrar of titles as a memorial or charge upon each folium of the register of titles affected by the notice; but the State shall not have a preference over the rights of any bona fide purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lien holders registered prior to the registration of the notice.

(e) The recorder or registrar of titles of each county shall procure a file labeled "Child Support Lien Notices" and an index book labeled "Child Support Lien Notices". When notice of any lien is presented to the recorder or registrar of titles for filing, the recorder or registrar of titles shall file it in numerical order in the file and shall enter it alphabetically in the index. The entry shall show the name and last known address of the person or payor named in the notice, the serial number of the notice, the date and hour of filing, and the amount of child support or the amount of the fine imposed on the payor due at the time when the lien is filed.

(f) The Illinois Department shall not be required to furnish bond or make a deposit for or pay any costs or fees of any court or officer thereof in any legal proceeding involving the lien.

(g) To protect the lien of the State for past-due child support and for any fine imposed against a payor, the Illinois Department may, from funds that are available for that purpose, pay or provide for the payment of necessary or essential repairs, purchase tax certificates, pay balances due on land contracts, or pay or cause to be satisfied any prior liens on the property to which the lien hereunder applies.

(h) A lien on real property under this Section shall be released pursuant to Section 12-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) The Illinois Department, acting in behalf of the State, may foreclose the lien in a judicial proceeding to the same extent and in the same manner as in the enforcement of other liens. The process, practice, and procedure for the foreclosure shall be the same as provided in the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-157, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-26-15.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-25.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-157)

Sec. 10-25.5. Administrative liens and levies on personal property for past-due child support.

(a) Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, the State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of responsible relatives in their personal property, including any account in a financial institution as defined in Section 10-24, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only in accounts as defined in Section 10-24, in the amount of past-due child support owing pursuant to an order for child support entered under Sections 10-10 and 10-11 of this Code, or under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015.

(b) The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by each responsible relative affected, and any final administrative decision rendered by the Illinois Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(c) When enforcing a lien under subsection (a) of this Section, the Illinois Department shall have the authority to execute notices of administrative liens and levies, which shall contain the name and address of the responsible relative, a description of the property to be levied, the fact that a lien is being claimed for past-due child support, and such other information as the Illinois Department may by rule prescribe. The Illinois Department may serve the notice of lien or levy upon any financial institution where the accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the responsible relative may be held, for encumbrance or surrender of the accounts as defined in Section 10-24 by the financial institution.

(d) The Illinois Department shall enforce its lien against the responsible relative's personal property, other than accounts as defined in Section 10-24 in financial institutions, and levy upon such personal property in the manner provided for enforcement of judgments contained in Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) The Illinois Department shall not be required to furnish bond or make a deposit for or pay any costs or fees of any court or officer thereof in any legal proceeding involving the lien.

(f) To protect the lien of the State for past-due child support, the Illinois Department may, from funds that are available for that purpose, pay or provide for the payment of necessary or essential repairs, purchase tax certificates, or pay or cause to be satisfied any prior liens on the property to which the lien hereunder applies.

(g) A lien on personal property under this Section shall be released in the manner provided under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a lien under this Section on accounts as defined in Section 10-24 shall expire upon the passage of 120 days from the date of issuance of the Notice of Lien or Levy by the Illinois Department. However, the lien shall remain in effect during the pendency of any appeal or protest.

(h) A lien created under this Section is subordinate to any prior lien of the financial institution or any prior lien holder or any prior right of set-off that the financial institution may have against the assets, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only in the accounts as defined in Section 10-24.

(i) A financial institution has no obligation under this Section to hold, encumber, or surrender the assets, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only the accounts as defined in Section 10-24, until the financial institution has been properly served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, or administrative lien and levy requiring that action.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-157)

Sec. 10-25.5. Administrative liens and levies on personal property for past-due child support and for fines against a payor who wilfully fails to withhold or pay over income pursuant to a properly served income withholding notice or otherwise fails to comply with any duties imposed by the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(a) Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, the State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of responsible relatives in their personal property, including any account in a financial institution as defined in Section 10-24, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only in accounts as defined in Section 10-24, in the amount of past-due child support owing pursuant to an order for child support entered under Sections 10-10 and 10-11 of this Code, or under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015.

(a-5) The State shall have a lien on all legal and equitable interests of a payor, as that term is described in the Income Withholding for Support Act, in the payor's personal property in the amount of any fine imposed by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Income Withholding for Support Act.

(b) The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by each responsible relative or payor affected, and any final administrative decision rendered by the Illinois Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(c) When enforcing a lien under subsection (a) of this Section, the Illinois Department shall have the authority to execute notices of administrative liens and levies, which shall contain the name and address of the responsible relative or payor, a description of the property to be levied, the fact that a lien is being claimed for past-due child support, and such other information as the Illinois Department may by rule prescribe. The Illinois Department may serve the notice of lien or levy upon any financial institution where the accounts as defined in Section 10-24 of the responsible relative may be held, for encumbrance or surrender of the accounts as defined in Section 10-24 by the financial institution.

(d) The Illinois Department shall enforce its lien against the responsible relative's or payor's personal property, other than accounts as defined in Section 10-24 in financial institutions, and levy upon such personal property in the manner provided for enforcement of judgments contained in Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) The Illinois Department shall not be required to furnish bond or make a deposit for or pay any costs or fees of any court or officer thereof in any legal proceeding involving the lien.

(f) To protect the lien of the State for past-due child support and for any fine imposed on a payor, the Illinois Department may, from funds that are available for that purpose, pay or provide for the payment of necessary or essential repairs, purchase tax certificates, or pay or cause to be satisfied any prior liens on the property to which the lien hereunder applies.

(g) A lien on personal property under this Section shall be released in the manner provided under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a lien under this Section on accounts as defined in Section 10-24 shall expire upon the passage of 120 days from the date of issuance of the Notice of Lien or Levy by the Illinois Department. However, the lien shall remain in effect during the pendency of any appeal or protest.

(h) A lien created under this Section is subordinate to any prior lien of the financial institution or any prior lien holder or any prior right of set-off that the financial institution may have against the assets, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only in the accounts as defined in Section 10-24.

(i) A financial institution has no obligation under this Section to hold, encumber, or surrender the assets, or in the case of an insurance company or benefit association only the accounts as defined in Section 10-24, until the financial institution has been properly served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, or administrative lien and levy requiring that action.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-157, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-27-15.)

Section 405. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 6608)

Sec. 8. Access to records. All records concerning reports of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect and all records generated as a result of such reports shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed except as specifically authorized by this Act or other applicable law. In accord with established law and Department protocols, procedures, and policies, access to such records, but not access to the identity of the person or persons making a report of alleged abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect as contained in such records, shall be provided, upon request, to the following persons and for the following persons:

(1) Department staff, provider agency staff, other aging network staff, and regional administrative agency staff, including staff of the Chicago Department on Aging while that agency is designated as a regional administrative agency, in the furtherance of their responsibilities under this Act;

(1.5) A representative of the public guardian acting in the course of investigating the appropriateness of guardianship for the eligible adult or while pursuing a petition for guardianship of the eligible adult pursuant to the Probate Act of 1975;

(2) A law enforcement agency investigating known or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. Where a provider agency has reason to believe that the death of an eligible adult may be the result of abuse or neglect, including any reports made after death, the agency shall immediately provide the appropriate law enforcement agency with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(2.5) A law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district having proper jurisdiction pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district under which the provider agency may furnish to the law enforcement agency, fire department agency, or fire protection district a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(3) A physician who has before him or her or who is involved in the treatment of an eligible adult whom he or she reasonably suspects may be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected or who has been referred to the Adult Protective Services Program;

(4) An eligible adult reported to be abused, neglected, financially exploited, or self-neglected, or such adult's authorized guardian or agent, unless such guardian or agent is the abuser or the alleged abuser;

(4.5) An executor or administrator of the estate of an eligible adult who is deceased;

(5) In cases regarding abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, a court or a guardian ad litem, upon its or his or her finding that access to such records may be necessary for the determination of an issue before the court. However, such access shall be limited to an in camera inspection of the records, unless the court determines that disclosure of the information contained therein is necessary for the resolution of an issue then pending before it;

(5.5) In cases regarding self-neglect, a guardian ad litem;

(6) A grand jury, upon its determination that access to such records is necessary in the conduct of its official business;

(7) Any person authorized by the Director, in writing, for audit or bona fide research purposes;

(8) A coroner or medical examiner who has reason to believe that an eligible adult has died as the result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect. The provider agency shall immediately provide the coroner or medical examiner with all records pertaining to the eligible adult;

(8.5) A coroner or medical examiner having proper jurisdiction, pursuant to a written agreement between a provider agency and the coroner or medical examiner, under which the provider agency may furnish to the office of the coroner or medical examiner a list of all eligible adults who may be at imminent risk of death as a result of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect;

(9) Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff and members of the Illinois Medical Disciplinary Board or the Social Work Examining and Disciplinary Board in the course of investigating alleged violations of the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act by provider agency staff or other licensing bodies at the discretion of the Director of the Department on Aging;

(9-a) Department of Healthcare and Family Services staff and provider agency staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(9-b) Department of Human Services staff and provider agency staff when that Department is funding services to the eligible adult or is providing reimbursement for services provided by the abuser or alleged abuser, including access to the identity of the eligible adult;

(10) Hearing officers in the course of conducting an administrative hearing under this Act; parties to such hearing shall be entitled to discovery as established by rule;

(11) A caregiver who challenges placement on the Registry shall be given the statement of allegations in the abuse report and the substantiation decision in the final investigative report; and

(12) The Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act shall have access, through the Department, to records, including the findings, pertaining to a completed or closed investigation of a report of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-287, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-26-15.)

Section 410. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 7.8 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/7.8)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-350)

Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a subject of the present report or other pertinent information. In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to be established by Department regulation, any person authorized to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided the information requested in accordance with this Act. However, no information shall be released unless it prominently states the report is "indicated", and only information from "indicated" reports shall be released, except that information concerning pending reports may be released pursuant to Sections 7.14 and 7.22 of this Act to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3) and (11) of Section 11.1. In addition, State's Attorneys are authorized to receive unfounded reports (i) for prosecution purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or (ii) for the purposes of screening and prosecuting a petition filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging a subsequent allegation of abuse or neglect relating to the same child, a sibling of the child, or the same perpetrator; the parties to the proceedings filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 are entitled to receive copies of previously unfounded reports regarding the same child, a sibling of the child, or the same perpetrator for purposes of hearings under Sections 2-10 and 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and attorneys and guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall receive the reports set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act. The names and other identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving information from the central register shall be entered in the register record.

(Source: P.A. 98-807, eff. 8-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-349, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-350)

Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a subject of the present report or other pertinent information. In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to be established by Department regulation, any person authorized to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided the information requested in accordance with this Act. However, no information shall be released unless it prominently states the report is "indicated", and only information from "indicated" reports shall be released, except that information concerning pending reports may be released pursuant to Sections 7.14 and 7.22 of this Act to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3) and (11) of Section 11.1. In addition, State's Attorneys are authorized to receive unfounded reports (i) for prosecution purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or (ii) for the purposes of screening and prosecuting a petition filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging a subsequent allegation of abuse or neglect relating to the same child, a sibling of the child, or the same perpetrator; the parties to the proceedings filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 are entitled to receive copies of previously unfounded reports regarding the same child, a sibling of the child, or the same perpetrator for purposes of hearings under Sections 2-10 and 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and attorneys and guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall receive the reports set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act. The Department is authorized and required to release information from unfounded reports, upon request by a person who has access to the unfounded report as provided in this Act, as necessary in its determination to protect children and adult residents who are in child care facilities licensed by the Department under the Child Care Act of 1969. The names and other identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving information from the central register shall be entered in the register record.

(Source: P.A. 98-807, eff. 8-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-349, eff. 1-1-16; 99-350, eff. 6-1-16; revised 10-27-15.)

Section 415. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 6-103.2 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.2)

Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. If a person 14 years old or older is determined to be a person with a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human Services within 7 days of making the determination that the person has a developmental disability. The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. Information disclosed under this Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report.

The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the determination and his or her employer may not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

For purposes of this Section, "developmental disability" "developmentally disabled" means a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by intellectually disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Determined to be a person with a developmental disability developmentally disabled by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner" means in the professional opinion of the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, a person is diagnosed, assessed, or evaluated as having a developmental disability to be developmentally disabled.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 11-13-15.)

Section 420. The Community Services Act is amended by changing the title of the Act as follows:

(405 ILCS 30/Act title)

An Act to facilitate the establishment of community services for persons who are mentally ill,, alcohol dependent, or addicted or who are persons with developmental disabilities.

Section 425. The Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2-3 and 5-1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 80/2-3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-3)

Sec. 2-3. As used in this Article, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

(c) "Home-based services" means services provided to an adult with a mental disability who lives in his or her own home. These services include but are not limited to:

(1) home health services;

(2) case management;

(3) crisis management;

(4) training and assistance in self-care;

(5) personal care services;

(6) habilitation and rehabilitation services;

(7) employment-related services;

(8) respite care; and

(9) other skill training that enables a person to become self-supporting.

(d) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of an adult with a mental disability.

(e) "Adult with a mental disability" means a person over the age of 18 years who lives in his or her own home; who needs home-based services, but does not require 24-hour-a-day supervision; and who has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual disability, or severe and multiple impairments.

(f) In one's "own home" means that an adult with a mental disability lives alone; or that an adult with a mental disability is in full-time residence with his or her parents, legal guardian, or other relatives; or that an adult with a mental disability is in full-time residence in a setting not subject to licensure under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended, with 3 or fewer other adults unrelated to the adult with a mental disability who do not provide home-based services to the adult with a mental disability.

(g) "Parent" means the biological or adoptive parent of an adult with a mental disability, or a person licensed as a foster parent under the laws of this State who acts as a foster parent to an adult with a mental disability.

(h) "Relative" means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.

(i) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:

(1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

(2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and imaginative activity; repertoire of activities and interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(j) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A primary diagnosis of one of the major mental disorders in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders listed below:

(A) Schizophrenia disorder.

(B) Delusional disorder.

(C) Schizo-affective disorder.

(D) Bipolar affective disorder.

(E) Atypical psychosis.

(F) Major depression, recurrent.

(2) The individual's mental illness must substantially impair his or her functioning in at least 2 of the following areas:

(A) Self-maintenance.

(B) Social functioning.

(C) Activities of community living.

(D) Work skills.

(3) Disability must be present or expected to be present for at least one year.

A determination of severe mental illness shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(k) "Severe or profound intellectual disability" means a manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(2) A severe or profound level of disturbed adaptive behavior. This must be measured by a standardized adaptive behavior scale or informal appraisal by the professional in keeping with illustrations in Classification in Mental Retardation, 1983.

(3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.

A determination of a severe or profound intellectual disability shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or certified school psychologist or a psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.

(l) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

(1) The evaluation determines the presence of a developmental disability which is expected to continue indefinitely, constitutes a substantial disability and is attributable to any of the following:

(A) Intellectual disability, which is defined as general intellectual functioning that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean. Assessment of the individual's intellectual functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intellectual functioning.

(B) Cerebral palsy.

(C) Epilepsy.

(D) Autism.

(E) Any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities.

(2) The evaluation determines multiple disabilities in physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning which constitute a severe or profound impairment attributable to one or more of the following:

(A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs the individual's motor performance that may be due to:

(i) Neurological, psychological or physical involvement resulting in a variety of disabling conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or ataxia,

(ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as congenital heart defect,

(iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or confined to bed and receiving assistance in transferring, or

(iv) The need for regular medical or nursing supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.

Assessment of physical functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due to hearing or visual impairment limiting the individual's movement and creating dependence in completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory functioning must be based on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is destructive to property by deliberately breaking, destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit social integration. Assessment of behavioral functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or informal appraisal by a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

(D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(3) The evaluation determines that development is substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive, affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:

(A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment of cognitive functioning must be measured by a standardized instrument for general intelligence.

(B) Affective behavior, which involves over and under responding to stimuli in the environment and may be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that seriously limit integration into society. Affective behavior must be based on clinical assessment using the appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of measurement required by the professional.

(C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so that development in self-care, social interaction, communication or physical activity will be greatly delayed or restricted.

(4) A determination that the disability originated before the age of 18 years.

A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist.

If the examiner is a licensed clinical psychologist, ancillary evaluation of physical impairment, cerebral palsy or epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.

Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of clinical competency.

The only exception to the above is in the case of a person with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may serve as the examiner.

(m) "Twenty-four-hour-a-day supervision" means 24-hour-a-day care by a trained mental health or developmental disability professional on an ongoing basis.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-15-15.)

(405 ILCS 80/5-1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1805-1)

Sec. 5-1. As the mental health and developmental disabilities or intellectual disabilities authority for the State of Illinois, the Department of Human Services shall have the authority to license, certify and prescribe standards governing the programs and services provided under this Act, as well as all other agencies or programs which provide home-based or community-based services to persons with mental disabilities, except those services, programs or agencies established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 430. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)

Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors.

(a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a physician assistant, the following:

(1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital and made available to law enforcement officials upon the request of the sexual assault survivor;

(2) appropriate oral and written information concerning the possibility of infection, sexually transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual assault;

(3) appropriate oral and written information concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and possible contraindications of such medication available for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease resulting from sexual assault;

(4) an amount of medication for treatment at the hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;

(5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the sexual assault;

(6) written and oral instructions indicating the need for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease;

(7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate counseling; and

(8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with written and oral instructions indicating the importance of timely follow-up healthcare.

(b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian, surrogate, or agent.

(b-5) Every treating hospital providing hospital emergency and forensic services to sexual assault survivors shall issue a voucher to any sexual assault survivor who is eligible to receive one. The hospital shall make a copy of the voucher and place it in the medical record of the sexual assault survivor. The hospital shall provide a copy of the voucher to the sexual assault survivor after discharge upon request.

(c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital emergency department.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 435. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 45. Addition of debilitating medical conditions. Any citizen may petition the Department of Public Health to add debilitating conditions or treatments to the list of debilitating medical conditions listed in subsection (h) of Section 10. The Department of Public Health shall consider petitions in the manner required by Department rule, including public notice and hearing. The Department shall approve or deny a petition within 180 days of its submission, and, upon approval, shall proceed to add that condition by rule in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The approval or denial of any petition is a final decision of the Department, subject to judicial review. Jurisdiction and venue are vested in the Circuit Court.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 440. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. Definitions. When used in this Act:

(a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

(c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(e) "De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

(f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health or its designated agents.

(g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse, (iv) an advanced practice nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges, (v) a licensed dentist, (vi) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vii) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

(m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.

(p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related information" does not include information that has been de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.

(q) "Informed consent" means:

(1) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-in testing, a process by which an individual or their legal representative receives pre-test information, has an opportunity to ask questions, and consents verbally or in writing to the test without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion; or

(2) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-out testing, the individual or their legal representative has been notified verbally or in writing that the test is planned, has received pre-test information, has been given the opportunity to ask questions and the opportunity to decline testing, and has not declined testing; where such notice is provided, consent for opt-out HIV testing may be incorporated into the patient's general consent for medical care on the same basis as are other screening or diagnostic tests; a separate consent for opt-out HIV testing is not required.

In addition, where the person providing informed consent is a participant in an HIE, informed consent requires a fair explanation that the results of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right under Section 9.6 of this Act.

A health care provider, health care professional, or health facility undertaking an informed consent process for HIV testing under this subsection may combine a form used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other medical test or procedure, provided that the forms make it clear that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing, and clearly explain how the subject may decline HIV testing. Health facility clerical staff or other staff responsible for the consent form for general medical care may obtain consent for HIV testing through a general consent form.

(r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

(s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

(s-1) "Opt-in testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented by offering the test and the patient accepts or declines testing.

(s-3) "Opt-out testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented such that a patient is notified that HIV testing may occur unless the patient declines.

(t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

(v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

(w-5) "Pre-test information" means:

(1) a reasonable explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a reasonable explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the availability of a qualified person to answer questions, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, or by video, electronic, or other means and may be provided as designated by the supervising health care professional or the health facility.

For the purposes of this definition, a qualified person to answer questions is a health care professional or, when acting under the supervision of a health care professional, a registered nurse, medical assistant, or other person determined to be sufficiently knowledgeable about HIV testing, its purpose, potential uses, limitations, the meaning of the test results, and the testing procedures in the professional judgment of a supervising health care professional or as designated by a health care facility.

(x) "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.

(aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-54, eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 445. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)

Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.

(a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department determines that the subject of the report may present or may have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection (c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this Act.

(b) If the Department determines that there is or may have been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified, they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.

(c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV, provided the Department has determined that there is or may have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to health care providers. The Department shall have access to the subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the Department.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means any physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing health care services of any kind.

(d) All information and records held by the Department and local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. Such information and records shall not be released or made public by the Department or local health authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(1) When made with the written consent of all persons to whom this information pertains;

(2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) When made by the Department for the purpose of seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any information or report concerning the existence of any disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 450. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 3.3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 625/3.3)

Sec. 3.3. Farmers' markets.

(a) The General Assembly finds as follows:

(1) Farmers' markets, as defined in subsection (b) of this Section, provide not only a valuable marketplace for farmers and food artisans to sell their products directly to consumers, but also a place for consumers to access fresh fruits, vegetables, and other agricultural products.

(2) Farmers' markets serve as a stimulator for local economies and for thousands of new businesses every year, allowing farmers to sell directly to consumers and capture the full retail value of their products. They have become important community institutions and have figured in the revitalization of downtown districts and rural communities.

(3) Since 1999, the number of farmers' markets has tripled and new ones are being established every year. There is a lack of consistent regulation from one county to the next, resulting in confusion and discrepancies between counties regarding how products may be sold.

(4) In 1999, the Department of Public Health published Technical Information Bulletin/Food #30 in order to outline the food handling and sanitation guidelines required for farmers' markets, producer markets, and other outdoor food sales events.

(5) While this bulletin was revised in 2010, there continues to be inconsistencies, confusion, and lack of awareness by consumers, farmers, markets, and local health authorities of required guidelines affecting farmers' markets from county to county.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Farmers' market" means a common facility or area where the primary purpose is for farmers to gather to sell a variety of fresh fruits and vegetables and other locally produced farm and food products directly to consumers.

(c) In order to facilitate the orderly and uniform statewide implementation of the standards established in the Department of Public Health's administrative rules for this Section, the Farmers' Market Task Force shall be formed by the Director to assist the Department in implementing statewide administrative regulations for farmers' markets.

(d) This Section does not intend and shall not be construed to limit the power of counties, municipalities, and other local government units to regulate farmers' markets for the protection of the public health, safety, morals, and welfare, including, but not limited to, licensing requirements and time, place, and manner restrictions. This Section provides for a statewide scheme for the orderly and consistent interpretation of the Department of Public Health administrative rules pertaining to the safety of food and food products sold at farmers' markets.

(e) The Farmers' Market Task Force shall consist of at least 24 members appointed within 60 days after August 16, 2011 (the effective date of this Section). Task Force members shall consist of:

(1) one person appointed by the President of the Senate;

(2) one person appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(3) one person appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(4) one person appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(5) the Director of Public Health or his or her designee;

(6) the Director of Agriculture or his or her designee;

(7) a representative of a general agricultural production association appointed by the Department of Agriculture;

(8) three representatives of local county public health departments appointed by the Director and selected from 3 different counties representing each of the northern, central, and southern portions of this State;

(9) four members of the general public who are engaged in local farmers' markets appointed by the Director of Agriculture;

(10) a representative of an association representing public health administrators appointed by the Director;

(11) a representative of an organization of public health departments that serve the City of Chicago and the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Kendall, Lake, McHenry, Will, and Winnebago appointed by the Director;

(12) a representative of a general public health association appointed by the Director;

(13) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity or his or her designee;

(14) the Lieutenant Governor or his or her designee; and

(15) five farmers who sell their farm products at farmers' markets appointed by the Lieutenant Governor or his or her designee.

Task Force members' terms shall be for a period of 2 years, with ongoing appointments made according to the provisions of this Section.

(f) The Task Force shall be convened by the Director or his or her designee. Members shall elect a Task Force Chair and Co-Chair.

(g) Meetings may be held via conference call, in person, or both. Three members of the Task Force may call a meeting as long as a 5-working-day notification is sent via mail, e-mail, or telephone call to each member of the Task Force.

(h) Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(i) The Task Force shall undertake a comprehensive and thorough review of the current Statutes and administrative rules that define which products and practices are permitted and which products and practices are not permitted at farmers' markets and to assist the Department in developing statewide administrative regulations for farmers' markets.

(j) The Task Force shall advise the Department regarding the content of any administrative rules adopted under this Section and Sections 3.4, 3.5, and 4 of this Act Section prior to adoption of the rules. Any administrative rules, except emergency rules adopted pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, adopted under this Section without obtaining the advice of the Task Force are null and void. If the Department fails to follow the advice of the Task Force, the Department shall, prior to adopting the rules, transmit a written explanation to the Task Force. If the Task Force, having been asked for its advice, fails to advise the Department within 90 days after receiving the rules for review, the rules shall be considered to have been approved by the Task Force.

(k) The Department of Public Health shall provide staffing support to the Task Force and shall help to prepare, print, and distribute all reports deemed necessary by the Task Force.

(l) The Task Force may request assistance from any entity necessary or useful for the performance of its duties. The Task Force shall issue a report annually to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House.

(m) The following provisions shall apply concerning statewide farmers' market food safety guidelines:

(1) The Director, in accordance with this Section, shall adopt administrative rules (as provided by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act) for foods found at farmers' markets.

(2) The rules and regulations described in this Section shall be consistently enforced by local health authorities throughout the State.

(2.5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law except as provided in this Section, local public health departments and all other units of local government are prohibited from creating sanitation guidelines, rules, or regulations for farmers' markets that are more stringent than those farmers' market sanitation regulations contained in the administrative rules adopted by the Department for the purposes of implementing this Section and Sections 3.4, 3.5, and 4 of this Act. Except as provided for in Sections 3.4 and 4 of this Act, this Section does not intend and shall not be construed to limit the power of local health departments and other government units from requiring licensing and permits for the sale of commercial food products, processed food products, prepared foods, and potentially hazardous foods at farmers' markets or conducting related inspections and enforcement activities, so long as those permits and licenses do not include unreasonable fees or sanitation provisions and rules that are more stringent than those laid out in the administrative rules adopted by the Department for the purposes of implementing this Section and Sections 3.4, 3.5, and 4 of this Act.

(3) In the case of alleged non-compliance with the provisions described in this Section, local health departments shall issue written notices to vendors and market managers of any noncompliance issues.

(4) Produce and food products coming within the scope of the provisions of this Section shall include, but not be limited to, raw agricultural products, including fresh fruits and vegetables; popcorn, grains, seeds, beans, and nuts that are whole, unprocessed, unpackaged, and unsprouted; fresh herb springs and dried herbs in bunches; baked goods sold at farmers' markets; cut fruits and vegetables; milk and cheese products; ice cream; syrups; wild and cultivated mushrooms; apple cider and other fruit and vegetable juices; herb vinegar; garlic-in-oil; flavored oils; pickles, relishes, salsas, and other canned or jarred items; shell eggs; meat and poultry; fish; ready-to-eat foods; commercially produced prepackaged food products; and any additional items specified in the administrative rules adopted by the Department to implement Section 3.3 of this Act.

(n) Local health department regulatory guidelines may be applied to foods not often found at farmers' markets, all other food products not regulated by the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Public Health, as well as live animals to be sold at farmers' markets.

(o) The Task Force shall issue annual reports to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House with recommendations for the development of administrative rules as specified. The first report shall be issued no later than December 31, 2012.

(p) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Agriculture, in conjunction with the Task Force, shall adopt administrative rules necessary to implement, interpret, and make specific the provisions of this Section, including, but not limited to, rules concerning labels, sanitation, and food product safety according to the realms of their jurisdiction in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section.

(q) The Department and the Task Force shall work together to create a food sampling training and license program as specified in Section 3.4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-660, eff. 6-23-14; 99-9, eff. 7-10-15; 99-191, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-30-15.)

Section 455. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 3.330, 22.55, and 39 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)

Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.

(a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.

The following are not pollution control facilities:

(1) (blank);

(2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part 761.42;

(3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such wastes are transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;

(4) sites or facilities at which the State is performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section 22.2 or 55.3;

(5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris resulting from road construction activities conducted by a unit of government or construction activities due to the construction and installation of underground pipes, lines, conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility company which are conducted by a public utility;

(6) sites or facilities used by any person to specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;

(7) regional facilities as defined in the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;

(8) the portion of a site or facility where coal combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;

(9) the portion of a site or facility used for the collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined in Title XIV;

(10) the portion of a site or facility used for treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and any portion of that site or facility used for storage of petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3) are exempt under this subdivision (10);

(11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is generated by households or commercial establishments, and the site or facility is a recycling center or a business where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;

(11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739 to produce products for sale to off-site petroleum facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are: (i) located within a home rule unit of local government with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and that home rule unit of local government has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site or facility and provided funding for the site or facility; and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements;

(12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only waste generated on that site or facility when used in connection with response actions pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;

(13) the portion of a site or facility that accepts exclusively general construction or demolition debris and is operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act;

(14) the portion of a site or facility, located within a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning requirements, used to accept, separate, and process uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated, are at the site or facility no longer than one year after their acceptance, and are returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products;

(15) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station;

(16) a site or facility that temporarily holds in transit for 10 days or less, non-putrescible solid waste in original containers, no larger in capacity than 500 gallons, provided that such waste is further transferred to a recycling, disposal, treatment, or storage facility on a non-contiguous site and provided such site or facility complies with the applicable 10-day transfer requirements of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 and United States Department of Transportation hazardous material requirements. For purposes of this Section only, "non-putrescible solid waste" means waste other than municipal garbage that does not rot or become putrid, including, but not limited to, paints, solvent, filters, and absorbents;

(17) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population greater than 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval, under Section 39.2 of this Act, for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for wood combustion facilities for energy recovery that accept and burn only wood material, as included in a fuel specification approved by the Agency;

(18) a transfer station used exclusively for landscape waste, including a transfer station where landscape waste is ground to reduce its volume, where the landscape waste is held no longer than 24 hours from the time it was received;

(19) the portion of a site or facility that (i) is used for the composting of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste, including, but not limited to, corrugated paper or cardboard, and (ii) meets all of the following requirements:

(A) There must not be more than a total of 30,000 cubic yards of livestock waste in raw form or in the process of being composted at the site or facility at any one time.

(B) All food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must, by the end of each operating day, be processed and placed into an enclosed vessel in which air flow and temperature are controlled, or all of the following additional requirements must be met:

(i) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must include a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well.

(ii) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or floodproofed.

(iii) Except in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants, the portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the nearest residence, other than a residence located on the same property as the site or facility.

(iv) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the property line of all of the following areas:

(I) Facilities that primarily serve to house or treat people that are immunocompromised or immunosuppressed, such as cancer or AIDS patients; people with asthma, cystic fibrosis, or bioaerosol allergies; or children under the age of one year.

(II) Primary and secondary schools and adjacent areas that the schools use for recreation.

(III) Any facility for child care licensed under Section 3 of the Child Care Act of 1969; preschools; and adjacent areas that the facilities or preschools use for recreation.

(v) By the end of each operating day, all food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must be (i) processed into windrows or other piles and (ii) covered in a manner that prevents scavenging by birds and animals and that prevents other nuisances.

(C) Food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, paper waste, and compost must not be placed within 5 feet of the water table.

(D) The site or facility must meet all of the requirements of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.).

(E) The site or facility must not (i) restrict the flow of a 100-year flood, (ii) result in washout of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste from a 100-year flood, or (iii) reduce the temporary water storage capacity of the 100-year floodplain, unless measures are undertaken to provide alternative storage capacity, such as by providing lagoons, holding tanks, or drainage around structures at the facility.

(F) The site or facility must not be located in any area where it may pose a threat of harm or destruction to the features for which:

(i) an irreplaceable historic or archaeological site has been listed under the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470 et seq.) or the Illinois Historic Preservation Act;

(ii) a natural landmark has been designated by the National Park Service or the Illinois State Historic Preservation Office; or

(iii) a natural area has been designated as a Dedicated Illinois Nature Preserve under the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.

(G) The site or facility must not be located in an area where it may jeopardize the continued existence of any designated endangered species, result in the destruction or adverse modification of the critical habitat for such species, or cause or contribute to the taking of any endangered or threatened species of plant, fish, or wildlife listed under the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.) or the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act;

(20) the portion of a site or facility that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of no less than 120,000 and no more than 135,000, according to the 2000 federal census, and that meets all of the following requirements:

(i) the portion of the site or facility is used exclusively to perform testing of a thermochemical conversion technology using only woody biomass, collected as landscape waste within the boundaries of the home rule unit, as the hydrocarbon feedstock for the production of synthetic gas in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act;

(ii) the portion of the site or facility is in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements; and

(iii) a complete application for a demonstration permit at the portion of the site or facility has been submitted to the Agency in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act within one year after July 27, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1314);

(21) the portion of a site or facility used to perform limited testing of a gasification conversion technology in accordance with Section 39.8 of this Act and for which a complete permit application has been submitted to the Agency prior to one year from April 9, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-887);

(22) the portion of a site or facility that is used to incinerate only pharmaceuticals from residential sources that are collected and transported by law enforcement agencies under Section 17.9A of this Act;

(23) the portion of a site or facility:

(A) that is used exclusively for the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap held at the site or facility for no longer than 24 hours after their receipt;

(B) that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of either (i) not less than 100,000 and not more than 115,000 according to the 2010 federal census or (ii) not less than 5,000 and not more than 10,000 according to the 2010 federal census or that is located in the unincorporated area of a county having a population of not less than 700,000 and not more than 705,000 according to the 2010 federal census;

(C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to January 1, 2002, for the transfer of landscape waste if located in a home rule unit or that is permitted prior to January 1, 2008 if located in an unincorporated area of a county; and

(D) for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency to modify an existing permit for the transfer of landscape waste to also include, on a demonstration basis not to exceed 24 months each time a permit is issued, the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap or for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency within 6 months after January 1, 2016; and

(24) the portion of a municipal solid waste landfill unit:

(A) that is located in a county having a population of not less than 55,000 and not more than 60,000 according to the 2010 federal census;

(B) that is owned by that county;

(C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-12) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly; and

(D) for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency within 6 months after July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-12) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly for the disposal of non-hazardous special waste.

(b) A new pollution control facility is:

(1) a pollution control facility initially permitted for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or

(2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a currently permitted pollution control facility; or

(3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for the first time, any special or hazardous waste.

(Source: P.A. 98-146, eff. 1-1-14; 98-239, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1130, eff. 1-1-15; 99-12, eff. 7-10-15; 99-440, eff. 8-21-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.55)

Sec. 22.55. Household Waste Drop-off Points.

(a) Findings; Purpose and Intent.

(1) The General Assembly finds that protection of human health and the environment can be enhanced if certain commonly generated household wastes are managed separately from the general household waste stream.

(2) The purpose of this Section is to provide, to the extent allowed under federal law, a method for managing certain types of household waste separately from the general household waste stream.

(b) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Compostable waste" means household waste that is source-separated food scrap, household waste that is source-separated landscape waste, or a mixture of both.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Household waste" means waste generated from a single residence or multiple residences.

"Household waste drop-off point" means the portion of a site or facility used solely for the receipt and temporary storage of household waste.

"One-day compostable waste collection event" means a household waste drop-off point approved by a county or municipality under subsection (d-5) of this Section.

"One-day household waste collection event" means a household waste drop-off point approved by the Agency under subsection (d) of this Section.

"Permanent compostable waste collection point" means a household waste drop-off point approved by a county or municipality under subsection (d-6) of this Section.

"Personal care product" means an item other than a pharmaceutical product that is consumed or applied by an individual for personal health, hygiene, or cosmetic reasons. Personal care products include, but are not limited to, items used in bathing, dressing, or grooming.

"Pharmaceutical product" means medicine or a product containing medicine. A pharmaceutical product may be sold by prescription or over the counter. "Pharmaceutical product" does not include medicine that contains a radioactive component or a product that contains a radioactive component.

"Recycling coordinator" means the person designated by each county waste management plan to administer the county recycling program, as set forth in the Solid Waste Management Act.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in Agency rules, the following requirements apply to each household waste drop-off point, other than a one-day household waste collection event, one-day compostable waste collection event, or permanent compostable waste collection point:

(1) A household waste drop-off point must not accept waste other than the following types of household waste: pharmaceutical products, personal care products, batteries other than lead-acid batteries, paints, automotive fluids, compact fluorescent lightbulbs, mercury thermometers, and mercury thermostats. A household waste drop-off point may accept controlled substances in accordance with federal law.

(2) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2) of this Section, household waste drop-off points must be located at a site or facility where the types of products accepted at the household waste drop-off point are lawfully sold, distributed, or dispensed. For example, household waste drop-off points that accept prescription pharmaceutical products must be located at a site or facility where prescription pharmaceutical products are sold, distributed, or dispensed.

(A) Subdivision (c)(2) of this Section does not apply to household waste drop-off points operated by a government or school entity, or by an association or other organization of government or school entities.

(B) Household waste drop-off points that accept mercury thermometers can be located at any site or facility where non-mercury thermometers are sold, distributed, or dispensed.

(C) Household waste drop-off points that accept mercury thermostats can be located at any site or facility where non-mercury thermostats are sold, distributed, or dispensed.

(3) The location of acceptance for each type of waste accepted at the household waste drop-off point must be clearly identified. Locations where pharmaceutical products are accepted must also include a copy of the sign required under subsection (j) of this Section.

(4) Household waste must be accepted only from private individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons, including, but not limited to, owners and operators of rented or leased residences where the household waste was generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, industrial, agricultural, and government operations or entities.

(5) If more than one type of household waste is accepted, each type of household waste must be managed separately prior to its packaging for off-site transfer.

(6) Household waste must not be stored for longer than 90 days after its receipt, except as otherwise approved by the Agency in writing.

(7) Household waste must be managed in a manner that protects against releases of the waste, prevents nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the environment. Household waste must also be properly secured to prevent unauthorized public access to the waste, including, but not limited to, preventing access to the waste during the non-business hours of the site or facility on which the household waste drop-off point is located. Containers in which pharmaceutical products are collected must be clearly marked "No Controlled Substances", unless the household waste drop-off point accepts controlled substances in accordance with federal law.

(8) Management of the household waste must be limited to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii) temporary storage of the waste prior to transfer, and (iii) off-site transfer of the waste and packaging for off-site transfer.

(9) Off-site transfer of the household waste must comply with federal and State laws and regulations.

(d) One-day household waste collection events. To further aid in the collection of certain household wastes, the Agency may approve the operation of one-day household waste collection events. The Agency shall not approve a one-day household waste collection event at the same site or facility for more than one day each calendar quarter. Requests for approval must be submitted on forms prescribed by the Agency. The Agency must issue its approval in writing, and it may impose conditions as necessary to protect human health and the environment and to otherwise accomplish the purposes of this Act. One-day household waste collection events must be operated in accordance with the Agency's approval, including all conditions contained in the approval. The following requirements apply to all one-day household waste collection events, in addition to the conditions contained in the Agency's approval:

(1) Waste accepted at the event must be limited to household waste and must not include garbage, landscape waste, or other waste excluded by the Agency in the Agency's approval or any conditions contained in the approval. A one-day household waste collection event may accept controlled substances in accordance with federal law.

(2) Household waste must be accepted only from private individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons, including, but not limited to, owners and operators of rented or leased residences where the household waste was generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, industrial, agricultural, and government operations or entities.

(3) Household waste must be managed in a manner that protects against releases of the waste, prevents nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the environment. Household waste must also be properly secured to prevent public access to the waste, including, but not limited to, preventing access to the waste during the event's non-business hours.

(4) Management of the household waste must be limited to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii) temporary storage of the waste before transfer, and (iii) off-site transfer of the waste or packaging for off-site transfer.

(5) Except as otherwise approved by the Agency, all household waste received at the collection event must be transferred off-site by the end of the day following the collection event.

(6) The transfer and ultimate disposition of household waste received at the collection event must comply with the Agency's approval, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(d-5) One-day compostable waste collection event. To further aid in the collection and composting of compostable waste, as defined in subsection (b), a municipality may approve the operation of one-day compostable waste collection events at any site or facility within its territorial jurisdiction, and a county may approve the operation of one-day compostable waste collection events at any site or facility in any unincorporated area within its territorial jurisdiction. The approval granted under this subsection (d-5) must be in writing; must specify the date, location, and time of the event; and must list the types of compostable waste that will be collected at the event. If the one-day compostable waste collection event is to be operated at a location within a county with a population of more than 400,000 but less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, according to the 2010 decennial census, then the operator of the event shall, at least 30 days before the event, provide a copy of the approval to the recycling coordinator designated by that county. The approval granted under this subsection (d-5) may include conditions imposed by the county or municipality as necessary to protect public health and prevent odors, vectors, and other nuisances. A one-day compostable waste collection event approved under this subsection (d-5) must be operated in accordance with the approval, including all conditions contained in the approval. The following requirements shall apply to the one-day compostable waste collection event, in addition to the conditions contained in the approval:

(1) Waste accepted at the event must be limited to the types of compostable waste authorized to be accepted under the approval.

(2) Information promoting the event and signs at the event must clearly indicate the types of compostable waste approved for collection. To discourage the receipt of other waste, information promoting the event and signs at the event must also include:

(A) examples of compostable waste being collected; and

(B) examples of waste that is not being collected.

(3) Compostable waste must be accepted only from private individuals. It may not be accepted from other persons, including, but not limited to, owners and operators of rented or leased residences where it was generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, industrial, agricultural, and government operations or entities.

(4) Compostable waste must be managed in a manner that protects against releases of the waste, prevents nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the environment. Compostable waste must be properly secured to prevent it from being accessed by the public at any time, including, but not limited to, during the collection event's non-operating hours. One-day compostable waste collection events must be adequately supervised during their operating hours.

(5) Compostable waste must be secured in non-porous, rigid, leak-proof containers that:

(A) are covered, except when the compostable waste is being added to or removed from the containers or it is otherwise necessary to access the compostable waste;

(B) prevent precipitation from draining through the compostable waste;

(C) prevent dispersion of the compostable waste by wind;

(D) contain spills or releases that could create nuisances or otherwise harm human health or the environment;

(E) limit access to the compostable waste by vectors;

(F) control odors and other nuisances; and

(G) provide for storage, removal, and off-site transfer of the compostable waste in a manner that protects its ability to be composted.

(6) No more than a total of 40 cubic yards of compostable waste shall be located at the collection site at any one time.

(7) Management of the compostable waste must be limited to the following: (A) acceptance, (B) temporary storage before transfer, and (C) off-site transfer.

(8) All compostable waste received at the event must be transferred off-site to a permitted compost facility by no later than 48 hours after the event ends or by the end of the first business day after the event ends, whichever is sooner.

(9) If waste other than compostable waste is received at the event, then that waste must be disposed of within 48 hours after the event ends or by the end of the first business day after the event ends, whichever is sooner.

(d-6) Permanent compostable waste collection points. To further aid in the collection and composting of compostable waste, as defined in subsection (b), a municipality may approve the operation of permanent compostable waste collection points at any site or facility within its territorial jurisdiction, and a county may approve the operation of permanent compostable waste collection points at any site or facility in any unincorporated area within its territorial jurisdiction. The approval granted pursuant to this subsection (d-6) must be in writing; must specify the location, operating days, and operating hours of the collection point; must list the types of compostable waste that will be collected at the collection point; and must specify a term of not more than 365 calendar days during which the approval will be effective. In addition, if the permanent compostable waste collection point is to be operated at a location within a county with a population of more than 400,000 but less than 2,000,000 inhabitants, according to the 2010 federal decennial census, then the operator of the collection point shall, at least 30 days before the collection point begins operation, provide a copy of the approval to the recycling coordinator designated by that county. The approval may include conditions imposed by the county or municipality as necessary to protect public health and prevent odors, vectors, and other nuisances. A permanent compostable waste collection point approved pursuant to this subsection (d-6) must be operated in accordance with the approval, including all conditions contained in the approval. The following requirements apply to the permanent compostable waste collection point, in addition to the conditions contained in the approval:

(1) Waste accepted at the collection point must be limited to the types of compostable waste authorized to be accepted under the approval.

(2) Information promoting the collection point and signs at the collection point must clearly indicate the types of compostable waste approved for collection. To discourage the receipt of other waste, information promoting the collection point and signs at the collection point must also include (A) examples of compostable waste being collected and (B) examples of waste that is not being collected.

(3) Compostable waste must be accepted only from private individuals. It may not be accepted from other persons, including, but not limited to, owners and operators of rented or leased residences where it was generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, industrial, agricultural, and government operations or entities.

(4) Compostable waste must be managed in a manner that protects against releases of the waste, prevents nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the environment. Compostable waste must be properly secured to prevent it from being accessed by the public at any time, including, but not limited to, during the collection point's non-operating hours. Permanent compostable waste collection points must be adequately supervised during their operating hours.

(5) Compostable waste must be secured in non-porous, rigid, leak-proof containers that:

(A) are no larger than 10 cubic yards in size;

(B) are covered, except when the compostable waste is being added to or removed from the container or it is otherwise necessary to access the compostable waste;

(C) prevent precipitation from draining through the compostable waste;

(D) prevent dispersion of the compostable waste by wind;

(E) contain spills or releases that could create nuisances or otherwise harm human health or the environment;

(F) limit access to the compostable waste by vectors;

(G) control odors and other nuisances; and

(H) provide for storage, removal, and off-site transfer of the compostable waste in a manner that protects its ability to be composted.

(6) No more than a total of 10 cubic yards of compostable waste shall be located at the permanent compostable waste collection site at any one time.

(7) Management of the compostable waste must be limited to the following: (A) acceptance, (B) temporary storage before transfer, and (C) off-site transfer.

(8) All compostable waste received at the permanent compostable waste collection point must be transferred off-site to a permitted compost facility not less frequently than once every 7 days.

(9) If a permanent compostable waste collection point receives waste other than compostable waste, then that waste must be disposed of not less frequently than once every 7 days.

(e) The Agency may adopt rules governing the operation of household waste drop-off points, other than one-day household waste collection events, one-day compostable waste collection events, and permanent compostable waste collection points. Those rules must be designed to protect against releases of waste to the environment, prevent nuisances, and otherwise protect human health and the environment. As necessary to address different circumstances, the regulations may contain different requirements for different types of household waste and different types of household waste drop-off points, and the regulations may modify the requirements set forth in subsection (c) of this Section. The regulations may include, but are not limited to, the following: (i) identification of additional types of household waste that can be collected at household waste drop-off points, (ii) identification of the different types of household wastes that can be received at different household waste drop-off points, (iii) the maximum amounts of each type of household waste that can be stored at household waste drop-off points at any one time, and (iv) the maximum time periods each type of household waste can be stored at household waste drop-off points.

(f) Prohibitions.

(1) Except as authorized in a permit issued by the Agency, no person shall cause or allow the operation of a household waste drop-off point, other than a one-day household waste collection event, one-day compostable waste collection event, or permanent compostable waste collection point, in violation of this Section or any regulations adopted under this Section.

(2) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a one-day household waste collection event in violation of this Section or the Agency's approval issued under subsection (d) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(3) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a one-day compostable waste collection event in violation of this Section or the approval issued for the one-day compostable waste collection event under subsection (d-5) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(4) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a permanent compostable waste collection event in violation of this Section or the approval issued for the permanent compostable waste collection point under subsection (d-6) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(g) Permit exemptions.

(1) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a household waste drop-off point, other than a one-day household waste collection event, one-day compostable waste collection event, or permanent compostable waste collection point, if the household waste drop-off point is operated in accordance with this Section and all regulations adopted under this Section.

(2) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a one-day household waste collection event if the event is operated in accordance with this Section and the Agency's approval issued under subsection (d) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval, or for the operation of a household waste collection event by the Agency.

(3) No permit is required under paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a one-day compostable waste collection event if the compostable waste collection event is operated in accordance with this Section and the approval issued for the compostable waste collection point under subsection (d-5) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(4) No permit is required under paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a permanent compostable waste collection point if the collection point is operated in accordance with this Section and the approval issued for the compostable waste collection event under subsection (d-6) of this Section, including all conditions contained in the approval.

(h) This Section does not apply to the following:

(1) Persons accepting household waste that they are authorized to accept under a permit issued by the Agency.

(2) Sites or facilities operated pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement entered into with the Agency under Section 22.16b(d) of this Act.

(i) The Agency, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, must develop and implement a public information program regarding household waste drop-off points that accept pharmaceutical products, as well as mail-back programs authorized under federal law.

(j) The Agency must develop a sign that provides information on the proper disposal of unused pharmaceutical products. The sign shall include information on approved drop-off sites or list a website where updated information on drop-off sites can be accessed. The sign shall also include information on mail-back programs and self-disposal. The Agency shall make a copy of the sign available for downloading from its website. Every pharmacy shall display the sign in the area where medications are dispensed and shall also display any signs the Agency develops regarding local take-back programs or household waste collection events. These signs shall be no larger than 8.5 inches by 11 inches.

(k) If an entity chooses to participate as a household waste drop-off point, then it must follow the provisions of this Section and any rules the Agency may adopt governing household waste drop-off points.

(l) The Agency shall establish, by rule, a statewide medication take-back program by June 1, 2016 to ensure that there are pharmaceutical product disposal options regularly available for residents across the State. No private entity may be compelled to serve as or fund a take-back location or program. Medications collected and disposed of under the program shall include controlled substances approved for collection by federal law. All medications collected and disposed of under the program must be managed in accordance with all applicable federal and State laws and regulations. The Agency shall issue a report to the General Assembly by June 1, 2019 detailing the amount of pharmaceutical products annually collected under the program, as well as any legislative recommendations.

(Source: P.A. 99-11, eff. 7-10-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(415 ILCS 5/39) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1039)

Sec. 39. Issuance of permits; procedures.

(a) When the Board has by regulation required a permit for the construction, installation, or operation of any type of facility, equipment, vehicle, vessel, or aircraft, the applicant shall apply to the Agency for such permit and it shall be the duty of the Agency to issue such a permit upon proof by the applicant that the facility, equipment, vehicle, vessel, or aircraft will not cause a violation of this Act or of regulations hereunder. The Agency shall adopt such procedures as are necessary to carry out its duties under this Section. In making its determinations on permit applications under this Section the Agency may consider prior adjudications of noncompliance with this Act by the applicant that involved a release of a contaminant into the environment. In granting permits, the Agency may impose reasonable conditions specifically related to the applicant's past compliance history with this Act as necessary to correct, detect, or prevent noncompliance. The Agency may impose such other conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act, and as are not inconsistent with the regulations promulgated by the Board hereunder. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a bond or other security shall not be required as a condition for the issuance of a permit. If the Agency denies any permit under this Section, the Agency shall transmit to the applicant within the time limitations of this Section specific, detailed statements as to the reasons the permit application was denied. Such statements shall include, but not be limited to the following:

(i) the Sections of this Act which may be violated if the permit were granted;

(ii) the provision of the regulations, promulgated under this Act, which may be violated if the permit were granted;

(iii) the specific type of information, if any, which the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency; and

(iv) a statement of specific reasons why the Act and the regulations might not be met if the permit were granted.

If there is no final action by the Agency within 90 days after the filing of the application for permit, the applicant may deem the permit issued; except that this time period shall be extended to 180 days when (1) notice and opportunity for public hearing are required by State or federal law or regulation, (2) the application which was filed is for any permit to develop a landfill subject to issuance pursuant to this subsection, or (3) the application that was filed is for a MSWLF unit required to issue public notice under subsection (p) of Section 39. The 90-day and 180-day time periods for the Agency to take final action do not apply to NPDES permit applications under subsection (b) of this Section, to RCRA permit applications under subsection (d) of this Section, or to UIC permit applications under subsection (e) of this Section.

The Agency shall publish notice of all final permit determinations for development permits for MSWLF units and for significant permit modifications for lateral expansions for existing MSWLF units one time in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the unit is or is proposed to be located.

After January 1, 1994 and until July 1, 1998, operating permits issued under this Section by the Agency for sources of air pollution permitted to emit less than 25 tons per year of any combination of regulated air pollutants, as defined in Section 39.5 of this Act, shall be required to be renewed only upon written request by the Agency consistent with applicable provisions of this Act and regulations promulgated hereunder. Such operating permits shall expire 180 days after the date of such a request. The Board shall revise its regulations for the existing State air pollution operating permit program consistent with this provision by January 1, 1994.

After June 30, 1998, operating permits issued under this Section by the Agency for sources of air pollution that are not subject to Section 39.5 of this Act and are not required to have a federally enforceable State operating permit shall be required to be renewed only upon written request by the Agency consistent with applicable provisions of this Act and its rules. Such operating permits shall expire 180 days after the date of such a request. Before July 1, 1998, the Board shall revise its rules for the existing State air pollution operating permit program consistent with this paragraph and shall adopt rules that require a source to demonstrate that it qualifies for a permit under this paragraph.

(b) The Agency may issue NPDES permits exclusively under this subsection for the discharge of contaminants from point sources into navigable waters, all as defined in the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, within the jurisdiction of the State, or into any well.

All NPDES permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including but not limited to schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act.

The Agency may issue general NPDES permits for discharges from categories of point sources which are subject to the same permit limitations and conditions. Such general permits may be issued without individual applications and shall conform to regulations promulgated under Section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The Agency may include, among such conditions, effluent limitations and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and schedules for achieving compliance therewith at the earliest reasonable date.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of NPDES permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The Agency, subject to any conditions which may be prescribed by Board regulations, may issue NPDES permits to allow discharges beyond deadlines established by this Act or by regulations of the Board without the requirement of a variance, subject to the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

(c) Except for those facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act, no permit for the development or construction of a new pollution control facility may be granted by the Agency unless the applicant submits proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved by the County Board of the county if in an unincorporated area, or the governing body of the municipality when in an incorporated area, in which the facility is to be located in accordance with Section 39.2 of this Act. For purposes of this subsection (c), and for purposes of Section 39.2 of this Act, the appropriate county board or governing body of the municipality shall be the county board of the county or the governing body of the municipality in which the facility is to be located as of the date when the application for siting approval is filed.

In the event that siting approval granted pursuant to Section 39.2 has been transferred to a subsequent owner or operator, that subsequent owner or operator may apply to the Agency for, and the Agency may grant, a development or construction permit for the facility for which local siting approval was granted. Upon application to the Agency for a development or construction permit by that subsequent owner or operator, the permit applicant shall cause written notice of the permit application to be served upon the appropriate county board or governing body of the municipality that granted siting approval for that facility and upon any party to the siting proceeding pursuant to which siting approval was granted. In that event, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the subsequent owner or operator's prior experience in waste management operations in the manner conducted under subsection (i) of Section 39 of this Act.

Beginning August 20, 1993, if the pollution control facility consists of a hazardous or solid waste disposal facility for which the proposed site is located in an unincorporated area of a county with a population of less than 100,000 and includes all or a portion of a parcel of land that was, on April 1, 1993, adjacent to a municipality having a population of less than 5,000, then the local siting review required under this subsection (c) in conjunction with any permit applied for after that date shall be performed by the governing body of that adjacent municipality rather than the county board of the county in which the proposed site is located; and for the purposes of that local siting review, any references in this Act to the county board shall be deemed to mean the governing body of that adjacent municipality; provided, however, that the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any proposed site which was, on April 1, 1993, owned in whole or in part by another municipality.

In the case of a pollution control facility for which a development permit was issued before November 12, 1981, if an operating permit has not been issued by the Agency prior to August 31, 1989 for any portion of the facility, then the Agency may not issue or renew any development permit nor issue an original operating permit for any portion of such facility unless the applicant has submitted proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved by the appropriate county board or municipal governing body pursuant to Section 39.2 of this Act.

After January 1, 1994, if a solid waste disposal facility, any portion for which an operating permit has been issued by the Agency, has not accepted waste disposal for 5 or more consecutive calendars years, before that facility may accept any new or additional waste for disposal, the owner and operator must obtain a new operating permit under this Act for that facility unless the owner and operator have applied to the Agency for a permit authorizing the temporary suspension of waste acceptance. The Agency may not issue a new operation permit under this Act for the facility unless the applicant has submitted proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved or re-approved by the appropriate county board or municipal governing body under Section 39.2 of this Act after the facility ceased accepting waste.

Except for those facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act, and except for new pollution control facilities governed by Section 39.2, and except for fossil fuel mining facilities, the granting of a permit under this Act shall not relieve the applicant from meeting and securing all necessary zoning approvals from the unit of government having zoning jurisdiction over the proposed facility.

Before beginning construction on any new sewage treatment plant or sludge drying site to be owned or operated by a sanitary district organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act for which a new permit (rather than the renewal or amendment of an existing permit) is required, such sanitary district shall hold a public hearing within the municipality within which the proposed facility is to be located, or within the nearest community if the proposed facility is to be located within an unincorporated area, at which information concerning the proposed facility shall be made available to the public, and members of the public shall be given the opportunity to express their views concerning the proposed facility.

The Agency may issue a permit for a municipal waste transfer station without requiring approval pursuant to Section 39.2 provided that the following demonstration is made:

(1) the municipal waste transfer station was in existence on or before January 1, 1979 and was in continuous operation from January 1, 1979 to January 1, 1993;

(2) the operator submitted a permit application to the Agency to develop and operate the municipal waste transfer station during April of 1994;

(3) the operator can demonstrate that the county board of the county, if the municipal waste transfer station is in an unincorporated area, or the governing body of the municipality, if the station is in an incorporated area, does not object to resumption of the operation of the station; and

(4) the site has local zoning approval.

(d) The Agency may issue RCRA permits exclusively under this subsection to persons owning or operating a facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste as defined under this Act.

All RCRA permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including but not limited to schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act. The Agency may include among such conditions standards and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and may include schedules for achieving compliance therewith as soon as possible. The Agency shall require that a performance bond or other security be provided as a condition for the issuance of a RCRA permit.

In the case of a permit to operate a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator as defined in subsection (k) of Section 44, the Agency shall require, as a condition of the permit, that the operator of the facility perform such analyses of the waste to be incinerated as may be necessary and appropriate to ensure the safe operation of the incinerator.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of RCRA permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The applicant shall make available to the public for inspection all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency in furtherance of an application, with the exception of trade secrets, at the office of the county board or governing body of the municipality. Such documents may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction during regular business hours of the local office. The Agency shall issue a written statement concurrent with its grant or denial of the permit explaining the basis for its decision.

(e) The Agency may issue UIC permits exclusively under this subsection to persons owning or operating a facility for the underground injection of contaminants as defined under this Act.

All UIC permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including but not limited to schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act. The Agency may include among such conditions standards and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Safe Drinking Water Act (P.L. 93-523), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and may include schedules for achieving compliance therewith. The Agency shall require that a performance bond or other security be provided as a condition for the issuance of a UIC permit.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of UIC permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Safe Drinking Water Act (P.L. 93-523), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The applicant shall make available to the public for inspection, all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency in furtherance of an application, with the exception of trade secrets, at the office of the county board or governing body of the municipality. Such documents may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction during regular business hours of the local office. The Agency shall issue a written statement concurrent with its grant or denial of the permit explaining the basis for its decision.

(f) In making any determination pursuant to Section 9.1 of this Act:

(1) The Agency shall have authority to make the determination of any question required to be determined by the Clean Air Act, as now or hereafter amended, this Act, or the regulations of the Board, including the determination of the Lowest Achievable Emission Rate, Maximum Achievable Control Technology, or Best Available Control Technology, consistent with the Board's regulations, if any.

(2) The Agency shall adopt requirements as necessary to implement public participation procedures, including, but not limited to, public notice, comment, and an opportunity for hearing, which must accompany the processing of applications for PSD permits. The Agency shall briefly describe and respond to all significant comments on the draft permit raised during the public comment period or during any hearing. The Agency may group related comments together and provide one unified response for each issue raised.

(3) Any complete permit application submitted to the Agency under this subsection for a PSD permit shall be granted or denied by the Agency not later than one year after the filing of such completed application.

(4) The Agency shall, after conferring with the applicant, give written notice to the applicant of its proposed decision on the application including the terms and conditions of the permit to be issued and the facts, conduct or other basis upon which the Agency will rely to support its proposed action.

(g) The Agency shall include as conditions upon all permits issued for hazardous waste disposal sites such restrictions upon the future use of such sites as are reasonably necessary to protect public health and the environment, including permanent prohibition of the use of such sites for purposes which may create an unreasonable risk of injury to human health or to the environment. After administrative and judicial challenges to such restrictions have been exhausted, the Agency shall file such restrictions of record in the Office of the Recorder of the county in which the hazardous waste disposal site is located.

(h) A hazardous waste stream may not be deposited in a permitted hazardous waste site unless specific authorization is obtained from the Agency by the generator and disposal site owner and operator for the deposit of that specific hazardous waste stream. The Agency may grant specific authorization for disposal of hazardous waste streams only after the generator has reasonably demonstrated that, considering technological feasibility and economic reasonableness, the hazardous waste cannot be reasonably recycled for reuse, nor incinerated or chemically, physically or biologically treated so as to neutralize the hazardous waste and render it nonhazardous. In granting authorization under this Section, the Agency may impose such conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of the Act and are consistent with this Act and regulations promulgated by the Board hereunder. If the Agency refuses to grant authorization under this Section, the applicant may appeal as if the Agency refused to grant a permit, pursuant to the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 40 of this Act. For purposes of this subsection (h), the term "generator" has the meaning given in Section 3.205 of this Act, unless: (1) the hazardous waste is treated, incinerated, or partially recycled for reuse prior to disposal, in which case the last person who treats, incinerates, or partially recycles the hazardous waste prior to disposal is the generator; or (2) the hazardous waste is from a response action, in which case the person performing the response action is the generator. This subsection (h) does not apply to any hazardous waste that is restricted from land disposal under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.

(i) Before issuing any RCRA permit, any permit for a waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, waste incinerator, or any waste-transportation operation, or any permit or interim authorization for a clean construction or demolition debris fill operation, or any permit required under subsection (d-5) of Section 55, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the prospective owner's or operator's prior experience in waste management operations, clean construction or demolition debris fill operations, and tire storage site management. The Agency may deny such a permit, or deny or revoke interim authorization, if the prospective owner or operator or any employee or officer of the prospective owner or operator has a history of:

(1) repeated violations of federal, State, or local laws, regulations, standards, or ordinances in the operation of waste management facilities or sites, clean construction or demolition debris fill operation facilities or sites, or tire storage sites; or

(2) conviction in this or another State of any crime which is a felony under the laws of this State, or conviction of a felony in a federal court; or conviction in this or another state or federal court of any of the following crimes: forgery, official misconduct, bribery, perjury, or knowingly submitting false information under any environmental law, regulation, or permit term or condition; or

(3) proof of gross carelessness or incompetence in handling, storing, processing, transporting or disposing of waste, clean construction or demolition debris, or used or waste tires, or proof of gross carelessness or incompetence in using clean construction or demolition debris as fill.

(i-5) Before issuing any permit or approving any interim authorization for a clean construction or demolition debris fill operation in which any ownership interest is transferred between January 1, 2005, and the effective date of the prohibition set forth in Section 22.52 of this Act, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the operation if any previous activities at the site or facility may have caused or allowed contamination of the site. It shall be the responsibility of the owner or operator seeking the permit or interim authorization to provide to the Agency all of the information necessary for the Agency to conduct its evaluation. The Agency may deny a permit or interim authorization if previous activities at the site may have caused or allowed contamination at the site, unless such contamination is authorized under any permit issued by the Agency.

(j) The issuance under this Act of a permit to engage in the surface mining of any resources other than fossil fuels shall not relieve the permittee from its duty to comply with any applicable local law regulating the commencement, location or operation of surface mining facilities.

(k) A development permit issued under subsection (a) of Section 39 for any facility or site which is required to have a permit under subsection (d) of Section 21 shall expire at the end of 2 calendar years from the date upon which it was issued, unless within that period the applicant has taken action to develop the facility or the site. In the event that review of the conditions of the development permit is sought pursuant to Section 40 or 41, or permittee is prevented from commencing development of the facility or site by any other litigation beyond the permittee's control, such two-year period shall be deemed to begin on the date upon which such review process or litigation is concluded.

(l) No permit shall be issued by the Agency under this Act for construction or operation of any facility or site located within the boundaries of any setback zone established pursuant to this Act, where such construction or operation is prohibited.

(m) The Agency may issue permits to persons owning or operating a facility for composting landscape waste. In granting such permits, the Agency may impose such conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act, and as are not inconsistent with applicable regulations promulgated by the Board. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a bond or other security shall not be required as a condition for the issuance of a permit. If the Agency denies any permit pursuant to this subsection, the Agency shall transmit to the applicant within the time limitations of this subsection specific, detailed statements as to the reasons the permit application was denied. Such statements shall include but not be limited to the following:

(1) the Sections of this Act that may be violated if the permit were granted;

(2) the specific regulations promulgated pursuant to this Act that may be violated if the permit were granted;

(3) the specific information, if any, the Agency deems the applicant did not provide in its application to the Agency; and

(4) a statement of specific reasons why the Act and the regulations might be violated if the permit were granted.

If no final action is taken by the Agency within 90 days after the filing of the application for permit, the applicant may deem the permit issued. Any applicant for a permit may waive the 90-day 90 day limitation by filing a written statement with the Agency.

The Agency shall issue permits for such facilities upon receipt of an application that includes a legal description of the site, a topographic map of the site drawn to the scale of 200 feet to the inch or larger, a description of the operation, including the area served, an estimate of the volume of materials to be processed, and documentation that:

(1) the facility includes a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well;

(2) the facility is located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or the site will be floodproofed;

(3) the facility is located so as to minimize incompatibility with the character of the surrounding area, including at least a 200 foot setback from any residence, and in the case of a facility that is developed or the permitted composting area of which is expanded after November 17, 1991, the composting area is located at least 1/8 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility);

(4) the design of the facility will prevent any compost material from being placed within 5 feet of the water table, will adequately control runoff from the site, and will collect and manage any leachate that is generated on the site;

(5) the operation of the facility will include appropriate dust and odor control measures, limitations on operating hours, appropriate noise control measures for shredding, chipping and similar equipment, management procedures for composting, containment and disposal of non-compostable wastes, procedures to be used for terminating operations at the site, and recordkeeping sufficient to document the amount of materials received, composted and otherwise disposed of; and

(6) the operation will be conducted in accordance with any applicable rules adopted by the Board.

The Agency shall issue renewable permits of not longer than 10 years in duration for the composting of landscape wastes, as defined in Section 3.155 of this Act, based on the above requirements.

The operator of any facility permitted under this subsection (m) must submit a written annual statement to the Agency on or before April 1 of each year that includes an estimate of the amount of material, in tons, received for composting.

(n) The Agency shall issue permits jointly with the Department of Transportation for the dredging or deposit of material in Lake Michigan in accordance with Section 18 of the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act.

(o) (Blank.)

(p) (1) Any person submitting an application for a permit for a new MSWLF unit or for a lateral expansion under subsection (t) of Section 21 of this Act for an existing MSWLF unit that has not received and is not subject to local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act shall publish notice of the application in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the MSWLF unit is or is proposed to be located. The notice must be published at least 15 days before submission of the permit application to the Agency. The notice shall state the name and address of the applicant, the location of the MSWLF unit or proposed MSWLF unit, the nature and size of the MSWLF unit or proposed MSWLF unit, the nature of the activity proposed, the probable life of the proposed activity, the date the permit application will be submitted, and a statement that persons may file written comments with the Agency concerning the permit application within 30 days after the filing of the permit application unless the time period to submit comments is extended by the Agency.

When a permit applicant submits information to the Agency to supplement a permit application being reviewed by the Agency, the applicant shall not be required to reissue the notice under this subsection.

(2) The Agency shall accept written comments concerning the permit application that are postmarked no later than 30 days after the filing of the permit application, unless the time period to accept comments is extended by the Agency.

(3) Each applicant for a permit described in part (1) of this subsection shall file a copy of the permit application with the county board or governing body of the municipality in which the MSWLF unit is or is proposed to be located at the same time the application is submitted to the Agency. The permit application filed with the county board or governing body of the municipality shall include all documents submitted to or to be submitted to the Agency, except trade secrets as determined under Section 7.1 of this Act. The permit application and other documents on file with the county board or governing body of the municipality shall be made available for public inspection during regular business hours at the office of the county board or the governing body of the municipality and may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction.

(q) Within 6 months after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Agency, in consultation with the regulated community, shall develop a web portal to be posted on its website for the purpose of enhancing review and promoting timely issuance of permits required by this Act. At a minimum, the Agency shall make the following information available on the web portal:

(1) Checklists and guidance relating to the completion of permit applications, developed pursuant to subsection (s) of this Section, which may include, but are not limited to, existing instructions for completing the applications and examples of complete applications. As the Agency develops new checklists and develops guidance, it shall supplement the web portal with those materials.

(2) Within 2 years after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, permit application forms or portions of permit applications that can be completed and saved electronically, and submitted to the Agency electronically with digital signatures.

(3) Within 2 years after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, an online tracking system where an applicant may review the status of its pending application, including the name and contact information of the permit analyst assigned to the application. Until the online tracking system has been developed, the Agency shall post on its website semi-annual permitting efficiency tracking reports that include statistics on the timeframes for Agency action on the following types of permits received after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly: air construction permits, new NPDES permits and associated water construction permits, and modifications of major NPDES permits and associated water construction permits. The reports must be posted by February 1 and August 1 each year and shall include:

(A) the number of applications received for each type of permit, the number of applications on which the Agency has taken action, and the number of applications still pending; and

(B) for those applications where the Agency has not taken action in accordance with the timeframes set forth in this Act, the date the application was received and the reasons for any delays, which may include, but shall not be limited to, (i) the application being inadequate or incomplete, (ii) scientific or technical disagreements with the applicant, USEPA, or other local, state, or federal agencies involved in the permitting approval process, (iii) public opposition to the permit, or (iv) Agency staffing shortages. To the extent practicable, the tracking report shall provide approximate dates when cause for delay was identified by the Agency, when the Agency informed the applicant of the problem leading to the delay, and when the applicant remedied the reason for the delay.

(r) Upon the request of the applicant, the Agency shall notify the applicant of the permit analyst assigned to the application upon its receipt.

(s) The Agency is authorized to prepare and distribute guidance documents relating to its administration of this Section and procedural rules implementing this Section. Guidance documents prepared under this subsection shall not be considered rules and shall not be subject to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Such guidance shall not be binding on any party.

(t) Except as otherwise prohibited by federal law or regulation, any person submitting an application for a permit may include with the application suggested permit language for Agency consideration. The Agency is not obligated to use the suggested language or any portion thereof in its permitting decision. If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall meet with the applicant to discuss the suggested language.

(u) If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the draft permit prior to any public review period.

(v) If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the final permit prior to its issuance.

(w) An air pollution permit shall not be required due to emissions of greenhouse gases, as specified by Section 9.15 of this Act.

(x) If, before the expiration of a State operating permit that is issued pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section and contains federally enforceable conditions limiting the potential to emit of the source to a level below the major source threshold for that source so as to exclude the source from the Clean Air Act Permit Program, the Agency receives a complete application for the renewal of that permit, then all of the terms and conditions of the permit shall remain in effect until final administrative action has been taken on the application for the renewal of the permit.

(Source: P.A. 98-284, eff. 8-9-13; 99-396, eff. 8-18-15; 99-463, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 460. The Lawn Care Products Application and Notice Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(415 ILCS 65/7) (from Ch. 5, par. 857)

Sec. 7. When an administrative hearing is held by the Department, the hearing officer, upon determination of any violation of this Act or rule or regulation, shall either refer the violation to the State's States Attorney's office in the county where the alleged violation occurred for prosecution or levy the following administrative monetary penalties:

(a) a penalty of $250 for a first violation;

(b) a penalty of $500 for a second violation; and

(c) a penalty of $1,000 for a third or subsequent violation.

The penalty levied shall be collected by the Department, and all penalties collected by the Department under this Act shall be deposited into the Pesticide Control Fund. Any penalty not paid within 60 days of notice from the Department shall be submitted to the Attorney General's office for collection.

Upon prosecution by a State's Attorney, a violation of this Act or rules shall be a petty offense subject to a fine of $250 for a first offense, a fine of $500 for a second offense, and a fine of $1,000 for a third or subsequent offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-1005, eff. 7-6-10; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 465. The Mercury Switch Removal Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(415 ILCS 97/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 10. Removal requirements.

(a) Mercury switches removed from end-of-life vehicles must be managed in accordance with the Environmental Protection Act and regulations adopted thereunder.

(b) No person shall represent that all mercury switches have been removed from a vehicle if all mercury switches have not been removed from the vehicle, except where a mercury switch cannot be removed from the vehicle because the switch is inaccessible due to significant damage to the vehicle in the area surrounding the switch.

(c) Consistent with the protection of confidential business information, vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal recyclers that remove mercury switches from end-of-life vehicles must maintain records documenting the following for each calendar quarter:

(1) the number of mercury switches the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler removed from end-of-life vehicles;

(2) the number of end-of-life vehicles received by the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler that contain one or more mercury switches;

(3) the number of end-of-life vehicles the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler flattened, crushed, shredded, or otherwise processed for recycling; and

(4) the make and model of each car from which one or more mercury switches was removed by the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler.

The records required under this subsection (c) must be retained at the vehicle recycler's or scrap metal recycler's place of business for a minimum of 3 years and made available for inspection and copying by the Agency during normal business hours.

(d) For the period of July 1, 2006 through though June 30, 2007 and for each period of July 1 through though June 30 thereafter, no later than 45 days after the close of the period vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal recyclers that remove mercury switches from end-of-life vehicles must submit to the Agency an annual report containing the following information for the period: (i) the number of mercury switches the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler removed from end-of-life vehicles; (ii) the number of end-of-life vehicles received by the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler that contain one or more mercury switches; , and (iii) the number of end-of-life vehicles the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler flattened, crushed, shredded, or otherwise processed for recycling. Data required to be reported to the United States Environmental Protection Agency under federal law or regulation may be used in meeting requirements of this subsection (d), if the data contains the information required under items (i), (ii), and (iii) of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 94-732, eff. 4-24-06; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 470. The Litter Control Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(415 ILCS 105/11) (from Ch. 38, par. 86-11)

Sec. 11. This Act shall be enforced by all law enforcement officers in their respective jurisdictions, whether employed by the State or by any unit of local government. Prosecutions for violation of this Act shall be conducted by the State's Attorneys State attorneys of the several counties and by the Attorney General of this State.

(Source: P.A. 78-837; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 480. The Pyrotechnic Use Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(425 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 127)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act, the following words shall have the following meanings:

"1.3G fireworks" means those fireworks used for professional outdoor displays and classified as fireworks UN0333, UN0334, or UN0335 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

"Consumer distributor" means any person who distributes, offers for sale, sells, or exchanges for consideration consumer fireworks in Illinois to another distributor or directly to any retailer or person for resale.

"Consumer fireworks" means those fireworks that must comply with the construction, chemical composition, and labeling regulations of the U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission, as set forth in 16 C.F.R. Parts 1500 and 1507, and classified as fireworks UN0336 or UN0337 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101. "Consumer fireworks" shall not include snake or glow worm pellets; smoke devices; trick noisemakers known as "party poppers", "booby traps", "snappers", "trick matches", "cigarette loads", and "auto burglar alarms"; sparklers; toy pistols, toy canes, toy guns, or other devices in which paper or plastic caps containing twenty-five hundredths grains or less of explosive compound are used, provided they are so constructed that the hand cannot come in contact with the cap when in place for the explosion; and toy pistol paper or plastic caps that contain less than twenty hundredths grains of explosive mixture; the sale and use of which shall be permitted at all times.

"Consumer fireworks display" or "consumer display" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of consumer fireworks to produce a visual or audible effect.

"Consumer operator" means an adult individual who is responsible for the safety, setup, and discharge of the consumer fireworks display and who has completed the training required in Section 2.2 of this Act.

"Consumer retailer" means any person who offers for sale, sells, or exchanges for consideration consumer fireworks in Illinois directly to any person with a consumer display permit.

"Display fireworks" means 1.3G or special effects fireworks or as further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Flame effect" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of flammable gases, liquids, or special materials to produce a thermal, physical, visual, or audible effect before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged, in accordance with National Fire Protection Association 160 guidelines, and as may be further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Lead pyrotechnic operator" means an individual who is responsible for the safety, setup, and discharge of the pyrotechnic display or pyrotechnic service and who is licensed pursuant to the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Person" means an individual, firm, corporation, association, partnership, company, consortium, joint venture, commercial entity, state, municipality, or political subdivision of a state or any agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States and any officer, agent, or employee of these entities.

"Production company" means any person in the film, digital and video media, television, commercial, music, or theatrical stage industry who provides pyrotechnic services or pyrotechnic display services as part of a film, digital and video media, television, commercial, music, or theatrical production in the State of Illinois and is licensed by the Office pursuant to the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Pyrotechnic display" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of display fireworks or flame effects to produce visual or audible effects of an a exhibitional nature before the public, invitees, or licensees, regardless of whether admission is charged, and as may be further defined in the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Pyrotechnic distributor" means any person who distributes display fireworks for sale in the State of Illinois or provides them as part of a pyrotechnic display service in the State of Illinois or provides only pyrotechnic services and is licensed by the Office pursuant to the Pyrotechnic Distributor and Operator Licensing Act.

"Pyrotechnic service" means the detonation, ignition, or deflagration of display fireworks, special effects, or flame effects to produce a visual or audible effect.

"Special effects fireworks" means pyrotechnic devices used for special effects by professionals in the performing arts in conjunction with theatrical, musical, or other productions that are similar to consumer fireworks in chemical compositions and construction, but are not intended for consumer use and are not labeled as such or identified as "intended for indoor use". "Special effects fireworks" are classified as fireworks UN0431 or UN0432 by the United States Department of Transportation under 49 C.F.R. 172.101.

(Source: P.A. 96-708, eff. 8-25-09; 97-164, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 485. The Hazardous Materials Emergency Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(430 ILCS 50/4) (from Ch. 127, par. 1254)

Sec. 4. There is hereby created a Hazardous Materials Advisory Board, composed of 21 members as follows: the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, or his designee; the Director of Agriculture or his designee; the Chairman of the Illinois Commerce Commission or his designee; the Director of Public Health or his designee; the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency or his designee; the Secretary of Transportation or his designee; the State Fire Marshal or his designee; the Director of State Police or his designee; the Director of Natural Resources or his designee; the Illinois Attorney General or his designee; the Director of Nuclear Safety or his designee; the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or his designee; the Director of the Illinois Fire Service Institute, University of Illinois, or his designee; and a representative from the Illinois Association of Chiefs of Police; the Illinois Fire Chiefs Chief's Association; the Illinois Sheriffs' Sheriff's Association; the Illinois Emergency Services Management Association; and 4 members appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall represent volunteer firefighters, one of whom shall represent the local emergency response service and two shall represent the business community. The Chairman shall be selected by the membership from those members not representing a State agency.

The Board shall meet within 90 days of January 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1368) this amendatory Act of 1984 to select a chairman, other officers and establish an organization structure as the members deem necessary and thereafter at the call of the chair or any 11 members. A person who has been designated by the Director of his department to represent the Director on the Board shall be entitled to vote on all questions before the Board. Eleven members of the Board constitute a quorum, except that where members have not been appointed or designated to the Board, a quorum shall be constituted by a simple majority of the appointed or designated membership.

The Board shall advise and make recommendations to the Agency regarding the reporting of an accident involving hazardous materials and to the Department regarding the placarding of transportation of hazardous materials. The Board shall design a program and develop a Statewide plan providing for a coordinating system among State agencies and departments and units of local government, for response to accidents involving hazardous materials. Every attempt shall be made to avoid requiring any person to report an accident involving hazardous materials to more than one State agency. If at all possible, the primary agency receiving the reports shall be the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, and that agency shall relay reports to other State and local agencies.

The Board shall form from among its members, an Emergency Response Training and Standards Committee. The Secretary of Transportation or his designee, the State Fire Marshal or his designee, and the representatives from the Chiefs of Police, Fire Chiefs and Sheriffs' Sheriff's Association shall also serve on the Committee. It shall be the duty of this Committee, with final approval of the Board, to recommend standardized training courses for firefighters, police officers, and other hazardous material emergency response personnel of the State and local governments; to recommend standards for hazardous material emergency response equipment; and recommend standards for achievement levels for the various hazardous material emergency response personnel. The standardized courses shall include training for firefighters, police officers, and other hazardous material emergency response personnel described in the federal regulations relating to the placarding system that has been promulgated under the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (P.L. 93-633).

The Board shall review and recommend the material to be provided under Sections 5.04, 5.05, and 5.06 of this Act and assure the development of a plan for those activities in Section 5.07 of this Act.

The Board shall have the duty to study and recommend to the various State agencies, local governments and the General Assembly any aspect of placarding in transportation, hazard signage systems, the training of hazardous material emergency response personnel, the equipment used in hazardous material emergency response, the planning for hazardous material emergency response, and the dissemination of information concerning these areas.

The Department of Transportation and the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall furnish meeting facilities, staff, and other administrative needs of the Board. The Agency or the Department shall inform the Board whenever the Agency or the Department is considering the adoption of any regulations under this Act. The Agency or the Department shall send a copy of all proposed regulations to each member of the Board; the Board shall be represented at all public hearings regarding proposals for and changes in Agency or the Department regulations. The Board may, at its discretion, present the Agency or the Department with its written evaluation of the proposed regulations or changes.

Before the Department exempts any hazardous material from the placarding regulations, under Section 3 of this Act, the Board must approve the regulations providing for the exemption.

(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; 90-449, eff. 8-16-97; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 490. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 1.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

disability

This disability results in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"National governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or private mental health facility, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a public or private mental health facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with a significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 495. The Beef Market Development Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(505 ILCS 25/7) (from Ch. 5, par. 1407)

Sec. 7. Acceptance of grants and gifts. (a) The Checkoff Division may accept grants, donations, contributions, or gifts from any source, provided the use of such resources is not restricted in any manner which is deemed inconsistent with the objectives of the program.

(Source: P.A. 99-389, eff. 8-18-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 500. The Illinois Conservation Enhancement Act is amended by changing Section 2-2 as follows:

(505 ILCS 35/2-2) (from Ch. 5, par. 2402-2)

Sec. 2-2. Payments to the landowner. The Director shall, subject to available funds and appropriations, make the following payments to the landowner:

(1) establishment of the perennial cover or other improvements required by the agreement, up to 60% of the cost, but not to exceed $75 per acre, for easements of limited duration;

(2) the cost of planting trees required by the agreement, up to 80% of the cost, but not to exceed $75 per acre, for easements of limited duration;

(3) a permanent easement, not to exceed 70% of the fair market value at the time the easement is conveyed, and payment of 100% of the cost, but not to exceed $75 per acre, to establish the perennial cover, other improvements or to plant trees required by the agreement; and

(4) an easement of limited duration, not to exceed 90% of the present value of the average of the acceptable bids for the federal Conservation Reserve Program, as contained in Public Law Number 99-198, in the relevant geographic area and on bids made immediately prior to when the easement is conveyed. If federal bid figures have not been determined for the area, or the federal program has been discontinued, the rate paid shall be determined by the Director.

The Director may not pay more than $50,000 annually to a landowner for the landowner's conservation easements and agreements. Any cost-share payments shall be in addition to this $50,000 limit.

The Director may supplement cost-share payments made under other local, State or federal programs, not to exceed $75 an and acre, to the extent of available appropriations. The supplemental cost-share payments must be used to establish perennial cover on land enrolled in programs approved by the Director.

(Source: P.A. 85-1332; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 505. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/15) (from Ch. 8, par. 365)

Sec. 15. (a) In order to have a dog deemed "vicious", the Administrator, Deputy Administrator, or law enforcement officer must give notice of the infraction that is the basis of the investigation to the owner, conduct a thorough investigation, interview any witnesses, including the owner, gather any existing medical records, veterinary medical records or behavioral evidence, and make a detailed report recommending a finding that the dog is a vicious dog and give the report to the State's States Attorney's Office and the owner. The Administrator, State's Attorney, Director or any citizen of the county in which the dog exists may file a complaint in the circuit court in the name of the People of the State of Illinois to deem a dog to be a vicious dog. Testimony of a certified applied behaviorist, a board certified veterinary behaviorist, or another recognized expert may be relevant to the court's determination of whether the dog's behavior was justified. The petitioner must prove the dog is a vicious dog by clear and convincing evidence. The Administrator shall determine where the animal shall be confined during the pendency of the case.

A dog may not be declared vicious if the court determines the conduct of the dog was justified because:

(1) the threat, injury, or death was sustained by a person who at the time was committing a crime or offense upon the owner or custodian of the dog, or was committing a willful trespass or other tort upon the premises or property owned or occupied by the owner of the animal;

(2) the injured, threatened, or killed person was abusing, assaulting, or physically threatening the dog or its offspring, or has in the past abused, assaulted, or physically threatened the dog or its offspring; or

(3) the dog was responding to pain or injury, or was protecting itself, its owner, custodian, or member of its household, kennel, or offspring.

No dog shall be deemed "vicious" if it is a professionally trained dog for law enforcement or guard duties. Vicious dogs shall not be classified in a manner that is specific as to breed.

If the burden of proof has been met, the court shall deem the dog to be a vicious dog.

If a dog is found to be a vicious dog, the owner shall pay a $100 public safety fine to be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund, the dog shall be spayed or neutered within 10 days of the finding at the expense of its owner and microchipped, if not already, and the dog is subject to enclosure. If an owner fails to comply with these requirements, the animal control agency shall impound the dog and the owner shall pay a $500 fine plus impoundment fees to the animal control agency impounding the dog. The judge has the discretion to order a vicious dog be euthanized. A dog found to be a vicious dog shall not be released to the owner until the Administrator, an Animal Control Warden, or the Director approves the enclosure. No owner or keeper of a vicious dog shall sell or give away the dog without approval from the Administrator or court. Whenever an owner of a vicious dog relocates, he or she shall notify both the Administrator of County Animal Control where he or she has relocated and the Administrator of County Animal Control where he or she formerly resided.

(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to keep or maintain any dog which has been found to be a vicious dog unless the dog is kept in an enclosure. The only times that a vicious dog may be allowed out of the enclosure are (1) if it is necessary for the owner or keeper to obtain veterinary care for the dog, (2) in the case of an emergency or natural disaster where the dog's life is threatened, or (3) to comply with the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, provided that the dog is securely muzzled and restrained with a leash not exceeding 6 feet in length, and shall be under the direct control and supervision of the owner or keeper of the dog or muzzled in its residence.

Any dog which has been found to be a vicious dog and which is not confined to an enclosure shall be impounded by the Administrator, an Animal Control Warden, or the law enforcement authority having jurisdiction in such area.

If the owner of the dog has not appealed the impoundment order to the circuit court in the county in which the animal was impounded within 15 working days, the dog may be euthanized.

Upon filing a notice of appeal, the order of euthanasia shall be automatically stayed pending the outcome of the appeal. The owner shall bear the burden of timely notification to animal control in writing.

Guide dogs for the blind or hearing impaired, support dogs for persons with physical disabilities, accelerant detection dogs, and sentry, guard, or police-owned dogs are exempt from this Section; provided, an attack or injury to a person occurs while the dog is performing duties as expected. To qualify for exemption under this Section, each such dog shall be currently inoculated against rabies in accordance with Section 8 of this Act. It shall be the duty of the owner of such exempted dog to notify the Administrator of changes of address. In the case of a sentry or guard dog, the owner shall keep the Administrator advised of the location where such dog will be stationed. The Administrator shall provide police and fire departments with a categorized list of such exempted dogs, and shall promptly notify such departments of any address changes reported to him.

(c) If the animal control agency has custody of the dog, the agency may file a petition with the court requesting that the owner be ordered to post security. The security must be in an amount sufficient to secure payment of all reasonable expenses expected to be incurred by the animal control agency or animal shelter in caring for and providing for the dog pending the determination. Reasonable expenses include, but are not limited to, estimated medical care and boarding of the animal for 30 days. If security has been posted in accordance with this Section, the animal control agency may draw from the security the actual costs incurred by the agency in caring for the dog.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition, the court must set a hearing on the petition, to be conducted within 5 business days after the petition is filed. The petitioner must serve a true copy of the petition upon the defendant.

(e) If the court orders the posting of security, the security must be posted with the clerk of the court within 5 business days after the hearing. If the person ordered to post security does not do so, the dog is forfeited by operation of law and the animal control agency must dispose of the animal through adoption or humane euthanization.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 510. The Herptiles-Herps Act is amended by changing Section 80-5 as follows:

(510 ILCS 68/80-5)

Sec. 80-5. Injury to a member of public by special use herptiles. A person who possesses a special use herptile without complying with the requirements of this Act and the rules adopted under the authority of this Act and whose special use herptile harms a person when the possessor knew or should have known that the herptile had a propensity, when provoked or unprovoked, to harm, cause injury to, or otherwise substantially endanger a member of the public is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person who fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted under the authority of this Act and who intentionally or knowingly allows allow a special use herptile to cause great bodily harm to, or the death of, a human is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 515. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Section 3.01 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/3.01) (from Ch. 8, par. 703.01)

Sec. 3.01. Cruel treatment.

(a) No person or owner may beat, cruelly treat, torment, starve, overwork or otherwise abuse any animal.

(b) No owner may abandon any animal where it may become a public charge or may suffer injury, hunger or exposure.

(c) No owner of a dog or cat that is a companion animal may expose the dog or cat in a manner that places the dog or cat in a life-threatening situation for a prolonged period of time in extreme heat or cold conditions that results in injury to or death of the animal.

(d) (c) A person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalty provided by law, a person who is convicted of violating subsection (a) upon a companion animal in the presence of a child, as defined in Section 12-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, shall be subject to a fine of $250 and ordered to perform community service for not less than 100 hours. In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating this Section, the court may order the convicted person to undergo a psychological or psychiatric evaluation and to undergo any treatment at the convicted person's expense that the court determines to be appropriate after due consideration of the evidence. If the convicted person is a juvenile or a companion animal hoarder, the court must order the convicted person to undergo a psychological or psychiatric evaluation and to undergo treatment that the court determines to be appropriate after due consideration of the evaluation.

(Source: P.A. 99-311, eff. 1-1-16; 99-357, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 520. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.26, 2.33, and 3.31 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.26) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.26)

Sec. 2.26. Deer hunting permits. In this Section, "bona fide equity shareholder" means an individual who (1) purchased, for market price, publicly sold stock shares in a corporation, purchased shares of a privately-held corporation for a value equal to the percentage of the appraised value of the corporate assets represented by the ownership in the corporation, or is a member of a closely-held family-owned corporation and has purchased or been gifted with shares of stock in the corporation accurately reflecting his or her percentage of ownership and (2) intends to retain the ownership of the shares of stock for at least 5 years.

In this Section, "bona fide equity member" means an individual who (1) (i) became a member upon the formation of the limited liability company or (ii) has purchased a distributional interest in a limited liability company for a value equal to the percentage of the appraised value of the LLC assets represented by the distributional interest in the LLC and subsequently becomes a member of the company pursuant to Article 30 of the Limited Liability Company Act and who (2) intends to retain the membership for at least 5 years.

In this Section, "bona fide equity partner" means an individual who (1) (i) became a partner, either general or limited, upon the formation of a partnership or limited partnership, or (ii) has purchased, acquired, or been gifted a partnership interest accurately representing his or her percentage distributional interest in the profits, losses, and assets of a partnership or limited partnership, (2) intends to retain ownership of the partnership interest for at least 5 years, and (3) is a resident of Illinois.

Any person attempting to take deer shall first obtain a "Deer Hunting Permit" issued by the Department in accordance with its administrative rules. Those rules must provide for the issuance of the following types of resident deer archery permits: (i) a combination permit, consisting of one either-sex permit and one antlerless-only permit, (ii) a single antlerless-only permit, and (iii) a single either-sex permit. The fee for a Deer Hunting Permit to take deer with either bow and arrow or gun shall not exceed $25.00 for residents of the State. The Department may by administrative rule provide for non-resident deer hunting permits for which the fee will not exceed $300 in 2005, $350 in 2006, and $400 in 2007 and thereafter except as provided below for non-resident landowners and non-resident archery hunters. The Department may by administrative rule provide for a non-resident archery deer permit consisting of not more than 2 harvest tags at a total cost not to exceed $325 in 2005, $375 in 2006, and $425 in 2007 and thereafter. Permits shall be issued without charge to:

(a) Illinois landowners residing in Illinois who own at least 40 acres of Illinois land and wish to hunt their land only,

(b) resident tenants of at least 40 acres of commercial agricultural land where they will hunt, and

(c) Bona fide equity shareholders of a corporation, bona fide equity members of a limited liability company, or bona fide equity partners of a general or limited partnership which owns at least 40 acres of land in a county in Illinois who wish to hunt on the corporation's, company's, or partnership's land only. One permit shall be issued without charge to one bona fide equity shareholder, one bona fide equity member, or one bona fide equity partner for each 40 acres of land owned by the corporation, company, or partnership in a county; however, the number of permits issued without charge to bona fide equity shareholders of any corporation or bona fide equity members of a limited liability company in any county shall not exceed 15, and shall not exceed 3 in the case of bona fide equity partners of a partnership.

Bona fide landowners or tenants who do not wish to hunt only on the land they own, rent, or lease or bona fide equity shareholders, bona fide equity members, or bona fide equity partners who do not wish to hunt only on the land owned by the corporation, limited liability company, or partnership shall be charged the same fee as the applicant who is not a landowner, tenant, bona fide equity shareholder, bona fide equity member, or bona fide equity partner. Nonresidents of Illinois who own at least 40 acres of land and wish to hunt on their land only shall be charged a fee set by administrative rule. The method for obtaining these permits shall be prescribed by administrative rule.

The deer hunting permit issued without fee shall be valid on all farm lands which the person to whom it is issued owns, leases or rents, except that in the case of a permit issued to a bona fide equity shareholder, bona fide equity member, or bona fide equity partner, the permit shall be valid on all lands owned by the corporation, limited liability company, or partnership in the county.

The standards and specifications for use of guns and bow and arrow for deer hunting shall be established by administrative rule.

No person may have in his possession any firearm not authorized by administrative rule for a specific hunting season when taking deer.

Persons having a firearm deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of shotgun, handgun, or muzzle loading rifle.

Persons having an archery deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of bow and arrow.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer by use of dogs, horses, automobiles, aircraft or other vehicles, or by the use or aid of bait or baiting of any kind. For the purposes of this Section, "bait" means any material, whether liquid or solid, including food, salt, minerals, and other products, except pure water, that can be ingested, placed, or scattered in such a manner as to attract or lure white-tailed deer. "Baiting" means the placement or scattering of bait to attract deer. An area is considered as baited during the presence of and for 10 consecutive days following the removal of bait. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the use of a dog to track wounded deer. Any person using a dog for tracking wounded deer must maintain physical control of the dog at all times by means of a maximum 50 foot lead attached to the dog's collar or harness. Tracking wounded deer is permissible at night, but at no time outside of legal deer hunting hours or seasons shall any person handling or accompanying a dog being used for tracking wounded deer be in possession of any firearm or archery device. Persons tracking wounded deer with a dog during the firearm deer seasons shall wear blaze orange as required. Dog handlers tracking wounded deer with a dog are exempt from hunting license and deer permit requirements so long as they are accompanied by the licensed deer hunter who wounded the deer.

It shall be unlawful to possess or transport any wild deer which has been injured or killed in any manner upon a public highway or public right-of-way of this State unless exempted by administrative rule.

Persons hunting deer must have gun unloaded and no bow and arrow device shall be carried with the arrow in the nocked position during hours when deer hunting is unlawful.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by gun, to further participate with gun in any deer hunting party.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by bow and arrow, to further participate with bow and arrow in any deer hunting party.

The Department may prohibit upland game hunting during the gun deer season by administrative rule.

The Department shall not limit the number of non-resident, either-sex either sex archery deer hunting permits to less than 20,000.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Section, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

For the purposes of calculating acreage under this Section, the Department shall, after determining the total acreage of the applicable tract or tracts of land, round remaining fractional portions of an acre greater than or equal to half of an acre up to the next whole acre.

For the purposes of taking white-tailed deer, nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the manipulation, including mowing or cutting, of standing crops as a normal agricultural or soil stabilization practice, food plots, or normal agricultural practices, including planting, harvesting, and maintenance such as cultivating or the use of products designed for scent only and not capable of ingestion, solid or liquid, placed or scattered, in such a manner as to attract or lure deer. Such manipulation for the purpose of taking white-tailed deer may be further modified by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 97-564, eff. 8-25-11; 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; 98-180, eff. 8-5-13; revised 10-20-15.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.33) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33)

Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.

(a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.

(b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any species, except that snares not powered by springs or other mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is located underwater at all times.

(c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as provided in Section 2.37.

(d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any mammals from their dens or hiding places.

(e) (Blank).

(f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks or any like device to take any species protected by this Act.

(g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals or explosives for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.

(h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat, grass, brush or other inflammable substance when it is burning.

(i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or aid of any vehicle or conveyance, except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. It is also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance or any light from or any light connected to the vehicle or conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the purpose of driving upon a roadway. Striped skunk, opossum, red fox, gray fox, raccoon, bobcat, and coyote may be taken during the open season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.

(j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected by this Act.

(k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer), wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection (l) or administrative rule.

(l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by administrative rule.

(m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with a one piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.

(n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance or aircraft, unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act, unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only, may be carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or otherwise made inoperable.

(o) It is unlawful to use any crossbow for the purpose of taking any wild birds or mammals, except as provided for in Section 2.5.

(p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun.

(q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver or airgun on, over or into any waters of this State, including frozen waters.

(r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or highway in this State.

(s) It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting from the firing of any gun.

(t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of another without first obtaining permission from the owner or the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a written authorization and the authorization must contain (i) the legal or common description of property for such authority is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing this Section the law enforcement officer must have received notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the required notice.

(u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or intentionally or wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant, except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with shotgun using shot shells only, or providing outfitting services under a waterfowl outfitter permit, or on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department owned, managed, leased, or controlled lands, a 100 yard restriction shall apply.

(v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps owned by another person without written authorization of the owner to do so.

(w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to knowingly or wantonly allow his or her dog to pursue, harass or kill deer, except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of Section 2.26 of this Code.

(x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or personal property on the land of another while engaged in hunting or trapping thereon.

(y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise, except that hunting hours between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise may be established by administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.

(z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight. Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.

(aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may be used for tree climbing or cutting, while hunting fur-bearing mammals, excluding coyotes.

(bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so from the Director.

(cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act during the season closed for taking.

(dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative rule.

(ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field during gun deer season except as provided in Section 2.26 and administrative rules.

(ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color, with such articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches of blaze orange material.

(gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color. For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern Cottontail and Swamp Rabbit.

(hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or highway or on public or private property, including a waterway or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined to be unfit for human consumption.

(ii) This Section shall apply only to those species protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36 and 3.21.

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other persons with disabilities who meet the requirements set forth in administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with this Act.

(ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power. However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be used to take species protected by this Act.

(mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20 gauge, with a rifled barrel.

(nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife or wildlife parts is indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until 2 years after the possession has permanently ended.

(Source: P.A. 98-119, eff. 1-1-14; 98-181, eff. 8-5-13; 98-183, eff. 1-1-14; 98-290, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-914, eff. 1-1-15; 99-33, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.31) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.31)

Sec. 3.31. The Department may designate any operator of a licensed license game breeding and hunting preserve area or any of his or its agents or employees as a special representative of the Department with power to enforce the game laws and to prevent trespassing upon such property; provided that not more than two special representatives may be appointed for each such preserve. Such special representative shall be subject to rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department and shall serve without compensation from the Department.

(Source: P.A. 84-150; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 525. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-415, 3-616, 3-626, 3-801, 3-806.3, 3-818, 6-106.1, 6-115, 6-118, 6-205, 6-206, 6-208, 6-302, 11-501.01, 11-605.1, 12-215, and 15-316 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-415) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-415)

Sec. 3-415. Application for and renewal of registration.

(a) Calendar year. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered on a calendar registration year, not later than December 1 of each year, upon proper application and by payment of the registration fee and tax for such vehicle, as provided by law except that application for renewal of a vehicle registration, as to those vehicles required to be registered on a staggered calendar year basis, shall be made by the owner in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State.

(b) Fiscal year. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered on a fiscal registration year, not later than June 1 of each year, upon proper application and by payment of the registration fee and tax for such vehicle as provided by law, except that application for renewal of a vehicle registration, as to those vehicles required to be registered on a staggered fiscal year basis, shall be made by the owner in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State.

(c) Two calendar years. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 2 calendar years, not later than December 1 of the year preceding commencement of the 2-year registration period, except that application for renewal of a vehicle registration, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 2 years on a staggered registration basis, shall be made by the owner in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State.

(d) Two fiscal years. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 2 fiscal years, not later than June 1 immediately preceding commencement of the 2-year registration period, except that application for renewal of a vehicle registration, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 2 fiscal years on a staggered registration basis, shall be made by the owner in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State.

(d-5) Three calendar years. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 3 calendar years, not later than December 1 of the year preceding commencement of the 3-year registration period.

(d-10) Five calendar years. Application for renewal of a vehicle registration shall be made by the owner, as to those vehicles required to be registered for 5 calendar years, not later than December 1 of the year preceding commencement of the 5-year registration period.

(e) Time of application. The Secretary of State may receive applications for renewal of registration and grant the same and issue new registration cards and plates or registration stickers at any time prior to expiration of registration. No person shall display upon a vehicle, the new registration plates or registration stickers prior to the dates the Secretary of State in his discretion may select.

(f) Verification. The Secretary of State may further require, as to vehicles for-hire, that applications be accompanied by verification that fees due under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, as amended, have been paid.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Returning combat mission veterans. Beginning in registration year 2017, the application for renewal, and subsequent fees, of a vehicle registration for a member of the active-duty or reserve component of the United States Armed Forces returning from a combat mission shall not be required for that service member's next scheduled renewal. Proof of combat mission service shall come from the service member's hostile fire pay or imminent danger pay documentation received any time in the 12 months preceding the registration renewal. Nothing in this subsection is applicable to the additional fees incurred by specialty, personalized, or vanity license plates.

(Source: P.A. 98-539, eff. 1-1-14; 98-787, eff. 7-25-14; 99-32, eff. 7-10-15; 99-80, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)

Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.

(a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State, if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further provided that any person making such a request must submit a statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a licensed physician assistant, or by a licensed advanced practice nurse, to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such a disability.

(b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances qualifying for issuance of special plates under this subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.

(c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided such person with disabilities making such a request has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement certified by a licensed physician, or by a licensed physician assistant or a licensed advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this subsection.

(d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates, decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person is certified as meeting the definition of a person with disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months from the date of certification or recertification.

(e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as provided under Section 3-405.1.

(f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue disability registration plates or a parking decal to corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall be placed on qualifying vehicles.

(g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to residents of this State with disabilities who display a special license plate or parking device that contains the International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted to residents of this State with disabilities to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in another state, district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state, district, territory or foreign country.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-626)

Sec. 3-626. Korean War Veteran license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as Korean War Veteran license plates to residents of Illinois who participated in the United States Armed Forces during the Korean War. The special plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Korean War Memorial Construction Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Korean War Memorial Construction Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Veteran Affairs to provide grants for construction of the Korean War Memorial to be located at Oak Ridge Cemetery in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial, the Department of Veteran Affairs shall certify to the State Treasurer that the construction of the Memorial has been completed. Upon the certification by the Department of Veteran Affairs, the State Treasurer shall transfer all moneys in the Fund and any future deposits into the Fund into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(e) An individual who has been issued Korean War Veteran license plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act shall pay the original issuance and the regular annual fee for the registration of the vehicle as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-127, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 11-2-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-801) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-801)

Sec. 3-801. Registration.

(a) Except as provided herein for new residents, every owner of any vehicle which shall be operated upon the public highways of this State shall, within 24 hours after becoming the owner or at such time as such vehicle becomes subject to registration under the provisions of this Act, file in an office of the Secretary of State, an application for registration properly completed and executed. New residents need not secure registration until 30 days after establishing residency in this State, provided the vehicle is properly registered in another jurisdiction. By the expiration of such 30-day 30 day statutory grace period, a new resident shall comply with the provisions of this Act and apply for Illinois vehicle registration. All applications for registration shall be accompanied by all documentation required under the provisions of this Act. The appropriate registration fees and taxes provided for in this Article of this Chapter shall be paid to the Secretary of State with the application for registration of vehicles subject to registration under this Act.

(b) Any resident of this State, who has been serving as a member or as a civilian employee of the United States Armed Services, or as a civilian employee of the United States Department of Defense, outside of the State of Illinois, need not secure registration until 45 days after returning to this State, provided the vehicle displays temporary military registration.

(c) When an application is submitted by mail, the applicant may not submit cash or postage stamps for payment of fees or taxes due. The Secretary in his discretion, may decline to accept a personal or company check or electronic payment in payment of fees or taxes. An application submitted to a dealer, or a remittance made to the Secretary of State shall be deemed in compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-118, eff. 1-1-16; 99-324, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-2-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-806.3)

Sec. 3-806.3. Senior Citizens. Commencing with the 2009 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-609, 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, or 3-663, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

Commencing with the 2009 registration year, the registration fee paid by any vehicle owner who has claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act or who is the spouse of such a person shall be $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, motor vehicles displaying special registration plates issued under Section 3-607, 3-609, 3-616, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-663, or 3-664, motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), and recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b). Widows and widowers of claimants shall also be entitled to this reduced registration fee for the registration year in which the claimant was eligible.

Commencing with the 2017 registration year, the reduced fee under this Section shall apply to any special registration plate authorized in Article VI of Chapter 3 of this Code, for which the applicant would otherwise be eligible.

No more than one reduced registration fee under this Section shall be allowed during any 12-month 12 month period based on the primary eligibility of any individual, whether such reduced registration fee is allowed to the individual or to the spouse, widow or widower of such individual. This Section does not apply to the fee paid in addition to the registration fee for motor vehicles displaying vanity, personalized, or special license plates.

(Source: P.A. 99-71, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-818) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-818)

Sec. 3-818. (a) Mileage weight tax option.

(a) Any owner of a vehicle of the second division may elect to pay a mileage weight tax for such vehicle in lieu of the flat weight tax set out in Section 3-815. Such election shall be binding to the end of the registration year. Renewal of this election must be filed with the Secretary of State on or before July 1 of each registration period. In such event the owner shall, at the time of making such election, pay the $10 registration fee and the minimum guaranteed mileage weight tax, as hereinafter provided, which payment shall permit the owner to operate that vehicle the maximum mileage in this State hereinafter set forth. Any vehicle being operated on mileage plates cannot be operated outside of this State. In addition thereto, the owner of that vehicle shall pay a mileage weight tax at the following rates for each mile traveled in this State in excess of the maximum mileage provided under the minimum guaranteed basis:

BUS, TRUCK OR TRUCK TRACTOR

TRAILER

(a-1) A Special Hauling Vehicle is a vehicle or combination of vehicles of the second division registered under Section 3-813 transporting asphalt or concrete in the plastic state or a vehicle or combination of vehicles that are subject to the gross weight limitations in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 for which the owner of the vehicle or combination of vehicles has elected to pay, in addition to the registration fee in subsection (a), $125 to the Secretary of State for each registration year. The Secretary shall designate this class of vehicle as a Special Hauling Vehicle.

In preparing rate schedules on registration applications, the Secretary of State shall add to the above rates, the $10 registration fee. The Secretary may decline to accept any renewal filed after July 1st.

The number of axles necessary to carry the maximum load provided shall be determined from Chapter 15 of this Code.

Every owner of a second division motor vehicle for which he has elected to pay a mileage weight tax shall keep a daily record upon forms prescribed by the Secretary of State, showing the mileage covered by that vehicle in this State. Such record shall contain the license number of the vehicle and the miles traveled by the vehicle in this State for each day of the calendar month. Such owner shall also maintain records of fuel consumed by each such motor vehicle and fuel purchases therefor. On or before the 10th day of July the owner shall certify to the Secretary of State upon forms prescribed therefor, summaries of his daily records which shall show the miles traveled by the vehicle in this State during the preceding 12 months and such other information as the Secretary of State may require. The daily record and fuel records shall be filed, preserved and available for audit for a period of 3 years. Any owner filing a return hereunder shall certify that such return is a true, correct and complete return. Any person who willfully makes a false return hereunder is guilty of perjury and shall be punished in the same manner and to the same extent as is provided therefor.

At the time of filing his return, each owner shall pay to the Secretary of State the proper amount of tax at the rate herein imposed.

Every owner of a vehicle of the second division who elects to pay on a mileage weight tax basis and who operates the vehicle within this State, shall file with the Secretary of State a bond in the amount of $500. The bond shall be in a form approved by the Secretary of State and with a surety company approved by the Illinois Department of Insurance to transact business in this State as surety, and shall be conditioned upon such applicant's paying to the State of Illinois all money becoming due by reason of the operation of the second division vehicle in this State, together with all penalties and interest thereon.

Upon notice from the Secretary that the registrant has failed to pay the excess mileage fees, the surety shall immediately pay the fees together with any penalties and interest thereon in an amount not to exceed the limits of the bond.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2016, upon the request of the vehicle owner, a $10 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for vehicles in the 12,000 lbs. and less mileage weight plate category as described in subsection (a) to be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. The $10 surcharge is to identify vehicles in the 12,000 lbs. and less mileage weight plate category as a covered farm vehicle. The $10 surcharge is an annual flat fee that shall be based on an applicant's new or existing registration year for each vehicle in the 12,000 lbs. and less mileage weight plate category. A designation as a covered farm vehicle under this subsection (b) shall not alter a vehicle's registration as a registration in the 12,000 lbs. or less mileage weight category. The Secretary shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 99-57, eff. 7-16-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on July 1, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 88-612) this Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice nurse, or a licensed physician assistant within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease; and

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(k) A private carrier employer of a school bus driver permit holder, having satisfied the employer requirements of this Section, shall be held to a standard of ordinary care for intentional acts committed in the course of employment by the bus driver permit holder. This subsection (k) shall in no way limit the liability of the private carrier employer for violation of any provision of this Section or for the negligent hiring or retention of a school bus driver permit holder.

(Source: P.A. 99-148, eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; revised 11-2-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-115) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-115)

Sec. 6-115. Expiration of driver's license.

(a) Except as provided elsewhere in this Section, every driver's license issued under the provisions of this Code shall expire 4 years from the date of its issuance, or at such later date, as the Secretary of State may by proper rule and regulation designate, not to exceed 12 calendar months; in the event that an applicant for renewal of a driver's license fails to apply prior to the expiration date of the previous driver's license, the renewal driver's license shall expire 4 years from the expiration date of the previous driver's license, or at such later date as the Secretary of State may by proper rule and regulation designate, not to exceed 12 calendar months.

The Secretary of State may, however, issue to a person not previously licensed as a driver in Illinois a driver's license which will expire not less than 4 years nor more than 5 years from date of issuance, except as provided elsewhere in this Section.

(a-5) Beginning July 1, 2016, every driver's license issued under this Code to an applicant who is not a United States citizen shall expire on whichever is the earlier date of the following:

(1) as provided under subsection (a), (f), (g), or (i) of this Section; or

(2) on the date the applicant's authorized stay in the United States terminates.

(b) Before the expiration of a driver's license, except those licenses expiring on the individual's 21st birthday, or 3 months after the individual's 21st birthday, the holder thereof may apply for a renewal thereof, subject to all the provisions of Section 6-103, and the Secretary of State may require an examination of the applicant. A licensee whose driver's license expires on his 21st birthday, or 3 months after his 21st birthday, may not apply for a renewal of his driving privileges until he reaches the age of 21.

(c) The Secretary of State shall, 30 days prior to the expiration of a driver's license, forward to each person whose license is to expire a notification of the expiration of said license which may be presented at the time of renewal of said license.

There may be included with such notification information explaining the anatomical gift and Emergency Medical Information Card provisions of Section 6-110. The format and text of such information shall be prescribed by the Secretary.

There shall be included with such notification, for a period of 4 years beginning January 1, 2000 information regarding the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange established in Section 18.1 of the Adoption Act.

(d) The Secretary may defer the expiration of the driver's license of a licensee, spouse, and dependent children who are living with such licensee while on active duty, serving in the Armed Forces of the United States outside of the State of Illinois, and 120 days thereafter, upon such terms and conditions as the Secretary may prescribe.

(d-5) The Secretary may defer the expiration of the driver's license of a licensee, or of a spouse or dependent children living with the licensee, serving as a civilian employee of the United States Armed Forces or the United States Department of Defense, outside of the State of Illinois, and 120 days thereafter, upon such terms and conditions as the Secretary may prescribe.

(e) The Secretary of State may decline to process a renewal of a driver's license of any person who has not paid any fee or tax due under this Code and is not paid upon reasonable notice and demand.

(f) The Secretary shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee under 21 years of age shall expire 3 months after the licensee's 21st birthday. Persons whose current driver's licenses expire on their 21st birthday on or after January 1, 1986 shall not renew their driver's license before their 21st birthday, and their current driver's license will be extended for an additional term of 3 months beyond their 21st birthday. Thereafter, the expiration and term of the driver's license shall be governed by subsection (a) hereof.

(g) The Secretary shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee 81 years of age through age 86 shall expire 2 years from the date of issuance, or at such later date as the Secretary may by rule and regulation designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months. The Secretary shall also provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee 87 years of age or older shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance, or at such later date as the Secretary may by rule and regulation designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months.

(h) The Secretary of State shall provide that each special restricted driver's license issued under subsection (g) of Section 6-113 of this Code shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance. The Secretary shall adopt rules defining renewal requirements.

(i) The Secretary of State shall provide that each driver's license issued to a person convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance or at such date as the Secretary may by rule designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months. The Secretary may adopt rules defining renewal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 99-118, eff. 1-1-16; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-3-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older.....................................0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or

age 69 and older)..................................30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. 20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. 5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... 5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... 10

Restricted driving permit.............................. 8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. 5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... 0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification: $6 for the

CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier

Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Suspension under Section 11-1431....................$100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of Section 2-119 of this Code, except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 or a suspension under Section 11-501.9;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

8. Fees collected under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) and subsection (h) of Section 6-205 of this Code; subparagraph (C) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code; and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-206.1 of this Code, shall be paid into the funds set forth in those Sections.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 98-176 (see Section 10 of P.A. 98-722 and Section 10 of P.A. 99-414 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 98-176); 98-177, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15; 99-127, eff. 1-1-16; 99-438, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; Hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing;

15. A second or subsequent conviction of driving while the person's driver's license, permit or privileges was revoked for reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense;

16. Any offense against any provision in this Code, or any local ordinance, regulating the movement of traffic when that offense was the proximate cause of the death of any person. Any person whose driving privileges have been revoked pursuant to this paragraph may seek to have the revocation terminated or to have the length of revocation reduced by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State prior to the projected driver's license application eligibility date;

17. Violation of subsection (a-2) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

18. A second or subsequent conviction of illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. A defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court.

(c)(1) Whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit.

(1.5) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation, or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(A) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(B) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this paragraph (1.5), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this paragraph (1.5) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is subsequently convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide where the use of alcohol or other drugs was recited as an element of the offense, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-6) If a person is convicted of a second violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person's driving privileges shall be revoked pursuant to subdivision (a)(15) of this Section. The person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of five years from the effective date of the revocation or the expiration of five years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment, whichever is later.

(c-7) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person may never apply for a license or permit.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one-year one year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 12 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3.5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (h), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of this Section.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(k) The Secretary of State shall notify by mail any person whose driving privileges have been revoked under paragraph 16 of subsection (a) of this Section that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be revoked 90 days from the date of the mailing of the notice.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-290, eff. 1-1-16; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; 99-297, eff. 1-1-16; 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-483, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-2-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Code Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois or in another state of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code; or

47. Has committed a violation of Section 11-502.1 of this Code.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B-5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year one year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(F) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(i) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(ii) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F).

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 6-205 of this Code and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of this Section. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-103, eff. 1-1-14; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-726, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-290, eff. 1-1-16; 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-483, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-3-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-208)

Sec. 6-208. Period of Suspension - Application After Revocation.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by this Code or any other law of this State, the Secretary of State shall not suspend a driver's license, permit, or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways for a period of more than one year.

(b) Any person whose license, permit, or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways has been revoked shall not be entitled to have such license, permit, or privilege renewed or restored. However, such person may, except as provided under subsections (d) and (d-5) of Section 6-205, make application for a license pursuant to Section 6-106 (i) if the revocation was for a cause that has been removed or (ii) as provided in the following subparagraphs:

1. Except as provided in subparagraphs 1.3, 1.5, 2, 3, 4, and 5, the person may make application for a license (A) after the expiration of one year from the effective date of the revocation, (B) in the case of a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, after the expiration of 3 years from the effective date of the revocation, or (C) in the case of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph 1 of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, after the expiration of 2 years from the effective date of the revocation or after the expiration of 24 months from the date of release from a period of imprisonment as provided in Section 6-103 of this Code, whichever is later.

1.3. If the person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person may not make application for a driver's license until:

(A) the person has first been issued a restricted driving permit by the Secretary of State; and

(B) the expiration of a continuous period of not less than 5 years following the issuance of the restricted driving permit during which the person's restricted driving permit is not suspended, cancelled, or revoked for a violation of any provision of law, or any rule or regulation of the Secretary of State relating to the required use of an ignition interlock device.

1.5. If the person is convicted of a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, the person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of 3 years from the date of the conviction.

2. If such person is convicted of committing a second violation within a 20-year period of:

(A) Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(B) Paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(C) Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide; or

(D) any combination of the above offenses committed at different instances;

then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation. The 20-year period shall be computed by using the dates the offenses were committed and shall also include similar out-of-state offenses and similar offenses committed on a military installation.

2.5. If a person is convicted of a second violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while the person's driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, the person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of 5 years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment.

3. However, except as provided in subparagraph 4, if such person is convicted of committing a third violation or any combination of the above offenses, including similar out-of-state offenses and similar offenses committed on a military installation, contained in subparagraph 2, then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 10 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation.

4. Except as provided in paragraph (1.5) of subsection (c) of Section 6-205 and subparagraph (F) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code, the person may not make application for a license if the person is convicted of committing a fourth or subsequent violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, Section 11-401 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a combination of these offenses, similar provisions of local ordinances, similar out-of-state offenses, or similar offenses committed on a military installation.

4.5. A bona fide resident of a foreign jurisdiction who is subject to the provisions of subparagraph 4 of this subsection (b) may make application for termination of the revocation after a period of 10 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation. However, if a person who has been granted a termination of revocation under this subparagraph 4.5 subsequently becomes a resident of this State, the revocation shall be reinstated and the person shall be subject to the provisions of subparagraph 4.

5. The person may not make application for a license or permit if the person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, all persons referred to in this paragraph (b) may not have their privileges restored until the Secretary receives payment of the required reinstatement fee pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 6-118.

In no event shall the Secretary issue such license unless and until such person has had a hearing pursuant to this Code and the appropriate administrative rules and the Secretary is satisfied, after a review or investigation of such person, that to grant the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on the highways will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-290, eff. 1-1-16; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-3-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-302) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-302)

Sec. 6-302. Making false application or affidavit - Perjury.

(a) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

1. To display or present any document for the purpose of making application for a driver's license or permit knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity identify of the applicant;

2. To accept or allow to be accepted any document displayed or presented for the purpose of making application for a driver's license or permit knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity of the applicant;

3. To knowingly make any false affidavit or swear or affirm falsely to any matter or thing required by the terms of this Act to be sworn to or affirmed.

(b) Sentence.

1. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

2. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) This Section does not prohibit any lawfully authorized investigative, protective, law enforcement or other activity of any agency of the United States, State of Illinois or any other state or political subdivision thereof.

(Source: P.A. 86-503; revised 11-2-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.01)

Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions.

(a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(c) Every person found guilty of violating Section 11-501, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of that Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of this Section.

(d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (e), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of Section 6-205 of this Code.

(f) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person placed on court supervision for violating Section 11-501, shall be assessed $750, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money as follows: $350 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, and $400 shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. If the person has been previously convicted of violating Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be $1,000, and the circuit clerk shall distribute $200 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest and $800 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the amount payable to law enforcement agencies shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (f) shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations. Any moneys received by the Department of State Police under this subsection (f) shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Secretary of State Police under subsection (f) of this Section shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations.

(h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

(i) In addition to any other fine or penalty required by law, an individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency response. The restitution may not exceed $1,000 per public agency for each emergency response. As used in this subsection (i), "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department, or an ambulance. With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police DUI Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(j) A person that is subject to a chemical test or tests of blood under subsection (a) of Section 11-501.1 or subdivision (c)(2) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, whether or not that person consents to testing, shall be liable for the expense up to $500 for blood withdrawal by a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist, a licensed paramedic, or a qualified person other than a police officer approved by the Department of State Police to withdraw blood, who responds, whether at a law enforcement facility or a health care facility, to a police department request for the drawing of blood based upon refusal of the person to submit to a lawfully requested breath test or probable cause exists to believe the test would disclose the ingestion, consumption, or use of drugs or intoxicating compounds if:

(1) the person is found guilty of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) the person pleads guilty to or stipulates to facts supporting a violation of Section 11-503 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement in which the person was originally charged with violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 98-292, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; revised 11-3-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-605.1)

Sec. 11-605.1. Special limit while traveling through a highway construction or maintenance speed zone.

(a) A person may not operate a motor vehicle in a construction or maintenance speed zone at a speed in excess of the posted speed limit when workers are present.

(a-5) A person may not operate a motor vehicle in a construction or maintenance speed zone at a speed in excess of the posted speed limit when workers are not present.

(b) Nothing in this Chapter prohibits the use of electronic speed-detecting devices within 500 feet of signs within a construction or maintenance speed zone indicating the zone, as defined in this Section, nor shall evidence obtained by use of those devices be inadmissible in any prosecution for speeding, provided the use of the device shall apply only to the enforcement of the speed limit in the construction or maintenance speed zone.

(c) As used in this Section, a "construction or maintenance speed zone" is an area in which the Department, Toll Highway Authority, or local agency has posted signage advising drivers that a construction or maintenance speed zone is being approached, or in which the Department, Authority, or local agency has posted a lower speed limit with a highway construction or maintenance speed zone special speed limit sign after determining that the preexisting established speed limit through a highway construction or maintenance project is greater than is reasonable or safe with respect to the conditions expected to exist in the construction or maintenance speed zone.

If it is determined that the preexisting established speed limit is safe with respect to the conditions expected to exist in the construction or maintenance speed zone, additional speed limit signs which conform to the requirements of this subsection (c) shall be posted.

Highway construction or maintenance speed zone special speed limit signs shall be of a design approved by the Department. The signs must give proper due warning that a construction or maintenance speed zone is being approached and must indicate the maximum speed limit in effect. The signs also must state the amount of the minimum fine for a violation.

(d) Except as provided under subsection (d-5), a person who violates this Section is guilty of a petty offense. Violations of this Section are punishable with a minimum fine of $250 for the first violation and a minimum fine of $750 for the second or subsequent violation.

(d-5) A person committing a violation of this Section is guilty of aggravated special speed limit while traveling through a highway construction or maintenance speed zone when he or she drives a motor vehicle at a speed that is:

(1) 26 miles per hour or more but less than 35 miles per hour in excess of the applicable special speed limit established under this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor; or

(2) 35 miles per hour or more in excess of the applicable special speed limit established under this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) If a fine for a violation of this Section is $250 or greater, the person who violated this Section shall be charged an additional $125, which shall be deposited into the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund in the State treasury, unless (i) the violation occurred on a highway other than an interstate highway and (ii) a county police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case the $125 shall be deposited into that county's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund. In the case of a second or subsequent violation of this Section, if the fine is $750 or greater, the person who violated this Section shall be charged an additional $250, which shall be deposited into the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund in the State treasury, unless (i) the violation occurred on a highway other than an interstate highway and (ii) a county police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case the $250 shall be deposited into that county's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund.

(e-5) The Department of State Police and the local county police department have concurrent jurisdiction over any violation of this Section that occurs on an interstate highway.

(f) The Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund, which was created by Public Act 92-619, shall continue to be a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, the Secretary of Transportation shall use all moneys in the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to hire off-duty Department of State Police officers to monitor construction or maintenance zones.

(f-5) Each county shall create a Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund. The county shall use the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to hire off-duty county police officers to monitor construction or maintenance zones in that county on highways other than interstate highways. The county, in its discretion, may also use a portion of the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to purchase equipment for county law enforcement and fund the production of materials to educate drivers on construction zone safe driving habits.

(g) For a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, the Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of the violator for a period of 90 days. This suspension shall only be imposed if the current violation of this Section and at least one prior violation of this Section occurred during a period when workers were present in the construction or maintenance zone.

(Source: P.A. 98-337, eff. 1-1-14; 99-212, eff. 1-1-16; 99-280, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)

Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:

(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local authorities;

2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle;

2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has completed an emergency vehicle operation training course approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, as a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department vehicle; however, the designation or authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the lights may be visible or activated only when responding to a bona fide emergency;

3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles;

4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;

4.5. Vehicles which are occasionally used as rescue vehicles that have been authorized for use as rescue vehicles by a volunteer EMS provider, provided that the operator of the vehicle has successfully completed an emergency vehicle operation training course recognized by the Department of Public Health; furthermore, the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call for the sick or injured;

5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the State of Illinois;

6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice;

7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act;

8. School buses operating alternately flashing head lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;

9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization;

10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response;

11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency; and

12. Vehicles of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority identified as Highway Emergency Lane Patrol; the lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the emergency.

(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are actually being used at the scene of an accident or disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway during all times when the use of headlights is required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition, these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;

2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, local authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance or construction operations within the limits of construction projects;

3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a highway;

4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or other construction, maintenance or automotive service vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance, service or construction on a highway;

5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;

6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and operated by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways;

6.1. The front and rear of motorized equipment or vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;

7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state, furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;

8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local authorities;

9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights;

9.5. Propane delivery trucks;

10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for the United States Postal Service provided that such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;

12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage, recycling, or refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually being used for such purposes;

13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of Corrections;

14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except when being used for security related purposes under the direction of the superintendent of the facility where the vehicle is located; and

15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within the limits of a construction project.

(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:

1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department and vehicles owned or operated by a:

voluntary firefighter;

paid firefighter;

part-paid firefighter;

call firefighter;

member of the board of trustees of a fire protection district;

paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;

paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance unit; or

paid or unpaid members of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and carrying that designation or authorization in the vehicle.

However, such lights are not to be lighted except when responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

Any person using these lights in accordance with this subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an identification card or letter identifying the bona fide member of a fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The card or letter must include:

(A) the name of the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(B) the member's position within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency;

(C) the member's term of service; and

(D) the name of a person within the fire department, fire protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management services agency to contact to verify the information provided.

2. Police department vehicles in cities having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.

3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local authorities when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.

5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency call.

6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore, these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team or a representative of the organ procurement organization.

7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives emergency response, when used in combination with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.

(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call, or motor vehicle accident.

(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or unpaid member of a local or county emergency management services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.

(d) The use of a combination of amber and white oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local authorities, contractors, and union representatives; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or construction operations within the limits of highway construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles of union representatives except when those vehicles are within the limits of a construction project.

(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.

(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-80, eff. 7-15-13; 98-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-873, eff. 1-1-15; 99-40, eff. 1-1-16; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-125, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-316) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-316)

Sec. 15-316. When the Department or local authority may restrict right to use highways.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (g), local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may by ordinance or resolution prohibit the operation of vehicles upon any such highway or impose restrictions as to the weight of vehicles to be operated upon any such highway, for a total period of not to exceed 90 days, measured in either consecutive or nonconsecutive days at the discretion of local authorities, in any one calendar year, whenever any said highway by reason of deterioration, rain, snow, or other climate conditions will be seriously damaged or destroyed unless the use of vehicles thereon is prohibited or the permissible weights thereof reduced.

(b) The local authority enacting any such ordinance or resolution shall erect or cause to be erected and maintained signs designating the provision of the ordinance or resolution at each end of that portion of any highway affected thereby, and the ordinance or resolution shall not be effective unless and until such signs are erected and maintained.

(c) Local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may also, by ordinance or resolution, prohibit the operation of trucks or other commercial vehicles, or may impose limitations as the weight thereof, on designated highways, which prohibitions and limitations shall be designated by appropriate signs placed on such highways.

(c-1) (Blank).

(c-5) Highway commissioners, with respect to roads under their authority, may not permanently post a road or portion thereof at a reduced weight limit unless the decision to do so is made in accordance with Section Sec. 6-201.22 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(d) The Department shall likewise have authority as hereinbefore granted to local authorities to determine by resolution and to impose restrictions as to the weight of vehicles operated upon any highway under the jurisdiction of said department, and such restrictions shall be effective when signs giving notice thereof are erected upon the highway or portion of any highway affected by such resolution.

(d-1) (Blank).

(d-2) (Blank).

(e) When any vehicle is operated in violation of this Section, the owner or driver of the vehicle shall be deemed guilty of a violation and either the owner or the driver of the vehicle may be prosecuted for the violation. Any person, firm, or corporation convicted of violating this Section shall be fined $50 for any weight exceeding the posted limit up to the axle or gross weight limit allowed a vehicle as provided for in subsections (a) or (b) of Section 15-111 and $75 per every 500 pounds or fraction thereof for any weight exceeding that which is provided for in subsections (a) or (b) of Section 15-111.

(f) A municipality is authorized to enforce a county weight limit ordinance applying to county highways within its corporate limits and is entitled to the proceeds of any fines collected from the enforcement.

(g) An ordinance or resolution enacted by a county or township pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall not apply to cargo tank vehicles with two or three permanent axles when delivering propane for emergency heating purposes if the cargo tank is loaded at no more than 50 percent capacity, the gross vehicle weight of the vehicle does not exceed 32,000 pounds, and the driver of the cargo tank vehicle notifies the appropriate agency or agencies with jurisdiction over the highway before driving the vehicle on the highway pursuant to this subsection. The cargo tank vehicle must have an operating gauge on the cargo tank which indicates the amount of propane as a percent of capacity of the cargo tank. The cargo tank must have the capacity displayed on the cargo tank, or documentation of the capacity of the cargo tank must be available in the vehicle. For the purposes of this subsection, propane weighs 4.2 pounds per gallon. This subsection does not apply to municipalities. Nothing in this subsection shall allow cargo tank vehicles to cross bridges with posted weight restrictions if the vehicle exceeds the posted weight limit.

(Source: P.A. 99-168, eff. 1-1-16; 99-237, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 530. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-10, 3-12, and 5-530 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware of through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 16 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists; and on and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe that continuation of the contact, as set out in the plan, would be contrary to the child's health, safety, and welfare. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for his or her protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3, and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex parte ex-parte. A shelter care order from an ex parte ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-803, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-12) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-12)

Sec. 3-12. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative intervention, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative intervention, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. The Court shall require documentation by representatives of the Department of Children and Family Services or the probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, and shall consider the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and further finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child.

The order together with the court's findings of fact and support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3, and 4-3 the petitioner is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex parte ex-parte. A shelter care order from an ex parte ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

............................................................. and (2) that there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within one day of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period specified in Section 3-11, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-16-15.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-530)

Sec. 5-530. Notice.

(1) A party presenting a supplemental or amended petition or motion to the court shall provide the other parties with a copy of any supplemental or amended petition, motion or accompanying affidavit not yet served upon that party, and shall file proof of that service, in accordance with subsections (2), (3), and (4) of this Section. Written notice of the date, time and place of the hearing, shall be provided to all parties in accordance with local court rules.

(2) (a) On whom made. If a party is represented by an attorney of record, service shall be made upon the attorney. Otherwise service shall be made upon the party.

(b) Method. Papers shall be served as follows:

(1) by delivering them to the attorney or party personally;

(2) by leaving them in the office of the attorney with his or her clerk, or with a person in charge of the office; or if a party is not represented by counsel, by leaving them at his or her residence with a family member of the age of 10 years or upwards;

(3) by depositing them in the United States post office or post-office box enclosed in an envelope, plainly addressed to the attorney at his or her business address, or to the party at his or her business address or residence, with postage fully pre-paid; or

(4) by transmitting them via facsimile machine to the office of the attorney or party, who has consented to receiving service by facsimile transmission. Briefs filed in reviewing courts shall be served in accordance with Supreme Court Rule.

(i) A party or attorney electing to serve pleading by facsimile must include on the certificate of service transmitted the telephone number of the sender's facsimile transmitting device. Use of service by facsimile shall be deemed consent by that party or attorney to receive service by facsimile transmission. Any party may rescind consent of service by facsimile transmission in a case by filing with the court and serving a notice on all parties or their attorneys who have filed appearances that facsimile service will not be accepted. A party or attorney who has rescinded consent to service by facsimile transmission in a case may not serve another party or attorney by facsimile transmission in that case.

(ii) Each page of notices and documents transmitted by facsimile pursuant to this rule should bear the circuit court number, the title of the document, and the page number.

(c) Multiple parties or attorneys. In cases in which there are 2 or more minor-respondents who appear by different attorneys, service on all papers shall be made on the attorney for each of the parties. If one attorney appears for several parties, he or she is entitled to only one copy of any paper served upon him or her by the opposite side. When more than one attorney appears for a party, service of a copy upon one of them is sufficient.

(3)(a) Filing. When service of a paper is required, proof of service shall be filed with the clerk.

(b) Manner of Proof. Service is proved:

(i) by written acknowledgement signed by the person served;

(ii) in case of service by personal delivery, by certificate of the attorney, or affidavit of a person, other than that an attorney, who made delivery;

(iii) in case of service by mail, by certificate of the attorney, or affidavit of a person other than the attorney, who deposited the paper in the mail, stating the time and place of mailing, the complete address which appeared on the envelope, and the fact that proper postage was pre-paid; or

(iv) in case of service by facsimile transmission, by certificate of the attorney or affidavit of a person other than the attorney, who transmitted the paper via facsimile machine, stating the time and place of transmission, the telephone number to which the transmission was sent and the number of pages transmitted.

(c) Effective date of service by mail. Service by mail is complete 4 days after mailing.

(d) Effective date of service by facsimile transmission. Service by facsimile machine is complete on the first court day following transmission.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 535. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 7-5.5, 10-2, 11-1.30, 11-21, 12-2, 12-4.4a, 24-3, and 26-1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/7-5.5)

Sec. 7-5.5. Prohibited use of force by a peace officer.

(a) A peace officer shall not use a chokehold in the performance of his or her duties, unless deadly force is justified under Article 7 of this Code.

(b) A peace officer shall not use a chokehold, or any lesser contact with the throat or neck area of another, in order to prevent the destruction of evidence by ingestion.

(c) As used in this Section, "chokehold" means applying any direct pressure to the throat, windpipe, or airway of another with the intent to reduce or prevent the intake of air. "Chokehold" does not include any holding involving contact with the neck that is not intended to reduce the intake of air.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 10-2)

Sec. 10-2. Aggravated kidnaping.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated kidnaping when he or she commits kidnapping and:

(1) kidnaps with the intent to obtain ransom from the person kidnaped or from any other person;

(2) takes as his or her victim a child under the age of 13 years, or a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability;

(3) inflicts great bodily harm, other than by the discharge of a firearm, or commits another felony upon his or her victim;

(4) wears a hood, robe, or mask or conceals his or her identity;

(5) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, as defined in Section 33A-1 of this Code;

(6) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a firearm;

(7) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm; or

(8) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping, personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

As used in this Section, "ransom" includes money, benefit, or other valuable thing or concession.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated kidnaping in violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(7) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of aggravated kidnaping in violation of paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

A person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated kidnaping shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment; except that a sentence of natural life imprisonment shall not be imposed under this Section unless the second or subsequent offense was committed after conviction on the first offense. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the second or subsequent offense shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 99-69, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-16-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.30) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14)

Sec. 11-1.30. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits criminal sexual assault and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist during the commission of the offense or, for purposes of paragraph (7), occur as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:

(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim, except as provided in paragraph (10);

(3) the person acts in a manner that threatens or endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(4) the person commits the criminal sexual assault during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony;

(5) the victim is 60 years of age or older;

(6) the victim is a person with a physical disability;

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception for other than medical purposes;

(8) the person is armed with a firearm;

(9) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense; or

(10) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense, and that discharge proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 13 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is a person with a severe or profound intellectual disability.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (a) or in violation of subsection (b) or (c) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony for which 10 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(9) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(10) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of paragraphs (1) through (10) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(2) A person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted under the laws of this or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual assault, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply. An offender under the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense covered by this paragraph (2) shall be sentenced under Section 5-4.5-105 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 99-69, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-21) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-21)

Sec. 11-21. Harmful material.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Distribute" means to transfer possession of, whether with or without consideration.

"Harmful to minors" means that quality of any description or representation, in whatever form, of nudity, sexual conduct, sexual excitement, or sado-masochistic abuse, when, taken as a whole, it (i) predominately appeals to the prurient interest in sex of minors, (ii) is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community in the State as a whole with respect to what is suitable material for minors, and (iii) lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value for minors.

"Knowingly" means having knowledge of the contents of the subject matter, or recklessly failing to exercise reasonable inspection which would have disclosed the contents.

"Material" means (i) any picture, photograph, drawing, sculpture, film, video game, computer game, video or similar visual depiction, including any such representation or image which is stored electronically, or (ii) any book, magazine, printed matter however reproduced, or recorded audio of any sort.

"Minor" means any person under the age of 18.

"Nudity" means the showing of the human male or female genitals, pubic area or buttocks with less than a fully opaque covering, or the showing of the female breast with less than a fully opaque covering of any portion below the top of the nipple, or the depiction of covered male genitals in a discernibly discernably turgid state.

"Sado-masochistic abuse" means flagellation or torture by or upon a person clad in undergarments, a mask or bizarre costume, or the condition of being fettered, bound or otherwise physically restrained on the part of one clothed for sexual gratification or stimulation.

"Sexual conduct" means acts of masturbation, sexual intercourse, or physical contact with a person's clothed or unclothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks or, if such person be a female, breast.

"Sexual excitement" means the condition of human male or female genitals when in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal.

(b) A person is guilty of distributing harmful material to a minor when he or she:

(1) knowingly sells, lends, distributes, exhibits to, depicts to, or gives away to a minor, knowing that the minor is under the age of 18 or failing to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the person's true age:

(A) any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct or sado-masochistic abuse, and which taken as a whole is harmful to minors;

(B) a motion picture, show, or other presentation which depicts nudity, sexual conduct or sado-masochistic abuse and is harmful to minors; or

(C) an admission ticket or pass to premises where there is exhibited or to be exhibited such a motion picture, show, or other presentation; or

(2) admits a minor to premises where there is exhibited or to be exhibited such a motion picture, show, or other presentation, knowing that the minor is a person under the age of 18 or failing to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the person's true age.

(c) In any prosecution arising under this Section, it is an affirmative defense:

(1) that the minor as to whom the offense is alleged to have been committed exhibited to the accused a draft card, driver's license, birth certificate or other official or apparently official document purporting to establish that the minor was 18 years of age or older, which was relied upon by the accused;

(2) that the defendant was in a parental or guardianship relationship with the minor or that the minor was accompanied by a parent or legal guardian;

(3) that the defendant was a bona fide school, museum, or public library, or was a person acting in the course of his or her employment as an employee or official of such organization or retail outlet affiliated with and serving the educational purpose of such organization;

(4) that the act charged was committed in aid of legitimate scientific or educational purposes; or

(5) that an advertisement of harmful material as defined in this Section culminated in the sale or distribution of such harmful material to a child under circumstances where there was no personal confrontation of the child by the defendant, his or her employees, or agents, as where the order or request for such harmful material was transmitted by mail, telephone, Internet or similar means of communication, and delivery of such harmful material to the child was by mail, freight, Internet or similar means of transport, which advertisement contained the following statement, or a substantially similar statement, and that the defendant required the purchaser to certify that he or she was not under the age of 18 and that the purchaser falsely stated that he or she was not under the age of 18: "NOTICE: It is unlawful for any person under the age of 18 to purchase the matter advertised. Any person under the age of 18 that falsely states that he or she is not under the age of 18 for the purpose of obtaining the material advertised is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor under the laws of the State."

(d) The predominant appeal to prurient interest of the material shall be judged with reference to average children of the same general age of the child to whom such material was sold, lent, distributed or given, unless it appears from the nature of the matter or the circumstances of its dissemination or distribution that it is designed for specially susceptible groups, in which case the predominant appeal of the material shall be judged with reference to its intended or probable recipient group.

(e) Distribution of harmful material in violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent offense is a Class 4 felony.

(f) Any person under the age of 18 who falsely states, either orally or in writing, that he or she is not under the age of 18, or who presents or offers to any person any evidence of age and identity that is false or not actually his or her own with the intent of ordering, obtaining, viewing, or otherwise procuring or attempting to procure or view any harmful material is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(g) A person over the age of 18 who fails to exercise reasonable care in ascertaining the true age of a minor, knowingly distributes to, or sends, or causes to be sent, or exhibits to, or offers to distribute, or exhibits any harmful material to a person that he or she believes is a minor is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. If that person utilized a computer web camera, cellular telephone, or any other type of device to manufacture the harmful material, then each offense is a Class 4 felony.

(h) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-280, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.

(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:

(1) A person with a physical disability or a person 60 years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A community policing volunteer, private security officer, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4.1) A peace officer, fireman, emergency management worker, or emergency medical technician:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4.1), (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-256, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4a)

Sec. 12-4.4a. Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident; criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(a) Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(1) A person or an owner or licensee commits abuse of a long term care facility resident when he or she knowingly causes any physical or mental injury to, or commits any sexual offense in this Code against, a resident.

(2) A person or an owner or licensee commits criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she recklessly:

(A) performs acts that cause a resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of a resident, and that failure causes the resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate; or

(C) abandons a resident.

(3) A person or an owner or licensee commits neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she negligently fails to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance to the resident which results in physical or mental injury or deterioration of the resident's physical or mental condition. An owner or licensee is guilty under this subdivision (a)(3), however, only if the owner or licensee failed to exercise reasonable care in the hiring, training, supervising, or providing of staff or other related routine administrative responsibilities.

(b) Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(1) A caregiver commits criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(A) performs acts that cause the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of the person, and that failure causes the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(C) abandons the person;

(D) physically abuses, harasses, intimidates, or interferes with the personal liberty of the person; or

(E) exposes the person to willful deprivation.

(2) It is not a defense to criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability that the caregiver reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability.

(c) Offense not applicable.

(1) Nothing in this Section applies to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a duly licensed nurse providing care within the scope of his or her professional judgment and within the accepted standards of care within the community.

(2) Nothing in this Section imposes criminal liability on a caregiver who made a good faith effort to provide for the health and personal care of an elderly person or person with a disability, but through no fault of his or her own was unable to provide such care.

(3) Nothing in this Section applies to the medical supervision, regulation, or control of the remedial care or treatment of residents in a long term care facility conducted for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination as described in Section 3-803 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 1-102 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, Section 3-803 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-803 of the MC/DD Act.

(4) Nothing in this Section prohibits a caregiver from providing treatment to an elderly person or person with a disability by spiritual means through prayer alone and care consistent therewith in lieu of medical care and treatment in accordance with the tenets and practices of any church or religious denomination of which the elderly person or person with a disability is a member.

(5) Nothing in this Section limits the remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Long term care facility. Abuse of a long term care facility resident is a Class 3 felony. Criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident is a Class 4 felony, unless it results in the resident's death in which case it is a Class 3 felony. Neglect of a long term care facility resident is a petty offense.

(2) Caregiver. Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability is a Class 3 felony, unless it results in the person's death in which case it is a Class 2 felony, and if imprisonment is imposed it shall be for a minimum term of 3 years and a maximum term of 14 years.

(e) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Abandon" means to desert or knowingly forsake a resident or an elderly person or person with a disability under circumstances in which a reasonable person would continue to provide care and custody.

"Caregiver" means a person who has a duty to provide for an elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care, at the elderly person or person with a disability's place of residence, including, but not limited to, food and nutrition, shelter, hygiene, prescribed medication, and medical care and treatment, and includes any of the following:

(1) A parent, spouse, adult child, or other relative by blood or marriage who resides with or resides in the same building with or regularly visits the elderly person or person with a disability, knows or reasonably should know of such person's physical or mental impairment, and knows or reasonably should know that such person is unable to adequately provide for his or her own health and personal care.

(2) A person who is employed by the elderly person or person with a disability or by another to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(3) A person who has agreed for consideration to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(4) A person who has been appointed by a private or public agency or by a court of competent jurisdiction to provide for the elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care.

"Caregiver" does not include a long-term care facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed or certified under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or any administrative, medical, or other personnel of such a facility, or a health care provider who is licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and renders care in the ordinary course of his or her profession.

"Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older who is incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed to operate a facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Long term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by the State of Illinois or a political subdivision thereof, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care, or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the owner by blood or marriage. The term also includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as defined in Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act and assisted living establishments and shared housing establishments licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Owner" means the owner of a long term care facility as provided in the Nursing Home Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the owner of a facility as provided in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided in the MC/DD Act, or the owner of an assisted living or shared housing establishment as provided in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition, which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Resident" means a person residing in a long term care facility.

"Willful deprivation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (15) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.

(g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois Department of State Police; (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered competitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Department of State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Department of State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police as soon as practicable. The Department of State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(720 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Disorderly conduct.

(a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he or she knowingly:

(1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the peace;

(2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the fire exists;

(3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in a place where its explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the bomb, explosive or a container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is concealed in the place;

(3.5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of destruction of a school building or school property, or a threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against persons at a school, school function, or school event, whether or not school is in session;

(4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time of the transmission that there is no reasonable ground for believing that the offense will be committed, is being committed, or has been committed;

(5) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to any public safety agency without the reasonable grounds necessary to believe that transmitting the report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the public; or

(6) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting information when, at the time the call or transmission is made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for making the call or transmission and further knows that the call or transmission could result in the emergency response of any public safety agency;

(7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act";

(8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner to the police department or fire department of any municipality or fire protection district, or any privately owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time there is no reasonable ground for believing that the assistance is required;

(10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false report under Article II of Public Act 83-1432 "An Act in relation to victims of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as amended;

(11) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in it; or

(12) While acting as a collection agency as defined in the Collection Agency Act or as an employee of the collection agency, and while attempting to collect an alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the alleged debtor.

(b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(3.5), (a)(4), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other penalty imposed.

A violation of subsection (a)(12) of this Section is a Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7) or (a)(5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that employs the emergency response officer or officers that were dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb or explosive device.

(e) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (6) of subsection (a) to reimburse the public agency for the reasonable costs of the emergency response by the public agency up to $10,000. If the court determines that the person convicted of disorderly conduct under paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is indigent, the provisions of this subsection (e) do not apply.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "emergency response" means any condition that results in, or could result in, the response of a public official in an authorized emergency vehicle, any condition that jeopardizes or could jeopardize public safety and results in, or could result in, the evacuation of any area, building, structure, vehicle, or of any other place that any person may enter, or any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee, or an ambulance.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-160, eff. 1-1-16; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 540. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 302 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302)

Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances; engages in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State; provides canine odor detection services; proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance; proposes to engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; proposes to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs; or proposes to provide canine odor detection services within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).

(b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services, may possess, manufacture, distribute, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.

(c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:

(1) an agent or employee of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;

(2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;

(3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of a controlled substance prescribed for the ultimate user under a lawful prescription of a practitioner, including an advanced practice nurse, practical nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a person, or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance. In this Section, "home health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(4) officers and employees of this State or of the United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;

(5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment;

(6) a holder of a temporary license issued under Section 17 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 practicing within the scope of that license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act. In addition to possessing controlled substances, a temporary license holder may order, administer, and prescribe controlled substances when acting within the scope of his or her license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.

(d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.

(e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16; 99-247, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 545. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 111-8 and 115-17b as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/111-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-8)

Sec. 111-8. Orders of protection to prohibit domestic violence.

(a) Whenever a violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 9-3, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.3 that involves soliciting for a prostitute, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-20a, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.5, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-5, 12-6, 12-6.3, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 19-4, 19-6, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, or 26.5-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 1-1 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act is alleged in an information, complaint or indictment on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, the People through the respective State's Attorneys may by separate petition and upon notice to the defendant, except as provided in subsection (c) herein, request the court to issue an order of protection.

(b) In addition to any other remedies specified in Section 208 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, the order may direct the defendant to initiate no contact with the alleged victim or victims who are family or household members and to refrain from entering the residence, school or place of business of the alleged victim or victims.

(c) The court may grant emergency relief without notice upon a showing of immediate and present danger of abuse to the victim or minor children of the victim and may enter a temporary order pending notice and full hearing on the matter.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 10-20-15.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-17b)

Sec. 115-17b. Administrative subpoenas.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication services" and "remote computing services" have the same meaning as provided in the Electronic Communications Privacy Act in Chapter 121 (commencing with Section 2701) of Part I of Title 18 of the United States Code Annotated.

"Offense involving the sexual exploitation of children" means an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-23, 11-25, 11-26, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or any attempt to commit any of these offenses when the victim is under 18 years of age.

(b) Subpoenas duces tecum. In any criminal investigation of an offense involving the sexual exploitation of children, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, or a State's Attorney, or his or her designee, may issue in writing and cause to be served subpoenas duces tecum to providers of electronic communication services or remote computing services requiring the production of records relevant to the investigation. Any such request for records shall not extend beyond requiring the provider to disclose the information specified in 18 U.S.C. 2703(c)(2). Any subpoena duces tecum issued under this Section shall be made returnable to the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court for the Circuit in which the State's Attorney resides, or his or her designee, or for subpoenas issued by the Attorney General, the subpoena shall be made returnable to the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court for the Circuit to which the investigation pertains, or his or her designee, to determine whether the documents are privileged and whether the subpoena is unreasonable or oppressive.

(c) Contents of subpoena. A subpoena under this Section shall describe the records or other things required to be produced and prescribe a return date within a reasonable period of time within which the objects or records can be assembled and made available.

(c-5) Contemporaneous notice to Chief Judge. Whenever a subpoena is issued under this Section, the Attorney General or his or her designee or the State's Attorney or his or of her designee shall be required to provide a copy of the subpoena to the Chief Judge of the county in which the subpoena is returnable.

(d) Modifying or quashing subpoena. At any time before the return date specified in the subpoena, the person or entity to whom the subpoena is directed may petition for an order modifying or quashing the subpoena on the grounds that the subpoena is oppressive or unreasonable or that the subpoena seeks privileged documents or records.

(e) Ex parte order. An Illinois circuit court for the circuit in which the subpoena is or will be issued, upon application of the Attorney General, or his or her designee, or State's Attorney, or his or her designee, may issue an ex parte order that no person or entity disclose to any other person or entity (other than persons necessary to comply with the subpoena) the existence of such subpoena for a period of up to 90 days.

(1) Such order may be issued upon a showing that the things being sought may be relevant to the investigation and there is reason to believe that such disclosure may result in:

(A) endangerment to the life or physical safety of any person;

(B) flight to avoid prosecution;

(C) destruction of or tampering with evidence;

(D) intimidation of potential witnesses; or

(E) otherwise seriously jeopardizing an investigation or unduly delaying a trial.

(2) An order under this Section may be renewed for additional periods of up to 90 days upon a showing that the circumstances described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (e) continue to exist.

(f) Enforcement. A witness who is duly subpoenaed who neglects or refuses to comply with the subpoena shall be proceeded against and punished for contempt of the court. A subpoena duces tecum issued under this Section may be enforced pursuant to the Uniform Act to Secure the Attendance of Witnesses from Within or Without a State in Criminal Proceedings.

(g) Immunity from civil liability. Notwithstanding any federal, State, or local law, any person, including officers, agents, and employees, receiving a subpoena under this Section, who complies in good faith with the subpoena and thus produces the materials sought, shall not be liable in any court of Illinois to any customer or other person for such production or for nondisclosure of that production to the customer.

(Source: P.A. 97-475, eff. 8-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 550. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. The terms used in this Act shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Crime victim" or "victim" means: (1) any natural person determined by the prosecutor or the court to have suffered direct physical or psychological harm as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or direct physical or psychological harm as a result of (i) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or similar provision of a local ordinance or (ii) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (2) in the case of a crime victim who is under 18 years of age or an adult victim who is incompetent or incapacitated, both parents, legal guardians, foster parents, or a single adult representative; (3) in the case of an adult deceased victim, 2 representatives who may be the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the victim, or the representative of the victim's estate; and (4) an immediate family member of a victim under clause (1) of this paragraph (a) chosen by the victim. If the victim is 18 years of age or over, the victim may choose any person to be the victim's representative. In no event shall the defendant or any person who aided and abetted in the commission of the crime be considered a victim, a crime victim, or a representative of the victim.

A board, agency, or other governmental entity making decisions regarding an offender's release, sentence reduction, or clemency can determine additional persons are victims for the purpose of its proceedings. person with a disability

(a-3) "Advocate" means a person whose communications with the victim are privileged under Section 8-802.1 or 8-802.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-5) "Confer" means to consult together, share information, compare opinions and carry on a discussion or deliberation.

(a-7) "Sentence" includes, but is not limited to, the imposition of sentence, a request for a reduction in sentence, parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, early release, clemency, or a proposal that would reduce the defendant's sentence or result in the defendant's release. "Early release" refers to a discretionary release.

(a-9) "Sentencing" includes, but is not limited to, the imposition of sentence and a request for a reduction in sentence, parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, or early release.

(b) "Witness" means any person who personally observed the commission of a crime and who will testify on behalf of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Violent crime Crime" means: (1) any felony in which force or threat of force was used against the victim; (2) any offense involving sexual exploitation, sexual conduct, or sexual penetration; (3) a violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-23.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) domestic battery or , stalking; (5) violation of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order; (6) any misdemeanor which results in death or great bodily harm to the victim; or (7) any violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the violation resulted in personal injury or death. "Violent crime" includes any action committed by a juvenile that would be a violent crime if committed by an adult. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal injury" shall include any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) (Blank).

(e) "Court proceedings" includes, but is not limited to, the preliminary hearing, any post-arraignment hearing the effect of which may be the release of the defendant from custody or to alter the conditions of bond, change of plea hearing, the trial, any pretrial or post-trial hearing, sentencing, any oral argument or hearing before an Illinois appellate court, any hearing under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code after a finding that the defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity, any hearing related to a modification of sentence, probation revocation hearing, aftercare release or parole hearings, post-conviction relief proceedings, habeas corpus proceedings and clemency proceedings related to the defendant's conviction or sentence. For purposes of the victim's right to be present, "court proceedings" does not include (1) hearings under Section 109-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, (2) grand jury proceedings, (3) status hearings, or (4) the issuance of an order or decision of an Illinois court that dismisses a charge, reverses a conviction, reduces a sentence, or releases an offender under a court rule.

(f) "Concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(g) "Victim's attorney" means an attorney retained by the victim for the purposes of asserting the victim's constitutional and statutory rights. An attorney retained by the victim means an attorney who is hired to represent the victim at the victim's expense or an attorney who has agreed to provide pro bono representation. Nothing in this statute creates a right to counsel at public expense for a victim.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-413, eff. 8-20-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 555. The Witness Protection Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(725 ILCS 245/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 155-22)

Sec. 2. The Illinois Law Enforcement Commission with respect to federal grant moneys received by such Commission prior to January 1, 1983, may make grants prior to April 1, 1983 to the several State's Attorneys states attorneys of the State of Illinois. Such grants may be made to any State's Attorney states attorney who applies for funds to provide for protection of witnesses and the families and property of witnesses involved in criminal investigations and prosecutions.

(Source: P.A. 82-1039; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 560. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-6-3, 5-4-3b, 5-5-3.1, 5-5-3.2, 5-5.5-5, and 5-6-3.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-3)

Sec. 3-6-3. Rules and Regulations for Sentence Credit.

(a) (1) The Department of Corrections shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department which shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(1.5) As otherwise provided by law, sentence credit may be awarded for the following:

(A) successful completion of programming while in custody of the Department or while in custody prior to sentencing;

(B) compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department; or

(C) service to the institution, service to a community, or service to the State.

(2) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide, with respect to offenses listed in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or with respect to the offense listed in clause (iv) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or with respect to offense listed in clause (vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or with respect to the offense of being an armed habitual criminal committed on or after August 2, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-398) or with respect to the offenses listed in clause (v) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or with respect to the offense of aggravated domestic battery committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224) or with respect to the offense of attempt to commit terrorism committed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-990), the following:

(i) that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment for first degree murder or for the offense of terrorism shall receive no sentence credit and shall serve the entire sentence imposed by the court;

(ii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for attempt to commit terrorism, attempt to commit first degree murder, solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, intentional homicide of an unborn child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, being an armed habitual criminal, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, when the court has made and entered a finding, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, that the conduct leading to conviction for the enumerated offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iv) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated discharge of a firearm, whether or not the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to the victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(v) that a person serving a sentence for gunrunning, narcotics racketeering, controlled substance trafficking, methamphetamine trafficking, drug-induced homicide, aggravated methamphetamine-related child endangerment, money laundering pursuant to clause (c) (4) or (5) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class X felony conviction for delivery of a controlled substance, possession of a controlled substance with intent to manufacture or deliver, calculated criminal drug conspiracy, criminal drug conspiracy, street gang criminal drug conspiracy, participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, aggravated participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, delivery of methamphetamine, possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, aggravated delivery of methamphetamine, aggravated possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, methamphetamine conspiracy when the substance containing the controlled substance or methamphetamine is 100 grams or more shall receive no more than 7.5 days sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(vi) that a prisoner serving a sentence for a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment; and

(vii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated domestic battery shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.1) For all offenses, other than those enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day of his or her sentence of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9. Each day of sentence credit shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9.

(2.2) A prisoner serving a term of natural life imprisonment or a prisoner who has been sentenced to death shall receive no sentence credit.

(2.3) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.4) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide with respect to the offenses of aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm or aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm, committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), that a prisoner serving a sentence for any of these offenses shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated arson committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(3) The rules and regulations shall also provide that the Director may award up to 180 days additional sentence credit for good conduct in specific instances as the Director deems proper. The good conduct may include, but is not limited to, compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department, service to the Department, service to a community, or service to the State. However, the Director shall not award more than 90 days of sentence credit for good conduct to any prisoner who is serving a sentence for conviction of first degree murder, reckless homicide while under the influence of alcohol or any other drug, or aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, aggravated kidnapping, kidnapping, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, deviate sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated indecent liberties with a child, indecent liberties with a child, child pornography, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a spouse, aggravated battery of a spouse with a firearm, stalking, aggravated stalking, aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, endangering the life or health of a child, or cruelty to a child. Notwithstanding the foregoing, sentence credit for good conduct shall not be awarded on a sentence of imprisonment imposed for conviction of: (i) one of the offenses enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) when the offense is committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) when the offense is committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) when the offense is committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) when the offense is committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) when the offense is committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), (ii) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (iii) one of the offenses enumerated in subdivision (a)(2.4) when the offense is committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), (iv) aggravated arson when the offense is committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), (v) offenses that may subject the offender to commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, or (vi) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230).

Eligible inmates for an award of sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be selected to receive the credit at the Director's or his or her designee's sole discretion. Consideration may be based on, but not limited to, any available risk assessment analysis on the inmate, any history of conviction for violent crimes as defined by the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, facts and circumstances of the inmate's holding offense or offenses, and the potential for rehabilitation.

The Director shall not award sentence credit under this paragraph (3) to an inmate unless the inmate has served a minimum of 60 days of the sentence; except nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to permit the Director to extend an inmate's sentence beyond that which was imposed by the court. Prior to awarding credit under this paragraph (3), the Director shall make a written determination that the inmate:

(A) is eligible for the sentence credit;

(B) has served a minimum of 60 days, or as close to 60 days as the sentence will allow; and

(C) has met the eligibility criteria established by rule.

The Director shall determine the form and content of the written determination required in this subsection.

(3.5) The Department shall provide annual written reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the award of sentence credit for good conduct, with the first report due January 1, 2014. The Department must publish both reports on its website within 48 hours of transmitting the reports to the Governor and the General Assembly. The reports must include:

(A) the number of inmates awarded sentence credit for good conduct;

(B) the average amount of sentence credit for good conduct awarded;

(C) the holding offenses of inmates awarded sentence credit for good conduct; and

(D) the number of sentence credit for good conduct revocations.

(4) The rules and regulations shall also provide that the sentence credit accumulated and retained under paragraph (2.1) of subsection (a) of this Section by any inmate during specific periods of time in which such inmate is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completes the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department, shall be multiplied by a factor of 1.25 for program participation before August 11, 1993 and 1.50 for program participation on or after that date. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit, subject to the same offense limits and multiplier provided in this paragraph, may be provided to an inmate who was held in pre-trial detention prior to his or her current commitment to the Department of Corrections and successfully completed a full-time, 60-day or longer substance abuse program, educational program, behavior modification program, life skills course, or re-entry planning provided by the county department of corrections or county jail. Calculation of this county program credit shall be done at sentencing as provided in Section 5-4.5-100 of this Code and shall be included in the sentencing order. However, no inmate shall be eligible for the additional sentence credit under this paragraph (4) or (4.1) of this subsection (a) while assigned to a boot camp or electronic detention, or if convicted of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this Section that is committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) of this Section that is committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) of this Section that is committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) when the offense is committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) when the offense is committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), or if convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or if convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), or if convicted of an offense enumerated in paragraph (a)(2.4) of this Section that is committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), or first degree murder, a Class X felony, criminal sexual assault, felony criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or any predecessor or successor offenses with the same or substantially the same elements, or any inchoate offenses relating to the foregoing offenses. No inmate shall be eligible for the additional good conduct credit under this paragraph (4) who (i) has previously received increased good conduct credit under this paragraph (4) and has subsequently been convicted of a felony, or (ii) has previously served more than one prior sentence of imprisonment for a felony in an adult correctional facility.

Educational, vocational, substance abuse, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, re-entry planning, and correctional industry programs under which sentence credit may be increased under this paragraph (4) and paragraph (4.1) of this subsection (a) shall be evaluated by the Department on the basis of documented standards. The Department shall report the results of these evaluations to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 30th of each year. The reports shall include data relating to the recidivism rate among program participants.

Availability of these programs shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. Eligible inmates who are denied immediate admission shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The inability of any inmate to become engaged in any such programs by reason of insufficient program resources or for any other reason established under the rules and regulations of the Department shall not be deemed a cause of action under which the Department or any employee or agent of the Department shall be liable for damages to the inmate.

(4.1) The rules and regulations shall also provide that an additional 90 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who passes high school equivalency testing while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be pursuant to the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a high school diploma or a high school equivalency certificate. If, after an award of the high school equivalency testing sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 90 days of sentence credit to any committed person who passed high school equivalency testing while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(4.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that when the court's sentencing order recommends a prisoner for substance abuse treatment and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the prisoner shall receive no sentence credit awarded under clause (3) of this subsection (a) unless he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program. The Director may waive the requirement to participate in or complete a substance abuse treatment program and award the sentence credit in specific instances if the prisoner is not a good candidate for a substance abuse treatment program for medical, programming, or operational reasons. Availability of substance abuse treatment shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. If treatment is not available and the requirement to participate and complete the treatment has not been waived by the Director, the prisoner shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The Director may allow a prisoner placed on a waiting list to participate in and complete a substance abuse education class or attend substance abuse self-help meetings in lieu of a substance abuse treatment program. A prisoner on a waiting list who is not placed in a substance abuse program prior to release may be eligible for a waiver and receive sentence credit under clause (3) of this subsection (a) at the discretion of the Director.

(4.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that a prisoner who has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall receive no sentence credit unless he or she either has successfully completed or is participating in sex offender treatment as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board. However, prisoners who are waiting to receive treatment, but who are unable to do so due solely to the lack of resources on the part of the Department, may, at the Director's sole discretion, be awarded sentence credit at a rate as the Director shall determine.

(5) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit for good conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section given at any time during the term, the Department shall give reasonable notice of the impending release not less than 14 days prior to the date of the release to the State's Attorney of the county where the prosecution of the inmate took place, and if applicable, the State's Attorney of the county into which the inmate will be released. The Department must also make identification information and a recent photo of the inmate being released accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Community Notification of Inmate Early Release" on the Department's World Wide Web homepage. The identification information shall include the inmate's: name, any known alias, date of birth, physical characteristics, commitment offense and county where conviction was imposed. The identification information shall be placed on the website within 3 days of the inmate's release and the information may not be removed until either: completion of the first year of mandatory supervised release or return of the inmate to custody of the Department.

(b) Whenever a person is or has been committed under several convictions, with separate sentences, the sentences shall be construed under Section 5-8-4 in granting and forfeiting of sentence credit.

(c) The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for revoking sentence credit, including revoking sentence credit awarded for good conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for suspending or reducing the rate of accumulation of sentence credit for specific rule violations, during imprisonment. These rules and regulations shall provide that no inmate may be penalized more than one year of sentence credit for any one infraction.

When the Department seeks to revoke, suspend or reduce the rate of accumulation of any sentence credits for an alleged infraction of its rules, it shall bring charges therefor against the prisoner sought to be so deprived of sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(4) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code, if the amount of credit at issue exceeds 30 days or when during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In those cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of 30 days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit within any calendar year for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department.

The Director of the Department of Corrections, in appropriate cases, may restore up to 30 days of sentence credits which have been revoked, suspended or reduced. Any restoration of sentence credits in excess of 30 days shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board. However, the Board may not restore sentence credit in excess of the amount requested by the Director.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Prisoner Review Board from ordering, pursuant to Section 3-3-9(a)(3)(i)(B), that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court that was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit.

(d) If a lawsuit is filed by a prisoner in an Illinois or federal court against the State, the Department of Corrections, or the Prisoner Review Board, or against any of their officers or employees, and the court makes a specific finding that a pleading, motion, or other paper filed by the prisoner is frivolous, the Department of Corrections shall conduct a hearing to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit by bringing charges against the prisoner sought to be deprived of the sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(8) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code. If the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the finding, then the Prisoner Review Board may revoke all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner.

For purposes of this subsection (d):

(1) "Frivolous" means that a pleading, motion, or other filing which purports to be a legal document filed by a prisoner in his or her lawsuit meets any or all of the following criteria:

(A) it lacks an arguable basis either in law or in fact;

(B) it is being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation;

(C) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions therein are not warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;

(D) the allegations and other factual contentions do not have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are not likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; or

(E) the denials of factual contentions are not warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are not reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.

(2) "Lawsuit" means a motion pursuant to Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a habeas corpus action under Article X of the Code of Civil Procedure or under federal law (28 U.S.C. 2254), a petition for claim under the Court of Claims Act, an action under the federal Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 1983), or a second or subsequent petition for post-conviction relief under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 whether filed with or without leave of court or a second or subsequent petition for relief from judgment under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) Nothing in Public Act 90-592 or 90-593 affects the validity of Public Act 89-404.

(f) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate who has been convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit, the Department, as a condition of release, shall require that the person, upon release, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 99-241, eff. 1-1-16; 99-275, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3b)

Sec. 5-4-3b. Electronic Laboratory Information Management System.

(a) The Department of State Police shall obtain, implement, and maintain an Electronic Laboratory Information Management System (LIMS), to efficiently and effectively track all evidence submitted for forensic testing. At a minimum, the LIMS shall record:

(1) the criminal offense or suspected criminal offense for which the evidence is being submitted;

(2) the law enforcement agency submitting the evidence;

(3) the name of the victim;

(4) the law enforcement agency case number;

(5) the State Police Laboratory case number;

(6) the date the evidence was received by the State Police Laboratory;

(7) if the State Police Laboratory sent the evidence for analysis to another designated laboratory, the name of the laboratory and the date the evidence was sent to that laboratory; and

(8) the date and description of any results or information regarding the analysis sent to the submitting law enforcement agency by the State Police Laboratory or any other designated laboratory.

The LIMS shall also link multiple forensic evidence submissions pertaining to a single criminal investigation such that evidence submitted to confirm a previously reported Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) hit in a State or federal database can be linked to the initial evidence submission. The LIMS shall be such that the system provides ease of interoperability with law enforcement agencies for evidence submission and reporting, as well as supports expansion capabilities for future internal networking and laboratory operations.

(b) The Department of State Police, in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer, may procure a single contract or multiple contracts to implement the provisions of this Section. A contract or contracts under this subsection are not subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of the Illinois Procurement Code. This exemption is inoperative 2 years from January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-352) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-20-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.1)

Sec. 5-5-3.1. Factors in Mitigation.

(a) The following grounds shall be accorded weight in favor of withholding or minimizing a sentence of imprisonment:

(1) The defendant's criminal conduct neither caused nor threatened serious physical harm to another.

(2) The defendant did not contemplate that his criminal conduct would cause or threaten serious physical harm to another.

(3) The defendant acted under a strong provocation.

(4) There were substantial grounds tending to excuse or justify the defendant's criminal conduct, though failing to establish a defense.

(5) The defendant's criminal conduct was induced or facilitated by someone other than the defendant.

(6) The defendant has compensated or will compensate the victim of his criminal conduct for the damage or injury that he sustained.

(7) The defendant has no history of prior delinquency or criminal activity or has led a law-abiding life for a substantial period of time before the commission of the present crime.

(8) The defendant's criminal conduct was the result of circumstances unlikely to recur.

(9) The character and attitudes of the defendant indicate that he is unlikely to commit another crime.

(10) The defendant is particularly likely to comply with the terms of a period of probation.

(11) The imprisonment of the defendant would entail excessive hardship to his dependents.

(12) The imprisonment of the defendant would endanger his or her medical condition.

(13) The defendant was a person with an intellectual disability as defined in Section 5-1-13 of this Code.

(14) The defendant sought or obtained emergency medical assistance for an overdose and was convicted of a Class 3 felony or higher possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substance or a controlled substance analog under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a Class 2 felony or higher possession, manufacture or delivery of methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(15) At the time of the offense, the defendant is or had been the victim of domestic violence and the effects of the domestic violence tended to excuse or justify the defendant's criminal conduct. As used in this paragraph (15), "domestic violence" means abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(b) If the court, having due regard for the character of the offender, the nature and circumstances of the offense and the public interest finds that a sentence of imprisonment is the most appropriate disposition of the offender, or where other provisions of this Code mandate the imprisonment of the offender, the grounds listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection shall be considered as factors in mitigation of the term imposed.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-384, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-16-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who has a physical disability or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly or infirm or who was a person with a disability by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly or infirm person or person with a disability;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit;

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service; or

(29) the defendant committed the offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse against a victim with an intellectual disability, and the defendant holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim; or

(30) (29) the defendant committed the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution, patronizing a prostitute, or patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution and at the time of the commission of the offense knew that the prostitute or minor engaged in prostitution was in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person who had a physical disability at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or

(9) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with the intent to disseminate the recording.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and an electronic communication is used in the commission of the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 98-14, eff. 1-1-14; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-77, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-283, eff. 1-1-16; 99-347, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5.5-5)

Sec. 5-5.5-5. Definition Definitions and rules of construction. In this Article, "eligible : "Eligible offender" means a person who has been convicted of a crime in this State or of an offense in any other jurisdiction that does not include any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, the Arsonist Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act. "Eligible offender" does not include a person who has been convicted of arson, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, or aggravated domestic battery.

(Source: P.A. 99-381, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(c-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution payments unpaid at least 90 days before the supervision expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the supervision period or in a revocation of supervision. If the court does not extend supervision, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or her last known address written notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)

Section 565. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-1401, 3-102, and 12-654 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-1401) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-1401)

Sec. 2-1401. Relief from judgments.

(a) Relief from final orders and judgments, after 30 days from the entry thereof, may be had upon petition as provided in this Section. Writs of error coram nobis and coram vobis, bills of review and bills in the nature of bills of review are abolished. All relief heretofore obtainable and the grounds for such relief heretofore available, whether by any of the foregoing remedies or otherwise, shall be available in every case, by proceedings hereunder, regardless of the nature of the order or judgment from which relief is sought or of the proceedings in which it was entered. Except as provided in the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, there shall be no distinction between actions and other proceedings, statutory or otherwise, as to availability of relief, grounds for relief or the relief obtainable.

(b) The petition must be filed in the same proceeding in which the order or judgment was entered but is not a continuation thereof. The petition must be supported by affidavit or other appropriate showing as to matters not of record. All parties to the petition shall be notified as provided by rule.

(b-5) A movant may present a meritorious claim under this Section if the allegations in the petition establish each of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) the movant was convicted of a forcible felony;

(2) the movant's participation in the offense was related to him or her previously having been a victim of domestic violence as perpetrated by an intimate partner;

(3) no evidence of domestic violence against the movant was presented at the movant's sentencing hearing;

(4) the movant was unaware of the mitigating nature of the evidence of the domestic violence at the time of sentencing and could not have learned of its significance sooner through diligence; and

(5) the new evidence of domestic violence against the movant is material and noncumulative to other evidence offered at the sentencing hearing, and is of such a conclusive character that it would likely change the sentence imposed by the original trial court.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall prevent a movant from applying for any other relief under this Section or any other law otherwise available to him or her.

As used in this subsection (b-5):

"Domestic violence" means abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Forcible felony" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Intimate partner" means a spouse or former spouse, persons who have or allegedly have had a child in common, or persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship.

(c) Except as provided in Section 20b of the Adoption Act and Section 2-32 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or in a petition based upon Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the petition must be filed not later than 2 years after the entry of the order or judgment. Time during which the person seeking relief is under legal disability or duress or the ground for relief is fraudulently concealed shall be excluded in computing the period of 2 years.

(d) The filing of a petition under this Section does not affect the order or judgment, or suspend its operation.

(e) Unless lack of jurisdiction affirmatively appears from the record proper, the vacation or modification of an order or judgment pursuant to the provisions of this Section does not affect the right, title or interest in or to any real or personal property of any person, not a party to the original action, acquired for value after the entry of the order or judgment but before the filing of the petition, nor affect any right of any person not a party to the original action under any certificate of sale issued before the filing of the petition, pursuant to a sale based on the order or judgment.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section affects any existing right to relief from a void order or judgment, or to employ any existing method to procure that relief.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-384, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(735 ILCS 5/3-102) (from Ch. 110, par. 3-102)

Sec. 3-102. Scope of Article. This Article III of this Act shall apply to and govern every action to review judicially a final decision of any administrative agency where the Act creating or conferring power on such agency, by express reference, adopts the provisions of this Article III of this Act or its predecessor, the Administrative Review Act. This Article shall be known as the "Administrative Review Law". In all such cases, any other statutory, equitable or common law mode of review of decisions of administrative agencies heretofore available shall not hereafter be employed.

Unless review is sought of an administrative decision within the time and in the manner herein provided, the parties to the proceeding before the administrative agency shall be barred from obtaining judicial review of such administrative decision. In an action to review any final decision of any administrative agency brought under this Article III, if a judgment is reversed or entered against the plaintiff, or the action is voluntarily dismissed by the plaintiff, or the action is dismissed for want of prosecution, or the action is dismissed by a United States District Court for lack of jurisdiction, neither the plaintiff nor his or her heirs, executors, or administrators may commence a new action within one year or within the remaining period of limitation, whichever is greater. All proceedings in the court for revision of such final decision shall terminate upon the date of the entry of any Order under either Section 2-1009 or Section 13-217. Such Order shall cause the final administrative decision of any administrative agency to become immediately enforceable. If under the terms of the Act governing the procedure before an administrative agency an administrative decision has become final because of the failure to file any document in the nature of objections, protests, petition for hearing or application for administrative review within the time allowed by such Act, such decision shall not be subject to judicial review hereunder excepting only for the purpose of questioning the jurisdiction of the administrative agency over the person or subject matter.

(Source: P.A. 88-1; revised 10-19-15.)

(735 ILCS 5/12-654) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-654)

Sec. 12-654. Stay.

(a) If the judgment debtor shows the circuit court that an appeal from the foreign judgment is pending or will be taken, or that a stay of execution has been granted, the court shall stay enforcement of the foreign judgment until the appeal is concluded, the time for appeal expires, or the stay of execution expires or is vacated, upon proof that the judgment debtor has furnished the security for the satisfaction of the judgment required by the state in which it is was rendered.

(b) If the judgment debtor shows the circuit court any ground upon which enforcement of a judgment of any circuit court for any county of this State would be stayed, the court shall stay enforcement of the foreign judgment for an appropriate period, upon requiring the same security for satisfaction of the judgment which is required in this State.

(Source: P.A. 87-358; 87-895; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 570. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police requests information from a mental health or developmental disability facility, as defined in Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the facility director determines that disclosure of such information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public official, or a person under the protection of the United States Secret Service, only the following information may be disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any information which would indicate whether or not the recipient has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or is a public official.

For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28 U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or children of a public official.

(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such information as may be required for the sole purpose of determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or falls within the federal prohibitors under subsection (e), (f), (g), (r), (s), or (t) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or falls within the federal prohibitors in 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All physicians, clinical psychologists, or qualified examiners at public or private mental health facilities or parts thereof as defined in this subsection shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, provide notice directly to the Department of Human Services, or to his or her employer who shall then report to the Department, within 24 hours after determining that a person poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others, or within 7 days after a person 14 years or older is determined to be a person with a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as described in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. If a person is a patient as described in clause (1) of the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, this information shall be furnished within 7 days after admission to a public or private hospital or mental health facility or the provision of services. Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required by subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of such information shall guarantee that no information is released beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be provided by the Department within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to provide the necessary information within the prescribed time period, which may include periodically providing lists to the Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card applicants on which the Department or hospital shall indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its knowledge disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card for reasons described herein. The Department may provide for a centralized source of information for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction. The identity of the person reporting under this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. For the purposes of this subsection, the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of records and communications otherwise in accordance with this provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.

For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following terms shall have the meaning prescribed:

(1) (Blank).

(1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(1.5) "Person with a developmental disability" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(2) "Patient" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(3) "Mental health facility" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person into custody and transports such person to a mental health or developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or 4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or who transports a person from such facility, a facility director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address, age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported to or from the mental health or developmental disability facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis, treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical health.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer" and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency participating in good faith in disclosing such information in accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-22-15.)

Section 575. The Premises Liability Act is amended by changing Section 4.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 130/4.1)

Sec. 4.1. Off-road riding facilities; liability.

(a) As used in this Section, "off-road riding facility" means:

(1) an area of land, consisting of a closed course, designed for use of off-highway vehicles in events such as, but not limited to, dirt track, short track, flat track, speedway, drag racing, grand prix, hare scrambles, hill climb, ice racing, observed trails, mud and snow scrambles, tractor pulls, sled pulls, truck pulls, mud runs, or other contests of a side-by-side nature in a sporting event for practice, instruction, testing, or competition of off-highway vehicles; or

(2) a thoroughfare or track across land or snow used for off-highway motorcycles or all-terrain vehicles.

(b) An owner or operator of an off-road riding facility in existence on January 1, 2002 is immune from any criminal liability arising out of or as a consequence of noise or sound emissions resulting from the use of the off-road riding facility. An owner or operator of an a off-road riding facility is not subject to any action for public or private nuisance or trespass, and no court in this State may enjoin the use or operation of an a off-road riding facility on the basis of noise or sound emissions resulting from the use of the off-road riding facility.

(c) An owner or operator of an a off-road riding facility placed in operation after January 1, 2002 is immune from any criminal liability and is not subject to any action for public or private nuisance or trespass arising out of or as a consequence of noise or sound emissions resulting from the use of the off-road riding facility, if the off-road riding facility conforms to any one of the following requirements:

(1) All areas from which an off-road vehicle may be properly operated are at least 1,000 feet from any occupied permanent dwelling on adjacent property at the time the facility was placed into operation.

(2) The off-road riding facility is situated on land otherwise subject to land use zoning, and the off-road riding facility was not prohibited by the zoning authority at the time the facility was placed into operation.

(3) The off-road riding facility is operated by a governmental entity or the off-road riding facility was the recipient of grants under the Recreational Trails of Illinois Act.

(d) The civil immunity in subsection (c) does not apply if there is willful or wanton misconduct outside the normal use of the off-road riding facility.

(Source: P.A. 98-847, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 580. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 513 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/513) (from Ch. 40, par. 513)

Sec. 513. Educational Expenses for a Non-minor Child.

(a) The court may award sums of money out of the property and income of either or both parties or the estate of a deceased parent, as equity may require, for the educational expenses of any child of the parties. Unless otherwise agreed to by the parties, all educational expenses which are the subject of a petition brought pursuant to this Section shall be incurred no later than the student's 23rd birthday, except for good cause shown, but in no event later than the child's 25th birthday.

(b) Regardless of whether an award has been made under subsection (a), the court may require both parties and the child to complete the Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA) and other financial aid forms and to submit any form of that type prior to the designated submission deadline for the form. The court may require either or both parties to provide funds for the child so as to pay for the cost of up to 5 college applications, the cost of 2 standardized college entrance examinations, and the cost of one standardized college entrance examination preparatory course.

(c) The authority under this Section to make provision for educational expenses extends not only to periods of college education or vocational or professional or other training after graduation from high school, but also to any period during which the child of the parties is still attending high school, even though he or she attained the age of 19.

(d) Educational expenses may include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) except for good cause shown, the actual cost of the child's post-secondary expenses, including tuition and fees, provided that the cost for tuition and fees does not exceed the amount of tuition and fees paid by a student at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign for the same academic year;

(2) except for good cause shown, the actual costs of the child's housing expenses, whether on-campus or off-campus, provided that the housing expenses do not exceed the cost for the same academic year of a double-occupancy student room, with a standard meal plan, in a residence hall operated by the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign;

(3) the actual costs of the child's medical expenses, including medical insurance, and dental expenses;

(4) the reasonable living expenses of the child during the academic year and periods of recess:

(A) if the child is a resident student attending a post-secondary educational program; or

(B) if the child is living with one party at that party's home and attending a post-secondary educational program as a non-resident student, in which case the living expenses include an amount that pays for the reasonable cost of the child's food, utilities, and transportation; and

(5) the cost of books and other supplies necessary to attend college.

(e) Sums may be ordered payable to the child, to either party, or to the educational institution, directly or through a special account or trust created for that purpose, as the court sees fit.

(f) If educational expenses are ordered payable, each party and the child shall sign any consent necessary for the educational institution to provide a supporting party with access to the child's academic transcripts, records, and grade reports. The consent shall not apply to any non-academic records. Failure to execute the required consent may be a basis for a modification or termination of any order entered under this Section. Unless the court specifically finds that the child's safety would be jeopardized, each party is entitled to know the name of the educational institution the child attends.

(g) The authority under this Section to make provision for educational expenses terminates when the child either: fails to maintain a cumulative "C" grade point average, except in the event of illness or other good cause shown; attains the age of 23; receives a baccalaureate degree; or marries. A child's enlisting in the armed forces, being incarcerated, or becoming pregnant does not terminate the court's authority to make provisions for the educational expenses for the child under this Section.

(h) An account established prior to the dissolution that is to be used for the child's post-secondary education, that is an account in a state tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, or that is some other college savings plan, is to be considered by the court to be a resource of the child, provided that any post-judgment contribution made by a party to such an account is to be considered a contribution from that party.

(i) The child is not a third party beneficiary to the settlement agreement or judgment between the parties after trial and is not entitled to file a petition for contribution. If the parties' settlement agreement describes the manner in which a child's educational expenses will be paid, or if the court makes an award pursuant to this Section, then the parties are responsible pursuant to that agreement or award for the child's educational expenses, but in no event shall the court consider the child a third party beneficiary of that provision. In the event of the death or legal disability of a party who would have the right to file a petition for contribution, the child of the party may file a petition for contribution. a person with a mental or physical disability a person with a mental or physical disability

(j) In making awards under this Section, or pursuant to a petition or motion to decrease, modify, or terminate any such award, the court shall consider all relevant factors that appear reasonable and necessary, including:

(1) The present and future financial resources of both parties to meet their needs, including, but not limited to, savings for retirement.

(2) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved.

(3) The financial resources of the child.

(4) The child's academic performance.

(k) The establishment of an obligation to pay under this Section is retroactive only to the date of filing a petition. The right to enforce a prior obligation to pay may be enforced either before or after the obligation is incurred.

(Source: P.A. 99-90, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-22-15.)

Section 585. The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act is amended by changing Section 102 as follows:

(750 ILCS 22/102) (was 750 ILCS 22/101)

Sec. 102. Definitions. In this Act:

(1) "Child" means an individual, whether over or under the age of majority, who is or is alleged to be owed a duty of support by the individual's parent or who is or is alleged to be the beneficiary of a support order directed to the parent.

(2) "Child-support order" means a support order for a child, including a child who has attained the age of majority under the law of the issuing state or foreign country.

(3) "Convention" means the Convention on the International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance, concluded at The Hague on November 23, 2007.

(4) "Duty of support" means an obligation imposed or imposable by law to provide support for a child, spouse, or former spouse including an unsatisfied obligation to provide support.

(5) "Foreign country" means a country, including a political subdivision thereof, other than the United States, that authorizes the issuance of support orders and:

(A) which has been declared under the law of the United States to be a foreign reciprocating country;

(B) which has established a reciprocal arrangement for child support with this State as provided in Section 308;

(C) which has enacted a law or established procedures for the issuance and enforcement of support orders which are substantially similar to the procedures under this Act; or

(D) in which the Convention is in force with respect to the United States.

(6) "Foreign support order" means a support order of a foreign tribunal.

(7) "Foreign tribunal" means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity of a foreign country which is authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or to determine parentage of a child. The term includes a competent authority under the Convention.

(8) "Home state" means the state or foreign country in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as parent for at least 6 consecutive months immediately preceding the time of filing of a petition or comparable pleading for support, and if a child is less than 6 months old, the state or foreign country in which the child lived from birth with any of them. A period of temporary absence of any of them is counted as part of the 6-month or other period.

(9) "Income" includes earnings or other periodic entitlements to money from any source and any other property subject to withholding for support under the law of this State.

(10) "Income-withholding order" means an order or other legal process directed to an obligor's employer or other debtor, as defined by the Income Withholding for Support Act, 2015, to withhold support from the income of the obligor.

(11) "Initiating tribunal" means the tribunal of a state or foreign country from which a petition or comparable pleading is forwarded or in which a petition or comparable pleading is filed for forwarding to another state or foreign country.

(12) "Issuing foreign country" means the foreign country in which a tribunal issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child.

(13) "Issuing state" means the state in which a tribunal issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child.

(14) "Issuing tribunal" means the tribunal of a state or foreign country that issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child.

(15) "Law" includes decisional and statutory law and rules and regulations having the force of law.

(16) "Obligee" means:

(A) an individual to whom a duty of support is or is alleged to be owed or in whose favor a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child has been issued;

(B) a foreign country, state, or political subdivision of a state to which the rights under a duty of support or support order have been assigned or which has independent claims based on financial assistance provided to an individual obligee in place of child support;

(C) an individual seeking a judgment determining parentage of the individual's child; or

(D) a person that is a creditor in a proceeding under Article 7.

(17) "Obligor" means an individual, or the estate of a decedent that:

(A) owes or is alleged to owe a duty of support;

(B) is alleged but has not been adjudicated to be a parent of a child;

(C) is liable under a support order; or

(D) is a debtor in a proceeding under Article 7.

(18) "Outside this State" means a location in another state or a country other than the United States, whether or not the country is a foreign country.

(19) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(20) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(21) "Register" means to record or file in a tribunal of this State a support order or judgment determining parentage of a child issued in another state or a foreign country.

(22) "Registering tribunal" means a tribunal in which a support order or judgment determining parentage of a child is registered.

(23) "Responding state" means a state in which a petition or comparable pleading for support or to determine parentage of a child is filed or to which a petition or comparable pleading is forwarded for filing from another state or a foreign country.

(24) "Responding tribunal" means the authorized tribunal in a responding state or foreign country.

(25) "Spousal-support order" means a support order for a spouse or former spouse of the obligor.

(26) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession under the jurisdiction of the United States. The term includes an Indian nation or tribe.

(27) "Support enforcement agency" means a public official, governmental entity, or private agency authorized to:

(A) seek enforcement of support orders or laws relating to the duty of support;

(B) seek establishment or modification of child support;

(C) request determination of parentage of a child;

(D) attempt to locate obligors or their assets; or

(E) request determination of the controlling child-support order.

(28) "Support order" means a judgment, decree, order, decision, or directive, whether temporary, final, or subject to modification, issued in a state or foreign country for the benefit of a child, a spouse, or a former spouse, which provides for monetary support, health care, arrearages, retroactive support, or reimbursement for financial assistance provided to an individual obligee in place of child support. The term may include related costs and fees, interest, income withholding, automatic adjustment, reasonable attorney's fees, and other relief.

(29) "Tribunal" means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or to determine parentage of a child.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-119, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-22-15.)

Section 590. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 18.06 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)

Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to adoption under this Act.

B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the following relationships to the child by blood, marriage, adoption, or civil union: parent, grand-parent, great-grandparent, brother, sister, step-parent, step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt, great-uncle, great-aunt, first cousin, or second cousin. A person is related to the child as a first cousin or second cousin if they are both related to the same ancestor as either grandchild or great-grandchild. A child whose parent has executed a consent to adoption, a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act or whose parent has signed a denial of paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of this Act, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless (1) the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10 of this Act; or (2) the parent of the child executed a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of Section 10 of this Act and a court of competent jurisdiction finds that such consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental rights of the parent is vacated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following, except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:

(a) Abandonment of the child.

(a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

(a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to relinquish his or her parental rights.

(b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's welfare.

(c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.

(d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or repeated.

(d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated, of any child residing in the household which resulted in the death of that child.

(e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.

(f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a parent is unfit if:

(1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the matter to be supported by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) The parent has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or finding resulted from the death of any child by physical abuse; or

(3) There is a finding of physical child abuse resulting from the death of any child under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (f).

(g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within his environment injurious to the child's welfare.

(h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child; provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any previous finding, order or judgment affecting or determining the rights of the parents toward the child sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph 1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conviction of second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (5) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (6) heinous battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any United States territory; and at least one of these convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of either first or second degree murder of any person as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental rights.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (i).

(j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness proceeding.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was not the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.

(m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (ii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent during any 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent and if those services were available, then, for purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent" includes the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care during any 9-month period following the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of item (ii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be treated as incorporated into the petition or motion. Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an admission that the allegations are true.

(m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22 month period which begins on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more likely than not that it will be in the best interests of the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of the date on which a petition for termination of parental rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The 15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of: (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court, (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with the child or agency, although able to do so and not prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of the child or, after being so informed where the child is not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii) to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child, the court to consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both parents; provided that the ground for termination provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be available where the petition is brought by the mother or the husband of the mother.

Contact or communication by a parent with his or her child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does not constitute reasonable contact and planning under subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not preclude a determination that the parent has intended to forgo his or her parental rights. In making this determination, the court may consider but shall not require a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in subdivision (n).

It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to impediments created by the mother or any other person having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents, although physically and financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.

(p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist, licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental impairment.

(q) (Blank).

(r) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, prior to incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the child or provided little or no support for the child, and the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.

(s) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child.

(t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation program.

E. "Parent" means a person who is the legal mother or legal father of the child as defined in subsection X or Y of this Section. For the purpose of this Act, a parent who has executed a consent to adoption, a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act, who has signed a Denial of Paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of this Act, or whose parental rights have been terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the subject of the consent, surrender, waiver, or denial unless (1) the consent is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10 of this Act; or (2) the person executed a consent to adoption by a specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of Section 10 of this Act and a court of competent jurisdiction finds that the consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental rights of the person is vacated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:

(a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter consented;

(b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of this Act;

(c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend to adopt him through placement made by his parents;

(c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;

(d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in Section 3 of this Act; or

(e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

A person who would otherwise be available for adoption shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason of his or her death.

G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the context of this Act may require.

H. (Blank).

I. "Habitual residence" has the meaning ascribed to it in the federal Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000 and regulations promulgated thereunder.

J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the parents of the biological parents and siblings of the biological parents.

K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child from a country other than the United States is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of the United States, or the child is a habitual resident of the United States who is adopted by persons who are habitual residents of a country other than the United States.

L. (Blank).

M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a law enacted by all states and certain territories for the purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care facilities.

N. (Blank).

O. "Preadoption requirements" means any conditions or standards established by the laws or administrative rules of this State that must be met by a prospective adoptive parent prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.

P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to the child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon the child; or

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.

Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate, delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by law.

R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child. The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age. "Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent consents to custody and termination of parental rights to become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.

T. (Blank).

T-5. "Biological parent", "birth parent", or "natural parent" of a child are interchangeable terms that mean a person who is biologically or genetically related to that child as a parent.

U. "Interstate adoption" means the placement of a minor child with a prospective adoptive parent for the purpose of pursuing an adoption for that child that is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Compact on Placement of Children.

V. (Blank).

W. (Blank).

X. "Legal father" of a child means a man who is recognized as or presumed to be that child's father:

(1) because of his marriage to or civil union with the child's parent at the time of the child's birth or within 300 days prior to that child's birth, unless he signed a denial of paternity pursuant to Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of this Act; or

(2) because his paternity of the child has been established pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(3) because he is listed as the child's father or parent on the child's birth certificate, unless he is otherwise determined by an administrative or judicial proceeding not to be the parent of the child or unless he rescinds his acknowledgment of paternity pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984; or

(4) because his paternity or adoption of the child has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction.

The definition in this subsection X shall not be construed to provide greater or lesser rights as to the number of parents who can be named on a final judgment order of adoption or Illinois birth certificate that otherwise exist under Illinois law.

Y. "Legal mother" of a child means a woman who is recognized as or presumed to be that child's mother:

(1) because she gave birth to the child except as provided in the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(2) because her maternity of the child has been established pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the Gestational Surrogacy Act; or

(3) because her maternity or adoption of the child has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(4) because of her marriage to or civil union with the child's other parent at the time of the child's birth or within 300 days prior to the time of birth; or

(5) because she is listed as the child's mother or parent on the child's birth certificate unless she is otherwise determined by an administrative or judicial proceeding not to be the parent of the child.

The definition in this subsection Y shall not be construed to provide greater or lesser rights as to the number of parents who can be named on a final judgment order of adoption or Illinois birth certificate that otherwise exist under Illinois law.

Z. "Department" means the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

AA. "Placement disruption" means a circumstance where the child is removed from an adoptive placement before the adoption is finalized.

BB. "Secondary placement" means a placement, including but not limited to the placement of a ward of the Department, that occurs after a placement disruption or an adoption dissolution. "Secondary placement" does not mean secondary placements arising due to the death of the adoptive parent of the child.

CC. "Adoption dissolution" means a circumstance where the child is removed from an adoptive placement after the adoption is finalized.

DD. "Unregulated placement" means the secondary placement of a child that occurs without the oversight of the courts, the Department, or a licensed child welfare agency.

EE. "Post-placement and post-adoption support services" means support services for placed or adopted children and families that include, but are not limited to, counseling for emotional, behavioral, or developmental needs.

(Source: P.A. 98-455, eff. 1-1-14; 98-532, eff. 1-1-14; 98-804, eff. 1-1-15; 99-49, eff. 7-15-15; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; revised 8-4-15.)

(750 ILCS 50/18.06)

Sec. 18.06. Definitions. When used in Sections 18.05 through Section 18.6, for the purposes of the Registry:

"Adopted person" means a person who was adopted pursuant to the laws in effect at the time of the adoption.

"Adoptive parent" means a person who has become a parent through the legal process of adoption.

"Adult child" means the biological child 21 years of age or over of a deceased adopted or surrendered person.

"Adult grandchild" means the biological grandchild 21 years of age or over of a deceased adopted or surrendered person.

"Adult adopted or surrendered person" means an adopted or surrendered person 21 years of age or over.

"Agency" means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

"Birth aunt" means the adult full or half sister of a deceased birth parent.

"Birth father" means the biological father of an adopted or surrendered person who is named on the original certificate of live birth or on a consent or surrender document, or a biological father whose paternity has been established by a judgment or order of the court, pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015.

"Birth grandparent" means the biological parent of: (i) a non-surrendered person who is a deceased birth mother; or (ii) a non-surrendered person who is a deceased birth father.

"Birth mother" means the biological mother of an adopted or surrendered person.

"Birth parent" means a birth mother or birth father of an adopted or surrendered person.

"Birth Parent Preference Form" means the form prepared by the Department of Public Health pursuant to Section 18.2 completed by a birth parent registrant and filed with the Registry that indicates the birth parent's preferences regarding contact and, if applicable, the release of his or her identifying information on the non-certified copy of the original birth certificate released to an adult adopted or surrendered person or to the surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person who has filed a Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate.

"Birth relative" means a birth mother, birth father, birth grandparent, birth sibling, birth aunt, or birth uncle.

"Birth sibling" means the adult full or half sibling of an adopted or surrendered person.

"Birth uncle" means the adult full or half brother of a deceased birth parent.

"Confidential intermediary" means an individual certified by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to Section 18.3a(e).

"Denial of Information Exchange" means an affidavit completed by a registrant with the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange denying the release of identifying information which has been filed with the Registry.

"Information Exchange Authorization" means an affidavit completed by a registrant with the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange authorizing the release of identifying information which has been filed with the Registry.

"Medical Information Exchange Questionnaire" means the medical history questionnaire completed by a registrant of the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

"Non-certified Copy of the Original Birth Certificate" means a non-certified copy of the original certificate of live birth of an adult adopted or surrendered person who was born in Illinois.

"Proof of death" means a death certificate.

"Registrant" or "Registered Party" means a birth parent, birth grandparent, birth sibling, birth aunt, birth uncle, adopted or surrendered person 21 years of age or over, adoptive parent or legal guardian of an adopted or surrendered person under the age of 21, or adoptive parent, surviving spouse, or adult child of a deceased adopted or surrendered person who has filed an Illinois Adoption Registry Application or Registration Identification Form with the Registry.

"Registry" means the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange.

"Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate" means an affidavit completed by an adult adopted or surrendered person or by the surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person and filed with the Registry requesting a non-certified copy of an adult adopted or surrendered person's original certificate of live birth in Illinois.

"Surrendered person" means a person whose parents' rights have been surrendered or terminated but who has not been adopted.

"Surviving spouse" means the wife or husband, 21 years of age or older, of a deceased adopted or surrendered person who would be 21 years of age or older if still alive and who has one or more surviving biological children who are under the age of 21.

"18.3 statement" means a statement regarding the disclosure of identifying information signed by a birth parent under Section 18.3 of this Act as it existed immediately prior to May 21, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-895) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-704, eff. 1-1-15; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-345, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-22-15.)

Section 595. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 214 and 227 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/214) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)

Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member or that petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused, neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities: significant decision-making. Award temporary decision-making responsibility to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary significant decision-making responsibility to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or allocates temporary significant decision-making responsibility of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's parenting time with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during parenting time; (ii) use the parenting time as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting time, the order shall specify dates and times for the parenting time to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for parenting time shall refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting time".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for parenting time, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental responsibility differently and vacating the petitioner's significant decision-making authority, unless otherwise provided in the order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The court shall issue a warrant for seizure of any firearm in the possession of the respondent, to be kept by the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping, except as provided in subsection (b). The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request, be returned to the respondent at the end of the order of protection. It is the respondent's responsibility to notify the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse, neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1985, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding, or acknowledgement, no putative father shall be granted temporary allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect, or exploitation if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-90, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

(750 ILCS 60/227) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-27)

Sec. 227. Privileged communications between domestic violence counselors and victims.

(a) As used in this Section:

(1) "Domestic violence program" means any unit of local government, organization, or association whose major purpose is to provide one or more of the following: information, crisis intervention, emergency shelter, referral, counseling, advocacy, or emotional support to victims of domestic violence.

(2) "Domestic violence advocate or counselor" means any person (A) who has undergone a minimum of forty hours of training in domestic violence advocacy, crisis intervention, and related areas, and (B) who provides services to victims through a domestic violence program either on an employed or volunteer basis.

(3) "Confidential communication" means any communication between an alleged victim of domestic violence and a domestic violence advocate or counselor in the course of providing information, counseling, or advocacy. The term includes all records kept by the advocate or counselor or by the domestic violence program in the course of providing services to an alleged victim concerning the alleged victim and the services provided. The confidential nature of the communication is not waived by the presence at the time of the communication of any additional persons, including but not limited to an interpreter, to further express the interests of the domestic violence victim or by the advocate's or counselor's disclosure to such an additional person with the consent of the victim when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the advocate or counselor is consulted.

(4) "Domestic violence victim" means any person who consults a domestic violence counselor for the purpose of securing advice, counseling or assistance related to one or more alleged incidents of domestic violence.

(5) "Domestic violence" means abuse as defined in this Act the Illinois Domestic Violence Act.

(b) No domestic violence advocate or counselor shall disclose any confidential communication or be examined as a witness in any civil or criminal case or proceeding or in any legislative or administrative proceeding without the written consent of the domestic violence victim except (1) in accordance with the provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or (2) in cases where failure to disclose is likely to result in an imminent risk of serious bodily harm or death of the victim or another person.

(c) A domestic violence advocate or counselor who knowingly discloses any confidential communication in violation of this Act commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) When a domestic violence victim is deceased or has been adjudged incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction, the guardian of the domestic violence victim or the executor or administrator of the estate of the domestic violence victim may waive the privilege established by this Section, except where the guardian, executor or administrator of the estate has been charged with a violent crime against the domestic violence victim or has had an Order of Protection entered against him or her at the request of or on behalf of the domestic violence victim or otherwise has an interest adverse to that of the domestic violence victim with respect to the waiver of the privilege. In that case, the court shall appoint an attorney for the estate of the domestic violence victim.

(e) A minor may knowingly waive the privilege established by this Section. Where a minor is, in the opinion of the court, incapable of knowingly waiving the privilege, the parent or guardian of the minor may waive the privilege on behalf of the minor, except where such parent or guardian has been charged with a violent crime against the minor or has had an Order of Protection entered against him or her on request of or on behalf of the minor or otherwise has any interest adverse to that of the minor with respect to the waiver of the privilege. In that case, the court shall appoint an attorney for the minor child who shall be compensated in accordance with Section 506 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit in any way any privilege that might otherwise exist under statute or common law.

(g) The assertion of any privilege under this Section shall not result in an inference unfavorable to the State's cause or to the cause of the domestic violence victim.

(Source: P.A. 87-1186; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 600. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 11a-4, 11a-10, and 11a-18 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-4) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-4)

Sec. 11a-4. Temporary guardian.

(a) Prior to the appointment of a guardian under this Article, pending an appeal in relation to the appointment, or pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3 of this Act, or upon a guardian's death, incapacity, or resignation, the court may appoint a temporary guardian upon a showing of the necessity therefor for the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability or his or her estate on such notice and subject to such conditions as the court may prescribe. In determining the necessity for temporary guardianship, the immediate welfare and protection of the alleged person with a disability and his or her estate shall be of paramount concern, and the interests of the petitioner, any care provider, or any other party shall not outweigh the interests of the alleged person with a disability. The temporary guardian shall have the limited powers and duties of a guardian of the person or of the estate which are specifically enumerated by court order. The court order shall state the actual harm identified by the court that necessitates temporary guardianship or any extension thereof.

(b) The temporary guardianship shall expire within 60 days after the appointment or whenever a guardian is regularly appointed, whichever occurs first. No extension shall be granted except:

(1) In a case where there has been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted:

(i) pending the disposition on appeal of an adjudication of disability;

(ii) pending the completion of a citation proceeding brought pursuant to Section 23-3;

(iii) pending the appointment of a successor guardian in a case where the former guardian has resigned, has become incapacitated, or is deceased; or

(iv) where the guardian's powers have been suspended pursuant to a court order.

(2) In a case where there has not been an adjudication of disability, an extension shall be granted pending the disposition of a petition brought pursuant to Section 11a-8 so long as the court finds it is in the best interest of the alleged person with a disability to extend the temporary guardianship so as to protect the alleged person with a disability from any potential abuse, neglect, self-neglect, exploitation, or other harm and such extension lasts no more than 120 days from the date the temporary guardian was originally appointed.

The ward shall have the right any time after the appointment of a temporary guardian is made to petition the court to revoke the appointment of the temporary guardian.

(Source: P.A. 99-70, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)

Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section 11a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best interests consistent with the provisions of this Section, except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be required when the court determines that such appointment is not necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by training or experience, to work with or advocate for persons with developmental disabilities, the mentally ill, persons with physical disabilities, the elderly, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may consult with a person who by training or experience is qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability, persons with mental illness, persons with physical disabilities, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of the petition and of his rights under Section 11a-11. The guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's position concerning the adjudication of disability, the proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement, changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court. Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem shall file a written report detailing his or her observations of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of the inquiries inquires detailed in this Section, the opinion of the guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her report.

(b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent, if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel upon respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.

(c) If the respondent is unable to pay the fee of the guardian ad litem or appointed counsel, or both, the court may enter an order for the petitioner to pay all such fees or such amounts as the respondent or the respondent's estate may be unable to pay. However, in cases where the Office of State Guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act, where the public guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 13-5 of this Act the Probate Act of 1975, where an adult protective services agency is the petitioner, pursuant to Section 9 of the Adult Protective Services Act, or where the Department of Children and Family Services is the petitioner under subparagraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 2-27 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, no guardian ad litem or legal fees shall be assessed against the Office of State Guardian, the public guardian, the adult protective services agency, or the Department of Children and Family Services.

(d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent resides.

(e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be printed in large, bold type and shall include the following notice:

NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT

You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship petition asking that you be declared a person with a disability. If the court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your convenience.

The date and time of the hearing are: The place where the hearing will occur is: The Judge's name and phone number is:

If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be given the right to make all important personal decisions for you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your money and other property, including your home, if you own one. You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.

You have the following legal rights:

(1) You have the right to be present at the court hearing.

(2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer, either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.

(3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons to hear your case.

(4) You have the right to present evidence to the court and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

(5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about your need for a guardian.

(6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be closed to the public.

(7) You have the right to tell the court whom you prefer to have for your guardian.

You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do not attend.

IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN. IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OF IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND TELL THE JUDGE.

Service of summons and the petition may be made by a private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the action.

(f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons, including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-89, eff. 7-15-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-18) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-18)

Sec. 11a-18. Duties of the estate guardian.

(a) To the extent specified in the order establishing the guardianship, the guardian of the estate shall have the care, management and investment of the estate, shall manage the estate frugally and shall apply the income and principal of the estate so far as necessary for the comfort and suitable support and education of the ward, his minor and adult dependent children, and persons related by blood or marriage who are dependent upon or entitled to support from him, or for any other purpose which the court deems to be for the best interests of the ward, and the court may approve the making on behalf of the ward of such agreements as the court determines to be for the ward's best interests. The guardian may make disbursement of his ward's funds and estate directly to the ward or other distributee or in such other manner and in such amounts as the court directs. If the estate of a ward is derived in whole or in part from payments of compensation, adjusted compensation, pension, insurance or other similar benefits made directly to the estate by the Veterans Administration, notice of the application for leave to invest or expend the ward's funds or estate, together with a copy of the petition and proposed order, shall be given to the Veterans' Administration Regional Office in this State at least 7 days before the hearing on the application.

(a-5) The probate court, upon petition of a guardian, other than the guardian of a minor, and after notice to all other persons interested as the court directs, may authorize the guardian to exercise any or all powers over the estate and business affairs of the ward that the ward could exercise if present and not under disability. The court may authorize the taking of an action or the application of funds not required for the ward's current and future maintenance and support in any manner approved by the court as being in keeping with the ward's wishes so far as they can be ascertained. The court must consider the permanence of the ward's disabling condition and the natural objects of the ward's bounty. In ascertaining and carrying out the ward's wishes the court may consider, but shall not be limited to, minimization of State or federal income, estate, or inheritance taxes; and providing gifts to charities, relatives, and friends that would be likely recipients of donations from the ward. The ward's wishes as best they can be ascertained shall be carried out, whether or not tax savings are involved. Actions or applications of funds may include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) making gifts of income or principal, or both, of the estate, either outright or in trust;

(2) conveying, releasing, or disclaiming his or her contingent and expectant interests in property, including marital property rights and any right of survivorship incident to joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety;

(3) releasing or disclaiming his or her powers as trustee, personal representative, custodian for minors, or guardian;

(4) exercising, releasing, or disclaiming his or her powers as donee of a power of appointment;

(5) entering into contracts;

(6) creating for the benefit of the ward or others, revocable or irrevocable trusts of his or her property that may extend beyond his or her disability or life;

(7) exercising options of the ward to purchase or exchange securities or other property;

(8) exercising the rights of the ward to elect benefit or payment options, to terminate, to change beneficiaries or ownership, to assign rights, to borrow, or to receive cash value in return for a surrender of rights under any one or more of the following:

(i) life insurance policies, plans, or benefits,

(ii) annuity policies, plans, or benefits,

(iii) mutual fund and other dividend investment plans,

(iv) retirement, profit sharing, and employee welfare plans and benefits;

(9) exercising his or her right to claim or disclaim an elective share in the estate of his or her deceased spouse and to renounce any interest by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transfer;

(10) changing the ward's residence or domicile; or

(11) modifying by means of codicil or trust amendment the terms of the ward's will or any revocable trust created by the ward, as the court may consider advisable in light of changes in applicable tax laws.

The guardian in his or her petition shall briefly outline the action or application of funds for which he or she seeks approval, the results expected to be accomplished thereby, and the tax savings, if any, expected to accrue. The proposed action or application of funds may include gifts of the ward's personal property or real estate, but transfers of real estate shall be subject to the requirements of Section 20 of this Act. Gifts may be for the benefit of prospective legatees, devisees, or heirs apparent of the ward or may be made to individuals or charities in which the ward is believed to have an interest. The guardian shall also indicate in the petition that any planned disposition is consistent with the intentions of the ward insofar as they can be ascertained, and if the ward's intentions cannot be ascertained, the ward will be presumed to favor reduction in the incidents of various forms of taxation and the partial distribution of his or her estate as provided in this subsection. The guardian shall not, however, be required to include as a beneficiary or fiduciary any person who he has reason to believe would be excluded by the ward. A guardian shall be required to investigate and pursue a ward's eligibility for governmental benefits.

(b) Upon the direction of the court which issued his letters, a guardian may perform the contracts of his ward which were legally subsisting at the time of the commencement of the ward's disability. The court may authorize the guardian to execute and deliver any bill of sale, deed or other instrument.

(c) The guardian of the estate of a ward shall appear for and represent the ward in all legal proceedings unless another person is appointed for that purpose as guardian or next friend. This does not impair the power of any court to appoint a guardian ad litem or next friend to defend the interests of the ward in that court, or to appoint or allow any person as the next friend of a ward to commence, prosecute or defend any proceeding in his behalf. Without impairing the power of the court in any respect, if the guardian of the estate of a ward and another person as next friend shall appear for and represent the ward in a legal proceeding in which the compensation of the attorney or attorneys representing the guardian and next friend is solely determined under a contingent fee arrangement, the guardian of the estate of the ward shall not participate in or have any duty to review the prosecution of the action, to participate in or review the appropriateness of any settlement of the action, or to participate in or review any determination of the appropriateness of any fees awarded to the attorney or attorneys employed in the prosecution of the action.

(d) Adjudication of disability shall not revoke or otherwise terminate a trust which is revocable by the ward. A guardian of the estate shall have no authority to revoke a trust that is revocable by the ward, except that the court may authorize a guardian to revoke a Totten trust or similar deposit or withdrawable capital account in trust to the extent necessary to provide funds for the purposes specified in paragraph (a) of this Section. If the trustee of any trust for the benefit of the ward has discretionary power to apply income or principal for the ward's benefit, the trustee shall not be required to distribute any of the income or principal to the guardian of the ward's estate, but the guardian may bring an action on behalf of the ward to compel the trustee to exercise the trustee's discretion or to seek relief from an abuse of discretion. This paragraph shall not limit the right of a guardian of the estate to receive accountings from the trustee on behalf of the ward.

(d-5) Upon a verified petition by the plenary or limited guardian of the estate or the request of the ward that is accompanied by a current physician's report that states the ward possesses testamentary capacity, the court may enter an order authorizing the ward to execute a will or codicil. In so ordering, the court shall authorize the guardian to retain independent counsel for the ward with whom the ward may execute or modify a will or codicil.

(e) Absent court order pursuant to the Illinois Power of Attorney Act directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian will have no power, duty or liability with respect to any property subject to the agency. This subsection (e) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interest of the person with a disability, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interest of the person with a disability. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the person with a disability.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-302, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 605. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18) (from Ch. 30, par. 318)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-472)

Sec. 18. Contents of bylaws. The bylaws shall provide for at least the following:

(a)(1) The election from among the unit owners of a board of managers, the number of persons constituting such board, and that the terms of at least one-third of the members of the board shall expire annually and that all members of the board shall be elected at large; if . If there are multiple owners of a single unit, only one of the multiple owners shall be eligible to serve as a member of the board at any one time; .

(2) the powers and duties of the board;

(3) the compensation, if any, of the members of the board;

(4) the method of removal from office of members of the board;

(5) that the board may engage the services of a manager or managing agent;

(6) that each unit owner shall receive, at least 30 days prior to the adoption thereof by the board of managers, a copy of the proposed annual budget together with an indication of which portions are intended for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes;

(7) that the board of managers shall annually supply to all unit owners an itemized accounting of the common expenses for the preceding year actually incurred or paid, together with an indication of which portions were for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes and with a tabulation of the amounts collected pursuant to the budget or assessment, and showing the net excess or deficit of income over expenditures plus reserves;

(8)(i) that each unit owner shall receive notice, in the same manner as is provided in this Act for membership meetings, of any meeting of the board of managers concerning the adoption of the proposed annual budget and regular assessments pursuant thereto or to adopt a separate (special) assessment, (ii) that except as provided in subsection (iv) below, if an adopted budget or any separate assessment adopted by the board would result in the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable in the current fiscal year exceeding 115% of the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable during the preceding fiscal year, the board of managers, upon written petition by unit owners with 20 percent of the votes of the association delivered to the board within 14 days of the board action, shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the date of delivery of the petition to consider the budget or separate assessment; unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the budget or separate assessment, it is ratified, (iii) that any common expense not set forth in the budget or any increase in assessments over the amount adopted in the budget shall be separately assessed against all unit owners, (iv) that separate assessments for expenditures relating to emergencies or mandated by law may be adopted by the board of managers without being subject to unit owner approval or the provisions of item (ii) above or item (v) below. As used herein, "emergency" means an immediate danger to the structural integrity of the common elements or to the life, health, safety or property of the unit owners, (v) that assessments for additions and alterations to the common elements or to association-owned property not included in the adopted annual budget, shall be separately assessed and are subject to approval of two-thirds of the total votes of all unit owners, (vi) that the board of managers may adopt separate assessments payable over more than one fiscal year. With respect to multi-year assessments not governed by items (iv) and (v), the entire amount of the multi-year assessment shall be deemed considered and authorized in the first fiscal year in which the assessment is approved;

(9) that meetings of the board of managers shall be open to any unit owner, except for the portion of any meeting held (i) to discuss litigation when an action against or on behalf of the particular association has been filed and is pending in a court or administrative tribunal, or when the board of managers finds that such an action is probable or imminent, (ii) to consider information regarding appointment, employment or dismissal of an employee, or (iii) to discuss violations of rules and regulations of the association or a unit owner's unpaid share of common expenses; that any vote on these matters shall be taken at a meeting or portion thereof open to any unit owner; that any unit owner may record the proceedings at meetings or portions thereof required to be open by this Act by tape, film or other means; that the board may prescribe reasonable rules and regulations to govern the right to make such recordings, that notice of such meetings shall be mailed or delivered at least 48 hours prior thereto, unless a written waiver of such notice is signed by the person or persons entitled to such notice pursuant to the declaration, bylaws, other condominium instrument, or provision of law other than this subsection before the meeting is convened, and that copies of notices of meetings of the board of managers shall be posted in entranceways, elevators, or other conspicuous places in the condominium at least 48 hours prior to the meeting of the board of managers except where there is no common entranceway for 7 or more units, the board of managers may designate one or more locations in the proximity of these units where the notices of meetings shall be posted;

(10) that the board shall meet at least 4 times annually;

(11) that no member of the board or officer shall be elected for a term of more than 2 years, but that officers and board members may succeed themselves;

(12) the designation of an officer to mail and receive all notices and execute amendments to condominium instruments as provided for in this Act and in the condominium instruments;

(13) the method of filling vacancies on the board which shall include authority for the remaining members of the board to fill the vacancy by two-thirds vote until the next annual meeting of unit owners or for a period terminating no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting a meeting of the unit owners to fill the vacancy for the balance of the term, and that a meeting of the unit owners shall be called for purposes of filling a vacancy on the board no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting such a meeting, and the method of filling vacancies among the officers that shall include the authority for the members of the board to fill the vacancy for the unexpired portion of the term;

(14) what percentage of the board of managers, if other than a majority, shall constitute a quorum;

(15) provisions concerning notice of board meetings to members of the board;

(16) the board of managers may not enter into a contract with a current board member or with a corporation or partnership in which a board member or a member of the board member's immediate family has 25% or more interest, unless notice of intent to enter the contract is given to unit owners within 20 days after a decision is made to enter into the contract and the unit owners are afforded an opportunity by filing a petition, signed by 20% of the unit owners, for an election to approve or disapprove the contract; such petition shall be filed within 20 days after such notice and such election shall be held within 30 days after filing the petition; for purposes of this subsection, a board member's immediate family means the board member's spouse, parents, and children;

(17) that the board of managers may disseminate to unit owners biographical and background information about candidates for election to the board if (i) reasonable efforts to identify all candidates are made and all candidates are given an opportunity to include biographical and background information in the information to be disseminated; and (ii) the board does not express a preference in favor of any candidate;

(18) any proxy distributed for board elections by the board of managers gives unit owners the opportunity to designate any person as the proxy holder, and gives the unit owner the opportunity to express a preference for any of the known candidates for the board or to write in a name;

(19) that special meetings of the board of managers can be called by the president or 25% of the members of the board; and

(20) that the board of managers may establish and maintain a system of master metering of public utility services and collect payments in connection therewith, subject to the requirements of the Tenant Utility Payment Disclosure Act.

(b)(1) What percentage of the unit owners, if other than 20%, shall constitute a quorum provided that, for condominiums with 20 or more units, the percentage of unit owners constituting a quorum shall be 20% unless the unit owners holding a majority of the percentage interest in the association provide for a higher percentage, provided that in voting on amendments to the association's bylaws, a unit owner who is in arrears on the unit owner's regular or separate assessments for 60 days or more, shall not be counted for purposes of determining if a quorum is present, but that unit owner retains the right to vote on amendments to the association's bylaws;

(2) that the association shall have one class of membership;

(3) that the members shall hold an annual meeting, one of the purposes of which shall be to elect members of the board of managers;

(4) the method of calling meetings of the unit owners;

(5) that special meetings of the members can be called by the president, board of managers, or by 20% of unit owners;

(6) that written notice of any membership meeting shall be mailed or delivered giving members no less than 10 and no more than 30 days notice of the time, place and purpose of such meeting except that notice may be sent, to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, by electronic transmission consented to by the unit owner to whom the notice is given, provided the director and officer or his agent certifies in writing to the delivery by electronic transmission;

(7) that voting shall be on a percentage basis, and that the percentage vote to which each unit is entitled is the percentage interest of the undivided ownership of the common elements appurtenant thereto, provided that the bylaws may provide for approval by unit owners in connection with matters where the requisite approval on a percentage basis is not specified in this Act, on the basis of one vote per unit;

(8) that, where there is more than one owner of a unit, if only one of the multiple owners is present at a meeting of the association, he is entitled to cast all the votes allocated to that unit, if more than one of the multiple owners are present, the votes allocated to that unit may be cast only in accordance with the agreement of a majority in interest of the multiple owners, unless the declaration expressly provides otherwise, that there is majority agreement if any one of the multiple owners cast the votes allocated to that unit without protest being made promptly to the person presiding over the meeting by any of the other owners of the unit;

(9)(A) except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (9) in connection with board elections, that a unit owner may vote by proxy executed in writing by the unit owner or by his duly authorized attorney in fact; that the proxy must bear the date of execution and, unless the condominium instruments or the written proxy itself provide otherwise, is invalid after 11 months from the date of its execution; to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, a vote or proxy may be submitted by electronic transmission, provided that any such electronic transmission shall either set forth or be submitted with information from which it can be determined that the electronic transmission was authorized by the unit owner or the unit owner's proxy;

(B) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subsection, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting or (ii) by submitting an association-issued ballot to the association or its designated agent by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule; that the ballots shall be mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; that the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the ballots are mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners; that every such ballot must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person casting the ballot the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; that a ballot received by the association or its designated agent after the close of voting shall not be counted; that a unit owner who submits a ballot by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, and thereby void any ballot previously submitted by that unit owner;

(B-5) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subparagraph, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting; or (ii) by any acceptable technological means as defined in Section 2 of this Act; instructions regarding the use of electronic means for voting shall be distributed to all unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the instructions for voting using electronic or acceptable technological means is distributed to unit owners; every instruction notice must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person voting through electronic or acceptable technological means the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; a unit owner who submits a vote using electronic or acceptable technological means may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, thereby voiding any vote previously submitted by that unit owner;

(C) that if a written petition by unit owners with at least 20% of the votes of the association is delivered to the board within 14 days after the board's approval of a rule adopted pursuant to subparagraph (B) or subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9), the board shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days after the date of delivery of the petition; that unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the rule, the rule is ratified;

(D) that votes cast by ballot under subparagraph (B) or electronic or acceptable technological means under subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9) are valid for the purpose of establishing a quorum;

(10) that the association may, upon adoption of the appropriate rules by the board of managers, conduct elections by secret ballot whereby the voting ballot is marked only with the percentage interest for the unit and the vote itself, provided that the board further adopt rules to verify the status of the unit owner issuing a proxy or casting a ballot; and further, that a candidate for election to the board of managers or such candidate's representative shall have the right to be present at the counting of ballots at such election;

(11) that in the event of a resale of a condominium unit the purchaser of a unit from a seller other than the developer pursuant to an installment contract for purchase shall during such times as he or she resides in the unit be counted toward a quorum for purposes of election of members of the board of managers at any meeting of the unit owners called for purposes of electing members of the board, shall have the right to vote for the election of members of the board of managers and to be elected to and serve on the board of managers unless the seller expressly retains in writing any or all of such rights. In no event may the seller and purchaser both be counted toward a quorum, be permitted to vote for a particular office or be elected and serve on the board. Satisfactory evidence of the installment contract contact shall be made available to the association or its agents. For purposes of this subsection, "installment contract" contact" shall have the same meaning as set forth in Section 1 (e) of the Dwelling Unit Installment Contract Act "An Act relating to installment contracts to sell dwelling structures", approved August 11, 1967, as amended;

(12) the method by which matters subject to the approval of unit owners set forth in this Act, or in the condominium instruments, will be submitted to the unit owners at special membership meetings called for such purposes; and

(13) that matters subject to the affirmative vote of not less than 2/3 of the votes of unit owners at a meeting duly called for that purpose, shall include, but not be limited to:

(i) merger or consolidation of the association;

(ii) sale, lease, exchange, or other disposition (excluding the mortgage or pledge) of all, or substantially all of the property and assets of the association; and

(iii) the purchase or sale of land or of units on behalf of all unit owners.

(c) Election of a president from among the board of managers, who shall preside over the meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners.

(d) Election of a secretary from among the board of managers, who shall keep the minutes of all meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners and who shall, in general, perform all the duties incident to the office of secretary.

(e) Election of a treasurer from among the board of managers, who shall keep the financial records and books of account.

(f) Maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements and payments therefor, including the method of approving payment vouchers.

(g) An association with 30 or more units shall obtain and maintain fidelity insurance covering persons who control or disburse funds of the association for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody or control of the association plus the association reserve fund. All management companies which are responsible for the funds held or administered by the association shall maintain and furnish to the association a fidelity bond for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody of the management company at any time. The association shall bear the cost of the fidelity insurance and fidelity bond, unless otherwise provided by contract between the association and a management company. The association shall be the direct obligee of any such fidelity bond. A management company holding reserve funds of an association shall at all times maintain a separate account for each association, provided, however, that for investment purposes, the Board of Managers of an association may authorize a management company to maintain the association's reserve funds in a single interest bearing account with similar funds of other associations. The management company shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such investment account. The management company may hold all operating funds of associations which it manages in a single operating account but shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such operating account. Such operating and reserve funds held by the management company for the association shall not be subject to attachment by any creditor of the management company.

For the purpose of this subsection, a management company shall be defined as a person, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity entitled to transact business on behalf of others, acting on behalf of or as an agent for a unit owner, unit owners or association of unit owners for the purpose of carrying out the duties, responsibilities, and other obligations necessary for the day to day operation and management of any property subject to this Act. For purposes of this subsection, the term "fiduciary insurance coverage" shall be defined as both a fidelity bond and directors and officers liability coverage, the fidelity bond in the full amount of association funds and association reserves that will be in the custody of the association, and the directors and officers liability coverage at a level as shall be determined to be reasonable by the board of managers, if not otherwise established by the declaration or by laws.

Until one year after September 21, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-722) this amendatory Act of 1985, if a condominium association has reserves plus assessments in excess of $250,000 and cannot reasonably obtain 100% fidelity bond coverage for such amount, then it must obtain a fidelity bond coverage of $250,000.

(h) Method of estimating the amount of the annual budget, and the manner of assessing and collecting from the unit owners their respective shares of such estimated expenses, and of any other expenses lawfully agreed upon.

(i) That upon 10 days notice to the manager or board of managers and payment of a reasonable fee, any unit owner shall be furnished a statement of his account setting forth the amount of any unpaid assessments or other charges due and owing from such owner.

(j) Designation and removal of personnel necessary for the maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements.

(k) Such restrictions on and requirements respecting the use and maintenance of the units and the use of the common elements, not set forth in the declaration, as are designed to prevent unreasonable interference with the use of their respective units and of the common elements by the several unit owners.

(l) Method of adopting and of amending administrative rules and regulations governing the operation and use of the common elements.

(m) The percentage of votes required to modify or amend the bylaws, but each one of the particulars set forth in this section shall always be embodied in the bylaws.

(n)(i) The provisions of this Act, the declaration, bylaws, other condominium instruments, and rules and regulations that relate to the use of the individual unit or the common elements shall be applicable to any person leasing a unit and shall be deemed to be incorporated in any lease executed or renewed on or after August 30, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1271) this amendatory Act of 1984.

(ii) With regard to any lease entered into subsequent to July 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-991) this amendatory Act of 1989, the unit owner leasing the unit shall deliver a copy of the signed lease to the board or if the lease is oral, a memorandum of the lease, not later than the date of occupancy or 10 days after the lease is signed, whichever occurs first. In addition to any other remedies, by filing an action jointly against the tenant and the unit owner, an association may seek to enjoin a tenant from occupying a unit or seek to evict a tenant under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure for failure of the lessor-owner to comply with the leasing requirements prescribed by this Section or by the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations. The board of managers may proceed directly against a tenant, at law or in equity, or under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure, for any other breach by tenant of any covenants, rules, regulations or bylaws.

(o) The association shall have no authority to forbear the payment of assessments by any unit owner.

(p) That when 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, any percentage vote of members specified herein or in the condominium instruments shall require the specified percentage by number of units rather than by percentage of interest in the common elements allocated to units that would otherwise be applicable and garage units or storage units, or both, shall have, in total, no more votes than their aggregate percentage of ownership in the common elements; this shall mean that if garage units or storage units, or both, are to be given a vote, or portion of a vote, that the association must add the total number of votes cast of garage units, storage units, or both, and divide the total by the number of garage units, storage units, or both, and multiply by the aggregate percentage of ownership of garage units and storage units to determine the vote, or portion of a vote, that garage units or storage units, or both, have. For purposes of this subsection (p), when making a determination of whether 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, a unit shall not include a garage unit or a storage unit.

(q) That a unit owner may not assign, delegate, transfer, surrender, or avoid the duties, responsibilities, and liabilities of a unit owner under this Act, the condominium instruments, or the rules and regulations of the Association; and that such an attempted assignment, delegation, transfer, surrender, or avoidance shall be deemed void.

The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument which contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any such instrument which fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 98-1042, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-472)

Sec. 18. Contents of bylaws. The bylaws shall provide for at least the following:

(a)(1) The election from among the unit owners of a board of managers, the number of persons constituting such board, and that the terms of at least one-third of the members of the board shall expire annually and that all members of the board shall be elected at large; if . If there are multiple owners of a single unit, only one of the multiple owners shall be eligible to serve as a member of the board at any one time; .

(2) the powers and duties of the board;

(3) the compensation, if any, of the members of the board;

(4) the method of removal from office of members of the board;

(5) that the board may engage the services of a manager or managing agent;

(6) that each unit owner shall receive, at least 25 days prior to the adoption thereof by the board of managers, a copy of the proposed annual budget together with an indication of which portions are intended for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes;

(7) that the board of managers shall annually supply to all unit owners an itemized accounting of the common expenses for the preceding year actually incurred or paid, together with an indication of which portions were for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes and with a tabulation of the amounts collected pursuant to the budget or assessment, and showing the net excess or deficit of income over expenditures plus reserves;

(8)(i) that each unit owner shall receive notice, in the same manner as is provided in this Act for membership meetings, of any meeting of the board of managers concerning the adoption of the proposed annual budget and regular assessments pursuant thereto or to adopt a separate (special) assessment, (ii) that except as provided in subsection (iv) below, if an adopted budget or any separate assessment adopted by the board would result in the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable in the current fiscal year exceeding 115% of the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable during the preceding fiscal year, the board of managers, upon written petition by unit owners with 20 percent of the votes of the association delivered to the board within 14 days of the board action, shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the date of delivery of the petition to consider the budget or separate assessment; unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the budget or separate assessment, it is ratified, (iii) that any common expense not set forth in the budget or any increase in assessments over the amount adopted in the budget shall be separately assessed against all unit owners, (iv) that separate assessments for expenditures relating to emergencies or mandated by law may be adopted by the board of managers without being subject to unit owner approval or the provisions of item (ii) above or item (v) below. As used herein, "emergency" means an immediate danger to the structural integrity of the common elements or to the life, health, safety or property of the unit owners, (v) that assessments for additions and alterations to the common elements or to association-owned property not included in the adopted annual budget, shall be separately assessed and are subject to approval of two-thirds of the total votes of all unit owners, (vi) that the board of managers may adopt separate assessments payable over more than one fiscal year. With respect to multi-year assessments not governed by items (iv) and (v), the entire amount of the multi-year assessment shall be deemed considered and authorized in the first fiscal year in which the assessment is approved;

(9)(A) that every meeting of the board of managers shall be open to any unit owner, except for the portion of any meeting held to discuss or consider information relating to: (i) litigation when an action against or on behalf of the particular association has been filed and is pending in a court or administrative tribunal, or when the board of managers finds that such an action is probable or imminent, (ii) appointment, employment or dismissal of an employee, (iii) violations of rules and regulations of the association, or (iv) a unit owner's unpaid share of common expenses; that any vote on these matters discussed or considered in closed session shall take place at a meeting of the board of managers or portion thereof open to any unit owner;

(B) that board members may participate in and act at any meeting of the board of managers in person, by telephonic means, or by use of any acceptable technological means whereby all persons participating in the meeting can communicate with each other; that participation constitutes attendance and presence in person at the meeting;

(C) that any unit owner may record the proceedings at meetings of the board of managers or portions thereof required to be open by this Act by tape, film or other means, and that the board may prescribe reasonable rules and regulations to govern the right to make such recordings;

(D) that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall be given to every board member at least 48 hours prior thereto, unless the board member waives notice of the meeting pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 18.8; and

(E) that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall be posted in entranceways, elevators, or other conspicuous places in the condominium at least 48 hours prior to the meeting of the board of managers except where there is no common entranceway for 7 or more units, the board of managers may designate one or more locations in the proximity of these units where the notices of meetings shall be posted; that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall also be given at least 48 hours prior to the meeting, or such longer notice as this Act may separately require, to: (i) each unit owner who has provided the association with written authorization to conduct business by acceptable technological means, and (ii) to the extent that the condominium instruments of an association require, to each other unit owner, as required by subsection (f) of Section 18.8, by mail or delivery, and that no other notice of a meeting of the board of managers need be given to any unit owner;

(10) that the board shall meet at least 4 times annually;

(11) that no member of the board or officer shall be elected for a term of more than 2 years, but that officers and board members may succeed themselves;

(12) the designation of an officer to mail and receive all notices and execute amendments to condominium instruments as provided for in this Act and in the condominium instruments;

(13) the method of filling vacancies on the board which shall include authority for the remaining members of the board to fill the vacancy by two-thirds vote until the next annual meeting of unit owners or for a period terminating no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting a meeting of the unit owners to fill the vacancy for the balance of the term, and that a meeting of the unit owners shall be called for purposes of filling a vacancy on the board no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting such a meeting, and the method of filling vacancies among the officers that shall include the authority for the members of the board to fill the vacancy for the unexpired portion of the term;

(14) what percentage of the board of managers, if other than a majority, shall constitute a quorum;

(15) provisions concerning notice of board meetings to members of the board;

(16) the board of managers may not enter into a contract with a current board member or with a corporation or partnership in which a board member or a member of the board member's immediate family has 25% or more interest, unless notice of intent to enter the contract is given to unit owners within 20 days after a decision is made to enter into the contract and the unit owners are afforded an opportunity by filing a petition, signed by 20% of the unit owners, for an election to approve or disapprove the contract; such petition shall be filed within 20 days after such notice and such election shall be held within 30 days after filing the petition; for purposes of this subsection, a board member's immediate family means the board member's spouse, parents, and children;

(17) that the board of managers may disseminate to unit owners biographical and background information about candidates for election to the board if (i) reasonable efforts to identify all candidates are made and all candidates are given an opportunity to include biographical and background information in the information to be disseminated; and (ii) the board does not express a preference in favor of any candidate;

(18) any proxy distributed for board elections by the board of managers gives unit owners the opportunity to designate any person as the proxy holder, and gives the unit owner the opportunity to express a preference for any of the known candidates for the board or to write in a name;

(19) that special meetings of the board of managers can be called by the president or 25% of the members of the board;

(20) that the board of managers may establish and maintain a system of master metering of public utility services and collect payments in connection therewith, subject to the requirements of the Tenant Utility Payment Disclosure Act; and

(21) that the board may ratify and confirm actions of the members of the board taken in response to an emergency, as that term is defined in subdivision (a)(8)(iv) of this Section; that the board shall give notice to the unit owners of: (i) the occurrence of the emergency event within 7 business days after the emergency event, and (ii) the general description of the actions taken to address the event within 7 days after the emergency event.

The intent of the provisions of Public Act 99-472 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly adding this paragraph (21) is to empower and support boards to act in emergencies.

(b)(1) What percentage of the unit owners, if other than 20%, shall constitute a quorum provided that, for condominiums with 20 or more units, the percentage of unit owners constituting a quorum shall be 20% unless the unit owners holding a majority of the percentage interest in the association provide for a higher percentage, provided that in voting on amendments to the association's bylaws, a unit owner who is in arrears on the unit owner's regular or separate assessments for 60 days or more, shall not be counted for purposes of determining if a quorum is present, but that unit owner retains the right to vote on amendments to the association's bylaws;

(2) that the association shall have one class of membership;

(3) that the members shall hold an annual meeting, one of the purposes of which shall be to elect members of the board of managers;

(4) the method of calling meetings of the unit owners;

(5) that special meetings of the members can be called by the president, board of managers, or by 20% of unit owners;

(6) that written notice of any membership meeting shall be mailed or delivered giving members no less than 10 and no more than 30 days notice of the time, place and purpose of such meeting except that notice may be sent, to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, by electronic transmission consented to by the unit owner to whom the notice is given, provided the director and officer or his agent certifies in writing to the delivery by electronic transmission;

(7) that voting shall be on a percentage basis, and that the percentage vote to which each unit is entitled is the percentage interest of the undivided ownership of the common elements appurtenant thereto, provided that the bylaws may provide for approval by unit owners in connection with matters where the requisite approval on a percentage basis is not specified in this Act, on the basis of one vote per unit;

(8) that, where there is more than one owner of a unit, if only one of the multiple owners is present at a meeting of the association, he is entitled to cast all the votes allocated to that unit, if more than one of the multiple owners are present, the votes allocated to that unit may be cast only in accordance with the agreement of a majority in interest of the multiple owners, unless the declaration expressly provides otherwise, that there is majority agreement if any one of the multiple owners cast the votes allocated to that unit without protest being made promptly to the person presiding over the meeting by any of the other owners of the unit;

(9)(A) except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (9) in connection with board elections, that a unit owner may vote by proxy executed in writing by the unit owner or by his duly authorized attorney in fact; that the proxy must bear the date of execution and, unless the condominium instruments or the written proxy itself provide otherwise, is invalid after 11 months from the date of its execution; to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, a vote or proxy may be submitted by electronic transmission, provided that any such electronic transmission shall either set forth or be submitted with information from which it can be determined that the electronic transmission was authorized by the unit owner or the unit owner's proxy;

(B) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subsection, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting or (ii) by submitting an association-issued ballot to the association or its designated agent by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule; that the ballots shall be mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; that the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the ballots are mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners; that every such ballot must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person casting the ballot the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; that a ballot received by the association or its designated agent after the close of voting shall not be counted; that a unit owner who submits a ballot by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, and thereby void any ballot previously submitted by that unit owner;

(B-5) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subparagraph, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting; or (ii) by any acceptable technological means as defined in Section 2 of this Act; instructions regarding the use of electronic means for voting shall be distributed to all unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the instructions for voting using electronic or acceptable technological means is distributed to unit owners; every instruction notice must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person voting through electronic or acceptable technological means the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; a unit owner who submits a vote using electronic or acceptable technological means may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, thereby voiding any vote previously submitted by that unit owner;

(C) that if a written petition by unit owners with at least 20% of the votes of the association is delivered to the board within 14 days after the board's approval of a rule adopted pursuant to subparagraph (B) or subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9), the board shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days after the date of delivery of the petition; that unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the rule, the rule is ratified;

(D) that votes cast by ballot under subparagraph (B) or electronic or acceptable technological means under subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9) are valid for the purpose of establishing a quorum;

(10) that the association may, upon adoption of the appropriate rules by the board of managers, conduct elections by secret ballot whereby the voting ballot is marked only with the percentage interest for the unit and the vote itself, provided that the board further adopt rules to verify the status of the unit owner issuing a proxy or casting a ballot; and further, that a candidate for election to the board of managers or such candidate's representative shall have the right to be present at the counting of ballots at such election;

(11) that in the event of a resale of a condominium unit the purchaser of a unit from a seller other than the developer pursuant to an installment contract for purchase shall during such times as he or she resides in the unit be counted toward a quorum for purposes of election of members of the board of managers at any meeting of the unit owners called for purposes of electing members of the board, shall have the right to vote for the election of members of the board of managers and to be elected to and serve on the board of managers unless the seller expressly retains in writing any or all of such rights. In no event may the seller and purchaser both be counted toward a quorum, be permitted to vote for a particular office or be elected and serve on the board. Satisfactory evidence of the installment contract contact shall be made available to the association or its agents. For purposes of this subsection, "installment contract" contact" shall have the same meaning as set forth in Section 1 (e) of the Dwelling Unit Installment Contract Act "An Act relating to installment contracts to sell dwelling structures", approved August 11, 1967, as amended;

(12) the method by which matters subject to the approval of unit owners set forth in this Act, or in the condominium instruments, will be submitted to the unit owners at special membership meetings called for such purposes; and

(13) that matters subject to the affirmative vote of not less than 2/3 of the votes of unit owners at a meeting duly called for that purpose, shall include, but not be limited to:

(i) merger or consolidation of the association;

(ii) sale, lease, exchange, or other disposition (excluding the mortgage or pledge) of all, or substantially all of the property and assets of the association; and

(iii) the purchase or sale of land or of units on behalf of all unit owners.

(c) Election of a president from among the board of managers, who shall preside over the meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners.

(d) Election of a secretary from among the board of managers, who shall keep the minutes of all meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners and who shall, in general, perform all the duties incident to the office of secretary.

(e) Election of a treasurer from among the board of managers, who shall keep the financial records and books of account.

(f) Maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements and payments therefor, including the method of approving payment vouchers.

(g) An association with 30 or more units shall obtain and maintain fidelity insurance covering persons who control or disburse funds of the association for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody or control of the association plus the association reserve fund. All management companies which are responsible for the funds held or administered by the association shall maintain and furnish to the association a fidelity bond for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody of the management company at any time. The association shall bear the cost of the fidelity insurance and fidelity bond, unless otherwise provided by contract between the association and a management company. The association shall be the direct obligee of any such fidelity bond. A management company holding reserve funds of an association shall at all times maintain a separate account for each association, provided, however, that for investment purposes, the Board of Managers of an association may authorize a management company to maintain the association's reserve funds in a single interest bearing account with similar funds of other associations. The management company shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such investment account. The management company may hold all operating funds of associations which it manages in a single operating account but shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such operating account. Such operating and reserve funds held by the management company for the association shall not be subject to attachment by any creditor of the management company.

For the purpose of this subsection, a management company shall be defined as a person, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity entitled to transact business on behalf of others, acting on behalf of or as an agent for a unit owner, unit owners or association of unit owners for the purpose of carrying out the duties, responsibilities, and other obligations necessary for the day to day operation and management of any property subject to this Act. For purposes of this subsection, the term "fiduciary insurance coverage" shall be defined as both a fidelity bond and directors and officers liability coverage, the fidelity bond in the full amount of association funds and association reserves that will be in the custody of the association, and the directors and officers liability coverage at a level as shall be determined to be reasonable by the board of managers, if not otherwise established by the declaration or by laws.

Until one year after September 21, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-722) this amendatory Act of 1985, if a condominium association has reserves plus assessments in excess of $250,000 and cannot reasonably obtain 100% fidelity bond coverage for such amount, then it must obtain a fidelity bond coverage of $250,000.

(h) Method of estimating the amount of the annual budget, and the manner of assessing and collecting from the unit owners their respective shares of such estimated expenses, and of any other expenses lawfully agreed upon.

(i) That upon 10 days notice to the manager or board of managers and payment of a reasonable fee, any unit owner shall be furnished a statement of his account setting forth the amount of any unpaid assessments or other charges due and owing from such owner.

(j) Designation and removal of personnel necessary for the maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements.

(k) Such restrictions on and requirements respecting the use and maintenance of the units and the use of the common elements, not set forth in the declaration, as are designed to prevent unreasonable interference with the use of their respective units and of the common elements by the several unit owners.

(l) Method of adopting and of amending administrative rules and regulations governing the operation and use of the common elements.

(m) The percentage of votes required to modify or amend the bylaws, but each one of the particulars set forth in this section shall always be embodied in the bylaws.

(n)(i) The provisions of this Act, the declaration, bylaws, other condominium instruments, and rules and regulations that relate to the use of the individual unit or the common elements shall be applicable to any person leasing a unit and shall be deemed to be incorporated in any lease executed or renewed on or after August 30, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1271) this amendatory Act of 1984.

(ii) With regard to any lease entered into subsequent to July 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-991) this amendatory Act of 1989, the unit owner leasing the unit shall deliver a copy of the signed lease to the board or if the lease is oral, a memorandum of the lease, not later than the date of occupancy or 10 days after the lease is signed, whichever occurs first. In addition to any other remedies, by filing an action jointly against the tenant and the unit owner, an association may seek to enjoin a tenant from occupying a unit or seek to evict a tenant under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure for failure of the lessor-owner to comply with the leasing requirements prescribed by this Section or by the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations. The board of managers may proceed directly against a tenant, at law or in equity, or under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure, for any other breach by tenant of any covenants, rules, regulations or bylaws.

(o) The association shall have no authority to forbear the payment of assessments by any unit owner.

(p) That when 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, any percentage vote of members specified herein or in the condominium instruments shall require the specified percentage by number of units rather than by percentage of interest in the common elements allocated to units that would otherwise be applicable and garage units or storage units, or both, shall have, in total, no more votes than their aggregate percentage of ownership in the common elements; this shall mean that if garage units or storage units, or both, are to be given a vote, or portion of a vote, that the association must add the total number of votes cast of garage units, storage units, or both, and divide the total by the number of garage units, storage units, or both, and multiply by the aggregate percentage of ownership of garage units and storage units to determine the vote, or portion of a vote, that garage units or storage units, or both, have. For purposes of this subsection (p), when making a determination of whether 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, a unit shall not include a garage unit or a storage unit.

(q) That a unit owner may not assign, delegate, transfer, surrender, or avoid the duties, responsibilities, and liabilities of a unit owner under this Act, the condominium instruments, or the rules and regulations of the Association; and that such an attempted assignment, delegation, transfer, surrender, or avoidance shall be deemed void.

The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument which contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any such instrument which fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 98-1042, eff. 1-1-15; 99-472, eff. 6-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 610. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 2-104, 3-102, 3-105, 8-101, and 9-102 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/2-104) (from Ch. 68, par. 2-104)

Sec. 2-104. Exemptions.

(A) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit an employer, employment agency, or labor organization from:

(1) Bona Fide Qualification. Hiring or selecting between persons for bona fide occupational qualifications or any reason except those civil-rights violations specifically identified in this Article.

(2) Veterans. Giving preferential treatment to veterans and their relatives as required by the laws or regulations of the United States or this State or a unit of local government, or pursuant to a private employer's voluntary veterans' preference employment policy authorized by the Veterans Preference in Private Employment Act.

(3) Unfavorable Discharge From Military Service.

(a) Using unfavorable discharge from military service as a valid employment criterion when authorized by federal law or regulation or when a position of employment involves the exercise of fiduciary responsibilities as defined by rules and regulations which the Department shall adopt; or

(b) Participating in a bona fide recruiting incentive program, sponsored by a branch of the United States Armed Forces, a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces, or any National Guard or Naval Militia, where participation in the program is limited by the sponsoring branch based upon the service member's discharge status.

(4) Ability Tests. Giving or acting upon the results of any professionally developed ability test provided that such test, its administration, or action upon the results, is not used as a subterfuge for or does not have the effect of unlawful discrimination.

(5) Merit and Retirement Systems.

(a) Applying different standards of compensation, or different terms, conditions or privileges of employment pursuant to a merit or retirement system provided that such system or its administration is not used as a subterfuge for or does not have the effect of unlawful discrimination.

(b) Effecting compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 65 years of age and who, for the 2-year period immediately preceding retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, if such employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of such plans of the employer of such employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at least $44,000. If any such retirement benefit is in a form other than a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) or if the employees contribute to any such plan or make rollover contributions, the retirement benefit shall be adjusted in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Department, so that the benefit is the equivalent of a straight life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) under a plan to which employees do not contribute and under which no rollover contributions are made.

(c) Until January 1, 1994, effecting compulsory retirement of any employee who has attained 70 years of age, and who is serving under a contract of unlimited tenure (or similar arrangement providing for unlimited tenure) at an institution of higher education as defined by Section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.

(6) Training and Apprenticeship programs. Establishing an educational requirement as a prerequisite to selection for a training or apprenticeship program, provided such requirement does not operate to discriminate on the basis of any prohibited classification except age.

(7) Police and Firefighter/Paramedic Retirement. Imposing a mandatory retirement age for firefighters/paramedics or law enforcement officers and discharging or retiring such individuals pursuant to the mandatory retirement age if such action is taken pursuant to a bona fide retirement plan provided that the law enforcement officer or firefighter/paramedic has attained:

(a) the age of retirement in effect under applicable State or local law on March 3, 1983; or

(b) if the applicable State or local law was enacted after the date of enactment of the federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1996 (P.L. 104-208), the age of retirement in effect on the date of such discharge under such law.

This paragraph (7) shall not apply with respect to any cause of action arising under the Illinois Human Rights Act as in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997.

(8) Police and Firefighter/Paramedic Appointment. Failing or refusing to hire any individual because of such individual's age if such action is taken with respect to the employment of an individual as a firefighter/paramedic or as a law enforcement officer and the individual has attained:

(a) the age of hiring or appointment in effect under applicable State or local law on March 3, 1983; or

(b) the age of hiring in effect on the date of such failure or refusal to hire under applicable State or local law enacted after the date of enactment of the federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1996 (P.L. 104-208).

As used in paragraph (7) or (8):

"Firefighter/paramedic" means an employee, the duties of whose position are primarily to perform work directly connected with the control and extinguishment of fires or the maintenance and use of firefighting apparatus and equipment, or to provide emergency medical services, including an employee engaged in this activity who is transferred to a supervisory or administrative position.

"Law enforcement officer" means an employee, the duties of whose position are primarily the investigation, apprehension, or detention of individuals suspected or convicted of criminal offenses, including an employee engaged in this activity who is transferred to a supervisory or administrative position.

(9) Citizenship Status. Making legitimate distinctions based on citizenship status if specifically authorized or required by State or federal law.

(B) With respect to any employee who is subject to a collective bargaining agreement:

(a) which is in effect on June 30, 1986,

(b) which terminates after January 1, 1987,

(c) any provision of which was entered into by a labor organization as defined by Section 6(d)(4) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 206(d)(4)), and

(d) which contains any provision that would be superseded by this amendatory Act of 1987 (Public Act 85-748),

Public Act 85-748 such amendatory Act of 1987 shall not apply until the termination of such collective bargaining agreement or January 1, 1990, whichever occurs first.

(C)(1) For purposes of this Act, the term "disability" shall not include any employee or applicant who is currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs, when an employer acts on the basis of such use.

(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply where an employee or applicant for employment:

(a) has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs, or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully and is no longer engaging in such use;

(b) is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in such use; or

(c) is erroneously regarded as engaging in such use, but is not engaging in such use.

It shall not be a violation of this Act for an employer to adopt or administer reasonable policies or procedures, including but not limited to drug testing, designed to ensure that an individual described in subparagraph (a) or (b) is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs.

(3) An employer:

(a) may prohibit the illegal use of drugs and the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;

(b) may require that employees shall not be under the influence of alcohol or be engaging in the illegal use of drugs at the workplace;

(c) may require that employees behave in conformance with the requirements established under the federal Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 (41 U.S.C. 701 et seq.) and the Drug Free Workplace Act;

(d) may hold an employee who engages in the illegal use of drugs or who is an alcoholic to the same qualification standards for employment or job performance and behavior that such employer holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to the drug use or alcoholism of such employee; and

(e) may, with respect to federal regulations regarding alcohol and the illegal use of drugs, require that:

(i) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the United States Department of Defense, if the employees of the employer are employed in an industry subject to such regulations, including complying with regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the Department of Defense);

(ii) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, if the employees of the employer are employed in an industry subject to such regulations, including complying with regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission); and

(iii) employees comply with the standards established in such regulations of the United States Department of Transportation, if the employees of the employer are employed in a transportation industry subject to such regulations, including complying with such regulations (if any) that apply to employment in sensitive positions in such an industry, in the case of employees of the employer who are employed in such positions (as defined in the regulations of the United States Department of Transportation).

(4) For purposes of this Act, a test to determine the illegal use of drugs shall not be considered a medical examination. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to encourage, prohibit, or authorize the conducting of drug testing for the illegal use of drugs by job applicants or employees or making employment decisions based on such test results.

(5) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to encourage, prohibit, restrict, or authorize the otherwise lawful exercise by an employer subject to the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Transportation of authority to:

(a) test employees of such employer in, and applicants for, positions involving safety-sensitive duties for the illegal use of drugs and for on-duty impairment by alcohol; and

(b) remove such persons who test positive for illegal use of drugs and on-duty impairment by alcohol pursuant to subparagraph (a) from safety-sensitive duties in implementing paragraph (3).

(Source: P.A. 99-152, eff. 1-1-16, 99-165, eff. 7-28-15; revised 10-29-15.)

(775 ILCS 5/3-102) (from Ch. 68, par. 3-102)

Sec. 3-102. Civil Rights Violations; Real Estate Transactions. ) It is a civil rights violation for an owner or any other person engaging in a real estate transaction, or for a real estate broker or salesman, because of unlawful discrimination or familial status, to

(A) Transaction. Refuse to engage in a real estate transaction with a person or to discriminate in making available such a transaction;

(B) Terms. Alter the terms, conditions or privileges of a real estate transaction or in the furnishing of facilities or services in connection therewith;

(C) Offer. Refuse to receive or to fail to transmit a bona fide offer to engage in a real estate transaction from a person;

(D) Negotiation. Refuse to negotiate for a real estate transaction with a person;

(E) Representations. Represent to a person that real property is not available for inspection, sale, rental, or lease when in fact it is so available, or to fail to bring a property listing to his or her attention, or to refuse to permit him or her to inspect real property;

(F) Publication of Intent. Make, print, circulate, post, mail, publish or cause to be made, printed, circulated, posted, mailed, or published any notice, statement, advertisement or sign, or use a form of application for a real estate transaction, or make a record or inquiry in connection with a prospective real estate transaction, that indicates any preference, limitation, or discrimination based on unlawful discrimination or unlawful discrimination based on familial status, or an intention to make any such preference, limitation, or discrimination;

(G) Listings. Offer, solicit, accept, use or retain a listing of real property with knowledge that unlawful discrimination or discrimination on the basis of familial status in a real estate transaction is intended.

(Source: P.A. 99-196, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(775 ILCS 5/3-105) (from Ch. 68, par. 3-105)

Sec. 3-105. Restrictive Covenants.)

(A) Agreements. Every provision in an oral agreement or a written instrument relating to real property which purports to forbid or restrict the conveyance, encumbrance, occupancy, or lease thereof on the basis of race, color, religion, or national origin is void.

(B) Limitations. (1) Every condition, restriction or prohibition, including a right of entry or possibility of reverter, which directly or indirectly limits the use or occupancy of real property on the basis of race, color, religion, or national origin is void.

(2) This Section shall not apply to a limitation of use on the basis of religion of real property held by a religious institution or organization or by a religious or charitable organization operated, supervised, or controlled by a religious institution or organization, and used for religious or charitable purposes.

(C) Civil Rights Violations. It is a civil rights violation to insert in a written instrument relating to real property a provision that is void under this Section or to honor or attempt to honor such a provision in the chain of title.

(Source: P.A. 81-1216; revised 10-21-15.)

(775 ILCS 5/8-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 8-101)

Sec. 8-101. Illinois Human Rights Commission. )

(A) Creation; appointments. The Human Rights Commission is created to consist of 13 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. No more than 7 members shall be of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one member as chairperson. All appointments shall be in writing and filed with the Secretary of State as a public record.

(B) Terms. Of the members first appointed, 4 shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 1981, and 5 (including the Chairperson) shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 1983.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each member of the Illinois Human Rights Commission is abolished on July 29, 1985, but the incumbent members shall continue to exercise all of the powers and be subject to all of the duties of members of the Commission until their respective successors are appointed and qualified. Subject to the provisions of subsection (A), of the 9 members appointed under Public Act 84-115, effective July 29, 1985, 5 members shall be appointed for terms to expire on the third Monday of January, 1987, and 4 members shall be appointed for terms to expire on the third Monday of January, 1989; and of the 4 additional members appointed under Public Act 84-1084, effective December 2, 1985, two shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 1987, and two members shall be appointed for a term to expire on the third Monday of January, 1989.

Thereafter, each member shall serve for a term of 4 years and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified; except that any member chosen to fill a vacancy occurring otherwise than by expiration of a term shall be appointed only for the unexpired term of the member whom he or she shall succeed and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

(C) Vacancies.

(1) In the case of vacancies on the Commission during a recess of the Senate, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate when he or she shall appoint a person to fill the vacancy. Any person so nominated and confirmed by the Senate shall hold office for the remainder of the term and until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

(2) If the Senate is not in session at the time this Act takes effect, the Governor shall make temporary appointments to the Commission as in the case of vacancies.

(3) Vacancies in the Commission shall not impair the right of the remaining members to exercise all the powers of the Commission. Except when authorized by this Act to proceed through a 3 member panel, a majority of the members of the Commission then in office shall constitute a quorum.

(D) Compensation. The Chairperson of the Commission shall be compensated at the rate of $22,500 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, during his or her service as Chairperson, and each other member shall be compensated at the rate of $20,000 per year, or as set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. In addition, all members of the Commission shall be reimbursed for expenses actually and necessarily incurred by them in the performance of their duties.

(Source: P.A. 84-1308; revised 10-20-15.)

(775 ILCS 5/9-102) (from Ch. 68, par. 9-102)

Sec. 9-102. Pending Matters. )

(A) Charges; Complaints; Causes of Action. This Act shall not affect or abate any cause of action, charge, complaint or other matter pending before or accrued under the jurisdiction of the Fair Employment Practices Commission or the Department of Equal Employment Opportunity. Each charge, complaint, or matter shall be assumed by the Department or Commission, as provided in this Act, at the same stage, or a parallel stage, of proceeding to which it had progressed prior to the effective date of this Act.

(B) Special Cases. The Human Rights Act shall not in any way affect or abate any right, claim or cause of action under the "Equal Opportunities for the Handicapped Act", approved August 23, 1971, as amended, which accrued or arose prior to July 1, 1980.

(Source: P.A. 84-1084; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 615. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 113.50 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/113.50) (from Ch. 32, par. 113.50)

Sec. 113.50. Grounds for revocation of authority.

(a) The authority of a foreign corporation to conduct affairs in this State may be revoked by the Secretary of State:

(1) Upon the failure of an officer or director to whom interrogatories have been propounded by the Secretary of State, as provided in this Act, to answer the same fully and to file such answer in the office of the Secretary of State;

(2) If the authority of the corporation was procured through fraud practiced upon the State;

(3) If the corporation has continued to exceed or abuse the authority conferred upon it by this Act;

(4) Upon the failure of the corporation to keep on file in the office of the Secretary of State duly authenticated copies of each amendment to its articles of or incorporation;

(5) Upon the failure of the corporation to appoint and maintain a registered agent in this State;

(6) Upon the failure of the corporation to file any report after the period prescribed by this Act for the filing of such report;

(7) Upon the failure of the corporation to pay any fees or charges prescribed by this Act;

(8) For misrepresentation of any material matter in any application, report, affidavit, or other document filed by such corporation pursuant to this Act;

(9) Upon the failure of the corporation to renew its assumed name or to apply to change its assumed name pursuant to the provisions of this Act, when the corporation can only conduct affairs within this State under its assumed name in accordance with the provisions of Section 104.05 of this Act;

(10) Upon notification from the local liquor commissioner, pursuant to Section 4-4(3) of the "The Liquor Control Act of 1934," as now or hereafter amended, that a foreign corporation functioning as a club in this State has violated that Act by selling or offering for sale at retail alcoholic liquors without a retailer's license; or

(11) When, in an action by the Attorney General, under the provisions of the "Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act, the Solicitation for Charity Act ", or "An Act to regulate solicitation and collection of funds for charitable purposes, providing for violations thereof, and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 26, 1963, as amended, or the "Charitable Trust Act", a court has found that the corporation substantially and willfully violated any of such Acts.

(b) The enumeration of grounds for revocation in paragraphs (1) through (11) of subsection (a) shall not preclude any action by the Attorney General which is authorized by any other statute of the State of Illinois or the common law.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-59, eff. 7-1-03; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 620. The High Risk Home Loan Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(815 ILCS 137/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Approved credit counselor" means a credit counselor approved by the Director of Financial Institutions.

"Bona fide discount points" means loan discount points that are knowingly paid by the consumer for the purpose of reducing, and that in fact result in a bona fide reduction of, the interest rate or time price differential applicable to the mortgage.

"Borrower" means a natural person who seeks or obtains a high risk home loan.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and Real Estate.

"Department" means the Department of Financial Institutions.

"Director" means the Director of Financial Institutions.

"Good faith" means honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction concerned.

"High risk home loan" means a consumer credit transaction, other than a reverse mortgage, that is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling if: (i) at the time of origination, the annual percentage rate exceeds by more than 6 percentage points in the case of a first lien mortgage, or by more than 8 percentage points in the case of a junior mortgage, the average prime offer rate, as defined in Section 129C(b)(2)(B) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, for a comparable transaction as of the date on which the interest rate for the transaction is set, or if the dwelling is personal property, then as provided under 15 U.S.C. 1602(bb), as amended, and any corresponding regulation, as amended, (ii) the loan documents permit the creditor to charge or collect prepayment fees or penalties more than 36 months after the transaction closing or such fees exceed, in the aggregate, more than 2% of the amount prepaid, or (iii) the total points and fees payable in connection with the transaction, other than bona fide third-party charges not retained by the mortgage originator, creditor, or an affiliate of the mortgage originator or creditor, will exceed (1) 5% of the total loan amount in the case of a transaction for $20,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act) or more or (2) the lesser of 8% of the total loan amount or $1,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act) in the case of a transaction for less than $20,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act), except that, with respect to all transactions, bona fide loan discount points may be excluded as provided for in Section 35 of this Act. "High risk home loan" does not include a loan that is made primarily for a business purpose unrelated to the residential real property securing the loan or a consumer credit transaction made by a natural person who provides seller financing secured by a principal residence no more than 3 times in a 12-month period, provided such consumer credit transaction is not made by a person that has constructed or acted as a contractor for the construction of the residence in the ordinary course of business of such person.

"Lender" means a natural or artificial person who transfers, deals in, offers, or makes a high risk home loan. "Lender" includes, but is not limited to, creditors and brokers who transfer, deal in, offer, or make high risk home loans. "Lender" does not include purchasers, assignees, or subsequent holders of high risk home loans.

"Office" means the Office of Banks and Real Estate.

"Points and fees" means all items considered to be points and fees under 12 CFR 226.32 (2000, or as initially amended pursuant to Section 1431 of the federal Dodd-Frank Act with no subsequent amendments or editions included, whichever is later); compensation paid directly or indirectly by a consumer or creditor to a mortgage broker from any source, including a broker that originates a loan in its own name in a table-funded transaction, not otherwise included in 12 CFR 226.4; the maximum prepayment fees and penalties that may be charged or collected under the terms of the credit transaction; all prepayment fees or penalties that are incurred by the consumer if the loan refinances a previous loan made or currently held by the same creditor or an affiliate of the creditor; and premiums or other charges payable at or before closing or financed directly or indirectly into the loan for any credit life, credit disability, credit unemployment, credit property, other accident, loss of income, life, or health insurance or payments directly or indirectly for any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract, except that insurance premiums or debt cancellation or suspension fees calculated and paid in full on a monthly basis shall not be considered financed by the creditor. "Points and fees" does not include any insurance premium provided by an agency of the federal government or an agency of a state; any insurance premium paid by the consumer after closing; and any amount of a premium, charge, or fee that is not in excess of the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under Section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)), provided that the premium, charge, or fee is required to be refundable on a pro-rated basis and the refund is automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan.

"Prepayment penalty" and "prepayment fees or penalties" mean: (i) for a closed-end credit transaction, a charge imposed for paying all or part of the transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer prepays all of the transactions's principal sooner than 36 months after consummation and (ii) for an open-end credit plan, a charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan prior to the end of its term, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan sooner than 36 months after account opening.

"Reasonable" means fair, proper, just, or prudent under the circumstances.

"Servicer" means any entity chartered under the Illinois Banking Act, the Savings Bank Act, the Illinois Credit Union Act, or the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 and any person or entity licensed under the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987, the Consumer Installment Loan Act, or the Sales Finance Agency Act who is responsible for the collection or remittance for, or has the right or obligation to collect or remit for, any lender, note owner, or note holder or for a licensee's own account, of payments, interest, principal, and trust items (such as hazard insurance and taxes on a residential mortgage loan) in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan, including loan payment follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis, and any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good standing.

"Total loan amount" has the same meaning as that term is given in 12 CFR 226.32 and shall be calculated in accordance with the Federal Reserve Board's Official Staff Commentary to that regulation.

(Source: P.A. 99-150, eff. 7-28-15; 99-288, eff. 8-5-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 625. The Motor Fuel Sales Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(815 ILCS 365/2) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 1502)

Sec. 2. Assistance at stations with self-service and full-service islands.

(a) Any attendant on duty at a gasoline station or service station offering to the public retail sales of motor fuel at both self-service and full-service islands shall, upon request, dispense motor fuel for the driver of a car which is parked at a self-service island and displays: (1) registration plates issued to a person with a physical disability pursuant to Section 3-616 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (2) registration plates issued to a veteran with a disability pursuant to Section 3-609 or 3-609.01 of such Code; or (3) a special decal or device issued pursuant to Section 11-1301.2 of such Code; and shall only charge such driver prices as offered to the general public for motor fuel dispensed at the self-service island. However, such attendant shall not be required to perform other services which are offered at the full-service island.

(b) Gasoline stations and service stations in this State are subject to the federal Americans with Disabilities Act and must:

(1) provide refueling assistance upon the request of an individual with a disability (A gasoline station or service station is not required to provide such service at any time that it is operating on a remote control basis with a single employee on duty at the motor fuel site, but is encouraged to do so, if feasible.);

(2) by January 1, 2014, provide and display at least one ADA compliant motor fuel dispenser with a direct telephone number to the station that allows an operator of a motor vehicle who has a disability to request refueling assistance, with the telephone number posted in close proximity to the International Symbol of Accessibility required by the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, however, if the station does not have at least one ADA compliant motor fuel dispenser, the station must display on at least one motor fuel dispenser a direct telephone number to the station that allows an operator of a motor vehicle who has a disability to request refueling assistance; and

(3) provide the refueling assistance without any charge beyond the self-serve price.

(c) The signage required under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) shall be designated by the station owner and shall be posted in a prominently visible place. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers.

(d) The Secretary of State shall provide to persons with disabilities information regarding the availability of refueling assistance under this Section by the following methods:

(1) by posting information about that availability on the Secretary of State's Internet website, along with a link to the Department of Human Services website; and

(2) by publishing a brochure containing information about that availability, which shall be made available at all Secretary of State offices throughout the State.

(d-5) On its Internet website, the Department of Agriculture shall maintain a list of gasoline and service stations that are required to report to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Weights and Measures. The list shall include the addresses and telephone numbers of the gasoline and service stations. The Department of Agriculture shall provide the Department of Human Services with a link to this website information.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall post on its Internet website information regarding the availability of refueling assistance for persons with disabilities and the link to the list of gasoline and service stations provided by the Department of Agriculture.

(f) A person commits a Class C misdemeanor if he or she telephones a gasoline station or service station to request refueling assistance and he or she:

(1) is not actually physically present at the gasoline or service station; or

(2) is physically present at the gasoline or service station but does not actually require refueling assistance.

(g) The Department of Transportation shall work in cooperation with appropriate representatives of gasoline and service station trade associations and the petroleum industry to increase the signage at gasoline and service stations on interstate highways in this State with regard to the availability of refueling assistance for persons with disabilities.

(h) If an owner of a gas station or service station is found by the Illinois Department of Agriculture, Bureau of Weights and Measures, to be in violation of this Act, the owner shall pay an administrative fine of $250. Any moneys collected by the Department shall be deposited into the Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Fund. The Department of Agriculture shall have the same authority and powers as provided for in the Motor Fuel and Petroleum Standards Act in enforcing this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-44, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 630. The Used Lubricant Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(815 ILCS 435/2) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 5802)

Sec. 2. Any person dealing in previously used or previously used and reclaimed, re-refined, recleaned, or reconditioned lubricating oils, lubricants or mixtures of lubricants without having each and every container or item of equipment in or through which any of such products are sold, kept for sale, displayed or dispensed plainly labeled as required in this Act, or advertising any of such products for sale without inserting in such advertising a statement as required in this Act may upon proper hearing be enjoined from selling any of such products or offering, displaying or advertising any of the same for sale. Action for such injunction may be brought in the circuit court in the county in which the defendant resides, and may be brought either by the Attorney General of this State state or by the State's States Attorney in and for such county. The authority granted by this Section shall be in addition to and not in lieu of authority to prosecute criminally any person for a violation of this Act. The granting or enforcing of any injunction under this Act is a preventive measure for the protection of the people of this State state, not a punitive measure, and the fact that a person has been charged or convicted of a violation of this Act shall not prevent the ordering of an injunction to prevent further unlawful dealing in previously used or previously used and reclaimed, re-refined, recleaned or reconditioned lubricating oils, lubricants or mixtures of lubricants, nor shall the fact that an injunction has been granted under this Act preclude the institution of criminal prosecution or punishment. Upon promulgation of labeling standards applicable to recycled oil by the Federal Trade Commission as prescribed pursuant to Title V, Section 383 of the federal "Energy Policy and Conservation Act (P.L. " (P.A. 94-163) the provisions of this Section shall no longer be in effect.

(Source: P.A. 83-346; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 635. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 2Z and 2MM as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2Z) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 262Z)

Sec. 2Z. Violations of other Acts. Any person who knowingly violates the Automotive Repair Act, the Automotive Collision Repair Act, the Home Repair and Remodeling Act, the Dance Studio Act, the Physical Fitness Services Act, the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, the Illinois Union Label Act, the Job Referral and Job Listing Services Consumer Protection Act, the Travel Promotion Consumer Protection Act, the Credit Services Organizations Act, the Automatic Telephone Dialers Act, the Pay-Per-Call Services Consumer Protection Act, the Telephone Solicitations Act, the Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act, the Cemetery Oversight Act, the Cemetery Care Act, the Safe and Hygienic Bed Act, the Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act, the High Risk Home Loan Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, the Mortgage Rescue Fraud Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Tax Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act, the Electronic Mail Act, the Internet Caller Identification Act, paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 6-305 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 11-1431, 18d-115, 18d-120, 18d-125, 18d-135, 18d-150, or 18d-153 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, the Automatic Contract Renewal Act, the Reverse Mortgage Act, Section 25 of the Youth Mental Health Protection Act, or the Personal Information Protection Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-331, eff. 1-1-16; 99-411, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-21-15.)

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a person with a disability:

(1) a guardian of the person with a disability who that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975; and

(2) an agent of the person with a disability who that is the subject of the request, under a written durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

The following persons may request that a security freeze be placed on the credit report of a minor:

(1) a guardian of the minor who that is the subject of the request, appointed under Article XI of the Probate Act of 1975;

(2) a parent of the minor who that is the subject of the request; and

(3) a guardian appointed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a minor under the age of 18 who is the subject of the request or, with a court order authorizing the guardian consent power, for a youth who is the subject of the request who has attained the age of 18, but who is under the age of 21.

This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

A security freeze for a minor may not be temporarily lifted. This Section does not require a consumer reporting agency to provide to a minor or a parent or guardian of a minor on behalf of the minor a unique personal identification number, password, or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency for the minor, or parent or guardian of the minor, to use to authorize the consumer reporting agency to release information from a minor.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer or person authorized under subsection (c) to act on behalf of the minor or person with a disability who that is the subject of the security freeze requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze and may require proper identification and proper authority from the person making the request to place or remove a freeze on behalf of the person with a disability or minor.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to: (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze; (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person; or (iii) an active duty military service member who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a copy of his or her orders calling the service member to military service and any orders further extending the service member's period of service if currently active.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper authority" means documentation that shows that a parent, guardian, or agent has authority to act on behalf of a minor or person with a disability. "Proper authority" includes (1) an order issued by a court of law that shows that a guardian has authority to act on behalf of a minor or person with a disability, (2) a written, notarized statement signed by a parent that expressly describes the authority of the parent to act on behalf of the minor, or (3) a durable power of attorney that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

"Military service member" means a resident of Illinois who is a member of any component of the U.S. Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, the District of Columbia, a commonwealth, or a territory of the United States who has entered any full-time training or duty for which the service member was ordered to report by the President, the governor of a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, or another appropriate military authority.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-486, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-373, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 640. The Job Referral and Job Listing Services Consumer Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 12 as follows:

(815 ILCS 630/5) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 2005)

Sec. 5. Every Service shall be required to:

(1) Keep and make available to the Attorney General during regular business hours, and to the State's States Attorney of any county in which the Service conducts business the following records:

(a) All job listing authorizations received by the Service during the immediate past year. Each such authorization shall include:

(i) the date when such authorization was received.

(ii) the name of the person recording the authorization.

(iii) the name and address of the employer or agent of the employer, making the authorization.

(iv) the job title and the qualifications therefor.

(v) the salary offered or to be paid for such job, if known.

(vi) the The duration of the job.

(b) Copies of all contracts, agreements or other documents signed by job seekers, pursuant to Section 6 of this Act, for the immediate past year.

(c) Copies of all receipts for fee payments given to each job seeker, pursuant to this Act, for the immediate past year.

(d) A current schedule of fees charged.

(e) All other written information relative to the services provided to the job seeker.

(2) Furnish to each job seeker a copy of every written instrument the job seeker has signed.

(3) Obtain a bona fide job order for employment prior to collecting any fee from a job seeker or sending out a job seeker to any place of employment.

(4) Furnish to each job seeker from whom a fee is received, at the time payment is received, a receipt in which shall be stated the name of the job seeker, the name and address of the Service and its agent, the date and amount of the fee and the purpose for which it was paid.

(5) Furnish to each job seeker, who is sent to a prospective employer, with a card or similar paper stating the nature of the prospective employment, the names of the job seeker and prospective employer, and the address of the employer.

(6) Verify each job listing authorization received from the authorizing employer within 7 days following the receipt or such authorization.

(7) Meet in person with a potential job seeker and enter into a written contract before a job seeker provides payment for a job list. A job list shall include, at a minimum, the following information:

(a) name Name and address of the employer or agent of the employer, making the authorization;

(b) job Job title and the qualifications therefor;

(c) salary Salary offered or to be paid for such job, if known;

(d) the The duration of the job;

(e) location Location of the job; and

(f) certification Certification that the position has not been filled as of the date that such a list is made available to the job seeker.

Said job list shall be considered deliverable under the contract.

(Source: P.A. 87-293; revised 10-19-15.)

(815 ILCS 630/12) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 2012)

Sec. 12. Violation of any of the provisions of this Act is an unlawful practice pursuant to Section 2 of the Deceptive Business Practices Act, as now or hereafter amended. All remedies, penalties and authority granted to the Attorney General or a State's States Attorney by that Act shall be available to them for the enforcement of this Act. In any action brought by the Attorney General or a State's States Attorney to enforce this Act, the court may order that persons who incurred actual damages be awarded the amount of actual damages assessed.

(Source: P.A. 85-1367; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 645. The Victims' Economic Security and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 905 as follows:

(820 ILCS 180/905)

Sec. 905. Severability. If any provision of this Act or the application of such provision to any person or circumstance is held to be in violation of the United Unites States Constitution or Illinois Constitution, the remainder of the provisions of this Act and the application of those provisions to any person or circumstance shall not be affected.

(Source: P.A. 93-591, eff. 8-25-03; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 650. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/14) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.14)

Sec. 14. The Commission shall appoint a secretary, an assistant secretary, and arbitrators and shall employ such assistants and clerical help as may be necessary. Arbitrators shall be appointed pursuant to this Section, notwithstanding any provision of the Personnel Code.

Each arbitrator appointed after June 28, 2011 shall be required to demonstrate in writing his or her knowledge of and expertise in the law of and judicial processes of the Workers' Compensation Act and the Workers' Occupational Diseases Act.

A formal training program for newly-hired arbitrators shall be implemented. The training program shall include the following:

(a) substantive and procedural aspects of the arbitrator position;

(b) current issues in workers' compensation law and practice;

(c) medical lectures by specialists in areas such as orthopedics, ophthalmology, psychiatry, rehabilitation counseling;

(d) orientation to each operational unit of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission;

(e) observation of experienced arbitrators conducting hearings of cases, combined with the opportunity to discuss evidence presented and rulings made;

(f) the use of hypothetical cases requiring the trainee to issue judgments as a means to evaluating knowledge and writing ability;

(g) writing skills;

(h) professional and ethical standards pursuant to Section 1.1 of this Act;

(i) detection of workers' compensation fraud and reporting obligations of Commission employees and appointees;

(j) standards of evidence-based medical treatment and best practices for measuring and improving quality and health care outcomes in the workers' compensation system, including but not limited to the use of the American Medical Association's "Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment" and the practice of utilization review; and

(k) substantive and procedural aspects of coal workers' pneumoconiosis (black lung) cases.

A formal and ongoing professional development program including, but not limited to, the above-noted areas shall be implemented to keep arbitrators informed of recent developments and issues and to assist them in maintaining and enhancing their professional competence. Each arbitrator shall complete 20 hours of training in the above-noted areas during every 2 years such arbitrator shall remain in office.

Each arbitrator shall devote full time to his or her duties and shall serve when assigned as an acting Commissioner when a Commissioner is unavailable in accordance with the provisions of Section 13 of this Act. Any arbitrator who is an attorney-at-law shall not engage in the practice of law, nor shall any arbitrator hold any other office or position of profit under the United States or this State or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of this State. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, an arbitrator who serves as an acting Commissioner in accordance with the provisions of Section 13 of this Act shall continue to serve in the capacity of Commissioner until a decision is reached in every case heard by that arbitrator while serving as an acting Commissioner.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the term of all arbitrators serving on June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-18) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, including any arbitrators on administrative leave, shall terminate at the close of business on July 1, 2011, but the incumbents shall continue to exercise all of their duties until they are reappointed or their successors are appointed.

On and after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-18) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, arbitrators shall be appointed to 3-year terms as follows:

(1) All appointments shall be made by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

(2) For their initial appointments, 12 arbitrators shall be appointed to terms expiring July 1, 2012; 12 arbitrators shall be appointed to terms expiring July 1, 2013; and all additional arbitrators shall be appointed to terms expiring July 1, 2014. Thereafter, all arbitrators shall be appointed to 3-year terms.

Upon the expiration of a term, the Chairman shall evaluate the performance of the arbitrator and may recommend to the Governor that he or she be reappointed to a second or subsequent term by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

Each arbitrator appointed on or after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-18) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and who has not previously served as an arbitrator for the Commission shall be required to be authorized to practice law in this State by the Supreme Court, and to maintain this authorization throughout his or her term of employment.

The performance of all arbitrators shall be reviewed by the Chairman on an annual basis. The Chairman shall allow input from the Commissioners in all such reviews.

The Commission shall assign no fewer than 3 arbitrators to each hearing site. The Commission shall establish a procedure to ensure that the arbitrators assigned to each hearing site are assigned cases on a random basis. No arbitrator shall hear cases in any county, other than Cook County, for more than 2 years in each 3-year term.

The Secretary and each arbitrator shall receive a per annum salary of $4,000 less than the per annum salary of members of The Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission as provided in Section 13 of this Act, payable in equal monthly installments.

The members of the Commission, Arbitrators and other employees whose duties require them to travel, shall have reimbursed to them their actual traveling expenses and disbursements made or incurred by them in the discharge of their official duties while away from their place of residence in the performance of their duties.

The Commission shall provide itself with a seal for the authentication of its orders, awards and proceedings upon which shall be inscribed the name of the Commission and the words "Illinois--Seal".

The Secretary or Assistant Secretary, under the direction of the Commission, shall have charge and custody of the seal of the Commission and also have charge and custody of all records, files, orders, proceedings, decisions, awards and other documents on file with the Commission. He shall furnish certified copies, under the seal of the Commission, of any such records, files, orders, proceedings, decisions, awards and other documents on file with the Commission as may be required. Certified copies so furnished by the Secretary or Assistant Secretary shall be received in evidence before the Commission or any Arbitrator thereof, and in all courts, provided that the original of such certified copy is otherwise competent and admissible in evidence. The Secretary or Assistant Secretary shall perform such other duties as may be prescribed from time to time by the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-719, eff. 6-29-12; 98-40, eff. 6-28-13; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.