SB1315 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB099 06069 HAF 26123 b

99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2015 and 2016
SB1315

Introduced 2/18/2015, by Sen. Heather A. Steans

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Nurse Practice Act. Eliminates the requirement for a written collaborative agreement for all advanced practice nurses. Eliminates the requirement for an anesthesia plan for certified registered nurse anesthetists. Removes references to a written collaborative agreement and anesthesia plan throughout the Act. Repeals certain Sections of the Act and a Section of the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 concerning written collaborative agreements. Amends various other Acts to make related changes. Effective immediately.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose to and education about administration by individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid overdose.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response.

(E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose treatment medication.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid antidote.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant who has been delegated the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by his or her supervising physician, an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote, or an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antidote.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antidote dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues as necessary.

(Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 15. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 22-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe asthma medications by his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates the authority to prescribe asthma medications, for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors by his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates authority to issue a standing protocol for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(c-5) Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to his or her school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to his or her school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and its related facilities;

(3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the Board shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The Board is not required to create new resource materials. The Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and manner prescribed by the Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)

Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.

(a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor that provides services to students or in schools, or any other individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or 34-18.5 of this Code.

(b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to additional health examinations, including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a local public health official. The board may from time to time require an examination of any employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician and shall pay the expenses thereof from school funds.

(c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional growth.

(Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school districts, including special charter districts, but not including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall grant such of their other employees as are eligible to participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the "600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year. Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or, if the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative.

If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or different district.

For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children, grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.

(Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09; 96-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or (ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child to attend some public school in the district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in session during the regular school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be required to attend the public schools:

1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school where children are taught the branches of education taught to children of corresponding age and grade in the public schools, and where the instruction of the child in the branches of education is in the English language;

2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to attend school, such disability being certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations, a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except where a female is unable to attend school due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence of such complication is certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician;

3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed according to the provisions of the law regulating child labor may be excused from attendance at school by the county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of the public school which the child should be attending, on certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the school board of the public school district in which the child resides. In districts having part time continuation schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at least 8 hours each week;

4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in attendance at confirmation classes;

5. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to participate in any examination, study or work requirements on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day. Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations relative to absences for religious holidays including, but not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on any other day by reason of the observance of a religious holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian of a child who is to be excused from attending school due to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice, not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be required to submit a written excuse for such absence after returning to school; and

6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include the collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice nurses who have a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes them to perform health examinations, or physician assistants who have been delegated the performance of health examinations by their supervising physician shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to submit their children or wards to the examinations or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form. Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 97-216, eff. 1-1-12; 97-910, eff. 1-1-13; 98-673, eff. 6-30-14.)

Section 20. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff consulting committee in consultation with the anesthesia service and included in the medical staff consulting committee policies.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 25. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)

Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or when authorized under Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act or when authorized under Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 30. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 2.05 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2.05) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)

Sec. 2.05. "Home health services" means services provided to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment for illness or infirmity prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe home health services by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates the authority to prescribe home health services. Such services include part time and intermittent nursing services and other therapeutic services such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, medical social services, or services provided by a home health aide.

(Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 35. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 10.7 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10.7)

Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.

All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery at the hospital. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not a hospital employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws. The medical staff shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed by the hospital.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the anesthesia service.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the hospital's alternative policy.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 40. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356g.5)

Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam.

(a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois.

(b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes breast examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide breast examinations, to check for lumps and other changes for the purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer as follows:

(1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years of age but less than 40 years of age; and

(2) annually for women 40 years of age or older.

(c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.1)

Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance that provides maternity coverage and is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing ordered by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes these services, including but not limited to orders consistent with the recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists or the American Academy of Pediatrics.

(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)

Section 42. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 8.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and sedation.

(a) No licensed dentist shall administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.

(b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by rule, shall:

(1) establish the minimum educational and training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an appropriate permit;

(2) establish the standards for properly equipped dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;

(3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who assist the dentist in the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, including minimum training requirements for each member of the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping requirements, and emergency procedures; and

(4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS); and .

(5) establish continuing education requirements in sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under this Section. When establishing requirements under this Section, the Department shall consider the current American Dental Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.

(c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.

(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

Section 45. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Wilfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) (Blank). Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the Licensing Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14.)

(225 ILCS 60/54.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)

Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and prescribing psychologists.

(a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may enter into supervising physician agreements with no more than 5 physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in active clinical practice may collaborate and consult with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no employment relationship is required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement shall be for services the collaborating physician generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice. A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience. The agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify those procedures that require a physician's presence as the procedures are being performed.

(2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the patient services provided thereunder are periodically reviewed by the collaborating physician.

(3) The advance practice nurse provides services the collaborating physician generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must provide delivery services in order to participate with a certified nurse midwife.

(4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice nurse consult at least once a month to provide collaboration and consultation.

(5) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating physician in person or through telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status involving a written collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for just cause.

(b-5) (Blank). An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. Collaboration shall be adequate if:

(1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders; and

(2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or physician participates through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(b-10) (Blank). The anesthesiologist or operating physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(c) The supervising physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended by a physician assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice nurse.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse solely on the basis of having signed a supervision agreement or guidelines for a physician assistant or providing consultation and collaboration with an advanced practice nurse, issuing or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has reason to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.

(f) (Blank). A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(h) For the purposes of this Section, "generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties, that the physician provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician has the experience and ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care within the scope of his or her training and experience, including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis.

(i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12; 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14.)

Section 50. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 50-10, 65-30, 65-45, and 70-5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of courses at a college, university, or approved school, customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from the calendar year.

"Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty credentials after their name.

"Approved program of professional nursing education" and "approved program of practical nursing education" are programs of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the Secretary.

"Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health care professionals working together, each contributing one's respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive patient care.

"Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health care professional.

"Credentialed" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Current nursing practice update course" means a planned nursing education curriculum approved by the Department consisting of activities that have educational objectives, instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and updating content and specifically planned for those nurses previously licensed in the United States or its territories and preparing for reentry into nursing practice.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or her ability to deliver competent patient care.

"License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a registered professional nurse who has completed all requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except the certification examination and has applied to take the next available certification exam and received a temporary license from the Department.

"License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam and has applied for a license from the Department. A license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N.".

"Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement, and skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical nursing education program. Practical nursing includes assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care professional determined by the Department.

"Privileged" means the authorization granted by the governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or organization to provide specific patient care services within well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the credentialing process.

"Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" and the abbreviation, "R.N.".

"Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession based on the understanding of the human condition across the life span and environment and includes all nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means of completion of an approved professional nursing education program. A registered professional nurse provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatric physician, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of individuals who assist the registered professional nurse implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or corrective measures.

"Professional assistance program for nurses" means a professional assistance program that meets criteria established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance addiction.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good standing.

"Written collaborative agreement" means a written agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician pursuant to Section 65-35.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-30. APN scope of practice.

(a) Advanced practice nursing by certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on knowledge and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice nurse's nursing education, training, and experience.

(b) Practice as an advanced practice nurse means a scope of nursing practice, with or without compensation, and includes the registered nurse scope of practice.

(c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse includes, but is not limited to, each of the following:

(1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis.

(2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures, performing those tests and procedures when using health care equipment, and interpreting and using the results of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures ordered by the advanced practice nurse or another health care professional.

(3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical, therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and improve health status.

(4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care.

(5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy.

(6) Prescribing any Schedule II thorugh Schedule V controlled substance. Prescriptive authority as defined in Section 65-40 of this Act.

(7) Delegating selected nursing activities or tasks to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other personnel.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-45) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals, hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.

(a) An advanced practice nurse may provide services in a hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section 65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee policies.

(a-2) (Blank). An advanced practice nurse granted authority to order medications including controlled substances may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending or discharging physician.

(a-3) (Blank). Advanced practice nurses practicing in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(a-5) (Blank). For anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions, unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides otherwise. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication for anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(b) An advanced practice nurse who provides services in a hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/70-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified mail.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that could result in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status or subject to conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person to omit to file or record medical reports as required by law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, professional, or advanced practice nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional or nursing society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing or advanced practice nursing in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or advanced practice nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(19) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(21) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensees' license to deceive the public.

(22) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(29) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(30) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(31) (Blank). Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician in guidelines established under a written collaborative agreement.

(32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(33) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances.

(36) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between an advanced practice nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician and a patient, except as required by law.

(37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension, as defined by rule.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 55. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 75/3.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 3.1. Referrals.

(a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed occupational therapists, or optometrist.

(b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.

(c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant provides services in a school-based or educational environment, including the child's home.

(d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the occupational therapist.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 60. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Section 57 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/57)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide care or services only if the care or services are provided pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a podiatric physician, (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician or podiatric physician that specifically authorizes ordering the services of an orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist, or (iv) an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses clinical privileges to order services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist, or (v) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to order the services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist by his or her supervising physician. A licensed podiatric physician or advanced practice nurse collaborating with a podiatric physician may only order care or services concerning the foot from a licensed prosthetist.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 65. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:

(a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

(b) the sale of compressed gases;

(c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, according to the latest editions of the following authoritative pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic, habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;

(d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock medication;

(e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes; provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating thereto and governing the same, and those which are required under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison" printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;

(f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision agreement; and

(g) (blank). the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice nurse in accordance with a written collaborative agreement under Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 70. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed, but who has not completed an approved physical therapist assistant program.

(11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to physical therapists.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 75. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 106/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the Director.

"Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all of the following activities:

(1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through non-invasive means, provided that the collection and review does not include the individual's interpretation of the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel in a timely manner.

(4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.

(5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.

(6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb syringe.

(7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.

(8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel who is present and performing routine airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is connected to the ventilator.

"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities that involve any of the following:

(1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of education or training in respiratory care.

(2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the patient.

(3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning patient care.

(4) The administration of aerosol medication or oxygen.

(5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial airway.

(6) Mechanical ventilatory support.

(7) Patient assessment.

(8) Patient education.

"Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

"Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.

"Licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner by his or her supervising physician.

"Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

"Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes the professional to supervise an individual who is not licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.

"Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an individual is responsible for directing the actions of another individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.

"Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the order of a licensed health care professional or a certified registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general physical response of individuals to respiratory care services, including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms, reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit abnormal characteristics; the administration of pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory care services; the collection of blood specimens and other bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of, cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but not limited to, blood gas analysis; development, implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a licensed health care professional; application, operation, and management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.

"Respiratory care education program" means a course of academic study leading to eligibility for registry or certification in respiratory care. The training is to be approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and shall include an evaluation of competence through a standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board to be both valid and reliable.

"Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The person is engaged in the practice of cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill necessary to administer respiratory care.

(2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to the licensed health care professional in relation to the technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory care modalities.

(3) The person is able to function in situations of unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual judgment.

(Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 80. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling.

"ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics.

"Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their respective certification examinations.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced condition.

"Genetic counseling" means the provision of services, which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals to address the physical and psychological issues associated with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual or a family. "Genetic counseling" consists of the following:

(A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially inherited or genetically influenced condition. This assessment may involve:

(i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health history of the person and his or her family;

(ii) reviewing pertinent medical records;

(iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to possible mutagens or teratogens;

(iv) recommending genetic testing or other evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the carrier status of one or more family members;

(B) Helping the individual, family, health care provider, or health care professional (i) appreciate the medical, psychological and social implications of a disorder, including its features, variability, usual course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance for recurrence of the condition in other family members, and (iii) understand available options for coping with, preventing, or reducing the chance of occurrence or recurrence of a condition.

(C) Facilitating an individual's or family's (i) exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for psychological, social, and medical support.

"Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.

"Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and "genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements; chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes, mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved.

"Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or corporation.

"Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with the Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor.

"Referral" means a written or telecommunicated authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician assistant who has a supervision agreement with a supervising physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the person under supervision.

(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)

(225 ILCS 135/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.

(a) Except as provided in Section 15, no person shall, without a valid license as a genetic counselor issued by the Department (i) in any manner hold himself or herself out to the public as a genetic counselor under this Act; (ii) use in connection with his or her name or place of business the title "genetic counselor", "licensed genetic counselor", "gene counselor", "genetic consultant", or "genetic associate" or any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or implying a person has met the qualifications for or has the license issued under this Act; or (iii) offer to render or render to individuals, corporations, or the public genetic counseling services if the words "genetic counselor" or "licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe the person offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic counseling" is used to describe the services rendered or offered to be rendered.

(b) No licensed genetic counselor may provide genetic counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or families without a referral from a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make referrals to genetic counselors. The physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain supervision of the patient and be provided timely written reports on the services, including genetic testing results, provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple, or family specific counseling may be conducted without a referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide information to family members for the purpose of gathering additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a genetic research project and participants in that genetic research project may provide information to the participants, without a referral.

(c) No association or partnership shall practice genetic counseling unless every member, partner, and employee of the association or partnership who practices genetic counseling or who renders genetic counseling services holds a valid license issued under this Act. No license shall be issued to a corporation, the stated purpose of which includes or which practices or which holds itself out as available to practice genetic counseling, unless it is organized under the Professional Service Corporation Act.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by law in this State.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other disease or condition.

(f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his or her professional judgment requires professional service outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)

(225 ILCS 135/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of genetic counseling.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling services.

(6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any requested information to a referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue Service or any successor agency.

(23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(25) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(26) Providing genetic counseling services to individuals, couples, groups, or families without a referral from either a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make referrals to genetic counselors.

(27) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any application or renewal for a license under this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in default has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-813, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 85. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(405 ILCS 95/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes care, or a physician's assistant who has been delegated authority to provide care.

"Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the infant or mother.

"Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before birth.

"Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or other validated assessment methods.

(Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)

Section 90. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 6.2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)

Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.

(a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 years of age or younger shall test those children for lead poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in accordance with rules adopted by the Department.

(b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including, but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.

(c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment judgement of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health examinations, or physician assistant who has been delegated to perform health examinations by the supervising physician, the child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)

Section 95. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/2.2)

Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.

(a) The General Assembly finds:

(1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse cause significant physical, emotional, and psychological trauma to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result of the sexual assault.

(2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the United States as the result of rape and approximately 50% of these pregnancies end in abortion.

(3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA), emergency contraception can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after the sexual assault.

(4) By providing emergency contraception to rape victims in a timely manner, the trauma of rape can be significantly reduced.

(b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every hospital providing services to sexual assault survivors in accordance with a plan approved under Section 2 must develop a protocol that ensures that each survivor of sexual assault will receive medically and factually accurate and written and oral information about emergency contraception; the indications and counter-indications and risks associated with the use of emergency contraception; and a description of how and when victims may be provided emergency contraception upon the written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes prescription of emergency contraception, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe emergency contraception. The Department shall approve the protocol if it finds that the implementation of the protocol would provide sufficient protection for survivors of sexual assault.

The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by the Department. The Department shall adopt rules and regulations establishing one or more safe harbor protocols and setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that hospitals may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any protocol that meets those standards. The Department may provide a sample acceptable protocol upon request.

(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)

(410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)

Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors.

(a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of emergency services, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide hospital emergency services and forensic services, the following:

(1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital and made available to law enforcement officials upon the request of the sexual assault survivor;

(2) appropriate oral and written information concerning the possibility of infection, sexually transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual assault;

(3) appropriate oral and written information concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and possible contraindications of such medication available for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease resulting from sexual assault;

(4) an amount of medication for treatment at the hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;

(5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the sexual assault;

(6) written and oral instructions indicating the need for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease;

(7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate counseling; and

(8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with written and oral instructions indicating the importance of timely follow-up healthcare.

(b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian, surrogate, or agent.

(c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital emergency department.

(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)

(410 ILCS 70/5.5)

Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up healthcare.

(a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician, or physician assistant who has been delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided. Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) a physical examination;

(2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease; and

(3) appropriate medications, including HIV prophylaxis.

(b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital emergency services.

(c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.

(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)

Section 100. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, and 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)

Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services for minors executed by a married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant woman who is a minor, or by any person 18 years of age or older, is not voidable because of such minority, and, for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent who is a minor, a pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or older, is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)

(410 ILCS 210/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care services.

(a) The consent to the performance of primary care services by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services for minors executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age under the following circumstances:

(1) the health care professional reasonably believes that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and risks of any proposed primary care or services; and

(2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as a minor seeking care by:

(A) an adult relative;

(B) a representative of a homeless service agency that receives federal, State, county, or municipal funding to provide those services or that is otherwise sanctioned by a local continuum of care;

(C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this State;

(D) a public school homeless liaison or school social worker;

(E) a social service agency providing services to at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or

(F) a representative of a religious organization.

(b) A health care professional rendering primary care services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall be presumed.

(c) The confidential nature of any communication between a health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the time of communication, of any additional persons present at the request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care professional's disclosure of confidential information to the additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has coverage for the services provided.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a minor in their absence.

(e) For the purposes of this Section:

"Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Primary care services" means health care services that include screening, counseling, immunizations, medication, and treatment of illness and conditions customarily provided by licensed health care professionals in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not include invasive care, beyond standard injections, laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.

(Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14.)

(410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)

Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may consent to the performance upon his or her child of a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services for minors or a dental procedure by a licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and shall have the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)

(410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)

Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to practice medicine or surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services for minors renders emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely affecting the condition of such minor's health.

(b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to authorize a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish medical care or counseling related to the diagnosis or treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense. The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to later disaffirmance, because of minority.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 105. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 225/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.

"Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT)" means the provision of preventative health care under 42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq., including medical and dental services, needed to assess growth and development and detect and treat health problems.

"Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Local health authority" means the full-time official health department or board of health, as recognized by the Illinois Department of Public Health, having jurisdiction over a particular area.

"Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care.

"Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with reference to the newborn.

"Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.

"Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program established pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 110. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. When used in this Act:

(a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

(c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(e) "De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

(f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health or its designated agents.

(g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vi) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

(m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.

(p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related information" does not include information that has been de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.

(q) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal agreement by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized representative without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion, which entails at least the following pre-test information:

(1) a fair explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of its results;

(2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law; and

(3) where the person providing informed consent is a participant in an HIE, a fair explanation that the results of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right under Section 9.6 of this Act.

Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health care provider or health care professional from combining a form used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt out of HIV testing.

(r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

(s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

(t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

(v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

(x) "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.

(aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 115. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

(1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.

(2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official health department of board of health, as recognized by the Department, having jurisdiction over a particular area.

(3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic disease, determined by rule of the Department to be sexually transmissible, to be a threat to the public health and welfare, and to be a disease for which a legitimate public interest will be served by providing for regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to be designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department shall consider such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea, granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma venereum, genital herpes simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute Salpingitis, syphilis, Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall consider the recommendations and classifications of the Centers for Disease Control and other nationally recognized medical authorities. Not all diseases that are sexually transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.

(4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant who has been delegated the provision of sexually transmissible disease therapy services or expedited partner therapy services by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of sexually transmissible disease therapy services or expedited partner therapy services, or an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

(5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe, dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible disease, without physical examination of the partner or partners.

(Source: P.A. 96-613, eff. 1-1-10.)

(410 ILCS 325/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)

Sec. 4. Reporting required.

(a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of services for a sexually transmissible disease, or a physician assistant licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to provide services for a sexually transmissible disease who makes a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually transmissible disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result shall report such facts as may be required by the Department by rule, within such time period as the Department may require by rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the information required in reporting a sexually transmissible disease, the method of reporting and specifying a minimum time period for reporting. In adopting such rules, the Department shall consider the need for information, protections for the privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the practical abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable fashion.

(c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any false information or report concerning the existence of any sexually transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section or the rules adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department up to $500 for each violation. The Department shall report each violation of this Section to the regulatory agency responsible for licensing a health care professional or a laboratory to which these provisions apply.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 120. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 335/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant who has been delegated the provision of health services by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of health services.

"Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

"Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn infant, including hospitalization.

(Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)

Section 125. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 513/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

"Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

"Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local government, and any board, commission, department, institution, or school district, any party to a public contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee within the State, and every other person employing employees within the State.

"Employment agency" means both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

"Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the individual, including a child who is born to or placed for adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) of this definition.

"Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the workplace.

"Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision of genetic testing or genetic counseling-related services, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the provision of genetic testing or genetic counseling-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor, or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by a state or local public health department.

"Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

"Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that exchanges health information electronically that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

"Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a managed care plan.

"Labor organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

"Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a license or certificate of registration.

"Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

"Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that have entered into agreements with the plan to provide health care services to enrollees where the plan has the ultimate and direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for the provision of or pay for services through:

(1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution; or

(2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers and procedures covered by the plan.

A managed care plan may be established or operated by any entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited health service organization, preferred provider organization, third party administrator, or an employer or employee organization.

"Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

"Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the individual whom the information concerns.

"Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

"Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

"Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103.

"Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons.

"Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 130. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 642/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in this State.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes services under this Act, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform services under this Act by his or her supervising physician.

"Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act.

"Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

"Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.

(Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 135. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, and 6-901 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-159.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)

Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, or by an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination: (1) cannot walk without the use of, or assistance from, a brace, cane, crutch, another person, prosthetic device, wheelchair, or other assistive device; (2) is restricted by lung disease to such an extent that his or her forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one second, when measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or the arterial oxygen tension is less than 60 mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) uses portable oxygen; (4) has a cardiac condition to the extent that the person's functional limitations are classified in severity as Class III or Class IV, according to standards set by the American Heart Association; (5) is severely limited in the person's ability to walk due to an arthritic, neurological, oncological, or orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet without stopping to rest because of one of the above 5 conditions; or (7) is missing a hand or arm or has permanently lost the use of a hand or arm.

(Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)

Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.

(a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State, if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further provided that any person making such a request must submit a statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this certification by his or her supervising physician, or by an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this certification, to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such a disability.

(b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances qualifying for issuance of special plates under this subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.

(c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided such person with disabilities making such a request has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement certified by a licensed physician, or by a physician assistant or an advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this subsection.

(d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates, decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person is certified as meeting the definition of a person with disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months from the date of certification or recertification.

(e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as provided under Section 3-405.1.

(f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue disability registration plates or a parking decal to corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall be placed on qualifying vehicles.

(g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to permanently disabled residents of this State who display a special license plate or parking device that contains the International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in another state, district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state, district, territory or foreign country.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to any other requirements of this Code, successfully completed an adult driver education course as provided in Section 6-107.5 of this Code;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license; or

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease; and

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)

Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:

"Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.

"Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means:

(i) any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in the State of Illinois or any other state;

(ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician; or

(iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations.

(Source: P.A. 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)

Section 140. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants, licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and animal euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the physician assistant must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the physician assistant must annually complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(2) (blank); with respect to advanced practice nurses,

(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;

(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or podiatric physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(v) the advanced practice nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the advanced practice nurse must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department; or

(4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule.

(b) The physician assistant mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant is and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

An advanced practice nurse shall only be licensed to prescribe Schedule II through V controlled substances.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(d) (Blank). A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-40 rep.)

Section 145. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing Sections 65-35 and 65-40.

(225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.)

Section 150. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by repealing Section 20.5.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.