Public Act 0201 100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB3855 Enrolled LRB100 05985 AMC 16014 b

Public Act 100-0201

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2017 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 99-492 through 99-919 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/8) (from Ch. 1, par. 1107)

Sec. 8. Omnibus Bond Acts.

(a) A citation to the Omnibus Bond Acts is a citation to all of the following Acts, collectively, as amended from time to time: the Bond Authorization Act, the Registered Bond Act, the Municipal Bond Reform Act, the Local Government Debt Reform Act, subsection (a) of Section 1-7 of the Property Tax Extension Limitation Act (now repealed), subsection (a) of Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, the Uniform Facsimile Signature of Public Officials Act, the Local Government Bond Validity Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Public Funds Investment Act, the Local Government Credit Enhancement Act, the Local Government Defeasance of Debt Law, the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act, the Special Assessment Supplemental Bond and Procedures Procedure Act, Section 12-5 of the Election Code, the State University Certificates of Participation Act, and any similar Act granting additional omnibus bond powers to governmental entities generally, whether enacted before, on, or after June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989.

(b) The General Assembly recognizes that the proliferation of governmental entities has resulted in the enactment of hundreds of statutory provisions relating to the borrowing and other powers of governmental entities. The General Assembly addresses and has addressed problems common to all such governmental entities so that they have equal access to the municipal bond market. It has been, and will continue to be, the intention of the General Assembly to enact legislation applicable to governmental entities in an omnibus fashion, as has been done in the provisions of the Omnibus Bond Acts.

(c) It is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power, cumulative in nature and in addition to any power or authority granted in any other laws of the State. The Omnibus Bond Acts are supplementary grants of power when applied in connection with any similar grant of power or limitation contained in any other law of the State, whether or not the other law is enacted or amended after an Omnibus Bond Act or appears to be more restrictive than an Omnibus Bond Act, unless the General Assembly expressly declares in such other law that a specifically named Omnibus Bond Act does not apply.

(d) All instruments providing for the payment of money executed by or on behalf of any governmental entity organized by or under the laws of this State, including without limitation the State, to carry out a public governmental or proprietary function, acting through its corporate authorities, or which any governmental entity has assumed or agreed to pay, which were:

(1) issued or authorized to be issued by proceedings adopted by such corporate authorities before June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989;

(2) issued or authorized to be issued in accordance with the procedures set forth in or pursuant to any authorization contained in any of the Omnibus Bond Acts; and

(3) issued or authorized to be issued for any purpose authorized by the laws of this State, are valid and legally binding obligations of the governmental entity issuing such instruments, payable in accordance with their terms.

(Source: P.A. 96-15, eff. 6-22-09; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 10. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.37 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.37)

Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2027:

The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.

Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI, XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-572, eff. 7-15-16; 99-909, eff. 12-16-16; 99-910, eff. 12-16-16; 99-911, eff. 12-16-16; revised 1-3-17.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.27 rep.)

Section 15. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.27.

Section 20. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity. However, a meeting to consider an increase in compensation to a specific employee of a public body that is subject to the Local Government Wage Increase Transparency Act may not be closed and shall be open to the public and posted and held in accordance with this Act.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures, school building safety and security, and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals, or for the discussion of matters protected under the federal Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 42 C.F.R. Part 3 (73 FR 70732), or the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164, by a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings or portions of meetings of the advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-235, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-646, eff. 7-28-16; 99-687, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-21-16.)

Section 25. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available in the library of the correctional facility where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including but not limited to power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-578, eff. 8-27-13; 98-695, eff. 7-3-14; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-346, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) (dd) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 98-1045, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; 99-863, eff. 8-19-16; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 30. The State Records Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 160/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.5)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act:

"Secretary" means Secretary of State.

"Record" or "records" means all books, papers, born-digital electronic material, digitized electronic material, electronic material with a combination of digitized and born-digital material, maps, photographs, databases, or other official documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics, made, produced, executed, or received by any agency in the State in pursuance of State state law or in connection with the transaction of public business and preserved or appropriate for preservation by that agency or its successor as evidence of the organization, function, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities of the State or of the State Government, or because of the informational data contained therein. Library and museum material made or acquired and preserved solely for reference or exhibition purposes, extra copies of documents preserved only for convenience of reference, and stocks of publications and of blank forms are not included within the definition of records as used in this Act. Reports of impaired physicians under Section 16.04 of the Medical Practice Act or Section 23 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 are not included within the definition of records as used in this Act.

"Born-digital electronic material" means electronic material created in digital form rather than converted from print or analog form to digital form.

"Digitized electronic material" means electronic material converted from print or analog form to digital form.

"Agency" means all parts, boards, and commissions of the executive branch of the State government, including, but not limited to, State colleges and universities and their governing boards and all departments established by the "Civil Administrative Code of Illinois," as heretofore or hereafter amended.

"Public Officer" or "public officers" means all officers of the executive branch of the State government, all officers created by the "Civil Administrative Code of Illinois," as heretofore or hereafter amended, and all other officers and heads, presidents, or chairmen of boards, commissions, and agencies of the State government.

"Commission" means the State Records Commission.

"Archivist" means the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 99-147, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 35. The Illinois Notary Public Act is amended by changing Section 2-106 as follows:

(5 ILCS 312/2-106) (from Ch. 102, par. 202-106)

Sec. 2-106. Appointment Recorded by County Clerk. The appointment of the applicant as a notary public is complete when the commission is recorded with the county clerk.

The Secretary of State shall forward the applicant's commission to the county clerk of the county in which the applicant resides or, if the applicant is a resident of a state bordering Illinois, the county in Illinois in which the applicant's principal place of work or principal place of business is located. Upon receipt thereof, the county clerk shall notify the applicant of the action taken by the Secretary of State, and the applicant shall either appear at the county clerk's office to record the same and receive the commission or request by mail to have the commission sent to the applicant with a specimen signature of the applicant attached to the request. The applicant shall have a record of the appointment, and the time when the commission will expire, entered in the records of the office of the county clerk. When the applicant appears before the county clerk, the applicant shall pay a fee of $5, at which time the county clerk shall then deliver the commission to the applicant.

If the appointment is completed by mail, the applicant shall pay the county clerk a fee of $10.00, which shall be submitted with the request to the county clerk. The county clerk shall then record the appointment and send the commission by mail to the applicant.

If an applicant does not respond to the notification by the county clerk within 30 days, the county clerk shall again notify the applicant that the county clerk has received the applicant's notary public commission issued by the Secretary of State. The second notice shall be in substantially the following form:

"The records of this office indicate that you have not picked up your notary public commission from the Office of the County Clerk.

The Illinois Notary Public Law requires you to appear in person in the clerk's office, record your commission, and pay a fee of $5.00 to the county clerk or request that your commission be mailed to you. This request must be accompanied by a specimen of your signature and a $10.00 fee payable to the county clerk.

Your appointment as a notary is not complete until the commission is recorded with the county clerk. Furthermore, if you do not make arrangements with the clerk for recording and delivery of your commission within 30 days from the date of this letter, the county clerk will return your commission to the Secretary of State. Your commission will be cancelled and your name will be removed from the list of notaries in the State of Illinois.

I should also like to remind you that any person who attests to any document as a notary and is not a notary in good standing with the Office of the Secretary of State is guilty of official misconduct and may be subject to a fine or imprisonment.".

The Secretary of State shall cancel the appointment of all notaries whose commissions are returned to his office by the county clerks. No application fee will be refunded and no bonding company is required to issue a refund when an appointment is cancelled.

(Source: P.A. 91-818, eff. 6-13-00; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 40. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 27 and 28 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/27) (from Ch. 48, par. 1627)

Sec. 27. Except as provided in Section 18 of this Act herein, the provisions of the Labor Dispute Act "An Act relating to disputes concerning terms and conditions of employment", approved June 19, 1925, as now or hereafter amended, apply.

(Source: P.A. 83-1012; revised 9-16-16.)

(5 ILCS 315/28)

Sec. 28. Applicability of changes made by Public Act 97-1158 amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. Nothing in Public Act 97-1158 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly applies to workers or consumers in the Home-Based Home Based Support Services Program in the Department of Human Services Division of Developmental Disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 97-1158, eff. 1-29-13; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 45. The State Employee Vacation Time Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 360/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b120.1)

Sec. 1. After the effective date of this Act, computation of vacation time of former State employees re-entering State service shall be determined as though all previous State service which qualified for earning of vacation benefits is continuous with present service.

For purposes of this Section, "State employee" means an "employee" as that term is defined in Section 2 of the "State Salary and Annuity Withholding Act".

(Source: P.A. 77-1823; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 50. The State Employee Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 370/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 391)

Sec. 1. Whenever any State officer, agency, or authority, whether funded by State taxes or otherwise, employs an individual in a capacity or position of such a character as would be subject to rules or regulations of the Department of Central Management Services requiring the payment of the prevailing rate of wages to those holding such a position or serving in such a capacity if that employment were subject to the "Personnel Code", the State officer, agency, or authority shall pay that individual at the prevailing rate, notwithstanding the nonapplicability of the "Personnel Code".

(Source: P.A. 82-789; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 60. The Illinois Governmental Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 3-202 as follows:

(5 ILCS 420/3-202) (from Ch. 127, par. 603-202)

Sec. 3-202. When a legislator must take official action on a legislative matter as to which he has a conflict situation created by a personal, family, or client legislative interest, he should consider the possibility of eliminating the interest creating the conflict situation. If that is not feasible, he should consider the possibility of abstaining from such official action. In making his decision as to abstention, the following factors should be considered: ;

a. whether a substantial threat to his independence of judgment has been created by the conflict situation;

b. the effect of his participation on public confidence in the integrity of the legislature;

c. whether his participation is likely to have any significant effect on the disposition of the matter;

d. the need for his particular contribution, such as special knowledge of the subject matter, to the effective functioning of the legislature.

He need not abstain if he decides to participate in a manner contrary to the economic interest which creates the conflict situation.

If he does abstain, he should disclose that fact to his respective legislative body.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3401; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 65. The Flag Display Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 465/10)

Sec. 10. Death of resident military member, law enforcement officer, firefighter, or members of EMS crews.

(a) The Governor shall issue an official notice to fly the following flags at half-staff upon the death of a resident of this State killed (i) by hostile fire as a member of the United States armed forces, (ii) in the line of duty as a law enforcement officer, (iii) in the line of duty as a firefighter, or (iv) in the line of duty as a member of an Emergency Medical Services (EMS) crew, ; or (v) during on duty training for active military duty: the United States national flag, the State flag of Illinois, and, in the case of the death of the member of the United States armed forces, the appropriate military flag as defined in subsection (b) of Section 18.6 of the Condominium Property Act. Upon the Governor's notice, each person or entity required by this Act to ensure the display of the United States national flag on a flagstaff shall ensure that the flags described in the notice are displayed at half-staff on the day designated for the resident's funeral and the 2 days preceding that day.

(b) The Department of Veterans' Affairs shall notify the Governor of the death by hostile fire of an Illinois resident member of the United States armed forces. The Department of State Police shall notify the Governor of the death in the line of duty of an Illinois resident law enforcement officer. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall notify the Governor of the death in the line of duty of an Illinois resident firefighter. The Department of Public Health shall notify the Governor of the death in the line of duty of an Illinois resident member of an Emergency Medical Services (EMS) crew. Notice to the Governor shall include at least the resident's name and Illinois address, the date designated for the funeral, and the circumstances of the death.

(c) For the purpose of this Section, the United States armed forces includes: (i) the United States Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, and Coast Guard; (ii) any reserve component of each of the forces listed in item (i); and (iii) the National Guard.

(d) Nothing in this Section requires the removal or relocation of any existing flags currently displayed in the State. This Section does not apply to a State facility if the requirements of this Section cannot be satisfied without a physical modification to that facility.

(Source: P.A. 98-234, eff. 1-1-14; 99-372, eff. 1-1-16; revised 1-24-17.)

Section 70. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 3-6, 4-8.5, 5-8.5, 6-35.5, 7-8, 18A-5, 20-5, 20-13, and 24A-15.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/3-6)

Sec. 3-6. Voting age. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person who is 17 years old on the date of a caucus, general primary election, or consolidated primary election and who is otherwise qualified to vote is qualified to vote at that caucus, general primary, or consolidated primary, including voting a vote by mail, grace period, or early voting ballot with respect to that general primary or consolidated primary, if that person will be 18 years old on the date of the immediately following general election or consolidated election for which candidates are nominated at that primary.

References in this Code and elsewhere to the requirement that a person must be 18 years old to vote shall be interpreted in accordance with this Section.

For the purposes of this Code Act, an individual who is 17 years of age and who will be 18 years of age on the date of the general or consolidated election shall be deemed competent to execute and attest to any voter registration forms. An individual who is 17 years of age, will be 18 years of age on the date of the immediately following general or consolidated election, and is otherwise qualified to vote shall be deemed eligible to circulate a nominating petition or a petition proposing a public question.

(Source: P.A. 98-51, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-722, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-8.5)

Sec. 4-8.5. Deputy registrar eligibility. Unless otherwise provided by law, an individual who that is 17 years old or older who is registered to vote in this State shall be eligible to serve as a deputy registrar.

(Source: P.A. 99-722, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-8.5)

Sec. 5-8.5. Deputy registrar eligibility. Unless otherwise provided by law, an individual who that is 17 years old or older who is registered to vote in this State shall be eligible to serve as a deputy registrar.

(Source: P.A. 99-722, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-35.5)

Sec. 6-35.5. Deputy registrar eligibility. Unless otherwise provided by law, an individual who that is 17 years old or older who is registered to vote in this State shall be eligible to serve as a deputy registrar.

(Source: P.A. 99-722, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-8)

Sec. 7-8. The State central committee shall be composed of one or two members from each congressional district in the State and shall be elected as follows:

State Central Committee

(a) Within 30 days after January 1, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-33), this amendatory Act of 1983 the State central committee of each political party shall certify to the State Board of Elections which of the following alternatives it wishes to apply to the State central committee of that party.

Alternative A. At the primary in 1970 and at the general primary election held every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector may vote for one candidate of his party for member of the State central committee for the congressional district in which he resides. The candidate receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected State central committeeman from the district. A political party may, in lieu of the foregoing, by a majority vote of delegates at any State convention of such party, determine to thereafter elect the State central committeemen in the manner following:

At the county convention held by such political party, State central committeemen shall be elected in the same manner as provided in this Article for the election of officers of the county central committee, and such election shall follow the election of officers of the county central committee. Each elected ward, township or precinct committeeman shall cast as his vote one vote for each ballot voted in his ward, township, part of a township or precinct in the last preceding primary election of his political party. In the case of a county lying partially within one congressional district and partially within another congressional district, each ward, township or precinct committeeman shall vote only with respect to the congressional district in which his ward, township, part of a township or precinct is located. In the case of a congressional district which encompasses more than one county, each ward, township or precinct committeeman residing within the congressional district shall cast as his vote one vote for each ballot voted in his ward, township, part of a township or precinct in the last preceding primary election of his political party for one candidate of his party for member of the State central committee for the congressional district in which he resides and the Chairman of the county central committee shall report the results of the election to the State Board of Elections. The State Board of Elections shall certify the candidate receiving the highest number of votes elected State central committeeman for that congressional district.

The State central committee shall adopt rules to provide for and govern the procedures to be followed in the election of members of the State central committee.

After August 6, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-426) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, whenever a vacancy occurs in the office of Chairman of a State central committee, or at the end of the term of office of Chairman, the State central committee of each political party that has selected Alternative A shall elect a Chairman who shall not be required to be a member of the State Central Committee. The Chairman shall be a registered voter in this State and of the same political party as the State central committee.

Alternative B. Each congressional committee shall, within 30 days after the adoption of this alternative, appoint a person of the sex opposite that of the incumbent member for that congressional district to serve as an additional member of the State central committee until his or her successor is elected at the general primary election in 1986. Each congressional committee shall make this appointment by voting on the basis set forth in paragraph (e) of this Section. In each congressional district at the general primary election held in 1986 and every 4 years thereafter, the male candidate receiving the highest number of votes of the party's male candidates for State central committeeman, and the female candidate receiving the highest number of votes of the party's female candidates for State central committeewoman, shall be declared elected State central committeeman and State central committeewoman from the district. At the general primary election held in 1986 and every 4 years thereafter, if all a party's candidates for State central committeemen or State central committeewomen from a congressional district are of the same sex, the candidate receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected a State central committeeman or State central committeewoman from the district, and, because of a failure to elect one male and one female to the committee, a vacancy shall be declared to exist in the office of the second member of the State central committee from the district. This vacancy shall be filled by appointment by the congressional committee of the political party, and the person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be a resident of the congressional district and of the sex opposite that of the committeeman or committeewoman elected at the general primary election. Each congressional committee shall make this appointment by voting on the basis set forth in paragraph (e) of this Section.

The Chairman of a State central committee composed as provided in this Alternative B must be selected from the committee's members.

Except as provided for in Alternative A with respect to the selection of the Chairman of the State central committee, under both of the foregoing alternatives, the State central committee of each political party shall be composed of members elected or appointed from the several congressional districts of the State, and of no other person or persons whomsoever. The members of the State central committee shall, within 41 days after each quadrennial election of the full committee, meet in the city of Springfield and organize by electing a chairman, and may at such time elect such officers from among their own number (or otherwise), as they may deem necessary or expedient. The outgoing chairman of the State central committee of the party shall, 10 days before the meeting, notify each member of the State central committee elected at the primary of the time and place of such meeting. In the organization and proceedings of the State central committee, each State central committeeman and State central committeewoman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her congressional district by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the State central committee. Whenever a vacancy occurs in the State central committee of any political party, the vacancy shall be filled by appointment of the chairmen of the county central committees of the political party of the counties located within the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs and, if applicable, the ward and township committeemen of the political party in counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants located within the congressional district. If the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs lies wholly within a county of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants, the ward and township committeemen of the political party in that congressional district shall vote to fill the vacancy. In voting to fill the vacancy, each chairman of a county central committee and each ward and township committeeman in counties of 2,000,000 or more inhabitants shall have one vote for each ballot voted in each precinct of the congressional district in which the vacancy exists of his or her county, township, or ward cast by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting to fill the vacancy in the State central committee. The person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be a resident of the congressional district in which the vacancy occurs, shall be a qualified voter, and, in a committee composed as provided in Alternative B, shall be of the same sex as his or her predecessor. A political party may, by a majority vote of the delegates of any State convention of such party, determine to return to the election of State central committeeman and State central committeewoman by the vote of primary electors. Any action taken by a political party at a State convention in accordance with this Section shall be reported to the State Board of Elections by the chairman and secretary of such convention within 10 days after such action.

Ward, Township and Precinct Committeemen

(b) At the primary in 1972 and at the general primary election every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector in cities having a population of 200,000 or over may vote for one candidate of his party in his ward for ward committeeman. Each candidate for ward committeeman must be a resident of and in the ward where he seeks to be elected ward committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such ward committeeman of such party for such ward. At the primary election in 1970 and at the general primary election every 4 years thereafter, each primary elector in counties containing a population of 2,000,000 or more, outside of cities containing a population of 200,000 or more, may vote for one candidate of his party for township committeeman. Each candidate for township committeeman must be a resident of and in the township or part of a township (which lies outside of a city having a population of 200,000 or more, in counties containing a population of 2,000,000 or more), and in which township or part of a township he seeks to be elected township committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such township committeeman of such party for such township or part of a township. At the primary in 1970 and at the general primary election every 2 years thereafter, each primary elector, except in counties having a population of 2,000,000 or over, may vote for one candidate of his party in his precinct for precinct committeeman. Each candidate for precinct committeeman must be a bona fide resident of the precinct where he seeks to be elected precinct committeeman. The one having the highest number of votes shall be such precinct committeeman of such party for such precinct. The official returns of the primary shall show the name of the committeeman of each political party.

Terms of Committeemen. All precinct committeemen elected under the provisions of this Article shall continue as such committeemen until the date of the primary to be held in the second year after their election. Except as otherwise provided in this Section for certain State central committeemen who have 2 year terms, all State central committeemen, township committeemen and ward committeemen shall continue as such committeemen until the date of primary to be held in the fourth year after their election. However, a vacancy exists in the office of precinct committeeman when a precinct committeeman ceases to reside in the precinct in which he was elected and such precinct committeeman shall thereafter neither have nor exercise any rights, powers or duties as committeeman in that precinct, even if a successor has not been elected or appointed.

(c) The Multi-Township Central Committee shall consist of the precinct committeemen of such party, in the multi-township assessing district formed pursuant to Section 2-10 of the Property Tax Code and shall be organized for the purposes set forth in Section 45-25 of the Township Code. In the organization and proceedings of the Multi-Township Central Committee each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected.

County Central Committee

(d) The county central committee of each political party in each county shall consist of the various township committeemen, precinct committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of such party in the county. In the organization and proceedings of the county central committee, each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected; each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township as the case may be by the primary electors of his party at the primary election for the nomination of candidates for election to the General Assembly immediately preceding the meeting of the county central committee; and in the organization and proceedings of the county central committee, each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his ward by the primary electors of his party at the primary election for the nomination of candidates for election to the General Assembly immediately preceding the meeting of the county central committee.

Cook County Board of Review Election District Committee

(d-1) Each board of review election district committee of each political party in Cook County shall consist of the various township committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of that party in the portions of the county composing the board of review election district. In the organization and proceedings of each of the 3 election district committees, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her township or part of a township, as the case may be, by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the board of review election district committee; and in the organization and proceedings of each of the 3 election district committees, each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his or her ward or part of that ward, as the case may be, by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the board of review election district committee.

Congressional Committee

(e) The congressional committee of each party in each congressional district shall be composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties composing the congressional district, except that in congressional districts wholly within the territorial limits of one county, the precinct committeemen, township committeemen and ward committeemen, if any, of the party representing the precincts within the limits of the congressional district, shall compose the congressional committee. A State central committeeman in each district shall be a member and the chairman or, when a district has 2 State central committeemen, a co-chairman of the congressional committee, but shall not have the right to vote except in case of a tie.

In the organization and proceedings of congressional committees composed of precinct committeemen or township committeemen or ward committeemen, or any combination thereof, each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township as the case may be by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee, and each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in each precinct of his ward located in such congressional district by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee; and in the organization and proceedings of congressional committees composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties within such district, each chairman of such county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the congressional committee.

Judicial District Committee

(f) The judicial district committee of each political party in each judicial district shall be composed of the chairman of the county central committees of the counties composing the judicial district.

In the organization and proceedings of judicial district committees composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties within such district, each chairman of such county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial district committee.

Circuit Court Committee

(g) The circuit court committee of each political party in each judicial circuit outside Cook County shall be composed of the chairmen of the county central committees of the counties composing the judicial circuit.

In the organization and proceedings of circuit court committees, each chairman of a county central committee shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the circuit court committee.

Judicial Subcircuit Committee

(g-1) The judicial subcircuit committee of each political party in each judicial subcircuit in a judicial circuit divided into subcircuits shall be composed of (i) the ward and township committeemen of the townships and wards composing the judicial subcircuit in Cook County and (ii) the precinct committeemen of the precincts composing the judicial subcircuit in any county other than Cook County.

In the organization and proceedings of each judicial subcircuit committee, each township committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his township or part of a township, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee; each precinct committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his precinct or part of a precinct, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee; and each ward committeeman shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his ward or part of a ward, as the case may be, in the judicial subcircuit by the primary electors of his party at the primary election immediately preceding the meeting of the judicial subcircuit committee.

Municipal Central Committee

(h) The municipal central committee of each political party shall be composed of the precinct, township or ward committeemen, as the case may be, of such party representing the precincts or wards, embraced in such city, incorporated town or village. The voting strength of each precinct, township or ward committeeman on the municipal central committee shall be the same as his voting strength on the county central committee.

For political parties, other than a statewide political party, established only within a municipality or township, the municipal or township managing committee shall be composed of the party officers of the local established party. The party officers of a local established party shall be as follows: the chairman and secretary of the caucus for those municipalities and townships authorized by statute to nominate candidates by caucus shall serve as party officers for the purpose of filling vacancies in nomination under Section 7-61; for municipalities and townships authorized by statute or ordinance to nominate candidates by petition and primary election, the party officers shall be the party's candidates who are nominated at the primary. If no party primary was held because of the provisions of Section 7-5, vacancies in nomination shall be filled by the party's remaining candidates who shall serve as the party's officers.

Powers

(i) Each committee and its officers shall have the powers usually exercised by such committees and by the officers thereof, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Article. The several committees herein provided for shall not have power to delegate any of their powers, or functions to any other person, officer or committee, but this shall not be construed to prevent a committee from appointing from its own membership proper and necessary subcommittees.

(j) The State central committee of a political party which elects its it members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section shall adopt a plan to give effect to the delegate selection rules of the national political party and file a copy of such plan with the State Board of Elections when approved by a national political party.

(k) For the purpose of the designation of a proxy by a Congressional Committee to vote in place of an absent State central committeeman or committeewoman at meetings of the State central committee of a political party which elects its members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section, the proxy shall be appointed by the vote of the ward and township committeemen, if any, of the wards and townships which lie entirely or partially within the Congressional District from which the absent State central committeeman or committeewoman was elected and the vote of the chairmen of the county central committees of those counties which lie entirely or partially within that Congressional District and in which there are no ward or township committeemen. When voting for such proxy, the county chairman, ward committeeman or township committeeman, as the case may be, shall have one vote for each ballot voted in his county, ward or township, or portion thereof within the Congressional District, by the primary electors of his party at the primary at which he was elected. However, the absent State central committeeman or committeewoman may designate a proxy when permitted by the rules of a political party which elects its members by Alternative B under paragraph (a) of this Section.

Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, a person is ineligible to hold the position of committeeperson in any committee established pursuant to this Section if he or she is statutorily ineligible to vote in a general election because of conviction of a felony. When a committeeperson is convicted of a felony, the position occupied by that committeeperson shall automatically become vacant.

(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; 95-6, eff. 6-20-07; 95-699, eff. 11-9-07; revised 9-6-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/18A-5)

Sec. 18A-5. Provisional voting; general provisions.

(a) A person who claims to be a registered voter is entitled to cast a provisional ballot under the following circumstances:

(1) The person's name does not appear on the official list of eligible voters for the precinct in which the person seeks to vote and the person has refused an opportunity to register at the polling location or another grace period registration site. The official list is the centralized statewide voter registration list established and maintained in accordance with Section 1A-25;

(2) The person's voting status has been challenged by an election judge, a pollwatcher, or any legal voter and that challenge has been sustained by a majority of the election judges;

(3) A federal or State court order extends the time for closing the polls beyond the time period established by State law and the person votes during the extended time period;

(4) The voter registered to vote by mail and is required by law to present identification when voting either in person or by early voting ballot, but fails to do so;

(5) The voter's name appears on the list of voters who voted during the early voting period, but the voter claims not to have voted during the early voting period; or

(6) The voter received a vote by mail ballot but did not return the vote by mail ballot to the election authority; or

(7) The voter attempted to register to vote on election day, but failed to provide the necessary documentation.

(b) The procedure for obtaining and casting a provisional ballot at the polling place shall be as follows:

(1) After first verifying through an examination of the precinct register that the person's address is within the precinct boundaries, an election judge at the polling place shall notify a person who is entitled to cast a provisional ballot pursuant to subsection (a) that he or she may cast a provisional ballot in that election. An election judge must accept any information provided by a person who casts a provisional ballot that the person believes supports his or her claim that he or she is a duly registered voter and qualified to vote in the election. However, if the person's residence address is outside the precinct boundaries, the election judge shall inform the person of that fact, give the person the appropriate telephone number of the election authority in order to locate the polling place assigned to serve that address, and instruct the person to go to the proper polling place to vote.

(2) The person shall execute a written form provided by the election judge that shall state or contain all of the following that is available:

(i) an affidavit stating the following:

State of Illinois, County of ................, Township ............., Precinct ........, Ward ........, I, ......................., do solemnly swear (or affirm) that: I am a citizen of the United States; I am 18 years of age or older; I have resided in this State and in this precinct for 30 days preceding this election; I have not voted in this election; I am a duly registered voter in every respect; and I am eligible to vote in this election. Signature ...... Printed Name of Voter ....... Printed Residence Address of Voter ...... City ...... State .... Zip Code ..... Telephone Number ...... Date of Birth ....... and Illinois Driver's License Number ....... or Last 4 digits of Social Security Number ...... or State Identification Card Number issued to you by the Illinois Secretary of State ........

(ii) A box for the election judge to check one of the 6 reasons why the person was given a provisional ballot under subsection (a) of this Section 18A-5.

(iii) An area for the election judge to affix his or her signature and to set forth any facts that support or oppose the allegation that the person is not qualified to vote in the precinct in which the person is seeking to vote.

The written affidavit form described in this subsection (b)(2) must be printed on a multi-part form prescribed by the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be.

(3) After the person executes the portion of the written affidavit described in subsection (b)(2)(i) of this Section, the election judge shall complete the portion of the written affidavit described in subsection (b)(2)(iii) and (b)(2)(iv).

(4) The election judge shall give a copy of the completed written affidavit to the person. The election judge shall place the original written affidavit in a self-adhesive clear plastic packing list envelope that must be attached to a separate envelope marked as a "provisional ballot envelope". The election judge shall also place any information provided by the person who casts a provisional ballot in the clear plastic packing list envelope. Each county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, must design, obtain or procure self-adhesive clear plastic packing list envelopes and provisional ballot envelopes that are suitable for implementing this subsection (b)(4) of this Section.

(5) The election judge shall provide the person with a provisional ballot, written instructions for casting a provisional ballot, and the provisional ballot envelope with the clear plastic packing list envelope affixed to it, which contains the person's original written affidavit and, if any, information provided by the provisional voter to support his or her claim that he or she is a duly registered voter. An election judge must also give the person written information that states that any person who casts a provisional ballot shall be able to ascertain, pursuant to guidelines established by the State Board of Elections, whether the provisional vote was counted in the official canvass of votes for that election and, if the provisional vote was not counted, the reason that the vote was not counted.

(6) After the person has completed marking his or her provisional ballot, he or she shall place the marked ballot inside of the provisional ballot envelope, close and seal the envelope, and return the envelope to an election judge, who shall then deposit the sealed provisional ballot envelope into a securable container separately identified and utilized for containing sealed provisional ballot envelopes. Ballots that are provisional because they are cast after 7:00 p.m. by court order shall be kept separate from other provisional ballots. Upon the closing of the polls, the securable container shall be sealed with filament tape provided for that purpose, which shall be wrapped around the box lengthwise and crosswise, at least twice each way, and each of the election judges shall sign the seal.

(c) Instead of the affidavit form described in subsection (b), the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, may design and use a multi-part affidavit form that is imprinted upon or attached to the provisional ballot envelope described in subsection (b). If a county clerk or board of election commissioners elects to design and use its own multi-part affidavit form, then the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall establish a mechanism for accepting any information the provisional voter has supplied to the election judge to support his or her claim that he or she is a duly registered voter. In all other respects, a county clerk or board of election commissioners shall establish procedures consistent with subsection (b).

(d) The county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, shall use the completed affidavit form described in subsection (b) to update the person's voter registration information in the State voter registration database and voter registration database of the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be. If a person is later determined not to be a registered voter based on Section 18A-15 of this Code, then the affidavit shall be processed by the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, as a voter registration application.

(Source: P.A. 97-766, eff. 7-6-12; 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-2-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/20-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 20-5)

Sec. 20-5. The election authority shall fold the ballot or ballots in the manner specified by the statute for folding ballots prior to their deposit in the ballot box and shall enclose such ballot in an envelope unsealed to be furnished by it, which envelope shall bear upon the face thereof the name, official title and post office address of the election authority, and upon the other side of such envelope there shall be printed a certification in substantially the following form:

"CERTIFICATION

I state that I am a resident/former resident of the ....... precinct of the city/village/township of ............, (Designation to be made by Election Authority) or of the .... ward in the city of ........... (Designation to be made by Election Authority) residing at ................ in said city/village/township in the county of ........... and State of Illinois; that I am a

1. ( ) member of the United States Service

2. ( ) citizen of the United States temporarily residing outside the territorial limits of the United States

3. ( ) nonresident civilian citizen

and desire to cast the enclosed ballot pursuant to Article 20 of the The Election Code; that I am lawfully entitled to vote in such precinct at the ........... election to be held on ............

I further state that I marked the enclosed ballot in secret.

Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Article 29 of the The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

...............(Name)

.....................

(Service Address)

"

.....................

.....................

.....................

"

If the ballot enclosed is to be voted at a primary election, the certification shall designate the name of the political party with which the voter is affiliated.

In addition to the above, the election authority shall provide printed slips giving full instructions regarding the manner of completing the forms and affidavits for registration by mail or the manner of marking and returning the ballot in order that the same may be counted, and shall furnish one of the printed slips to each of the applicants at the same time the registration materials or ballot is delivered to him.

In addition to the above, if a ballot to be provided to an elector pursuant to this Section contains a public question described in subsection (b) of Section 28-6 and the territory concerning which the question is to be submitted is not described on the ballot due to the space limitations of such ballot, the election authority shall provide a printed copy of a notice of the public question, which shall include a description of the territory in the manner required by Section 16-7. The notice shall be furnished to the elector at the same time the ballot is delivered to the elector.

The envelope in which such registration or such ballot is mailed to the voter as well as the envelope in which the registration materials or the ballot is returned by the voter shall have printed across the face thereof two parallel horizontal red bars, each one-quarter inch wide, extending from one side of the envelope to the other side, with an intervening space of one-quarter inch, the top bar to be one and one-quarter inches from the top of the envelope, and with the words "Official Election Balloting Material-VIA AIR MAIL" between the bars. In the upper right corner of such envelope in a box, there shall be printed the words: "U.S. Postage Paid 42 USC 1973". All printing on the face of such envelopes shall be in red, including an appropriate inscription or blank in the upper left corner of return address of sender.

The envelope in which the ballot is returned to the election authority may be delivered (i) by mail, postage paid, (ii) in person, by the spouse, parent, child, brother, or sister of the voter, or (iii) by a company engaged in the business of making deliveries of property and licensed as a motor carrier of property by the Illinois Commerce Commission under the Illinois Commercial Transportation Law.

Election authorities transmitting ballots by facsimile or electronic transmission shall, to the extent possible, provide those applicants with the same instructions, certification, and other materials required when sending by mail.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 10-25-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/20-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 20-13)

Sec. 20-13. If otherwise qualified to vote, any person not covered by Section Sections 20-2, 20-2.1, or 20-2.2 of this Article who is not registered to vote and who is temporarily absent from his county of residence, may make special application to the election authority having jurisdiction over his precinct of permanent residence, not less than 5 days before a presidential election, for a vote by mail ballot to vote for the president and vice-president only. Such application shall be furnished by the election authority and shall be in substantially the following form:

SPECIAL VOTE BY MAIL BALLOT APPLICATION (For use by non-registered Illinois residents temporarily absent from the county to vote for the president and vice-president only)

AFFIDAVIT

1. I hereby request a vote by mail ballot to vote for the president and vice-president only ......... (insert date of general election)

2. I am a citizen of the United States and a permanent resident of Illinois.

3. I have maintained, and still maintain, a permanent abode in Illinois for the past .......... years at: .......... (House) .......... (Number) .......... (Street) .......... (City) .......... (Village) .......... (Town)

4. I will not be able to regularly register in person as a voter because .................... (Give reason for temporary absence such as "Student", "Temporary job transfer", etc.)

5. I was born .......... (Month) .......... (Day) .......... (Year) in .................... (State or County);

6. To be filled in only by a person who is foreign-born (If answer is "yes" in either a. or b. below, fill in appropriate information in c.):

a. One or both of my parents were United States citizens at the time of my birth?

( ) YES ( ) NO )

b. My United States citizenship was derived through an act of the Congress of the United States?

( ) YES ( ) NO

c. The name of the court issuing papers and the date thereof upon which my United States citizenship was derived is .................... located in .......... (City) .......... (State) on .......... (Month) .......... (Day) .......... (Year)

(For persons who derived citizenship through papers issued through a parent or spouse, fill in the following)

(1) My parents or spouse's name is:

......... (First) .......... (Middle) .......... (Last)

(2) ........ (Month) .......... (Day) .......... (Year)

is the date of my marriage or my age at which time I derived my citizenship.

7. I am not registered as a voter in any other county in the State of Illinois or in any other State.

8. I am not requesting a ballot from any other place and am not voting in any other manner in this election and I have not voted and do not intend to vote in this election at any other address. I request that you mail my ballot to the following address:

(Print name and complete mailing address)

.........................................

.........................................

.........................................

9. Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Article 29 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this application are true and correct.

......................

Signature of Applicant

The procedures set forth in Sections 20-4 through 20-12 of this Article, insofar as they may be made applicable, shall be applicable to vote by mail voting under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-6-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/24A-15.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-15.1)

Sec. 24A-15.1. Except as herein provided, discovery recounts and election contests shall be conducted as otherwise provided for in this "The Election Code", as amended. The automatic tabulating equipment shall be tested prior to the discovery recount or election contest as provided in Section 24A-9, and then the official ballots or ballot cards shall be recounted on the automatic tabulating equipment. In addition, (1) the ballot or ballot cards shall be checked for the presence or absence of judges' initials and other distinguishing marks, and (2) the ballots marked "Rejected", "Defective", "Objected to", "Vote by Mail Ballot", and "Early Ballot" shall be examined to determine the propriety of the labels, and (3) the "Duplicate Vote by Mail Ballots", "Duplicate Early Ballots", "Duplicate Overvoted Ballots", and "Duplicate Damaged Ballots" shall be compared with their respective originals to determine the correctness of the duplicates.

Any person who has filed a petition for discovery recount may request that a redundant count be conducted in those precincts in which the discovery recount is being conducted. The additional costs of such a redundant count shall be borne by the requesting party.

The log of the computer operator and all materials retained by the election authority in relation to vote tabulation and canvass shall be made available for any discovery recount or election contest.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 75. The State Budget Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 50-15 as follows:

(15 ILCS 20/50-15) (was 15 ILCS 20/38.2)

Sec. 50-15. Department accountability reports.

(a) Beginning in the fiscal year which begins July 1, 1992, each department of State government as listed in Section 5-15 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-15) shall submit an annual accountability report to the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget) at times designated by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). Each accountability report shall be designed to assist the Bureau (now Office) in its duties under Sections 2.2 and 2.3 of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act and shall measure the department's performance based on criteria, goals, and objectives established by the department with the oversight and assistance of the Bureau (now Office). Each department shall also submit interim progress reports at times designated by the Director of the Bureau (now Office).

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Director of the Bureau (now Office) shall select not more than 3 departments for a pilot program implementing the procedures of subsection (a) for budget requests for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990 and July 1, 1991, and each of the departments elected shall submit accountability reports for those fiscal years.

By April 1, 1991, the Bureau (now Office) shall recommend in writing to the Governor any changes in the budget review process established pursuant to this Section suggested by its evaluation of the pilot program. The Governor shall submit changes to the budget review process that the Governor plans to adopt, based on the report, to the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 80. The Secretary of State Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/6) (from Ch. 124, par. 6)

Sec. 6. The Secretary of State shall keep a current file, in alphabetical order, of every sanitary district in the State. Whenever an ordinance for a name change is passed pursuant to Section 4.1 of the "Sanitary District Act of 1917, as now or hereafter amended, he shall make the certification required by that Section.

(Source: P.A. 80-424; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 85. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1A, 5, and 12 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/1A)

Sec. 1A. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Highly restricted personal information" means an individual's photograph, signature, social security number, and medical or disability information.

"Identification card making implement" means any material, hardware, or software that is specifically designed for or primarily used in the manufacture, assembly, issuance, or authentication of an official identification card issued by the Secretary of State.

"Fraudulent identification card" means any identification card that purports to be an official identification card for which a computerized number and file have not been created by the Secretary of State, the United States Government or any state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization. For the purpose of this Act, any identification card that resembles an official identification card in either size, color, photograph location, or design or uses the word "official", "state", "Illinois", or the name of any other state or political subdivision thereof, or any governmental or quasi-governmental organization individually or in any combination thereof to describe or modify the term "identification card" or "I.D. card" anywhere on the card, or uses a shape in the likeness of Illinois or any other state on the photograph side of the card, is deemed to be a fraudulent identification card unless the words "This is not an official Identification Card", appear prominently upon it in black colored lettering in 12-point 12 point type on the photograph side of the card, and no such card shall be smaller in size than 3 inches by 4 inches, and the photograph shall be on the left side of the card only.

"Legal name" means the full given name and surname of an individual as recorded at birth, recorded at marriage, or deemed as the correct legal name for use in reporting income by the Social Security Administration or the name as otherwise established through legal action that appears on the associated official document presented to the Secretary of State.

"Personally identifying information" means information that identifies an individual, including his or her identification card number, name, address (but not the 5-digit zip code), and telephone number.

"Homeless person" or "homeless individual" has the same meaning as defined by the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 11302, or 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2).

"Youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible for" or "foster "Foster child" means a child or youth whose guardianship or custody has been accepted by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Children and Family Services Act, the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and the Adoption Act. This applies to children for whom the Department of Children and Family Services has temporary protective custody, custody or guardianship via court order, or children whose parents have signed an adoptive surrender or voluntary placement agreement with the Department.

(Source: P.A. 99-659, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-3-16.)

(15 ILCS 335/5) (from Ch. 124, par. 25)

Sec. 5. Applications.

(a) Any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois may file an application for an identification card, or for the renewal thereof, in a manner prescribed by the Secretary. Each original application shall be completed by the applicant in full and shall set forth the legal name, residence address and zip code, social security number, birth date, sex and a brief description of the applicant. The applicant shall be photographed, unless the Secretary of State has provided by rule for the issuance of identification cards without photographs and the applicant is deemed eligible for an identification card without a photograph under the terms and conditions imposed by the Secretary of State, and he or she shall also submit any other information as the Secretary may deem necessary or such documentation as the Secretary may require to determine the identity of the applicant. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address in lieu of the applicant's residence or mailing address. An applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card must also submit with each original or renewal application, on forms prescribed by the Secretary, such documentation as the Secretary may require, establishing that the applicant is a "person with a disability" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and setting forth the applicant's type and class of disability as set forth in Section 4A of this Act. For the purposes of this subsection (a), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal identification card application under this Act, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing an identification card with a veteran designation under subsection (c-5) of Section 4 of this Act. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall advise the Secretary as to what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran before the Secretary may issue the identification card.

For purposes of this subsection (b):

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit.

"Veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(c) Beginning July 1, 2017, all applicants for standard Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards shall provide proof of lawful status in the United States as defined in 6 CFR 37.3, as amended. Applicants who are unable to provide the Secretary with proof of lawful status are ineligible for identification cards under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-511, eff. 1-1-17; 99-544, eff. 7-15-16; revised 9-21-16.)

(15 ILCS 335/12) (from Ch. 124, par. 32)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 12. Fees concerning standard Standard Illinois Identification Cards. The fees required under this Act for standard Illinois Identification Cards must accompany any application provided for in this Act, and the Secretary shall collect such fees as follows:

All fees collected under this Act shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State treasury, except that the following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund: (i) 80% of the fee for an original, renewal, or duplicate Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005; and (ii) 80% of the fee for a corrected Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005.

An individual, who resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State state or federal government, who makes an application for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee, must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by the applicant on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that such person resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State state or federal government.

The application of a homeless individual for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee must be accompanied by an affirmation by a qualified person, as defined in Section 4C of this Act, on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the applicant is currently homeless as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

For the application for the first Illinois Identification Card of a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible for or a foster child to be issued at no fee, the youth must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by his or her court appointed attorney or an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the person is a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible for or a foster child.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's Office with a police report showing that his or her identification card was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose identification card has been lost or stolen.

As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 99-607, eff. 7-22-16; 99-659, eff. 7-28-16; revised 9-21-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 12. Fees concerning standard Standard Illinois Identification Cards. The fees required under this Act for standard Illinois Identification Cards must accompany any application provided for in this Act, and the Secretary shall collect such fees as follows:

All fees collected under this Act shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State treasury, except that the following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund: (i) 80% of the fee for an original, renewal, or duplicate Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005; and (ii) 80% of the fee for a corrected Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005.

An individual, who resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State state or federal government, who makes an application for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee, must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by the applicant on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that such person resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State state or federal government.

The application of a homeless individual for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee must be accompanied by an affirmation by a qualified person, as defined in Section 4C of this Act, on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the applicant is currently homeless as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

For the application for the first Illinois Identification Card of a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible for or a foster child to be issued at no fee, the youth must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by his or her court appointed attorney or an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the person is a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible for or a foster child.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's Office with a police report showing that his or her identification card was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose identification card has been lost or stolen.

As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 99-607, eff. 7-22-16; 99-659, eff. 7-28-16; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17; revised 1-3-17.)

Section 90. The State Comptroller Act is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/22) (from Ch. 15, par. 222)

Sec. 22. Transition; Auditor Transition-Auditor of Public Accounts to comptroller.

(a) Except as otherwise specifically provided by law, the comptroller shall succeed to all rights, powers, duties and liabilities of the Auditor of Public Accounts in effect on January 7, 1973. Warrants outstanding on the effective date of this Act shall be governed by the law in effect on January 7, 1973, except for such provisions of this Act as may be made applicable to such warrants by regulation adopted by the comptroller with the approval of the State Treasurer. All books, records, equipment, property, and personnel held by, in the custody of or employed by the Auditor of Public Accounts on that date shall be transferred to the comptroller on the effective date of this Act. This transfer of personnel from the office of Auditor of Public Accounts to the office of the comptroller shall in no way affect the status of such personnel under the "Personnel Code" or the State Employees Retirement System or as respects any employment benefits to which they were entitled on the day immediately preceding the transfer.

(b) In order to achieve a smooth and orderly transition from the system of accounts and reports maintained or provided by or for the Auditor of Public Accounts to the new uniform accounting system and the expanded reporting and accountability for public funds required by this Act, and the warrant and payroll procedures required by this Act which may be different from those provided by the law in effect on January 7, 1973, the comptroller may, by interim regulations, provide for the gradual changeover to the new systems, forms and procedures. The complete implementation of the new uniform accounting system and of the forms and procedures for reporting and documentation by all State agencies and the handling of warrants and payroll, as provided by this Act, must be finalized and in effect no later than July 1, 1974.

(c) The Warrant Escheat Fund, a special fund of which the State Treasurer is ex officio ex-officio custodian, as heretofore established by law is retained.

(Source: P.A. 77-2807; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 95. The Department of Agriculture Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 205-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 205/205-15) (was 20 ILCS 205/40.7 and 205/40.8)

Sec. 205-15. Promotional activities.

(a) The Department has the power to encourage and promote, in every practicable manner, the interests of agriculture, including horticulture, the livestock industry, dairying, cheese making, poultry, bee keeping, forestry, the production of wool, and all other allied industries. In furtherance of the duties set forth in this Section, the Department may establish trust funds and bank accounts in adequately protected financial institutions to receive and disburse monies in connection with the conduct of food shows, food expositions, trade shows, and other promotional activities and to sell at cost, to qualified applicants, signs designating farms that have been owned for 100 years or more, 150 years or more, or 200 years or more by lineal or collateral descendants of the same family as "Centennial Farms", "Sesquicentennial Farms", or "Bicentennial Farms" respectively. The Department shall provide applications for the signs, which shall be submitted with the required fee. "Centennial Farms", "Sesquicentennial Farms", and "Bicentennial Farms" signs shall not contain within their design the name, picture, or other likeness of any elected public official or any appointed public official.

(b) The Department has the power to promote improved methods of conducting the several industries described in subsection (a) with a view to increasing the production and facilitating the distribution thereof at the least cost.

(c) The Department may sell at cost, to qualified applicants, signs designating an agribusiness that has been operated for 100 years or more or more than 150 years or more as the same agribusiness. As used in this subsection (c), "agribusiness" means a business or businesses under the same name or ownership that are collectively associated with the production, processing, and distribution of agricultural products. The Department shall provide applications for the signs, which shall be submitted with the required fee.

(Source: P.A. 99-823, eff. 1-1-17; 99-824, eff. 8-16-16; revised 10-11-16.)

Section 100. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Sections 5-23 and 10-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of keeping unused prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly dispose of unused prescription drugs.

(E) Prescription and distribution of opioid antagonists.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority, an advanced practice nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 9-19-16.)

(20 ILCS 301/10-15)

Sec. 10-15. Qualification and appointment of members. The membership of the Illinois Advisory Council shall consist of:

(a) A State's Attorney designated by the President of the Illinois State's Attorneys Association.

(b) A judge designated by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(c) A Public Defender appointed by the President of the Illinois Public Defender Defenders Association.

(d) A local law enforcement officer appointed by the Governor.

(e) A labor representative appointed by the Governor.

(f) An educator appointed by the Governor.

(g) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches appointed by the Governor with due regard for the appointee's knowledge of the field of alcoholism and other drug abuse and dependency.

(h) 4 members of the Illinois House of Representatives, 2 each appointed by the Speaker and Minority Leader.

(i) 4 members of the Illinois Senate, 2 each appointed by the President and Minority Leader.

(j) The President of the Illinois Alcoholism and Drug Dependence Association.

(k) An advocate for the needs of youth appointed by the Governor.

(l) The President of the Illinois State Medical Society or his or her designee.

(m) The President of the Illinois Hospital Association or his or her designee.

(n) The President of the Illinois Nurses Association or a registered nurse designated by the President.

(o) The President of the Illinois Pharmacists Association or a licensed pharmacist designated by the President.

(p) The President of the Illinois Chapter of the Association of Labor-Management Labor Management Administrators and Consultants on Alcoholism.

(p-1) The President of the Community Behavioral Healthcare Association of Illinois or his or her designee.

(q) The Attorney General or his or her designee.

(r) The State Comptroller or his or her designee.

(s) 20 public members, 8 appointed by the Governor, 3 of whom shall be representatives of alcoholism or other drug abuse and dependency treatment programs and one of whom shall be a representative of a manufacturer or importing distributor of alcoholic liquor licensed by the State of Illinois, and 3 public members appointed by each of the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House.

(t) The Director, Secretary, or other chief administrative officer, ex officio, or his or her designee, of each of the following: the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of State Police, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, the Criminal Justice Information Authority, and the Department of Transportation.

(u) Each of the following, ex officio, or his or her designee: the Secretary of State, the State Superintendent of Education, and the Chairman of the Board of Higher Education.

The public members may not be officers or employees of the executive branch of State government; however, the public members may be officers or employees of a State college or university or of any law enforcement agency. In appointing members, due consideration shall be given to the experience of appointees in the fields of medicine, law, prevention, correctional activities, and social welfare. Vacancies in the public membership shall be filled for the unexpired term by appointment in like manner as for original appointments, and the appointive members shall serve until their successors are appointed and have qualified. Vacancies among the public members appointed by the legislative leaders shall be filled by the leader of the same house and of the same political party as the leader who originally appointed the member.

Each non-appointive member may designate a representative to serve in his place by written notice to the Department. All General Assembly members shall serve until their respective successors are appointed or until termination of their legislative service, whichever occurs first. The terms of office for each of the members appointed by the Governor shall be for 3 years, except that of the members first appointed, 3 shall be appointed for a term of one year, and 4 shall be appointed for a term of 2 years. The terms of office of each of the public members appointed by the legislative leaders shall be for 2 years.

(Source: P.A. 94-1033, eff. 7-1-07; revised 9-12-16.)

Section 105. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/10) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b110)

Sec. 10. Duties and powers of the Commission. The Civil Service Commission shall have duties and powers as follows:

(1) Upon written recommendations by the Director of the Department of Central Management Services to exempt from jurisdiction B of this Act positions which, in the judgment of the Commission, involve either principal administrative responsibility for the determination of policy or principal administrative responsibility for the way in which policies are carried out. This authority may not be exercised, however, with respect to the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(2) To require such special reports from the Director as it may consider desirable.

(3) To disapprove original rules or any part thereof within 90 days and any amendment thereof within 30 days after the submission of such rules to the Civil Service Commission by the Director, and to disapprove any amendments thereto in the same manner.

(4) To approve or disapprove within 60 days from date of submission the position classification plan P.A. submitted by the Director as provided in the rules, and any revisions thereof within 30 days from the date of submission.

(5) To hear appeals of employees who do not accept the allocation of their positions under the position classification plan.

(6) To hear and determine written charges filed seeking the discharge, demotion of employees and suspension totaling more than thirty days in any 12-month period, as provided in Section 11 hereof, and appeals from transfers from one geographical area in the State to another, and in connection therewith to administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, and compel the production of books and papers.

(7) The fees of subpoenaed witnesses under this Act for attendance and travel shall be the same as fees of witnesses before the circuit courts of the State, such fees to be paid when the witness is excused from further attendance. Whenever a subpoena is issued the Commission may require that the cost of service and the fee of the witness shall be borne by the party at whose insistence the witness is summoned. The Commission has the power, at its discretion, to require a deposit from such party to cover the cost of service and witness fees and the payment of the legal witness fee and mileage to the witness served with the subpoena. A subpoena issued under this Act shall be served in the same manner as a subpoena issued out of a court.

Upon the failure or refusal to obey a subpoena, a petition shall be prepared by the party serving the subpoena for enforcement in the circuit court of the county in which the person to whom the subpoena was directed either resides or has his or her principal place of business.

Not less than five days before the petition is filed in the appropriate court, it shall be served on the person along with a notice of the time and place the petition is to be presented.

Following a hearing on the petition, the circuit court shall have jurisdiction to enforce subpoenas issued pursuant to this Section.

On motion and for good cause shown the Commission may quash or modify any subpoena.

(8) To make an annual report regarding the work of the Commission to the Governor, such report to be a public report.

(9) If any violation of this Act is found, the Commission shall direct compliance in writing.

(10) To appoint a full-time executive secretary and such other employees, experts, and special assistants as may be necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the Commission under this Act and employees, experts, and special assistants so appointed by the Commission shall be subject to the provisions of jurisdictions A, B and C of this Act. These powers and duties supersede any contrary provisions herein contained.

(11) To make rules to carry out and implement their powers and duties under this Act, with authority to amend such rules from time to time.

(12) To hear or conduct investigations as it deems necessary of appeals of layoff filed by employees appointed under Jurisdiction B after examination provided that such appeals are filed within 15 calendar days following the effective date of such layoff and are made on the basis that the provisions of the Personnel Code or of the Rules of the Department of Central Management Services relating to layoff have been violated or have not been complied with.

All hearings shall be public. A decision shall be rendered within 60 days after receipt of the transcript of the proceedings. The Commission shall order the reinstatement of the employee if it is proven that the provisions of the Personnel Code or of the rules Rules of the Department of Central Management Services relating to layoff have been violated or have not been complied with. In connection therewith the Commission may administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, and compel the production of books and papers.

(13) Whenever the Civil Service Commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, such information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-6-16.)

Section 110. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing the heading of Article 605 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/Art. 605 heading)

ARTICLE 605. DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE AND ECONOMIC OPPORTUNITY

COMMUNITY AFFAIRS

Section 115. The Technology Advancement and Development Act is amended by changing Section 1004 as follows:

(20 ILCS 700/1004) (from Ch. 127, par. 3701-4)

Sec. 1004. Duties and powers. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall establish and administer any of the programs authorized under this Act subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly. The Department may make awards from general revenue fund appropriations, federal reimbursement funds, and the Technology Cooperation Fund, as provided under the provisions of this Act. The Department, in addition to those powers granted under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, is granted the following powers to help administer the provisions of this Act:

(a) To provide financial assistance as direct or participation grants, loans, or qualified security investments to, or on behalf of, eligible applicants. Loans, grants, and investments shall be made for the purpose of increasing research and development, commercializing technology, adopting advanced production and processing techniques, and promoting job creation and retention within Illinois;

(b) To enter into agreements, accept funds or grants, and engage in cooperation with agencies of the federal government, local units of government, universities, research foundations or institutions, regional economic development corporations, or other organizations for the purposes of this Act;

(c) To enter into contracts, agreements, and memoranda of understanding; and to provide funds for participation agreements or to make any other agreements or contracts or to invest, grant, or loan funds to any participating intermediary organizations, including, not-for-profit entities, for-profit entities, State agencies or authorities, government owned and contract operated facilities, institutions of higher education, other public or private development corporations, or other entities necessary or desirable to further the purpose of this Act. Any such agreement or contract by an intermediary organization to deliver programs authorized under this Act may include terms and provisions, including, but not limited to, organization and development of documentation, review and approval of projects, servicing and disbursement of funds, and other related activities;

(d) To fix, determine, charge, and collect any premiums, fees, charges, costs, and expenses, including, without limitation, any application fees, commitment fees, program fees, financing charges, or publication fees in connection with the Department's activities under this Act;

(e) To establish forms for applications, notifications, contracts, or any other agreements, and to promulgate procedures, rules, or regulations deemed necessary and appropriate;

(f) To establish and regulate the terms and conditions of the Department's agreements and to consent, subject to the provisions of any agreement with another party, to the modification or restructuring of any agreement to which the Department is a party;

(g) To require that recipients of financial assistance shall at all times keep proper books of record and account in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles consistently applied, with such books open for reasonable Department inspection and audits, including, without limitation, the making of copies thereof;

(h) To require applicants or grantees receiving funds under this Act to permit the Department to: (i) inspect and audit any books, records or papers related to the project in the custody or control of the applicant, including the making of copies or extracts thereof, and (ii) inspect or appraise any of the applicant's or grantee's business assets;

(i) To require applicants or grantees, upon written request by the Department, to issue any necessary authorization to the appropriate federal, State, or local authority for the release of information concerning a business or business project financed under the provisions of this Act, with the information requested to include, but not be limited to, financial reports, returns, or records relating to that business or business project;

(i-5) To provide staffing, administration, and related support required to manage the programs authorized under this Act and to pay for staffing and administration as appropriated by the General Assembly. Administrative responsibilities may include, but are not limited to, research and identification of the needs of commerce and industry in this State; design of comprehensive statewide plans and programs; direction, management, and control of specific projects; and communication and cooperation with entities about technology commercialization and business modernization;

(j) To take whatever actions are necessary or appropriate to protect the State's interest in the event of bankruptcy, default, foreclosure or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of financial assistance or participation required under this Act, including the power to sell, dispose, lease or rent, upon terms and conditions determined by the Director to be appropriate, real or personal property which the Department may receive as a result thereof; and

(k) To exercise Exercise such other powers as are necessary to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; revised 9-6-16.)

Section 120. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Sections 10.8 and 21.6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/10.8)

Sec. 10.8. Specialty retailers license.

(a) "Veterans service organization" means an organization that:

(1) is formed by and for United States military veterans;

(2) is chartered by the United States Congress and incorporated in the State of Illinois;

(3) maintains a state headquarters office in the State of Illinois; and

(4) is not funded by the State of Illinois or by any county in this State.

(b) The Department shall establish a special classification of retailer license to facilitate the year-round sale of the instant scratch-off lottery game established by the General Assembly in Section 21.6. The fees set forth in Section 10.2 do not apply to a specialty retailer license.

The holder of a specialty retailer license (i) shall be a veterans service organization, (ii) may sell only specialty lottery tickets established for the benefit of the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund in the State treasury, (iii) is required to purchase those tickets up front at face value from the Illinois Lottery, and (iv) must sell those tickets at face value. Specialty retailers may obtain a refund from the Department for any unsold specialty tickets that they have purchased for resale, as set forth in the specialty retailer agreement.

Specialty retailers shall receive a sales commission equal to 2% of the face value of specialty game tickets purchased from the Department, less adjustments for unsold tickets returned to the Illinois Lottery for credit. Specialty retailers may not cash winning tickets, but are entitled to a 1% bonus in connection with the sale of a winning specialty game ticket having a price value of $1,000 or more.

(Source: P.A. 96-1105, eff. 7-19-10; 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; revised 9-2-16.)

(20 ILCS 1605/21.6)

Sec. 21.6. Scratch-off for Illinois veterans.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game for the benefit of Illinois veterans. The game shall commence on January 1, 2006 or as soon thereafter, at the discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical. The operation of the game shall be governed by this Act and any rules adopted by the Department. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the Illinois veterans scratch-off game shall be deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly solely to the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs for making grants, funding additional services, or conducting additional research projects relating to each of the following:

(i) veterans' post traumatic stress disorder;

(ii) veterans' homelessness;

(iii) the health insurance costs of veterans;

(iv) veterans' disability benefits, including but not limited to, disability benefits provided by veterans service organizations and veterans assistance commissions or centers;

(v) the long-term care of veterans; provided that, beginning with moneys appropriated for fiscal year 2008, no more than 20% of such moneys shall be used for health insurance costs; and

(vi) veteran employment and employment training.

In order to expend moneys from this special fund, beginning with moneys appropriated for fiscal year 2008, the Director of Veterans' Affairs shall appoint a 3-member funding authorization committee. The Director shall designate one of the members as chairperson. The committee shall meet on a quarterly basis, at a minimum, and shall authorize expenditure of moneys from the special fund by a two-thirds vote. Decisions of the committee shall not take effect unless and until approved by the Director of Veterans' Affairs. Each member of the committee shall serve until a replacement is named by the Director of Veterans' Affairs. One member of the committee shall be a member of the Veterans' Advisory Council.

Moneys collected from the special instant scratch-off game shall be used only as a supplemental financial resource and shall not supplant existing moneys that the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs may currently expend for the purposes set forth in items (i) through (v).

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, net revenue from the special instant scratch-off game and from gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

For purposes of this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in the prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the scratch-off game under this Section.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Illinois veterans scratch-off game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-464, eff. 10-15-11; 97-740, eff. 7-5-12; 98-499, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 125. The Military Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 28 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1805/28) (from Ch. 129, par. 220.28)

Sec. 28. When the Commander-in-Chief proclaims a time of public danger or when an emergency exists, the . The Adjutant General may purchase or authorize the purchase of stores and supplies in accordance with the emergency purchase provisions in the Illinois Procurement Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-557, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 130. The State Guard Act is amended by changing Sections 53 and 54 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1815/53) (from Ch. 129, par. 281)

Sec. 53. Any officer, warrant officer, or enlisted man in the Illinois State Guard who knowingly makes any false certificate or return to any superior officer authorized to call for such certificate or return, as to the state of his command, or as to the quartermaster, subsistence, or ordnance ordinance stores to it issued, or any officer who knowingly musters any officer, warrant officer, or enlisted man by other than his proper name, or who permits any officer, warrant officer, or enlisted man to substitute or sign another name than his own, or who enters the name of any man not duly or lawfully commissioned or enlisted in the muster or payroll of the State of Illinois, or who certifies falsely as to any actual duty performed or amounts due, or who in any other way makes or permits any false muster or return, or who, having drawn money from the State for public use, shall apply it or any part thereof to any use not duly authorized, may be punished as a court martial shall direct.

(Source: P.A. 80-1495; revised 9-8-16.)

(20 ILCS 1815/54) (from Ch. 129, par. 282)

Sec. 54. Any officer, warrant officer, or enlisted man who willfully wilfully or through neglect suffers to be lost, spoiled, or damaged, any quartermaster, subsistence, or ordnance ordinance stores for which he is responsible or accountable, or who secretes, sells, or pawns, or attempts to secrete, sell, or pawn, any such stores or any other military property of the State, or by it issued, may be punished as a court martial shall direct.

(Source: P.A. 80-1495; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 135. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-367 and 2310-371.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-367)

Sec. 2310-367. Health Data Task Force; purpose; implementation plan.

(a) In accordance with the recommendations of the 2007 State Health Improvement Plan, it is the policy of the State that, to the extent possible and consistent with privacy and other laws, State public health data and health-related administrative data are to be used to understand and report on the scope of health problems, plan prevention programs, and evaluate program effectiveness at the State and community level. It is a priority to use data to address racial, ethnic, and other health disparities. This system is intended to support State and community level public health planning, and is not intended to supplant or replace data-use agreements between State agencies and academic researchers for more specific research needs.

(b) Within 30 days after August 24, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-418), a Health Data Task Force shall be convened to create a system for public access to integrated health data. The Task Force shall consist of the following: the Director of Public Health or his or her designee; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee; the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the Director of the Department on Aging or his or her designee; the Director of Children and Family Services or his or her designee; the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and other State officials as deemed appropriate by the Governor.

The Task Force shall be advised by a public advisory group consisting of community health data users, minority health advocates, local public health departments, and private data suppliers such as hospitals and other health care providers. Each member of the Task Force shall appoint 3 members of the public advisory group. The public advisory group shall assist the Task Force in setting goals, articulating user needs, and setting priorities for action.

The Department of Public Health is primarily responsible for providing staff and administrative support to the Task Force. The other State agencies represented on the Task Force shall work cooperatively with the Department of Public Health to provide administrative support to the Task Force. The Department of Public Health shall have ongoing responsibility for monitoring the implementation of the plan and shall have ongoing responsibility to identify new or emerging data or technology needs.

The State agencies represented on the Task Force shall review their health data, data collection, and dissemination policies for opportunities to coordinate and integrate data and make data available within and outside State government in support of this State policy. To the extent possible, existing data infrastructure shall be used to create this system of public access to data. The Illinois Department of Healthcare Health Care and Family Services data warehouse and the Illinois Department of Public Health IPLAN Data System may be the foundation of this system.

(c) The Task Force shall produce a plan with a phased and prioritized implementation timetable focusing on assuring access to improving the quality of data necessary to understand health disparities. The Task Force shall submit an initial report to the General Assembly no later than July 1, 2008, and shall make annual reports to the General Assembly on or before July 1 of each year through 2011 of the progress toward implementing the plan.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 9-8-16.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-371.5) (was 20 ILCS 2310/371)

Sec. 2310-371.5. Heartsaver AED Fund; grants. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Public Health has the power to make matching grants from the Heartsaver AED Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to any school in the State, public park district, forest preserve district, conservation district, sheriff's office, municipal police department, municipal recreation department, public library, college, or university to assist in the purchase of an Automated External Defibrillator. Applicants for AED grants must demonstrate that they have funds to pay 50% of the cost of the AEDs for which matching grant moneys are sought. Any school, public park district, forest preserve district, conservation district, sheriff's office, municipal police department, municipal recreation department, public library, college, or university applying for the grant shall not receive more than one grant from the Heartsaver AED Fund each fiscal year. The State Treasurer shall accept and deposit into the Fund all gifts, grants, transfers, appropriations, and other amounts from any legal source, public or private, that are designated for deposit into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-246, eff. 1-1-16; 99-501, eff. 3-18-16; revised 3-21-16.)

Section 140. The State Police Act is amended by changing Section 7 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/7) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.7)

Sec. 7. As soon as practicable after the members of the Board have been appointed, they shall meet and shall organize by electing a chairman and a secretary. The initial chairman and secretary, and their successors, shall be elected by the Board from among its members for a term of two years or for the remainder of their term of office as a member of the Board, whichever which ever is the shorter. Three members of the Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The Board shall hold regular quarterly meetings and such other meetings as may be called by the chairman.

(Source: P.A. 80-1305; revised 10-5-16.)

(20 ILCS 2610/38)

Sec. 38 40. Disposal of medications. The Department may by rule authorize State Police officers to dispose of any unused medications under Section 18 of the Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-648, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-4-16.)

(20 ILCS 2610/40)

Sec. 40. Training; administration of epinephrine.

(a) This Section, along with Section 10.19 of the Illinois Police Training Act, may be referred to as the Annie LeGere Law.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body prescribed in the name of the Department.

(c) The Department may conduct or approve a training program for State Police officers to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including, but not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(3) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(4) how to respond to an individual with a known allergy as well as an individual with a previously unknown allergy;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted by the Department.

(d) The Department may authorize a State Police officer who has completed the training program under subsection (c) to carry, administer, or assist with the administration of epinephrine auto-injectors whenever he or she is performing official duties.

(e) The Department must establish a written policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, administration, and disposal of epinephrine auto-injectors before it allows any State Police officer to carry and administer epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f) A physician, physician's assistant with prescriptive authority, or advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority may provide a standing protocol or prescription for epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the Department to be maintained for use when necessary.

(g) When a State Police officer administers epinephrine auto-injector in good faith, the officer and the Department, and its employees and agents, incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury or death arising from the use of an epinephrine auto-injector.

(Source: P.A. 99-711, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 145. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:

Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

Possession of a controlled substance under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

Offenses under the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of burglary tools under Section 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. In a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2018 or one year after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-881) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, whichever is later.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163, eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-635, eff. 1-1-15; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1009, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-378, eff. 1-1-16; 99-385, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16; 99-881, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 150. The Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2635/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the purposes of this Act, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(A) "Accurate" means factually correct, containing no mistake or error of a material nature.

(B) The phrase "administer the criminal laws" includes any of the following activities: intelligence gathering, surveillance, criminal investigation, crime detection and prevention (including research), apprehension, detention, pretrial or post-trial release, prosecution, the correctional supervision or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders, criminal identification activities, data analysis and research done by the sentencing commission, or the collection, maintenance or dissemination of criminal history record information.

(C) "The Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority.

(D) "Automated" means the utilization of computers, telecommunication lines, or other automatic data processing equipment for data collection or storage, analysis, processing, preservation, maintenance, dissemination, or display and is distinguished from a system in which such activities are performed manually.

(E) "Complete" means accurately reflecting all the criminal history record information about an individual that is required to be reported to the Department pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(F) "Conviction information" means data reflecting a judgment of guilt or nolo contendere. The term includes all prior and subsequent criminal history events directly relating to such judgments, such as, but not limited to: (1) the notation of arrest; (2) the notation of charges filed; (3) the sentence imposed; (4) the fine imposed; and (5) all related probation, parole, and release information. Information ceases to be "conviction information" when a judgment of guilt is reversed or vacated.

For purposes of this Act, continuances to a date certain in furtherance of an order of supervision granted under Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or an order of probation granted under either Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act shall not be deemed "conviction information".

(G) "Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual, including information collected under Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification Act, and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pretrial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals individual are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(H) "Criminal justice agency" means (1) a government agency or any subunit thereof which is authorized to administer the criminal laws and which allocates a substantial part of its annual budget for that purpose, or (2) an agency supported by public funds which is authorized as its principal function to administer the criminal laws and which is officially designated by the Department as a criminal justice agency for purposes of this Act.

(I) "The Department" means the Illinois Department of State Police.

(J) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of State Police.

(K) "Disseminate" means to disclose or transmit conviction information in any form, oral, written, or otherwise.

(L) "Exigency" means pending danger or the threat of pending danger to an individual or property.

(M) "Non-criminal justice agency" means a State agency, Federal agency, or unit of local government that is not a criminal justice agency. The term does not refer to private individuals, corporations, or non-governmental agencies or organizations.

(M-5) "Request" means the submission to the Department, in the form and manner required, the necessary data elements or fingerprints, or both, to allow the Department to initiate a search of its criminal history record information files.

(N) "Requester" means any private individual, corporation, organization, employer, employment agency, labor organization, or non-criminal justice agency that has made a request pursuant to this Act to obtain conviction information maintained in the files of the Department of State Police regarding a particular individual.

(O) "Statistical information" means data from which the identity of an individual cannot be ascertained, reconstructed, or verified and to which the identity of an individual cannot be linked by the recipient of the information.

(P) "Sentencing commission" means the Sentencing Policy Advisory Council.

(Source: P.A. 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; 99-880, eff. 8-22-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 155. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/20)

Sec. 20. Illinois Discharged Servicemember Task Force. The Illinois Discharged Servicemember Task Force is hereby created within the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs. The Task Force shall investigate the re-entry process for service members who return to civilian life after being engaged in an active theater. The investigation shall include the effects of post-traumatic stress disorder, homelessness, disabilities, and other issues the Task Force finds relevant to the re-entry process. For fiscal year 2012, the Task Force shall include the availability of prosthetics in its investigation. For fiscal year 2014, the Task Force shall include the needs of women veterans with respect to issues including, but not limited to, compensation, rehabilitation, outreach, health care, and issues facing women veterans in the community, and to offer recommendations on how best to alleviate these needs which shall be included in the Task Force Annual Report for 2014. The Task Force shall include the following members:

(a) a representative of the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs, who shall chair the committee;

(b) a representative from the Department of Military Affairs;

(c) a representative from the Office of the Illinois Attorney General;

(d) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the Speaker of the House;

(e) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the House Minority Leader;

(f) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the President of the Senate;

(g) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;

(h) 4 members chosen by the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs, who shall represent statewide veterans' organizations or veterans' homeless shelters;

(i) one member appointed by the Lieutenant Governor; and

(j) a representative of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs shall be invited to participate. Vacancies in the Task Force shall be filled by the initial appointing authority. Task Force members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in performing duties associated with the Task Force.

By July 1, 2008 and by July 1 of each year thereafter, the Task Force shall present an annual report of its findings to the Governor, the Attorney General, the Director of Veterans' Affairs, the Lieutenant Governor, and the Secretary of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.

If the Task Force becomes inactive because active theaters cease, the Director of Veterans' Veterans Affairs may reactivate the Task Force if active theaters are reestablished.

(Source: P.A. 97-414, eff. 1-1-12; 98-310, eff. 8-12-13; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 160. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 825-65 and the heading of Article 835 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/825-65)

Sec. 825-65. Clean Coal, Coal, Energy Efficiency, and Renewable Energy Project Financing.

(a) Findings and declaration of policy.

(i) It is hereby found and declared that Illinois has abundant coal resources and, in some areas of Illinois, the demand for power exceeds the generating capacity. Incentives to encourage the construction of coal-fueled electric generating plants in Illinois to ensure power generating capacity into the future and to advance clean coal technology and the use of Illinois coal are in the best interests of all of the citizens of Illinois.

(ii) It is further found and declared that Illinois has abundant potential and resources to develop renewable energy resource projects and that there are many opportunities to invest in cost-effective energy efficiency projects throughout the State. The development of those projects will create jobs and investment as well as decrease environmental impacts and promote energy independence in Illinois. Accordingly, the development of those projects is in the best interests of all of the citizens of Illinois.

(iii) The Authority is authorized to issue bonds to help finance Clean Coal, Coal, Energy Efficiency, and Renewable Energy projects pursuant to this Section.

(b) Definitions.

(i) "Clean Coal Project" means (A) "clean coal facility", as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act; (B) "clean coal SNG facility", as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act; (C) transmission lines and associated equipment that transfer electricity from points of supply to points of delivery for projects described in this subsection (b); (D) pipelines or other methods to transfer carbon dioxide from the point of production to the point of storage or sequestration for projects described in this subsection (b); or (E) projects to provide carbon abatement technology for existing generating facilities.

(ii) "Coal Project" means new electric generating facilities or new gasification facilities, as defined in Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, which may include mine-mouth power plants, projects that employ the use of clean coal technology, projects to provide scrubber technology for existing energy generating plants, or projects to provide electric transmission facilities or new gasification facilities.

(iii) "Energy Efficiency Project" means measures that reduce the amount of electricity or natural gas required to achieve a given end use, consistent with Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act. "Energy Efficiency Project" also includes measures that reduce the total Btus of electricity and natural gas needed to meet the end use or uses consistent with Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(iv) "Renewable Energy Project" means (A) a project that uses renewable energy resources, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act; (B) a project that uses environmentally preferable technologies and practices that result in improvements to the production of renewable fuels, including but not limited to, cellulosic conversion, water and energy conservation, fractionation, alternative feedstocks, or reduced greenhouse green house gas emissions; (C) transmission lines and associated equipment that transfer electricity from points of supply to points of delivery for projects described in this subsection (b); or (D) projects that use technology for the storage of renewable energy, including, without limitation, the use of battery or electrochemical storage technology for mobile or stationary applications.

(c) Creation of reserve funds. The Authority may establish and maintain one or more reserve funds to enhance bonds issued by the Authority for a Clean Coal Project, a Coal Project, an Energy Efficiency Project, or a Renewable Energy Project. There may be one or more accounts in these reserve funds in which there may be deposited:

(1) any proceeds of the bonds issued by the Authority required to be deposited therein by the terms of any contract between the Authority and its bondholders or any resolution of the Authority;

(2) any other moneys or funds of the Authority that it may determine to deposit therein from any other source; and

(3) any other moneys or funds made available to the Authority. Subject to the terms of any pledge to the owners of any bonds, moneys in any reserve fund may be held and applied to the payment of principal, premium, if any, and interest of such bonds.

(d) Powers and duties. The Authority has the power:

(1) To issue bonds in one or more series pursuant to one or more resolutions of the Authority for any Clean Coal Project, Coal Project, Energy Efficiency Project, or Renewable Energy Project authorized under this Section, within the authorization set forth in subsection (e).

(2) To provide for the funding of any reserves or other funds or accounts deemed necessary by the Authority in connection with any bonds issued by the Authority.

(3) To pledge any funds of the Authority or funds made available to the Authority that may be applied to such purpose as security for any bonds or any guarantees, letters of credit, insurance contracts or similar credit support or liquidity instruments securing the bonds.

(4) To enter into agreements or contracts with third parties, whether public or private, including, without limitation, the United States of America, the State or any department or agency thereof, to obtain any appropriations, grants, loans or guarantees that are deemed necessary or desirable by the Authority. Any such guarantee, agreement or contract may contain terms and provisions necessary or desirable in connection with the program, subject to the requirements established by the Act.

(5) To exercise such other powers as are necessary or incidental to the foregoing.

(e) Clean Coal Project, Coal Project, Energy Efficiency Project, and Renewable Energy Project bond authorization and financing limits. In addition to any other bonds authorized to be issued under Sections 801-40(w), 825-60, 830-25 and 845-5, the Authority may have outstanding, at any time, bonds for the purpose enumerated in this Section 825-65 in an aggregate principal amount that shall not exceed $3,000,000,000, subject to the following limitations: (i) up to $300,000,000 may be issued to finance projects, as described in clause (C) of subsection (b)(i) and clause (C) of subsection (b)(iv) of this Section 825-65; (ii) up to $500,000,000 may be issued to finance projects, as described in clauses (D) and (E) of subsection (b)(i) of this Section 825-65; (iii) up to $2,000,000,000 may be issued to finance Clean Coal Projects, as described in clauses (A) and (B) of subsection (b)(i) of this Section 825-65 and Coal Projects, as described in subsection (b)(ii) of this Section 825-65; and (iv) up to $2,000,000,000 may be issued to finance Energy Efficiency Projects, as described in subsection (b)(iii) of this Section 825-65 and Renewable Energy Projects, as described in clauses (A), (B), and (D) of subsection (b)(iii) of this Section 825-65. An application for a loan financed from bond proceeds from a borrower or its affiliates for a Clean Coal Project, a Coal Project, Energy Efficiency Project, or a Renewable Energy Project may not be approved by the Authority for an amount in excess of $450,000,000 for any borrower or its affiliates. A Clean Coal Project or Coal Project must be located within the State. An Energy Efficiency Project may be located within the State or outside the State, provided that, if the Energy Efficiency Project is located outside of the State, it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the State or any entity affiliated with an entity located within the State. These bonds shall not constitute an indebtedness or obligation of the State of Illinois and it shall be plainly stated on the face of each bond that it does not constitute an indebtedness or obligation of the State of Illinois, but is payable solely from the revenues, income or other assets of the Authority pledged therefor.

(f) The bonding authority granted under this Section is in addition to and not limited by the provisions of Section 845-5.

(Source: P.A. 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; revised 9-8-16.)

(20 ILCS 3501/Art. 835 heading)

ARTICLE 835 .

VETERANS ASSISTANCE

(Source: P.A. 99-509, eff. 6-24-16; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 165. The Alton Lake Heritage Parkway Corridor Law is amended by changing Section 1005 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3905/1005) (from Ch. 105, par. 905)

Sec. 1005. Advisory Commission. The State of Illinois, in carrying forward its duties to preserve or enhance the quality of this Parkway Corridor, shall establish the Alton Lake Heritage Parkway Advisory Commission. Beginning on January 1, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-274) this amendatory Act of 1993, the Commission shall be known as, and its name shall be changed to, the Alton Lake Heritage Parkway Corridor Advisory Commission.

The Commission shall consist of 10 members, one each from Alton and Godfrey Townships in Madison County, one each from Quarry and Elsah Townships in Jersey County, one each from the cities of Alton, Elsah, and Grafton, one from the Village of Godfrey, and one each from Madison and Jersey Counties. The Supervisor of each Township, the Mayor of each municipality, and the County Board Chairman of each county shall appoint the members from their respective township, municipality, or county. The Mississippi River Parkway Advisory Council shall serve as a technical advisory body to the Commission.

The Commission will develop a land management plan that it will recommend to the General Assembly by November 1, 1992.

The plan shall be subject to a public informational meeting prior to it being sent to the General Assembly. Thereafter the Commission is authorized to facilitate, coordinate, make recommendations for implementing, and assist in implementing the land management plan in the parkway corridor and its viewshed, conservation, and open land-agricultural cores.

The Commission may raise, accept, and expend funds from public and private sources for the purpose of developing, facilitating and coordinating and making recommendations for the implementation of, and assisting in the implementation of, the land management plan in the parkway corridor.

Using funds that it receives as authorized by this Section, the Commission may select and contract with a multidiscipline design consultant to assist the Commission in the design and development of the parkway corridor.

The Commission is authorized to cooperate with not-for-profit corporations empowered to establish trusts to acquire and hold title to scenic easements and other interests in land for the purposes of this Article and implementation of the land management plan in the parkway corridor.

(Source: P.A. 87-215; 87-867; 87-964; 88-45; 88-274; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 170. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Section 8.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/8.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 8.5. Certificate of exemption for change of ownership of a health care facility; discontinuation of a health care facility or category of service; public notice and public hearing.

(a) Upon a finding that an application for a change of ownership is complete, the State Board shall publish a legal notice on one day in a newspaper of general circulation in the area or community to be affected and afford the public an opportunity to request a hearing. If the application is for a facility located in a Metropolitan Statistical Area, an additional legal notice shall be published in a newspaper of limited circulation, if one exists, in the area in which the facility is located. If the newspaper of limited circulation is published on a daily basis, the additional legal notice shall be published on one day. The applicant shall pay the cost incurred by the Board in publishing the change of ownership notice in newspapers as required under this subsection. The legal notice shall also be posted on the Health Facilities and Services Review Board's web site and sent to the State Representative and State Senator of the district in which the health care facility is located. An application for change of ownership of a hospital shall not be deemed complete without a signed certification that for a period of 2 years after the change of ownership transaction is effective, the hospital will not adopt a charity care policy that is more restrictive than the policy in effect during the year prior to the transaction. An application for a change of ownership need not contain signed transaction documents so long as it includes the following key terms of the transaction: names and background of the parties; structure of the transaction; the person who will be the licensed or certified entity after the transaction; the ownership or membership interests in such licensed or certified entity both prior to and after the transaction; fair market value of assets to be transferred; and the purchase price or other form of consideration to be provided for those assets. The issuance of the certificate of exemption shall be contingent upon the applicant submitting a statement to the Board within 90 days after the closing date of the transaction, or such longer period as provided by the Board, certifying that the change of ownership has been completed in accordance with the key terms contained in the application. If such key terms of the transaction change, a new application shall be required.

Where a change of ownership is among related persons, and there are no other changes being proposed at the health care facility that would otherwise require a permit or exemption under this Act, the applicant shall submit an application consisting of a standard notice in a form set forth by the Board briefly explaining the reasons for the proposed change of ownership. Once such an application is submitted to the Board and reviewed by the Board staff, the Board Chair shall take action on an application for an exemption for a change of ownership among related persons within 45 days after the application has been deemed complete, provided the application meets the applicable standards under this Section. If the Board Chair has a conflict of interest or for other good cause, the Chair may request review by the Board. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for purposes of this Section, a change of ownership among related persons means a transaction where the parties to the transaction are under common control or ownership before and after the transaction is completed.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed as authorizing the Board to impose any conditions, obligations, or limitations, other than those required by this Section, with respect to the issuance of an exemption for a change of ownership, including, but not limited to, the time period before which a subsequent change of ownership of the health care facility could be sought, or the commitment to continue to offer for a specified time period any services currently offered by the health care facility.

(a-3) Upon a finding that an application to close a health care facility is complete, the State Board shall publish a legal notice on 3 consecutive days in a newspaper of general circulation in the area or community to be affected and afford the public an opportunity to request a hearing. If the application is for a facility located in a Metropolitan Statistical Area, an additional legal notice shall be published in a newspaper of limited circulation, if one exists, in the area in which the facility is located. If the newspaper of limited circulation is published on a daily basis, the additional legal notice shall be published on 3 consecutive days. The legal notice shall also be posted on the Health Facilities and Services Review Board's web site and sent to the State Representative and State Senator of the district in which the health care facility is located. In addition, the health care facility shall provide notice of closure to the local media that the health care facility would routinely notify about facility events. No later than 90 days after a discontinuation of a health facility, the applicant must submit a statement to the State Board certifying that the discontinuation is complete.

(a-5) Upon a finding that an application to discontinue a category of service is complete and provides the requested information, as specified by the State Board, an exemption shall be issued. No later than 30 days after the issuance of the exemption, the health care facility must give written notice of the discontinuation of the category of service to the State Senator and State Representative serving the legislative district in which the health care facility is located. No later than 90 days after a discontinuation of a category of service, the applicant must submit a statement to the State Board certifying that the discontinuation is complete.

(b) If a public hearing is requested, it shall be held at least 15 days but no more than 30 days after the date of publication of the legal notice in the community in which the facility is located. The hearing shall be held in the affected area or community in a place of reasonable size and accessibility and a full and complete written transcript of the proceedings shall be made. All interested persons attending the hearing shall be given a reasonable opportunity to present their positions in writing or orally. The applicant shall provide a summary of the proposal for distribution at the public hearing.

(c) For the purposes of this Section "newspaper of limited circulation" means a newspaper intended to serve a particular or defined population of a specific geographic area within a Metropolitan Statistical Area such as a municipality, town, village, township, or community area, but does not include publications of professional and trade associations.

(Source: P.A. 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; 99-154, eff. 7-28-15; 99-527, eff. 1-1-17; 99-551, eff. 7-15-16; revised 9-13-16.)

Section 175. The Illinois Latino Family Commission Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3983/5)

Sec. 5. Legislative findings Findings. It is the policy of this State to promote family preservation and to strengthen families.

Latinos are well represented among the families of Illinois. The Illinois Latino population is the fifth largest in the nation. Over 14% of the estimated 12,000,000 people that live in Illinois are Latinos. According to the 2000 Census figures, more than 1,750,000 Latinos make Illinois their home. This figure represents a 69.2% increase from the 1990 Census figures compared to about 3.5% for non-Latinos. The Latino population explosion accounted for two-thirds of the total population change in Illinois and it is visible throughout the State.

In Cook County alone, the Latino population has increased to about 1,071,740. In the 6 county region including Cook County, nearly 69% of new residents were Hispanic. Roughly 23.7% of Kane County residents are Latino. In Lake County, Latinos make up 14.4% of the total county population.

Latinos are not only the fastest growing ethnic group in the State, they are also the youngest. The median age for Latinos in Illinois is 25, compared to 36 for non-Latinos. Despite unprecedented population growth, Latinos lag behind in major indicators of well-being relative to education, health, employment, and child welfare, as well as representation throughout the State. Moreover, Latino children and families present unique linguistic, cultural, and immigration issues for the State.

Latinos have a well-established presence in the child welfare system. Of the total 86,973 children that were reported abused or neglected in Fiscal Year 2001, about 8,442 or 9.7% were Hispanic children. About 25% of these hotline reports were indicated, for a total of 2,155 Latino children in Fiscal Year 2001. As of August 2003, there were about 1,367 open Latino child abuse cases in Illinois. This figure is only slightly lower than the 1,491 open Latino child cases reported for the previous fiscal year. Hispanic cases make up about 6% of all open child cases (excluding adoption assistance and home of parent living arrangement). Latino families receiving services make up about 16% of all intact family cases. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of all Latino families involved with the Illinois Department of Children Child and Family Services (IDCFS) will need bilingual services at some point during the time their case is open. However, IDCFS struggles to meet the demand for bilingual services. There are similar examples throughout the State demonstrating that Illinois lacks a unified and comprehensive strategy for addressing the unique needs of Latino families.

Latino families remain outside of the margins of opportunities in the State. There are tremendous challenges faced by Latino families and children in the State. Clearly, the growing Latino presence demands that government, child and family advocates, and other key stakeholders come together to identify and implement policy strategies that can create an infrastructure of support for Latino families in the State. Building this needed infrastructure of policies must involve multiple State agencies. The Illinois Latino Family Commission shall lead the effort, advising the Governor and assisting State agencies with this task.

(Source: P.A. 95-619, eff. 9-14-07; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 180. The Fair Practices in Contracting Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5080/5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 2, 2019)

Sec. 5. Purpose and members.

(a) There is created the Fair Practices in Contracting Task Force to:

(1) thoroughly survey African-American-owned business participation in State procurement;

(2) study African-American-owned subcontractors' ability to be paid in a timely manner and the communication processes between subcontractors and prime contractors and the State;

(3) research solutions and methods to address the disparity in procurement awards; and

(4) produce a final report summarizing the Task Force's findings and detailing recommended statutory or constitutional strategies to recognize best practices.

(b) The Task Force shall consist of the following members:

(1) One member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) One member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) One member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(4) One member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(5) Four members appointed by the Governor, 3 of whom must be from the Department of Central Management Services, the Department of Transportation, or the Department of Healthcare Health and Family Services, and one of whom must be a member of the Illinois African-American Family Commission; and

(6) Four members of the public, representing minority-owned businesses, appointed by the Governor.

(c) Members shall serve without compensation.

(Source: P.A. 99-451, eff. 6-1-16; revised 9-12-16.)

Section 185. The Judicial Note Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(25 ILCS 60/2) (from Ch. 63, par. 42.62)

Sec. 2. The sponsor of each bill referred to in Section 1, shall present a copy of the bill, with his requirements for a judicial note, to the Supreme Court. The judicial note shall be prepared by the Supreme Court and furnished to the sponsor of the bill within 5 calendar days thereafter; except that whenever, because of the complexity of the measure, additional time is required for the preparation of the judicial note the Supreme Court may so inform the sponsor of the bill and he may approve an extension of the time within which the note should be furnished, not to extend, however, beyond June 15 the odd numbered year following the date of request. Whenever any measure by which a judicial note is requested affects effects more than one county, circuit, or judicial district, such effect must be set forth in the judicial note.

(Source: P.A. 84-1395; revised 9-6-16.)

Section 190. The Housing Affordability Impact Note Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(25 ILCS 82/10)

Sec. 10. Preparation. The sponsor of each bill, or the agency proposing a rule, to which Section Sec. 5 applies, shall present a copy of the bill or proposed rule, with the request for a housing affordability impact note, to the Illinois Housing Development Authority. The housing affordability impact note shall be prepared by the Illinois Housing Development Authority and submitted to the sponsor of the bill or the agency within 5 calendar days, except that whenever, because of the complexity of the measure, additional time is required for the preparation of the housing affordability impact note, the Illinois Housing Development Authority may inform the sponsor of the bill or the agency, and the sponsor or agency may approve an extension of the time within which the note is to be submitted, not to extend, however, beyond June 15, following the date of the request. The Illinois Housing Development Authority may seek assistance from a Statewide trade organization representing the real estate or home building industry in the preparation of a housing affordability impact note. If, in the opinion of the Illinois Housing Development Authority, there is insufficient information to prepare a reliable estimate of the anticipated impact, a statement to that effect can be filed and shall meet the requirements of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-1149; 88-61; revised 9-7-16.)

Section 195. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.595 and 5.875 and by changing Sections 6z-9 and 8g as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.595)

Sec. 5.595. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07. Repealed by P.A. 99-576, eff. 7-15-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.595a)

Sec. 5.595a 5.595. The Local Legacy Fund.

(Source: P.A. 93-328, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-4-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.874)

Sec. 5.874 5.875. The Child Bereavement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-703, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-4-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.875)

Sec. 5.875. The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-723, eff. 8-5-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.876)

Sec. 5.876 5.875. The State Military Justice Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-796, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-4-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-9) (from Ch. 127, par. 142z-9)

Sec. 6z-9. (a) The Build Illinois Fund is created in the State Treasury. All tax revenues and other moneys from whatever source which by law are required to be deposited in the Build Illinois Fund shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund upon their collection, payment or other receipt as provided by law, including the pledge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act. All tax revenues and other moneys paid into the Build Illinois Fund shall be promptly invested by the State Treasurer in accordance with law, and all interest or other earnings accruing or received thereon shall be credited to and paid into the Build Illinois Fund. No tax revenues or other moneys, interest or earnings paid into the Build Illinois Fund shall be transferred or allocated by the Comptroller or Treasurer to any other fund, nor shall the Governor authorize any such transfer or allocation, nor shall any tax revenues or other moneys, interest or earnings paid into the Build Illinois Fund be used, temporarily or otherwise, for interfund borrowing, or be otherwise used or appropriated, except as expressly authorized and provided in Section 8.25 of this Act for the sole purposes and subject to the priorities, limitations and conditions prescribed therein.

(b) The tax revenues and other moneys shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 6z-17 of this Act, Section 28 of the "Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975", as amended, Section 9 of the "Use Tax Act", as amended, Section 9 of the "Service Use Tax Act", as amended, Section 9 of the "Service Occupation Tax Act", as amended, Section 3 of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act", as amended, Section 4.05 of the "Chicago World's Fair - 1992 Authority Act", as amended, and Sections 3 and 6 of the "The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act", as amended.

(Source: P.A. 91-51, eff. 6-30-99; revised 9-8-16.)

(30 ILCS 105/8g)

Sec. 8g. Fund transfers.

(a) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after June 9, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-25) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $10,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund created by Public Act 91-37 Senate Bill 1028 of the 91st General Assembly.

(b) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after June 9, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-25) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $25,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future created by Public Act 91-38 Senate Bill 1066 of the 91st General Assembly.

(c) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on August 30 of each fiscal year's license period, the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall direct and the State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Youth Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Prevention Fund an amount equal to the number of retail liquor licenses issued for that fiscal year multiplied by $50.

(d) The payments to programs required under subsection (d) of Section 28.1 of the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 shall be made, pursuant to appropriation, from the special funds referred to in the statutes cited in that subsection, rather than directly from the General Revenue Fund.

Beginning January 1, 2000, on the first day of each month, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to each of the special funds from which payments are to be made under Section 28.1(d) of the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 an amount equal to 1/12 of the annual amount required for those payments from that special fund, which annual amount shall not exceed the annual amount for those payments from that special fund for the calendar year 1998. The special funds to which transfers shall be made under this subsection (d) include, but are not necessarily limited to, the Agricultural Premium Fund; the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund; the Fair and Exposition Fund; the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund; the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund; and the Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund.

(e) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after May 17, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-704) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $15,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future.

(f) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after May 17, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-704) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $70,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(f-1) In fiscal year 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $160,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(g) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2001, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(h) In each of fiscal years 2002 through 2004, but not thereafter, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tourism Promotion Fund.

(i) On or after July 1, 2001 and until May 1, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2002.

(i-1) On or after July 1, 2002 and until May 1, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2003.

(j) On or after July 1, 2001 and no later than June 30, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(k) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after December 20, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-505) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-1) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-2) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-3) On or after July 1, 2002 and no later than June 30, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(l) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(m) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002 and on January 8, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-648) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(n) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,800,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund.

(o) On or after July 1, 2003, and no later than June 30, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Vehicle Inspection Fund:

(p) On or after July 1, 2003 and until May 1, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2004.

(q) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund.

(r) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,922,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(s) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,800,000 from the Statewide Economic Development Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(t) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $50,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund.

(u) On or after July 1, 2004 and until May 1, 2005, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2005.

(v) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(w) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,445,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(x) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on January 15, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer to the General Revenue Fund the following sums:

From the State Crime Laboratory Fund, $200,000;

From the State Police Wireless Service Emergency Fund, $200,000;

From the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund, $800,000; and

From the State Police Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund, $500,000.

(y) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law on June 30, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund and any future deposits that would otherwise be made into these funds must instead be made into the General Revenue Fund:

(1) the Keep Illinois Beautiful Fund;

(2) the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority Reconstruction Fund;

(3) the New Technology Recovery Fund;

(4) the Illinois Rural Bond Bank Trust Fund;

(5) the ISBE School Bus Driver Permit Fund;

(6) the Solid Waste Management Revolving Loan Fund;

(7) the State Postsecondary Review Program Fund;

(8) the Tourism Attraction Development Matching Grant Fund;

(9) the Patent and Copyright Fund;

(10) the Credit Enhancement Development Fund;

(11) the Community Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Services Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund;

(12) the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Fund;

(13) the By-product Material Safety Fund;

(14) the Illinois Student Assistance Commission Higher EdNet Fund;

(15) the DORS State Project Fund;

(16) the School Technology Revolving Fund;

(17) the Energy Assistance Contribution Fund;

(18) the Illinois Building Commission Revolving Fund;

(19) the Illinois Aquaculture Development Fund;

(20) the Homelessness Prevention Fund;

(21) the DCFS Refugee Assistance Fund;

(22) the Illinois Century Network Special Purposes Fund; and

(23) the Build Illinois Purposes Fund.

(z) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(aa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $9,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(bb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,803,600 from the General Revenue Fund to the Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund.

(cc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2005 and until May 1, 2006, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2006.

(dd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on April 1, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, at the direction of the Director of Public Aid (now Director of Healthcare and Family Services), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund amounts not to exceed $14,000,000 to the Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund.

(ee) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Illinois Civic Center Bond Fund to the Illinois Civic Center Bond Retirement and Interest Fund.

(ff) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $1,900,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(gg) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until May 1, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2007.

(hh) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.................$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ii) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or before August 31, 2006, the Governor and the State Comptroller may agree to transfer the surplus cash balance from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund and the Pension Stabilization Fund in equal proportions. The determination of the amount of the surplus cash balance shall be made by the Governor, with the concurrence of the State Comptroller, after taking into account the June 30, 2006 balances in the general funds and the actual or estimated spending from the general funds during the lapse period. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the maximum amount that may be transferred under this subsection (ii) is $50,000,000.

(jj) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,250,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(kk) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(ll) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on the first day of each calendar quarter of the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund amounts equal to one-fourth of $20,000,000 to the Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund.

(mm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,320,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the I-FLY Fund.

(nn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund.

(oo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts identified as net receipts from the sale of all or part of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission loan portfolio from the Student Loan Operating Fund to the General Revenue Fund. The maximum amount that may be transferred pursuant to this Section is $38,800,000. In addition, no transfer may be made pursuant to this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the Student Loan Operating Fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriations from the Fund estimated to be expended for the fiscal year. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practical after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(pp) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(qq) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2007 and until May 1, 2008, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2008.

(rr) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2007 and until June 30, 2008, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.................$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ss) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,250,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(tt) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(uu) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,320,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the I-FLY Fund.

(vv) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund.

(ww) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Predatory Lending Database Program Fund.

(xx) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(yy) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund.

(zz) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(aaa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2008 and until May 1, 2009, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2009.

(bbb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2008 and until June 30, 2009, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.............$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ccc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $7,450,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(ddd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(eee) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(fff) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2009 and until May 1, 2010, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2010.

(ggg) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $7,450,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(hhh) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(iii) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Heartsaver AED Fund.

(jjj) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2009 and until June 30, 2010, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $17,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(lll) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund.

(mmm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $9,700,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Senior Citizens Real Estate Deferred Tax Revolving Fund.

(nnn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $565,000 from the FY09 Budget Relief Fund to the Horse Racing Fund.

(ooo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $600,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Temporary Relocation Expenses Revolving Fund.

(ppp) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(qqq) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2010 and until May 1, 2011, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2011.

(rrr) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,675,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(sss) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(ttt) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Heartsaver AED Fund.

(uuu) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund.

(vvv) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(www) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $17,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(xxx) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund, of which $1,000,000 shall go to the Workforce, Technology, and Economic Development Fund and $1,000,000 to the Public Utility Fund.

(yyy) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2011 and until May 1, 2012, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2012.

(zzz) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(aaaa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(bbbb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(cccc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $14,100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the State Garage Revolving Fund.

(dddd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(eeee) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Senior Citizens Real Estate Deferred Tax Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-820, eff. 11-18-09; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-641, eff. 12-19-11; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 200. The Natural Heritage Fund Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(30 ILCS 150/5) (from Ch. 105, par. 735)

Sec. 5. Interest proceeds Proceeds. The Governor shall request and the General Assembly may annually appropriate from the Natural Heritage Fund an amount not to exceed to the annual investment income earned by the Trust Fund to the Department and any portion of the investment income earned in preceding years that was not transferred for the purposes set forth in Section 4. Upon the Director's request, the Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the actual investment income earned from the Trust Fund to the Natural Heritage Fund from time to time as needed for expenditures from the Natural Heritage Fund in accordance with appropriations.

(Source: P.A. 87-1197; revised 9-7-16.)

Section 205. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 40-30 and 45-67 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/40-30)

Sec. 40-30. Purchase option. Initial leases of all space in entire, free-standing buildings shall include an option to purchase exercisable exerciseable by the State, unless the purchasing officer determines that inclusion of such purchase option is not in the State's best interest and makes that determination in writing along with the reasons for making that determination and publishes the written determination in the appropriate volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin. Leases from governmental units and not-for-profit entities are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-572, eff. date - See Sec. 99-5; revised 9-9-16.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-67)

Sec. 45-67. Encouragement to hire qualified veterans. A chief procurement officer may, as part of any solicitation, encourage potential contractors to consider hiring qualified veterans and to notify them of any available financial incentives or other advantages associated with hiring such persons. In establishing internal guidelines in furtherance of this Section, the Department of Central Management Services may work with an interagency advisory committee consisting of representatives from the Department of Veterans' Veterans Affairs, the Department of Employment Security, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Department of Revenue and consisting of 8 members of the General Assembly, 2 of whom are appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, 2 of whom are appointed by the President of the Senate, 2 of whom are appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and 2 of whom are appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

For the purposes of this Section, "qualified veteran" means an Illinois resident who: (i) was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of any reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States; (ii) served on active duty in connection with Operation Desert Storm, Operation Enduring Freedom, or Operation Iraqi Freedom; and (iii) was honorably discharged.

The Department of Central Management Services must report to the Governor and to the General Assembly by December 31 of each year on the activities undertaken by chief procurement officers and the Department of Central Management Services to encourage potential contractors to consider hiring qualified veterans. The report must include the number of vendors who have hired qualified veterans.

(Source: P.A. 98-1076, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-9-16.)

Section 210. The Grant Accountability and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(30 ILCS 708/75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 16, 2020)

Sec. 75. State program exceptions.

(a) With the exception of the audit requirements set forth in 2 CFR 200.102, exceptions may be allowed for classes of State or federal pass-through awards or non-federal entities subject to the requirements of this Act when such exceptions are not prohibited by State or federal law. However, in the interest of maximum uniformity, exceptions from the requirements of this Act shall be permitted only in unusual or exceptional circumstances.

(b) The Governor's Office of Management and Budget, with the advice and technical assistance of the Illinois Single Audit Commission, shall adopt rules governing the criteria that shall be used to determine when an exception may be issued. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall publish any allowed exceptions in the Catalog Catalogue of State Financial Assistance within 30 days of the exception being allowed.

(Source: P.A. 98-706, eff. 7-16-14; revised 9-9-16.)

Section 215. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 8.40 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 2207)

Sec. 7. Review of existing mandates.

(a) Beginning with the 2019 catalog and every other year thereafter, concurrently with, or within 3 months subsequent to the publication of a catalog of State mandates as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 4, the Department shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly a review and report on mandates enacted in the previous 2 years and remaining in effect at the time of submittal of the report. The Department may fulfill its responsibilities for compiling the report by entering into a contract for service.

Beginning with the 2017 catalog and every 10 years thereafter, concurrently with, or within 3 months subsequent to the publication of a catalog of State mandates as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 4, the Department shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly a review and report on all effective mandates at the time of submittal of the reports.

(b) The report shall include for each mandate the factual information specified in subsection (b) of Section 4 for the catalog. The report may also include the following: (1) extent to which the enactment of the mandate was requested, supported, encouraged or opposed by local governments or their respective organization; (2) whether the mandate continues to meet a Statewide policy objective or has achieved the initial policy intent in whole or in part; (3) amendments if any are required to make the mandate more effective; (4) whether the mandate should be retained or rescinded; (5) whether State financial participation in helping meet the identifiable increased local costs arising from the mandate should be initiated, and if so, recommended ratios and phasing-in schedules; and (6) any other information or recommendations which the Department considers pertinent; and (7) any comments about the mandate submitted by affected units of government.

(c) The appropriate committee of each house of the General Assembly shall review the report and shall initiate such legislation or other action as it deems necessary.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader, the Secretary of the Senate, the members of the committees required to review the report under subsection (c) and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act "An Act to revise the law in relation to the General Assembly", approved February 25, 1874, as amended, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-789, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.40)

Sec. 8.40. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 99-683, 99-745, or 99-905 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Section 40 of the State Police Act and Section 10.19 of the Illinois Police Training Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-683, eff. 7-29-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 99-745, eff. 8-5-16; 99-905, eff. 11-29-16; revised 12-7-16.)

Section 220. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 304, 507GG, and 709.5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)

Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.

(a) In general. The business income of a person other than a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's business income is derived solely from this State. If a person other than a resident derives business income from this State and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, such person's business income shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4 reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, persons other than residents who derive business income from this State and one or more other states shall compute their apportionment factor by weighting their property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(1) Property factor.

(A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the average value of the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business in this State during the taxable year and the denominator of which is the average value of all the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable year.

(B) Property owned by the person is valued at its original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.

(C) The average value of property shall be determined by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the taxable year but the Director may require the averaging of monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably required to reflect properly the average value of the person's property.

(2) Payroll factor.

(A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount paid in this State during the taxable year by the person for compensation, and the denominator of which is the total compensation paid everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Compensation is paid in this State if:

(i) The individual's service is performed entirely within this State;

(ii) The individual's service is performed both within and without this State, but the service performed without this State is incidental to the individual's service performed within this State; or

(iii) Some of the service is performed within this State and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations, the place from which the service is directed or controlled is within this State, or the base of operations or the place from which the service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed, but the individual's residence is in this State.

(iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional athletes.

(a) General. The Illinois source income of a nonresident individual who is a member of a professional athletic team includes the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team during the taxable year which the number of duty days spent within this State performing services for the team in any manner during the taxable year bears to the total number of duty days spent both within and without this State during the taxable year.

(b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar team event are not considered duty days spent in this State. However, such travel days are considered in the total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart (iv):

(1) The term "professional athletic team" includes, but is not limited to, any professional baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey team.

(2) The term "member of a professional athletic team" includes those employees who are active players, players on the disabled list, and any other persons required to travel and who travel with and perform services on behalf of a professional athletic team on a regular basis. This includes, but is not limited to, coaches, managers, and trainers.

(3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all days during the taxable year from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in which they occur, including where a team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one tax year.

(A) Duty days shall also include days on which a member of a professional athletic team performs service for a team on a date that does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans"). Performing a service for a professional athletic team includes conducting training and rehabilitation activities, when such activities are conducted at team facilities.

(B) Also included in duty days are game days, practice days, days spent at team meetings, promotional caravans, preseason training camps, and days served with the team through all post-season games in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete.

(C) Duty days for any person who joins a team during the period from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes, or is scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day that person joins the team. Conversely, duty days for any person who leaves a team during this period shall end on the day that person leaves the team. Where a person switches teams during a taxable year, a separate duty-day calculation shall be made for the period the person was with each team.

(D) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is not compensated and is not performing services for the team in any manner, including days when such member of a professional athletic team has been suspended without pay and prohibited from performing any services for the team, shall not be treated as duty days.

(E) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is on the disabled list and does not conduct rehabilitation activities at facilities of the team, and is not otherwise performing services for the team in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days spent in this State. All days on the disabled list, however, are considered to be included in total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(4) The term "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" means the total compensation received during the taxable year for services performed:

(A) from the beginning of the official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete during that taxable year; and

(B) during the taxable year on a date which does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).

This compensation shall include, but is not limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described in this subpart, and any other type of compensation paid during the taxable year to a member of a professional athletic team for services performed in that year. This compensation does not include strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay, contract or option year buy-out payments, expansion or relocation payments, or any other payments not related to services performed for the team.

For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses" included in "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" subject to the allocation described in Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the season, including bonuses paid for championship, playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for selection to all-star league or other honorary positions; and bonuses paid for signing a contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus is not conditional upon the signee playing any games for the team or performing any subsequent services for the team or even making the team, the signing bonus is payable separately from the salary and any other compensation, and the signing bonus is nonrefundable.

(3) Sales factor.

(A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total sales of the person in this State during the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this State if:

(i) The property is delivered or shipped to a purchaser, other than the United States government, within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or other conditions of the sale; or

(ii) The property is shipped from an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this State and either the purchaser is the United States government or the person is not taxable in the state of the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned or leased by a person who has independently contracted with the seller for the printing of newspapers, periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible personal property are not in this State if the seller and purchaser would be members of the same unitary business group but for the fact that either the seller or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total business activity outside of the United States and the property is purchased for resale.

(B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property.

(i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark, or similar item of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is utilized in this State during the year the gross receipts are included in gross income.

(ii) Place of utilization.

(I) A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser from sales or leases of items produced, fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that state using the patent and of patented items produced within that state, divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the patent is utilized.

(II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of materials printed or published in that state divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the copyright is utilized.

(III) Trademarks and other items of intangible personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1) are utilized in the state in which the commercial domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.

(iii) If the state of utilization of an item of property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be determined from the taxpayer's books and records or from the books and records of any person related to the taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor.

(B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales, or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50% of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross income during the tax year and during each of the 2 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such determination shall be made on the basis of the gross receipts of the entire unitary business group.

(B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii), receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the customer's service address is in this State.

(i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Ancillary services" means services that are associated with or incidental to the provision of "telecommunications services", including but not limited to "detailed telecommunications billing", "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice mail services".

"Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99, in which common carriers are authorized to offer and provide radio telecommunications service for hire to subscribers in aircraft.

"Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging for telecommunications services where the price is measured by individual calls.

"Communications Channel" means a physical or virtual path of communications over which signals are transmitted between or among customer channel termination points.

"Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary service" that links two or more participants of an audio or video conference call and may include the provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging service" does not include the "telecommunications services" used to reach the conference bridge.

"Customer Channel Termination Point" means the location where the customer either inputs or receives the communications.

"Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an "ancillary service" of separately stating information pertaining to individual calls on a customer's billing statement.

"Directory assistance" means an "ancillary service" of providing telephone number information, and/or address information.

"Home service provider" means the facilities based carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts for the provision of mobile telecommunications services.

"Mobile telecommunications service" means commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as in effect on June 1, 1999.

"Place of primary use" means the street address representative of where the customer's use of the telecommunications service primarily occurs, which must be the residential street address or the primary business street address of the customer. In the case of mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary use" must be within the licensed service area of the home service provider.

"Post-paid telecommunication service" means the telecommunications service obtained by making a payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by charge made to a telephone number which is not associated with the origination or termination of the telecommunications service. A post-paid calling service includes telecommunications service, except a prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a telecommunication service.

"Prepaid telecommunication service" means the right to access exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize mobile wireless service as well as other non-telecommunication services, including but not limited to ancillary services, which must be paid for in advance that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Private communication service" means a telecommunication service that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels between or among termination points, regardless of the manner in which such channel or channels are connected, and includes switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any other associated services that are provided in connection with the use of such channel or channels.

"Service address" means:

(a) The location of the telecommunications equipment to which a customer's call is charged and from which the call originates or terminates, regardless of where the call is billed or paid;

(b) If the location in line (a) is not known, service address means the origination point of the signal of the telecommunications services first identified by either the seller's telecommunications system or in information received by the seller from its service provider where the system used to transport such signals is not that of the seller; and

(c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b) are not known, the service address means the location of the customer's place of primary use.

"Telecommunications service" means the electronic transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, or any other information or signals to a point, or between or among points. The term "telecommunications service" includes such transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, code or protocol of the content for purposes of transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to whether such service is referred to as voice over Internet protocol services or is classified by the Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:

(a) Data processing and information services that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and delivered by an electronic transmission to a purchaser when such purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the processed data or information;

(b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a customer's premises;

(c) Tangible personal property;

(d) Advertising, including but not limited to directory advertising; .

(e) Billing and collection services provided to third parties;

(f) Internet access service;

(g) Radio and television audio and video programming services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of transmission, conveyance and routing of such services by the programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video programming services shall include but not be limited to cable service as defined in 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;

(h) "Ancillary services"; or

(i) Digital products "delivered electronically", including but not limited to software, music, video, reading materials or ring tones.

"Vertical service" means an "ancillary service" that is offered in connection with one or more "telecommunications services", which offers advanced calling features that allow customers to identify callers and to manage multiple calls and call connections, including "conference bridging services".

"Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service" that enables the customer to store, send or receive recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not include any "vertical services" that the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail service".

(ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in this State if either of the following applies:

(a) The call both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) The call either originates or terminates in this State and the service address is located in this State.

(iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the origination point of the telecommunication signal, as first identified by the service provider's telecommunication system or as identified by information received by the seller from its service provider if the system used to transport telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is located in this State.

(iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid telecommunications service or prepaid mobile telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar means of conveyance at a location in this State. Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service is in this State if the purchaser's billing information indicates a location in this State.

(v) Receipts from the sale of private communication services are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at each channel termination point in this State.

(b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total channel mileage between each channel termination point in this State.

(c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for service segments when those segments are between 2 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is located in this State and the other is located outside of this State, which segments are separately charged.

(d) The receipts from charges for service segments with a channel termination point located in this State and in two or more other states, and which segments are not separately billed, are in this State based on a percentage determined by dividing the number of customer channel termination points in this State by the total number of customer channel termination points.

(vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services for telecommunications service sold to customers at retail are in this State if the customer's primary place of use of telecommunications services associated with those ancillary services is in this State. If the seller of those ancillary services cannot determine where the associated telecommunications are located, then the ancillary services shall be based on the location of the purchaser.

(vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or from the sale of telecommunication services or ancillary services for resale are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of the receipts from access fees attributable to intrastate telecommunications service that both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) 50% of the receipts from access fees attributable to interstate telecommunications service if the interstate call either originates or terminates in this State.

(c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end user access line charges, if the customer's service address is in this State. As used in this subdivision, "interstate end user access line charges" includes, but is not limited to, the surcharge approved by the federal communications commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.

(d) Gross receipts from sales of telecommunication services or from ancillary services for telecommunications services sold to other telecommunication service providers for resale shall be sourced to this State using the apportionment concepts used for non-resale receipts of telecommunications services if the information is readily available to make that determination. If the information is not readily available, then the taxpayer may use any other reasonable and consistent method.

(B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are in this State if the broadcasting services are received in this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Advertising revenue" means consideration received by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or announcements in connection with the broadcasting of film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the programming, or from product placements in the programming.

"Audience factor" means the ratio that the audience or subscribers located in this State of a station, a network, or a cable system bears to the total audience or total subscribers for that station, network, or cable system. The audience factor for film or radio programming shall be determined by reference to the books and records of the taxpayer or by reference to published rating statistics provided the method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the taxpayer's activity in this State.

"Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting services" means the transmission or provision of film or radio programming, whether through the public airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite transmission, or by any other means of communication, either through a station, a network, or a cable system.

"Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast on television of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any other type of format or medium. Each episode of a series of films produced for television shall constitute separate "film" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

"Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast on radio of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any other format or medium. Each episode in a series of radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall constitute a separate "radio programming" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

(i) In the case of advertising revenue from broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and the service is received in this State if the commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this State.

(ii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration received from the recipient of the broadcast, the portion of the service that is received in this State is measured by the portion of the recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for such service that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total of those fees or other remuneration received from recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location of the recipients of its broadcast using the address of the recipient shown in its contracts with the recipient or using the billing address of the recipient in the taxpayer's records.

(iii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration from the person providing the programming, the portion of the broadcast service that is received by such station, network, or cable system in this State is measured by the portion of recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the amount of revenue related to such an arrangement that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or other total remuneration from the person providing the programming related to that broadcast multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for that broadcast.

(iv) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a network or station to a customer for broadcast in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that customer the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(v) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or station to another person for broadcasting in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that person, the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section 13.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013.

(C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:

(i) The income-producing activity is performed in this State; or

(ii) The income-producing activity is performed both within and without this State and a greater proportion of the income-producing activity is performed within this State than without this State, based on performance costs.

(C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of the following criteria are met:

(i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property are in this State if the property is located in this State.

(ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not less than zero) and other items of income from intangible personal property, the sale is in this State if:

(a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer in the item of intangible personal property within the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue Code, the income or gain is received from a customer in this State. For purposes of this subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a resident of this State and, for all other customers, if the customer's commercial domicile is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile of a customer during a taxable year, the customer shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if the billing address of the customer, as shown in the records of the dealer, is in this State; or

(b) in all other cases, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed in this State or, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed both within and without this State, if a greater proportion of the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed within this State than in any other state, based on performance costs.

(iv) Sales of services are in this State if the services are received in this State. For the purposes of this section, gross receipts from the performance of services provided to a corporation, partnership, or trust may only be attributed to a state where that corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of business. If the state where the services are received is not readily determinable or is a state where the corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the service does not have a fixed place of business, the services shall be deemed to be received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be determined, the services shall be deemed to be received at the office of the customer to which the services are billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in which the services are received, the sale must be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules prescribing where specific types of service are received, including, but not limited to, publishing, and utility service.

(D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995, the following items of income shall not be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor: dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in construing this Section for taxable years ending before December 31, 1995.

(E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1, 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business group, such election shall apply to all members of such group for every tax year such group is in existence, but shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which that taxpayer is not a member of such group.

(b) Insurance companies.

(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as may be prescribed in lieu thereof.

(2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums written by an insurance company consists of premiums for reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable, may, at the election of the company, be determined on the basis of the proportion which premiums written for reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State by each ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a company under this paragraph for its first taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years, and may be altered only with the written permission of the Department, which shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(c) Financial organizations.

(1) In general. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the business income of a financial organization from sources within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the adjusted income of an international banking facility as determined in paragraph (2):

(A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for financial services rendered within this State;

(B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or other securities managed within this State;

(C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois customers, which are received within this State;

(D) Interest charged to customers at places of business maintained within this State for carrying debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and

(E) Any other gross income resulting from the operation as a financial organization within this State. In computing the amounts referred to in paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any amount received by a member of an affiliated group (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such corporation is an "includible corporation" under Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from another member of such group shall be included only to the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the recipient directly related thereto.

(2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008:

(A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an international banking facility is its income reduced by the amount of the floor amount.

(B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of the international banking facility by a fraction, not greater than one, which is determined as follows:

(i) The numerator shall be:

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the financial organization's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, as reported for its branches, agencies and offices within the state on its "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A, Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980, minus

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of an international banking facility), as reported by the financial institution for its branches, agencies and offices within the state, on the corresponding Schedule and lines of the Consolidated Report of Condition for the current taxable year, provided, however, that in no case shall the amount determined in this clause (the subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the preceding clause (the minuend); and

(ii) the denominator shall be the average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the international banking facility's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, which were recorded in its financial accounts for the current taxable year.

(C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities is altered so that the information required for determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution shall notify the Department and the Department may, by regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the use of an alternative source for such information. The financial institution shall also notify the Department should its international banking facility fail to qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such amendment or change alters the information used in determining the floor amount.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year. "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3) means gross income, including net taxable gain on disposition of assets, including securities and money market instruments, when derived from transactions and activities in the regular course of the financial organization's trade or business. The following examples are illustrative:

(i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are from sources in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from assets in the nature of loans that are secured primarily by real estate or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the security is located in this State.

(iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the debtor is a resident of this State.

(iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans and installment obligations that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts are from sources in this State if the office of the borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the regular course of business is located in this State. If the location of this office cannot be determined, the income and receipts shall be excluded from the numerator and denominator of the sales factor.

(v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition, service charges, merchant discount income, and other receipts from credit card receivables are from sources in this State if the card charges are regularly billed to a customer in this State.

(vi) Receipts from the performance of services, including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory, and brokerage services, are in this State if the services are received in this State within the meaning of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.

(vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers checks and money orders are from sources in this State if the checks and money orders are issued from a location within this State.

(viii) Receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero) and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include but are not limited to: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in such subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all such income from such assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such funds and such securities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such funds and such securities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such trading assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(D) Properly assigned, for purposes of this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means the investment or trading asset or activity is assigned to the fixed place of business with which it has a preponderance of substantive contacts. An investment or trading asset or activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed place of business without the State shall be presumed to have been properly assigned if:

(i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the regular course of its business, such asset or activity on its records to a fixed place of business consistent with federal or state regulatory requirements;

(ii) such assignment on its records is based upon substantive contacts of the asset or activity to such fixed place of business; and

(iii) the taxpayer uses such records reflecting assignment of such assets or activities for the filing of all state and local tax returns for which an assignment of such assets or activities to a fixed place of business is required.

(E) The presumption of proper assignment of an investment or trading asset or activity provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection may be rebutted upon a showing by the Department, supported by a preponderance of the evidence, that the preponderance of substantive contacts regarding such asset or activity did not occur at the fixed place of business to which it was assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the fixed place of business that has a preponderance of substantive contacts cannot be determined for an investment or trading asset or activity to which the presumption in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection does not apply or with respect to which that presumption has been rebutted, that asset or activity is properly assigned to the state in which the taxpayer's commercial domicile is located. For purposes of this subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed, subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's commercial domicile is in the state of the United States or the District of Columbia to which the greatest number of employees are regularly connected with the management of the investment or trading income or out of which they are working, irrespective of where the services of such employees are performed, as of the last day of the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For purposes of this subsection, the business income within this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the following:

(1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is located in this State.

(2) Receipts attributable to all other matching, execution, or clearing transactions, including without limitation receipts from the provision of matching, execution, or clearing services to another entity, multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013, 27.54%.

(3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State" under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.

"Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B), or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange, determined without regard to the prohibition in Section 1501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of this Section; provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or more of the business receipts of the unitary business group determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.

In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1) for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied to the taxpayer.

(d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):

(1) Such business income (other than that derived from transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of transportation by railroad, and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(2) Such business income derived from transportation by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil, 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a consideration.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from providing transportation services other than airline services shall be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that both originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that originates in one state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the miles traveled in this State bears to total miles everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall first be determined separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Surface Transportation Board, in the case of transportation by railroad; and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline transportation services shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts from passenger and freight airline transportation.

(e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection (a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this State by one or more members of the group, the business income attributable to this State by any such member or members shall be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.

(f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the person's goods, services, or other sources of business income, the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of the person's business activity, if reasonable:

(1) Separate accounting;

(2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;

(3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which will fairly represent the person's business activities or market in this State; or

(4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's business income.

(g) Cross reference. For allocation of business income by residents, see Section 301(a).

(h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:

(1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of the sales factor;

(2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales factor;

(3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000, the sales factor.

If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll, property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is equal to zero.

(Source: P.A. 98-478, eff. 1-1-14; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 11-14-16.)

(35 ILCS 5/507GG)

Sec. 507GG. Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2005, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund, as authorized by Public Act 94-107, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-9-16.)

(35 ILCS 5/709.5)

Sec. 709.5. Withholding by partnerships, Subchapter S corporations, and trusts.

(a) In general. For each taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2008, every partnership (other than a publicly traded partnership under Section 7704 of the Internal Revenue Code or investment partnership), Subchapter S corporation, and trust must withhold from each nonresident partner, shareholder, or beneficiary (other than a partner, shareholder, or beneficiary who is exempt from tax under Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code or under Section 205 of this Act, who is included on a composite return filed by the partnership or Subchapter S corporation for the taxable year under subsection (f) of Section 502 of this Act), or who is a retired partner, to the extent that partner's distributions are exempt from tax under Section 203(a)(2)(F) of this Act) an amount equal to the sum of (i) the share of business income of the partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust apportionable to Illinois plus (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2014, the share of nonbusiness income of the partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust allocated to Illinois under Section 303 of this Act (other than an amount allocated to the commercial domicile of the taxpayer under Section 303 of this Act) that is distributable to that partner, shareholder, or beneficiary under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code, whether or not distributed, (iii) multiplied by the applicable rates of tax for that partner, shareholder, or beneficiary under subsections (a) through (d) of Section 201 of this Act, and (iv) net of the share of any credit under Article 2 of this Act that is distributable by the partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust and allowable against the tax liability of that partner, shareholder, or beneficiary for a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2014.

(b) Credit for taxes withheld. Any amount withheld under subsection (a) of this Section and paid to the Department shall be treated as a payment of the estimated tax liability or of the liability for withholding under this Section of the partner, shareholder, or beneficiary to whom the income is distributable for the taxable year in which that person incurred a liability under this Act with respect to that income. The Department shall adopt rules pursuant to which a partner, shareholder, or beneficiary may claim a credit against its obligation for withholding under this Section for amounts withheld under this Section with respect to income distributable to it by a partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust and allowing its partners, shareholders, or beneficiaries to claim a credit under this subsection (b) for those withheld amounts.

(c) Exemption from withholding.

(1) A partnership, Subchapter S corporation, or trust shall not be required to withhold tax under subsection (a) of this Section with respect to any nonresident partner, shareholder, or beneficiary (other than an individual) from whom the partnership, S corporation, or trust has received a certificate, completed in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, stating that such nonresident partner, shareholder, or beneficiary shall:

(A) file all returns that the partner, shareholder, or beneficiary is required to file under Section 502 of this Act and make timely payment of all taxes imposed under Section 201 of this Act or under this Section on the partner, shareholder, or beneficiary with respect to income of the partnership, S corporation, or trust; and

(B) be subject to personal jurisdiction in this State for purposes of the collection of income taxes, together with related interest and penalties, imposed on the partner, shareholder, or beneficiary with respect to the income of the partnership, S corporation, or trust.

(2) The Department may revoke the exemption provided by this subsection (c) at any time that it determines that the nonresident partner, shareholder, or beneficiary is not abiding by the terms of the certificate. The Department shall notify the partnership, S corporation, or trust that it has revoked a certificate by notice left at the usual place of business of the partnership, S corporation, or trust or by mail to the last known address of the partnership, S corporation, or trust.

(3) A partnership, S corporation, or trust that receives a certificate under this subsection (c) properly completed by a nonresident partner, shareholder, or beneficiary shall not be required to withhold any amount from that partner, shareholder, or beneficiary, the payment of which would be due under Section 711(a-5) of this Act after the receipt of the certificate and no earlier than 60 days after the Department has notified the partnership, S corporation, or trust that the certificate has been revoked.

(4) Certificates received by a the partnership, S corporation, or trust under this subsection (c) must be retained by the partnership, S corporation, or trust and a record of such certificates must be provided to the Department, in a format in which the record is available for review by the Department, upon request by the Department. The Department may, by rule, require the record of certificates to be maintained and provided to the Department electronically.

(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 98-478, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-16.)

Section 225. The Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-50 as follows:

(35 ILCS 143/10-50)

Sec. 10-50. Violations and penalties. When the amount due is under $300, any distributor who fails to file a return, willfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or files a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section Sections 10-20, 10-21, or 10-22 of this Act, fails to keep books and records as required under this Act, or willfully violates a rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person commits a separate offense on each day that he or she engages in business in violation of Section Sections 10-20, 10-21, or 10-22 of this Act.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit the payment to the Department when due, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Sections 10-20, 10-21 and 10-22 of this Act, fails to keep books and records as required under this Act, or willfully violates a rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act is guilty of a business offense and may be fined up to $5,000. A person commits a separate offense on each day that he or she engages in business in violation of Sections 10-20, 10-21 and 10-22 of this Act.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any distributor who files, or causes to be filed, a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who files or causes to be filed or signs or causes to be signed a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who fails to file a return, willfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make payment to the Department but fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is under $300, any retailer who fails to file a return, willfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or files a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the retail business of selling tobacco products to purchasers of tobacco products for use and consumption located in this State who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any retailer who fails to file a return, willfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or files a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the retail business of selling tobacco products to purchasers of tobacco products for use and consumption located in this State who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person whose principal place of business is in this State and who is charged with a violation under this Section shall be tried in the county where his or her principal place of business is located unless he or she asserts a right to be tried in another venue. If the taxpayer does not have his or her principal place of business in this State, however, the hearing must be held in Sangamon County unless the taxpayer asserts a right to be tried in another venue.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, is guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

A prosecution for a violation described in this Section may be commenced within 3 years after the commission of the act constituting the violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-12-16.)

Section 230. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 11-25, 12-35, 15-176, 21-380, and 31-45 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/11-25)

Sec. 11-25. Certification procedure. Application for a pollution control facility certificate shall be filed with the Pollution Control Board in a manner and form prescribed in regulations issued by that board. The application shall contain appropriate and available descriptive information concerning anything claimed to be entitled in whole or in part to tax treatment as a pollution control facility. If it is found that the claimed facility or relevant portion thereof is a pollution control facility as defined in Section 11-10, the Pollution Control Board, acting through its Chairman or his or her specifically authorized delegate, shall enter a finding and issue a certificate to that effect. The certificate shall require tax treatment as a pollution control facility, but only for the portion certified if only a portion is certified. The effective date of a certificate shall be the date of application for the certificate or the date of the construction of the facility, whichever which ever is later.

(Source: P.A. 76-2451; 88-455; revised 9-13-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/12-35)

Sec. 12-35. Notice sent to address of mortgage lender. Whenever a notice is to be mailed as provided in Section Sections 12-30, and the address that appears on the assessor's records is the address of a mortgage lender, or in any event whenever the notice is mailed by the township assessor or chief county assessment officer to a taxpayer at or in care of the address of a mortgage lender, the mortgage lender, within 15 days of the mortgage lender's receipt of the notice, shall mail a copy of the notice to each mortgagor of the property referred to in the notice at the last known address of each mortgagor as shown on the records of the mortgage lender.

(Source: P.A. 86-415; 86-1481; 87-1189; 88-455; revised 9-12-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-176)

Sec. 15-176. Alternative general homestead exemption.

(a) For the assessment years as determined under subsection (j), in any county that has elected, by an ordinance in accordance with subsection (k), to be subject to the provisions of this Section in lieu of the provisions of Section 15-175, homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption equal to a reduction in the property's equalized assessed value calculated as provided in this Section.

(b) As used in this Section:

(1) "Assessor" means the supervisor of assessments or the chief county assessment officer of each county.

(2) "Adjusted homestead value" means the lesser of the following values:

(A) The property's base homestead value increased by 7% for each tax year after the base year through and including the current tax year, or, if the property is sold or ownership is otherwise transferred, the property's base homestead value increased by 7% for each tax year after the year of the sale or transfer through and including the current tax year. The increase by 7% each year is an increase by 7% over the prior year.

(B) The property's equalized assessed value for the current tax year minus: (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003; (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax years 2004 and 2005; and (iii) the lesser of the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175 or an amount equal to the increase in the equalized assessed value for the current tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977 in tax year 2006 and thereafter.

(3) "Base homestead value".

(A) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(3)(A-5) or (b)(3)(B), "base homestead value" means the equalized assessed value of the property for the base year prior to exemptions, minus (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003, (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax years 2004 and 2005, or (iii) the lesser of the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175 or an amount equal to the increase in the equalized assessed value for the current tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977 in tax year 2006 and thereafter, provided that it was assessed for that year as residential property qualified for any of the homestead exemptions under Sections 15-170 through 15-175 of this Code, then in force, and further provided that the property's assessment was not based on a reduced assessed value resulting from a temporary irregularity in the property for that year. Except as provided in subdivision (b)(3)(B), if the property did not have a residential equalized assessed value for the base year, then "base homestead value" means the base homestead value established by the assessor under subsection (c).

(A-5) On or before September 1, 2007, in Cook County, the base homestead value, as set forth under subdivision (b)(3)(A) and except as provided under subdivision (b) (3) (B), must be recalculated as the equalized assessed value of the property for the base year, prior to exemptions, minus:

(1) if the general assessment year for the property was 2003, the lesser of (i) $4,500 or (ii) the amount equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the 2002 tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977;

(2) if the general assessment year for the property was 2004, the lesser of (i) $4,500 or (ii) the amount equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the 2003 tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977;

(3) if the general assessment year for the property was 2005, the lesser of (i) $5,000 or (ii) the amount equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the 2004 tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977.

(B) If the property is sold or ownership is otherwise transferred, other than sales or transfers between spouses or between a parent and a child, "base homestead value" means the equalized assessed value of the property at the time of the sale or transfer prior to exemptions, minus: (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003; (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax years 2004 and 2005; and (iii) the lesser of the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175 or an amount equal to the increase in the equalized assessed value for the current tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977 in tax year 2006 and thereafter, provided that it was assessed as residential property qualified for any of the homestead exemptions under Sections 15-170 through 15-175 of this Code, then in force, and further provided that the property's assessment was not based on a reduced assessed value resulting from a temporary irregularity in the property.

(3.5) "Base year" means (i) tax year 2002 in Cook County or (ii) tax year 2008 or 2009 in all other counties in accordance with the designation made by the county as provided in subsection (k).

(4) "Current tax year" means the tax year for which the exemption under this Section is being applied.

(5) "Equalized assessed value" means the property's assessed value as equalized by the Department.

(6) "Homestead" or "homestead property" means:

(A) Residential property that as of January 1 of the tax year is occupied by its owner or owners as his, her, or their principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, that is occupied as a residence by a person who has a legal or equitable interest therein evidenced by a written instrument, as an owner or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. Residential units in an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, or as a life care facility, which are occupied by persons who hold a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building or life care facility as owners or lessees, and who are liable by contract for the payment of property taxes, shall be included within this definition of homestead property.

(B) A homestead includes the dwelling place, appurtenant structures, and so much of the surrounding land constituting the parcel on which the dwelling place is situated as is used for residential purposes. If the assessor has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the homestead, then the homestead shall be limited to the property within that description.

(7) "Life care facility" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(c) If the property did not have a residential equalized assessed value for the base year as provided in subdivision (b)(3)(A) of this Section, then the assessor shall first determine an initial value for the property by comparison with assessed values for the base year of other properties having physical and economic characteristics similar to those of the subject property, so that the initial value is uniform in relation to assessed values of those other properties for the base year. The product of the initial value multiplied by the equalized factor for the base year for homestead properties in that county, less: (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year years 2003; (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax years year 2004 and 2005; and (iii) the lesser of the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175 or an amount equal to the increase in the equalized assessed value for the current tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977 in tax year 2006 and thereafter, is the base homestead value.

For any tax year for which the assessor determines or adjusts an initial value and hence a base homestead value under this subsection (c), the initial value shall be subject to review by the same procedures applicable to assessed values established under this Code for that tax year.

(d) The base homestead value shall remain constant, except that the assessor may revise it under the following circumstances:

(1) If the equalized assessed value of a homestead property for the current tax year is less than the previous base homestead value for that property, then the current equalized assessed value (provided it is not based on a reduced assessed value resulting from a temporary irregularity in the property) shall become the base homestead value in subsequent tax years.

(2) For any year in which new buildings, structures, or other improvements are constructed on the homestead property that would increase its assessed value, the assessor shall adjust the base homestead value as provided in subsection (c) of this Section with due regard to the value added by the new improvements.

(3) If the property is sold or ownership is otherwise transferred, the base homestead value of the property shall be adjusted as provided in subdivision (b)(3)(B). This item (3) does not apply to sales or transfers between spouses or between a parent and a child.

(4) the recalculation required in Cook County under subdivision (b)(3)(A-5).

(e) The amount of the exemption under this Section is the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current tax year, minus the adjusted homestead value, with the following exceptions:

(1) In Cook County, the exemption under this Section shall not exceed $20,000 for any taxable year through tax year:

(i) 2005, if the general assessment year for the property is 2003;

(ii) 2006, if the general assessment year for the property is 2004; or

(iii) 2007, if the general assessment year for the property is 2005.

(1.1) Thereafter, in Cook County, and in all other counties, the exemption is as follows:

(i) if the general assessment year for the property is 2006, then the exemption may not exceed: $33,000 for taxable year 2006; $26,000 for taxable year 2007; $20,000 for taxable years 2008 and 2009; $16,000 for taxable year 2010; and $12,000 for taxable year 2011;

(ii) if the general assessment year for the property is 2007, then the exemption may not exceed: $33,000 for taxable year 2007; $26,000 for taxable year 2008; $20,000 for taxable years 2009 and 2010; $16,000 for taxable year 2011; and $12,000 for taxable year 2012; and

(iii) if the general assessment year for the property is 2008, then the exemption may not exceed: $33,000 for taxable year 2008; $26,000 for taxable year 2009; $20,000 for taxable years 2010 and 2011; $16,000 for taxable year 2012; and $12,000 for taxable year 2013.

(1.5) In Cook County, for the 2006 taxable year only, the maximum amount of the exemption set forth under subsection (e)(1.1)(i) of this Section may be increased: (i) by $7,000 if the equalized assessed value of the property in that taxable year exceeds the equalized assessed value of that property in 2002 by 100% or more; or (ii) by $2,000 if the equalized assessed value of the property in that taxable year exceeds the equalized assessed value of that property in 2002 by more than 80% but less than 100%.

(2) In the case of homestead property that also qualifies for the exemption under Section 15-172, the property is entitled to the exemption under this Section, limited to the amount of (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003, (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax years 2004 and 2005, or (iii) the lesser of the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175 or an amount equal to the increase in the equalized assessed value for the current tax year above the equalized assessed value for 1977 in tax year 2006 and thereafter.

(f) In the case of an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, or as a life care facility, that contains residential units that qualify as homestead property under this Section, the maximum cumulative exemption amount attributed to the entire building or facility shall not exceed the sum of the exemptions calculated for each qualified residential unit. The cooperative association, management firm, or other person or entity that manages or controls the cooperative apartment building or life care facility shall credit the exemption attributable to each residential unit only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or other person responsible for payment of taxes as to that unit. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(g) When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided under this Section shall be claimed by only one such person and for only one residence.

(h) In the event of a sale or other transfer in ownership of the homestead property, the exemption under this Section shall remain in effect for the remainder of the tax year and be calculated using the same base homestead value in which the sale or transfer occurs, but (other than for sales or transfers between spouses or between a parent and a child) shall be calculated for any subsequent tax year using the new base homestead value as provided in subdivision (b)(3)(B). The assessor may require the new owner of the property to apply for the exemption in the following year.

(i) The assessor may determine whether property qualifies as a homestead under this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable methods. Each year, at the time the assessment books are certified to the county clerk by the board of review, the assessor shall furnish to the county clerk a list of the properties qualified for the homestead exemption under this Section. The list shall note the base homestead value of each property to be used in the calculation of the exemption for the current tax year.

(j) In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the provisions of this Section apply as follows:

(1) If the general assessment year for the property is 2003, this Section applies for assessment years 2003 through 2011. Thereafter, the provisions of Section 15-175 apply.

(2) If the general assessment year for the property is 2004, this Section applies for assessment years 2004 through 2012. Thereafter, the provisions of Section 15-175 apply.

(3) If the general assessment year for the property is 2005, this Section applies for assessment years 2005 through 2013. Thereafter, the provisions of Section 15-175 apply.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, this Section applies for assessment years (i) 2009, 2010, 2011, and 2012 if tax year 2008 is the designated base year or (ii) 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013 if tax year 2009 is the designated base year. Thereafter, the provisions of Section 15-175 apply.

(k) To be subject to the provisions of this Section in lieu of Section 15-175, a county must adopt an ordinance to subject itself to the provisions of this Section within 6 months after August 2, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1418) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. In a county other than Cook County, the ordinance must designate either tax year 2008 or tax year 2009 as the base year.

(l) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff 10-12-07; 96-1418, eff. 8-2-10; revised 9-13-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-380)

Sec. 21-380. Redemption under protest. Any person redeeming under this Section at a time subsequent to the filing of a petition under Section 22-30 or 21-445, who desires to preserve his or her right to defend against the petition for a tax deed, shall accompany the deposit for redemption with a writing substantially in the following form:

Redemption Under Protest

Tax Deed Case No. ...........................................

Vol. No. ....................................................

Property Index No.

or Legal Description. ...................................

Original Amount of Tax $. ...................................

Amount Deposited for Redemption $. ..........................

Name of Petitioner. .........................................

Tax Year Included in Judgment. ..............................

Date of Sale. ...............................................

Expiration Date of the Period of Redemption. ................

To the county clerk of ........ County:

This redemption is made under protest for the following reasons: (here set forth and specify the grounds relied upon for the objection)

Name of party redeeming. ....................................

Address. ....................................................

Any grounds for the objection not specified at the time of the redemption under protest shall not be considered by the court. The specified grounds for the objections shall be limited to those defenses as would provide sufficient basis to deny entry of an order for issuance of a tax deed. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize or revive any objection to the tax sale or underlying taxes which was estopped by entry of the order for sale as set forth in Section 22-75.

The person protesting shall present to the county clerk 3 copies of the written protest signed by himself or herself. The clerk shall write or stamp the date of receipt upon the copies and sign them. He or she shall retain one of the copies, another he or she shall deliver to the person making the redemption, who shall file the copy with the clerk of the court in which the tax deed petition is pending, and the third he or she shall forward to the petitioner named therein.

The county clerk shall enter the redemption as provided in Section 21-230 and shall note the redemption under protest. The redemption money so deposited shall not be distributed to the holder of the certificate of purchase but shall be retained by the county clerk pending disposition of the petition filed under Section 22-30.

Redemption under protest constitutes the appearance of the person protesting in the proceedings under Sections Section 22-30 through 22-55 and that person shall present a defense to the petition for tax deed at the time which the court directs. Failure to appear and defend shall constitute a waiver of the protest and the court shall order the redemption money distributed to the holder of the certificate of purchase upon surrender of that certificate and shall dismiss the proceedings.

When the party redeeming appears and presents a defense, the court shall hear and determine the matter. If the defense is not sustained, the court shall order the protest stricken and direct the county clerk to distribute the redemption money upon surrender of the certificate of purchase and shall order the party redeeming to pay the petitioner reasonable expenses, actually incurred, including the cost of withheld redemption money, together with a reasonable attorneys fee. Upon a finding sustaining the protest in whole or in part, the court may declare the sale to be a sale in error under Section 21-310 or Section 22-45, and shall direct the county clerk to return all or part of the redemption money or deposit to the party redeeming.

(Source: P.A. 86-286; 86-413; 86-418; 86-949; 86-1028; 86-1158; 86-1481; 87-145; 87-236; 87-435; 87-895; 87-1189; 88-455; revised 9-14-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/31-45)

Sec. 31-45. Exemptions. The following deeds or trust documents shall be exempt from the provisions of this Article except as provided in this Section:

(a) Deeds representing real estate transfers made before January 1, 1968, but recorded after that date and trust documents executed before January 1, 1986, but recorded after that date.

(b) Deeds to or trust documents relating to (1) property acquired by any governmental body or from any governmental body, (2) property or interests transferred between governmental bodies, or (3) property acquired by or from any corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes. However, deeds or trust documents, other than those in which the Administrator of Veterans Veterans' Affairs of the United States is the grantee pursuant to a foreclosure proceeding, shall not be exempt from filing the declaration.

(c) Deeds or trust documents that secure debt or other obligation.

(d) Deeds or trust documents that, without additional consideration, confirm, correct, modify, or supplement a deed or trust document previously recorded.

(e) Deeds or trust documents where the actual consideration is less than $100.

(f) Tax deeds.

(g) Deeds or trust documents that release property that is security for a debt or other obligation.

(h) Deeds of partition.

(i) Deeds or trust documents made pursuant to mergers, consolidations or transfers or sales of substantially all of the assets of corporations under plans of reorganization under the Federal Internal Revenue Code or Title 11 of the Federal Bankruptcy Act.

(j) Deeds or trust documents made by a subsidiary corporation to its parent corporation for no consideration other than the cancellation or surrender of the subsidiary's stock.

(k) Deeds when there is an actual exchange of real estate and trust documents when there is an actual exchange of beneficial interests, except that that money difference or money's worth paid from one to the other is not exempt from the tax. These deeds or trust documents, however, shall not be exempt from filing the declaration.

(l) Deeds issued to a holder of a mortgage, as defined in Section 15-103 of the Code of Civil Procedure, pursuant to a mortgage foreclosure proceeding or pursuant to a transfer in lieu of foreclosure.

(m) A deed or trust document related to the purchase of a principal residence by a participant in the program authorized by the Home Ownership Made Easy Act, except that those deeds and trust documents shall not be exempt from filing the declaration.

(Source: P.A. 91-555, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 235. The Local Tax Collection Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(35 ILCS 720/1) (from Ch. 120, par. 1901)

Sec. 1. (a) The Department of Revenue and any unit of local government may agree to the Department's collecting, and transmitting back to the unit of local government, any tax lawfully imposed by that unit of local government, the subject of which is similar to that of a tax imposed by the State and collected by the Department of Revenue, unless the General Assembly has specifically required a different method of collection for such tax. However, the Department may not enter into a contract with any unit of local government pursuant to this Act for the collection of any tax based on the sale or use of tangible personal property generally, not including taxes based only on the sale or use of specifically limited kinds of tangible personal property, unless the ordinance adopted by the unit of local government imposes a sales or use tax which is substantively identical to and which contains the same exemptions as the taxes imposed by the unit of local government's ordinances authorized by the Home Rule or Non-Home Rule Municipal or County Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Home Rule or Non-Home Rule Municipal or County Use Tax, or any other Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or Law that is administered by the Department of Revenue, as interpreted by the Department through its regulations as those Acts and as those regulations may from time to time be amended.

(b) Regarding the collection of a tax pursuant to this Section, the Department and any person subject to a tax collected by the Department pursuant to this Section shall, as much as practicable, have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, definitions of terms and procedures, as those set forth in the Act imposing the State tax, the subject of which is similar to the tax being collected by the Department pursuant to this Section. The Department and unit of local government shall specifically agree in writing to such rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, duties, conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, definitions of terms and procedures, as well as any other terms deemed necessary or advisable. All terms so agreed upon shall be incorporated into an ordinance of such unit of local government, and the Department shall not collect the tax pursuant to this Section until such ordinance takes effect.

(c) (1) The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named units of local government from which retailers or other taxpayers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month.

(i) The amount to be paid to each unit of local government shall equal the taxes and penalties collected by the Department for the unit of local government pursuant to this Section during the second preceding calendar month (not including credit memoranda), plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department of behalf of such county or municipality and (ii) any amount which the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which are payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality or county, less 2% of the balance, or any greater amount of the balance as provided in the agreement between the Department and the unit of local government required under this Section, which sum shall be retained by the State Treasurer.

(ii) With respect to the amount to be retained by the State Treasurer pursuant to subparagraph (i), the Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the units of local government, shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount so retained by the State Treasurer, which shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs incurred by the Department in collecting taxes and penalties.

(2) Within 10 days after receiving the certifications described in paragraph (1), the Comptroller shall issue orders for payment of the amounts specified in subparagraph (i) of paragraph (1).

(d) Any unit of local government which imposes a tax collected by the Department pursuant to this Section must file a certified copy of the ordinance imposing the tax with the Department within 10 days after its passage. Beginning on June 30, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-517) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax collected by the Department under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax imposition, discontinuance, or rate change as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax imposition, discontinuance, or rate change as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

(e) It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraph (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, that Public Act 85-1215 this amendatory Act of 1988 is a denial of the power of a home rule unit to fail to comply with the requirements of subsection paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-517, eff. 6-30-16; revised 10-31-16.)

Section 240. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 1-113, 1-113.4, 1-160, 4-106.1, 4-121, 8-107.2, 8-114, 9-121.6, 11-116, 11-125.5, 18-125, and 22A-111 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/1-113) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 1-113)

Sec. 1-113. Investment authority of certain pension funds, not including those established under Article 3 or 4. The investment authority of a board of trustees of a retirement system or pension fund established under this Code shall, if so provided in the Article establishing such retirement system or pension fund, embrace the following investments:

(1) Bonds, notes and other direct obligations of the United States Government; bonds, notes and other obligations of any United States Government agency or instrumentality, whether or not guaranteed; and obligations the principal and interest of which are guaranteed unconditionally by the United States Government or by an agency or instrumentality thereof.

(2) Obligations of the Inter-American Development Bank, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the African Development Bank, the International Finance Corporation, and the Asian Development Bank.

(3) Obligations of any state, or of any political subdivision in Illinois, or of any county or city in any other state having a population as shown by the last federal census of not less than 30,000 inhabitants provided that such political subdivision is not permitted by law to become indebted in excess of 10% of the assessed valuation of property therein and has not defaulted for a period longer than 30 days in the payment of interest and principal on any of its general obligations or indebtedness during a period of 10 calendar years immediately preceding such investment.

(4) Nonconvertible bonds, debentures, notes and other corporate obligations of any corporation created or existing under the laws of the United States or any state, district or territory thereof, provided there has been no default on the obligations of the corporation or its predecessor(s) during the 5 calendar years immediately preceding the purchase. Up to 5% of the assets of a pension fund established under Article 9 of this Code may be invested in nonconvertible bonds, debentures, notes, and other corporate obligations of corporations created or existing under the laws of a foreign country, provided there has been no default on the obligations of the corporation or its predecessors during the 5 calendar years immediately preceding the date of purchase.

(5) Obligations guaranteed by the Government of Canada, or by any Province of Canada, or by any Canadian city with a population of not less than 150,000 inhabitants, provided (a) they are payable in United States currency and are exempt from any Canadian withholding tax; (b) the investment in any one issue of bonds shall not exceed 10% of the amount outstanding; and (c) the total investments at book value in Canadian securities shall be limited to 5% of the total investment account of the board at book value.

(5.1) Direct obligations of the State of Israel for the payment of money, or obligations for the payment of money which are guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the State of Israel, or common or preferred stock or notes issued by a bank owned or controlled in whole or in part by the State of Israel, on the following conditions:

(a) The total investments in such obligations shall not exceed 5% of the book value of the aggregate investments owned by the board;

(b) The State of Israel shall not be in default in the payment of principal or interest on any of its direct general obligations on the date of such investment;

(c) The bonds, stock or notes, and interest thereon shall be payable in currency of the United States;

(d) The bonds shall (1) contain an option for the redemption thereof after 90 days from date of purchase or (2) either become due 5 years from the date of their purchase or be subject to redemption 120 days after the date of notice for redemption;

(e) The investment in these obligations has been approved in writing by investment counsel employed by the board, which counsel shall be a national or state bank or trust company authorized to do a trust business in the State of Illinois, or an investment advisor qualified under the federal Federal Investment Advisers Advisors Act of 1940 and registered under the Illinois Securities Law Act of 1953;

(f) The fund or system making the investment shall have at least $5,000,000 of net present assets.

(6) Notes secured by mortgages under Sections 203, 207, 220 and 221 of the National Housing Act which are insured by the Federal Housing Commissioner, or his successor assigns, or debentures issued by such Commissioner, which are guaranteed as to principal and interest by the Federal Housing Administration, or agency of the United States Government, provided the aggregate investment shall not exceed 20% of the total investment account of the board at book value, and provided further that the investment in such notes under Sections 220 and 221 shall in no event exceed one-half of the maximum investment in notes under this paragraph.

(7) Loans to veterans guaranteed in whole or part by the United States Government pursuant to Title III of the Act of Congress known as the "Servicemen's Readjustment Act of 1944," 58 Stat. 284, 38 U.S.C. 693, as amended or supplemented from time to time, provided such guaranteed loans are liens upon real estate.

(8) Common and preferred stocks and convertible debt securities authorized for investment of trust funds under the laws of the State of Illinois, provided:

(a) the common stocks, except as provided in subparagraph (g), are listed on a national securities exchange or board of trade, as defined in the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or quoted in the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System (NASDAQ);

(b) the securities are of a corporation created or existing under the laws of the United States or any state, district or territory thereof, except that up to 5% of the assets of a pension fund established under Article 9 of this Code may be invested in securities issued by corporations created or existing under the laws of a foreign country, if those securities are otherwise in conformance with this paragraph (8);

(c) the corporation is not in arrears on payment of dividends on its preferred stock;

(d) the total book value of all stocks and convertible debt owned by any pension fund or retirement system shall not exceed 40% of the aggregate book value of all investments of such pension fund or retirement system, except for a pension fund or retirement system governed by Article 9 or 17, where the total of all stocks and convertible debt shall not exceed 50% of the aggregate book value of all fund investments, and except for a pension fund or retirement system governed by Article 13, where the total market value of all stocks and convertible debt shall not exceed 65% of the aggregate market value of all fund investments;

(e) the book value of stock and convertible debt investments in any one corporation shall not exceed 5% of the total investment account at book value in which such securities are held, determined as of the date of the investment, and the investments in the stock of any one corporation shall not exceed 5% of the total outstanding stock of such corporation, and the investments in the convertible debt of any one corporation shall not exceed 5% of the total amount of such debt that may be outstanding;

(f) the straight preferred stocks or convertible preferred stocks and convertible debt securities are issued or guaranteed by a corporation whose common stock qualifies for investment by the board; and

(g) that any common stocks not listed or quoted as provided in subdivision (8)(a) 8(a) above be limited to the following types of institutions: (a) any bank which is a member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation having capital funds represented by capital stock, surplus and undivided profits of at least $20,000,000; (b) any life insurance company having capital funds represented by capital stock, special surplus funds and unassigned surplus totalling at least $50,000,000; and (c) any fire or casualty insurance company, or a combination thereof, having capital funds represented by capital stock, net surplus and voluntary reserves of at least $50,000,000.

(9) Withdrawable accounts of State chartered and federal chartered savings and loan associations insured by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation; deposits or certificates of deposit in State and national banks insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and share accounts or share certificate accounts in a State or federal credit union, the accounts of which are insured as required by the Illinois Credit Union Act or the Federal Credit Union Act, as applicable.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive investment funds as permitted by this subsection (9), unless it has complied with the requirements established pursuant to Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(10) Trading, purchase or sale of listed options on underlying securities owned by the board.

(11) Contracts and agreements supplemental thereto providing for investments in the general account of a life insurance company authorized to do business in Illinois.

(12) Conventional mortgage pass-through securities which are evidenced by interests in Illinois owner-occupied residential mortgages, having not less than an "A" rating from at least one national securities rating service. Such mortgages may have loan-to-value ratios up to 95%, provided that any amount over 80% is insured by private mortgage insurance. The pool of such mortgages shall be insured by mortgage guaranty or equivalent insurance, in accordance with industry standards.

(13) Pooled or commingled funds managed by a national or State bank which is authorized to do a trust business in the State of Illinois, shares of registered investment companies as defined in the federal Investment Company Act of 1940 which are registered under that Act, and separate accounts of a life insurance company authorized to do business in Illinois, where such pooled or commingled funds, shares, or separate accounts are comprised of common or preferred stocks, bonds, or money market instruments.

(14) Pooled or commingled funds managed by a national or state bank which is authorized to do a trust business in the State of Illinois, separate accounts managed by a life insurance company authorized to do business in Illinois, and commingled group trusts managed by an investment adviser registered under the federal Investment Advisers Advisors Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 et seq.) and under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, where such pooled or commingled funds, separate accounts or commingled group trusts are comprised of real estate or loans upon real estate secured by first or second mortgages. The total investment in such pooled or commingled funds, commingled group trusts and separate accounts shall not exceed 10% of the aggregate book value of all investments owned by the fund.

(15) Investment companies which (a) are registered as such under the Investment Company Act of 1940, (b) are diversified, open-end management investment companies and (c) invest only in money market instruments.

(16) Up to 10% of the assets of the fund may be invested in investments not included in paragraphs (1) through (15) of this Section, provided that such investments comply with the requirements and restrictions set forth in Sections 1-109, 1-109.1, 1-109.2, 1-110, and 1-111 of this Code.

The board shall have the authority to enter into such agreements and to execute such documents as it determines to be necessary to complete any investment transaction.

Any limitations herein set forth shall be applicable only at the time of purchase and shall not require the liquidation of any investment at any time.

All investments shall be clearly held and accounted for to indicate ownership by such board. Such board may direct the registration of securities in its own name or in the name of a nominee created for the express purpose of registration of securities by a national or state bank or trust company authorized to conduct a trust business in the State of Illinois.

Investments shall be carried at cost or at a value determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and accounting procedures approved by such board.

(Source: P.A. 92-53, eff. 7-12-01; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/1-113.4)

Sec. 1-113.4. List of additional permitted investments for pension funds with net assets of $5,000,000 or more.

(a) In addition to the items in Sections 1-113.2 and 1-113.3, a pension fund established under Article 3 or 4 that has net assets of at least $5,000,000 and has appointed an investment adviser under Section 1-113.5 may, through that investment adviser, invest a portion of its assets in common and preferred stocks authorized for investments of trust funds under the laws of the State of Illinois. The stocks must meet all of the following requirements:

(1) The common stocks are listed on a national securities exchange or board of trade (as defined in the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and set forth in subdivision G of Section 3 Section 3.G of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953) or quoted in the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System National Market System (NASDAQ NMS).

(2) The securities are of a corporation created or existing under the laws of the United States or any state, district, or territory thereof and the corporation has been in existence for at least 5 years.

(3) The corporation has not been in arrears on payment of dividends on its preferred stock during the preceding 5 years.

(4) The market value of stock in any one corporation does not exceed 5% of the cash and invested assets of the pension fund, and the investments in the stock of any one corporation do not exceed 5% of the total outstanding stock of that corporation.

(5) The straight preferred stocks or convertible preferred stocks are issued or guaranteed by a corporation whose common stock qualifies for investment by the board.

(6) The issuer of the stocks has been subject to the requirements of Section 12 of the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and has been current with the filing requirements of Sections 13 and 14 of that Act during the preceding 3 years.

(b) A pension fund's total investment in the items authorized under this Section and Section 1-113.3 shall not exceed 35% of the market value of the pension fund's net present assets stated in its most recent annual report on file with the Illinois Department of Insurance.

(c) A pension fund that invests funds under this Section shall electronically file with the Division any reports of its investment activities that the Division may require, at the times and in the format required by the Division.

(Source: P.A. 90-507, eff. 8-22-97; revised 10-25-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/1-160)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 98-641, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 1-160. Provisions applicable to new hires.

(a) The provisions of this Section apply to a person who, on or after January 1, 2011, first becomes a member or a participant under any reciprocal retirement system or pension fund established under this Code, other than a retirement system or pension fund established under Article 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 15 or 18 of this Code, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, but do not apply to any self-managed plan established under this Code, to any person with respect to service as a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, or to any participant of the retirement plan established under Section 22-101. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, for purposes of this Section, a person who participated in a retirement system under Article 15 prior to January 1, 2011 shall be deemed a person who first became a member or participant prior to January 1, 2011 under any retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-596 are a clarification of existing law and are intended to be retroactive to the effective date of Public Act 96-889, notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-103.1 of this Code.

(b) "Final average salary" means the average monthly (or annual) salary obtained by dividing the total salary or earnings calculated under the Article applicable to the member or participant during the 96 consecutive months (or 8 consecutive years) of service within the last 120 months (or 10 years) of service in which the total salary or earnings calculated under the applicable Article was the highest by the number of months (or years) of service in that period. For the purposes of a person who first becomes a member or participant of any retirement system or pension fund to which this Section applies on or after January 1, 2011, in this Code, "final average salary" shall be substituted for the following:

(1) In Article 7 (except for service as sheriff's law enforcement employees), "final rate of earnings".

(2) In Articles 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12, "highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal".

(3) In Article 13, "average final salary".

(4) In Article 14, "final average compensation".

(5) In Article 17, "average salary".

(6) In Section 22-207, "wages or salary received by him at the date of retirement or discharge".

(b-5) Beginning on January 1, 2011, for all purposes under this Code (including without limitation the calculation of benefits and employee contributions), the annual earnings, salary, or wages (based on the plan year) of a member or participant to whom this Section applies shall not exceed $106,800; however, that amount shall annually thereafter be increased by the lesser of (i) 3% of that amount, including all previous adjustments, or (ii) one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, including all previous adjustments.

For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the boards of the retirement systems and pension funds by November 1 of each year.

(c) A member or participant is entitled to a retirement annuity upon written application if he or she has attained age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 8, 11, or 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article.

A member or participant who has attained age 62 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 60 with respect to service under Article 8, 11, or 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article may elect to receive the lower retirement annuity provided in subsection (d) of this Section.

(d) The retirement annuity of a member or participant who is retiring after attaining age 62 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 60 with respect to service under Article 8, 11, or 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) with at least 10 years of service credit shall be reduced by one-half of 1% for each full month that the member's age is under age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 8, 11, or 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section).

(e) Any retirement annuity or supplemental annuity shall be subject to annual increases on the January 1 occurring either on or after the attainment of age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 8, 11, or 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) or the first anniversary (the second anniversary with respect to service under Article 8 or 11) of the annuity start date, whichever is later. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted retirement annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, with respect to service under Article 8 or 11 of this Code that is subject to this Section, no annual increase under this subsection shall be paid or accrue to any person in year 2025. In all other years, the Fund shall continue to pay annual increases as provided in this Section.

Notwithstanding Section 1-103.1 of this Code, the changes in this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are applicable without regard to whether the employee was in active service on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(f) The initial survivor's or widow's annuity of an otherwise eligible survivor or widow of a retired member or participant who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011 shall be in the amount of 66 2/3% of the retired member's or participant's retirement annuity at the date of death. In the case of the death of a member or participant who has not retired and who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011, eligibility for a survivor's or widow's annuity shall be determined by the applicable Article of this Code. The initial benefit shall be 66 2/3% of the earned annuity without a reduction due to age. A child's annuity of an otherwise eligible child shall be in the amount prescribed under each Article if applicable. Any survivor's or widow's annuity shall be increased (1) on each January 1 occurring on or after the commencement of the annuity if the deceased member died while receiving a retirement annuity or (2) in other cases, on each January 1 occurring after the first anniversary of the commencement of the annuity. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted survivor's annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

(g) The benefits in Section 14-110 apply only if the person is a State policeman, a fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department, or a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, as those terms are defined in subsection (b) of Section 14-110. A person who meets the requirements of this Section is entitled to an annuity calculated under the provisions of Section 14-110, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, only if the person has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 60, regardless of whether the attainment of age 60 occurs while the person is still in service.

(h) If a person who first becomes a member or a participant of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2011 is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and becomes a member or participant under any other system or fund created by this Code and is employed on a full-time basis, except for those members or participants exempted from the provisions of this Section under subsection (a) of this Section, then the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund shall be suspended during that employment. Upon termination of that employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and be recalculated if recalculation is provided for under the applicable Article of this Code.

If a person who first becomes a member of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2012 and is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and accepts on a contractual basis a position to provide services to a governmental entity from which he or she has retired, then that person's annuity or retirement pension earned as an active employee of the employer shall be suspended during that contractual service. A person receiving an annuity or retirement pension under this Code shall notify the pension fund or retirement system from which he or she is receiving an annuity or retirement pension, as well as his or her contractual employer, of his or her retirement status before accepting contractual employment. A person who fails to submit such notification shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and required to pay a fine of $1,000. Upon termination of that contractual employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and, if appropriate, be recalculated under the applicable provisions of this Code.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In the case of a conflict between the provisions of this Section and any other provision of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; 98-92, eff. 7-16-13; 98-596, eff. 11-19-13; 98-622, eff. 6-1-14; 98-641, eff. 6-9-14.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 98-641, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 1-160. Provisions applicable to new hires.

(a) The provisions of this Section apply to a person who, on or after January 1, 2011, first becomes a member or a participant under any reciprocal retirement system or pension fund established under this Code, other than a retirement system or pension fund established under Article 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 15 or 18 of this Code, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, but do not apply to any self-managed plan established under this Code, to any person with respect to service as a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, or to any participant of the retirement plan established under Section 22-101. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, for purposes of this Section, a person who participated in a retirement system under Article 15 prior to January 1, 2011 shall be deemed a person who first became a member or participant prior to January 1, 2011 under any retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-596 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are a clarification of existing law and are intended to be retroactive to January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889), notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-103.1 of this Code.

(b) "Final average salary" means the average monthly (or annual) salary obtained by dividing the total salary or earnings calculated under the Article applicable to the member or participant during the 96 consecutive months (or 8 consecutive years) of service within the last 120 months (or 10 years) of service in which the total salary or earnings calculated under the applicable Article was the highest by the number of months (or years) of service in that period. For the purposes of a person who first becomes a member or participant of any retirement system or pension fund to which this Section applies on or after January 1, 2011, in this Code, "final average salary" shall be substituted for the following:

(1) In Article 7 (except for service as sheriff's law enforcement employees), "final rate of earnings".

(2) In Articles 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12, "highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal".

(3) In Article 13, "average final salary".

(4) In Article 14, "final average compensation".

(5) In Article 17, "average salary".

(6) In Section 22-207, "wages or salary received by him at the date of retirement or discharge".

(b-5) Beginning on January 1, 2011, for all purposes under this Code (including without limitation the calculation of benefits and employee contributions), the annual earnings, salary, or wages (based on the plan year) of a member or participant to whom this Section applies shall not exceed $106,800; however, that amount shall annually thereafter be increased by the lesser of (i) 3% of that amount, including all previous adjustments, or (ii) one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, including all previous adjustments.

For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the boards of the retirement systems and pension funds by November 1 of each year.

(c) A member or participant is entitled to a retirement annuity upon written application if he or she has attained age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article.

A member or participant who has attained age 62 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 60 with respect to service under Article 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article may elect to receive the lower retirement annuity provided in subsection (d) of this Section.

(d) The retirement annuity of a member or participant who is retiring after attaining age 62 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 60 with respect to service under Article 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) with at least 10 years of service credit shall be reduced by one-half of 1% for each full month that the member's age is under age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section).

(e) Any retirement annuity or supplemental annuity shall be subject to annual increases on the January 1 occurring either on or after the attainment of age 67 (beginning January 1, 2015, age 65 with respect to service under Article 12 of this Code that is subject to this Section) or the first anniversary of the annuity start date, whichever is later. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted retirement annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

(f) The initial survivor's or widow's annuity of an otherwise eligible survivor or widow of a retired member or participant who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011 shall be in the amount of 66 2/3% of the retired member's or participant's retirement annuity at the date of death. In the case of the death of a member or participant who has not retired and who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011, eligibility for a survivor's or widow's annuity shall be determined by the applicable Article of this Code. The initial benefit shall be 66 2/3% of the earned annuity without a reduction due to age. A child's annuity of an otherwise eligible child shall be in the amount prescribed under each Article if applicable. Any survivor's or widow's annuity shall be increased (1) on each January 1 occurring on or after the commencement of the annuity if the deceased member died while receiving a retirement annuity or (2) in other cases, on each January 1 occurring after the first anniversary of the commencement of the annuity. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted survivor's annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

(g) The benefits in Section 14-110 apply only if the person is a State policeman, a fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department, or a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, as those terms are defined in subsection (b) of Section 14-110. A person who meets the requirements of this Section is entitled to an annuity calculated under the provisions of Section 14-110, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, only if the person has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 60, regardless of whether the attainment of age 60 occurs while the person is still in service.

(h) If a person who first becomes a member or a participant of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2011 is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and becomes a member or participant under any other system or fund created by this Code and is employed on a full-time basis, except for those members or participants exempted from the provisions of this Section under subsection (a) of this Section, then the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund shall be suspended during that employment. Upon termination of that employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and be recalculated if recalculation is provided for under the applicable Article of this Code.

If a person who first becomes a member of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2012 and is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and accepts on a contractual basis a position to provide services to a governmental entity from which he or she has retired, then that person's annuity or retirement pension earned as an active employee of the employer shall be suspended during that contractual service. A person receiving an annuity or retirement pension under this Code shall notify the pension fund or retirement system from which he or she is receiving an annuity or retirement pension, as well as his or her contractual employer, of his or her retirement status before accepting contractual employment. A person who fails to submit such notification shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and required to pay a fine of $1,000. Upon termination of that contractual employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and, if appropriate, be recalculated under the applicable provisions of this Code.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In the case of a conflict between the provisions of this Section and any other provision of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-609, eff. 1-1-12; 98-92, eff. 7-16-13; 98-596, eff. 11-19-13; 98-622, eff. 6-1-14; revised 3-24-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/4-106.1) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-106.1)

Sec. 4-106.1. Discontinuation of fire protection district; annexation to fire protection district; dissolution and reestablishment of inactive firefighters' pension funds.

(a) Whenever a fire protection district which has established a pension fund under this Article is discontinued under the Fire Protection District Act "An Act in Relation to Fire Protection Districts", and the municipality assuming the obligations of the district is required to and has established a Firefighters' Pension Fund under this Article, the assets of the fund established by the district shall be transferred to the "Board of Trustees of the Firefighters' Firefighters Pension Fund" of the municipality. The Firefighters' Firefighter's Pension Fund of the municipality shall assume all accrued liabilities of the district's pension fund, and all accrued rights, benefits and future expectancies of the members, retired employees and beneficiaries of the district's fund shall remain unimpaired.

(b) If a municipal fire department for which a pension fund has been established under this Article is discontinued and the affected territory is annexed by a fire protection district, and the fire protection district is required to and has established a firefighters' pension fund under this Article, then the assets of the firefighters' pension fund established by the municipality shall be transferred to the board of trustees of the pension fund of the fire protection district. The firefighters' pension fund of the fire protection district shall assume all liabilities of the municipality's firefighters' pension fund, and all of the accrued rights, benefits, and future expectancies of the members, retired employees, and beneficiaries of the municipality's firefighters' pension fund shall remain unimpaired.

(c) The corporate authorities of a municipality for which a pension fund has been established under this Article may, by resolution or ordinance, dissolve the fund if an independent auditor has certified to the authorities that the fund has no liabilities, participants, or beneficiaries entitled to benefits, and the authorities shall reestablish the fund if a firefighter of the municipality seeks to establish service credit in the fund or if reestablishment of the fund is required upon a former firefighter's reinstatement of creditable service under subsection (g) of Section 4-109.3 of this Code.

The Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance shall adopt rules regarding the process and procedures for (i) dissolving a pension fund under this Section and (ii) redistributing assets and reestablishing the fund if reestablishment of the fund is necessary.

(Source: P.A. 97-99, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/4-121) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-121)

Sec. 4-121. Board created. There is created in each municipality or fire protection district a board of trustees to be known as the "Board of Trustees of the Firefighters' Pension Fund". The membership of the board for each municipality shall be, respectively, as follows: in cities, the treasurer, clerk, marshal, or chief officer of the fire department, and the comptroller if there is one, or if not, the mayor; in each township, village or incorporated town, the president of the municipality's board of trustees, the village or town clerk, village or town attorney, village or town treasurer, and the chief officer of the fire department; and in each fire protection district, the president and other 2 members of its board of trustees and the marshal or chief of its fire department or service, as the case may be; and in all the municipalities above designated 3 additional persons chosen from their active firefighters and one other person who has retired under the "Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919", or this Article. Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each member of a board established on or before the 3rd Monday in April, 2006 shall terminate on the 3rd Monday in April, 2006, but all incumbent members shall continue to exercise all of the powers and be subject to all of the duties of a member of the board until all the new members of the board take office.

Beginning on the 3rd Monday in April, 2006, the board for each municipality or fire protection district shall consist of 5 members. Two members of the board shall be appointed by the mayor or president of the board of trustees of the municipality or fire protection district involved. Two members of the board shall be active participants of the pension fund who are elected from the active participants of the fund. One member of the board shall be a person who is retired under the Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919 or this Article who is elected from persons retired under the Firemen's Pension Fund Act of 1919 or this Article.

For the purposes of this Section, a firefighter receiving a disability pension shall be considered a retired firefighter. In the event that there are no retired firefighters under the Fund or if none is willing to serve on the board, then an additional active firefighter shall be elected to the board in lieu of the retired firefighter that would otherwise be elected.

If the regularly constituted fire department of a municipality is dissolved and Section 4-106.1 is not applicable, the board shall continue to exist and administer the Fund so long as there continues to be any annuitant or deferred pensioner in the Fund. In such cases, elections shall continue to be held as specified in this Section, except that: (1) deferred pensioners shall be deemed to be active members for the purposes of such elections; (2) any otherwise unfillable positions on the board, including ex officio positions, shall be filled by election from the remaining firefighters and deferred pensioners of the Fund, to the extent possible; and (3) if the membership of the board falls below 3 persons, the Illinois Director of Insurance or his designee shall be deemed a member of the board, ex officio.

The members chosen from the active and retired firefighters shall be elected by ballot at elections to be held on the 3rd Monday in April of the applicable years under the Australian ballot system, at such place or places, in the municipality, and under such regulations as shall be prescribed by the board.

No person shall cast more than one vote for each candidate for whom he or she is eligible to vote. In the elections for board members to be chosen from the active firefighters, all active firefighters and no others may vote. In the elections for board members to be chosen from retired firefighters, the retired firefighters and no others may vote.

Each member of the board so elected shall hold office for a term of 3 years and until his or her successor has been duly elected and qualified.

The board shall canvass the ballots and declare which persons have been elected and for what term or terms respectively. In case of a tie vote between 2 or more candidates, the board shall determine by lot which candidate or candidates have been elected and for what term or terms respectively. In the event of the failure, resignation, or inability to act of any board member, a successor shall be elected for the unexpired term at a special election called by the board and conducted in the same manner as a regular election.

The board shall elect annually from its members a president and secretary.

Board members shall not receive or have any right to receive any salary from a pension fund for services performed as board members.

(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; revised 9-20-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/8-107.2) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-107.2)

Sec. 8-107.2. House of Correction Employees' Pension Act. "House of Correction Employees' Pension Act": "An Act to provide for the setting apart, formation and disbursement of a house of correction employees pension fund in cities having a population exceeding 150,000 inhabitants", approved June 10, 1911, as amended, and as continued in, or superseded by the "Illinois Pension Code", approved March 18, 1963, under Article 19, Division 1, Sections Secs. 19-101 to 19-119, both inclusive, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 81-1509; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/8-114) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-114)

Sec. 8-114. Present employee. "Present employee":

(a) Any employee of an employer, or the board, on the day before the effective date.

(b) Any person who becomes an employee of the Board of Education on the day before the effective date and who on June 30, 1923, was a contributor to any municipal pension fund in operation in the city on that date under the Public School Employees' Pension Act of 1903. Any such employee shall be considered a municipal employee during the entire time he has been in the service of the employer.

(c) Any person who becomes an employee of the municipal court or law department or Board of Election Commissioners on the day before the effective date, and who on December 31, 1959, was a participant in either of the funds in operation in the city on December 31, 1959, created under the Court and Law Department Employees' Annuity Act or the Board of Election Commissioners Employees' Annuity Act. Any such employee shall be considered a municipal employee during the entire time he has been in the service of the municipal court or law department or Board of Election Commissioners.

(d) Any person who becomes an a employee of the Public Library on the day before the effective date, and who on December 31, 1965 was a contributor and participant in the fund created under the Public Library Employes' Pension Act, in operation in the city on December 31, 1965. Any such employee shall be considered a municipal employee during the entire time he has been in the service of the Public Library.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/9-121.6) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 9-121.6)

Sec. 9-121.6. Alternative annuity for county officers.

(a) Any county officer elected by vote of the people may elect to establish alternative credits for an alternative annuity by electing in writing to make additional optional contributions in accordance with this Section and procedures established by the board. Such elected county officer may discontinue making the additional optional contributions by notifying the Fund in writing in accordance with this Section and procedures established by the board.

Additional optional contributions for the alternative annuity shall be as follows:

(1) For service after the option is elected, an additional contribution of 3% of salary shall be contributed to the Fund on the same basis and under the same conditions as contributions required under Sections 9-170 and 9-176.

(2) For service before the option is elected, an additional contribution of 3% of the salary for the applicable period of service, plus interest at the effective rate from the date of service to the date of payment. All payments for past service must be paid in full before credit is given. No additional optional contributions may be made for any period of service for which credit has been previously forfeited by acceptance of a refund, unless the refund is repaid in full with interest at the effective rate from the date of refund to the date of repayment.

(b) In lieu of the retirement annuity otherwise payable under this Article, any county officer elected by vote of the people who (1) has elected to participate in the Fund and make additional optional contributions in accordance with this Section, and (2) has attained age 60 with at least 10 years of service credit, or has attained age 65 with at least 8 years of service credit, may elect to have his retirement annuity computed as follows: 3% of the participant's salary at the time of termination of service for each of the first 8 years of service credit, plus 4% of such salary for each of the next 4 years of service credit, plus 5% of such salary for each year of service credit in excess of 12 years, subject to a maximum of 80% of such salary. To the extent such elected county officer has made additional optional contributions with respect to only a portion of his years of service credit, his retirement annuity will first be determined in accordance with this Section to the extent such additional optional contributions were made, and then in accordance with the remaining Sections of this Article to the extent of years of service credit with respect to which additional optional contributions were not made.

(c) In lieu of the disability benefits otherwise payable under this Article, any county officer elected by vote of the people who (1) has elected to participate in the Fund, and (2) has become permanently disabled and as a consequence is unable to perform the duties of his office, and (3) was making optional contributions in accordance with this Section at the time the disability was incurred, may elect to receive a disability annuity calculated in accordance with the formula in subsection (b). For the purposes of this subsection, such elected county officer shall be considered permanently disabled only if: (i) disability occurs while in service as an elected county officer and is of such a nature as to prevent him from reasonably performing the duties of his office at the time; and (ii) the board has received a written certification by at least 2 licensed physicians appointed by it stating that such officer is disabled and that the disability is likely to be permanent.

(d) Refunds of additional optional contributions shall be made on the same basis and under the same conditions as provided under Sections Section 9-164, 9-166, and 9-167. Interest shall be credited at the effective rate on the same basis and under the same conditions as for other contributions. Optional contributions under this Section shall be included in the amount of employee contributions used to compute the tax levy under Section 9-169.

(e) The effective date of this plan of optional alternative benefits and contributions shall be January 1, 1988, or the date upon which approval is received from the U.S. Internal Revenue Service, whichever is later. The plan of optional alternative benefits and contributions shall not be available to any former county officer or employee receiving an annuity from the Fund on the effective date of the plan, unless he re-enters service as an elected county officer and renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date of re-entry.

(f) Any elected county officer who was entitled to receive a stipend from the State on or after July 1, 2009 and on or before June 30, 2010 may establish earnings credit for the amount of stipend not received, if the elected county official applies in writing to the fund within 6 months after July 2, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-961) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly and pays to the fund an amount equal to (i) employee contributions on the amount of stipend not received, (ii) employer contributions determined by the Board equal to the employer's normal cost of the benefit on the amount of stipend not received, plus (iii) interest on items (i) and (ii) at the actuarially assumed rate.

(g) The plan of optional alternative benefits and contributions authorized under this Section applies only to county officers elected by vote of the people on or before January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-654).

(Source: P.A. 95-369, eff. 8-23-07; 95-654, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-961, eff. 7-2-10; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-116) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-116)

Sec. 11-116. Salary. "Salary": Annual salary of an employee as follows:

(a) Beginning on the effective date and prior to July 1, 1947, $3,000 shall be the maximum amount of annual salary of any employee to be considered for the purposes of this Article; and beginning on July 1, 1947 and prior to July 1, 1953 said maximum amount shall be $4,800; and beginning on July 1, 1953 and prior to July 8, 1957, said maximum amount shall be $6,000; and beginning on July 8, 1957, if appropriated, fixed or arranged on an annual basis, the actual sum payable during the year if the employee worked the full normal working time in his position, at the rate of compensation, exclusive of overtime and final vacation, appropriated or fixed as salary or wages for service in the position;

(b) If appropriated, fixed or arranged on other than an annual basis, beginning July 8, 1957, the applicable schedules specified in Section 11-217 shall be used for conversion of the salary to an annual basis;

(c) Beginning July 1, 1951, if the city provides lodging for an employee without charge, his salary shall be considered to be $120 a year more than the amount payable as salary for the year. The salary of an employee for whom daily meals are provided by the city shall be considered to be $120 a year more for each such daily meal than the amount payable as his salary for the year; .

(d) Beginning September 1, 1981, the salary of a person who was or is an employee of a Board of Education on or after that date shall include the amount of employee contributions, if any, picked up by the employer for that employee under Section 11-170.1.

(Source: P.A. 85-964; revised 9-2-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-125.5) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-125.5)

Sec. 11-125.5. Transfer of creditable service to Article 8, 9, or 13 Fund.

(a) Any city officer as defined in Section 8-243.2 of this Code, any county officer elected by vote of the people (and until March 1, 1993 any other person in accordance with Section 9-121.11) who is a participant in the pension fund established under Article 9 of this Code, and any elected sanitary district commissioner who is a participant in a pension fund established under Article 13 of this Code, may apply for transfer of his credits and creditable service accumulated under this Fund to such Article 8, 9, or 13 fund. Such creditable service shall be transferred forthwith. Payments by this Fund to the Article 8, 9, or 13 fund shall be made at the same time and shall consist of:

(1) the amounts accumulated to the credit of the applicant, including interest, on the books of the Fund on the date of transfer, but excluding any additional or optional credits, which credits shall be refunded to the applicant; and

(2) municipality credits computed and credited under this Article, including interest, on the books of the Fund on the date the applicant terminated service under the Fund.

Participation in this Fund as to any credits transferred under this Section shall terminate on the date of transfer.

(b) Any such elected city officer, county officer, or sanitary district commissioner who has credits and creditable service under the Fund may establish additional credits and creditable service for periods during which he could have elected to participate participant but did not so elect. Credits and creditable service may be established by payment to the Fund of an amount equal to the contributions he would have made if he had elected to participate, plus interest to the date of payment.

(c) Any such elected city officer, county officer, or sanitary district commissioner may reinstate credits and creditable service terminated upon receipt of a separation benefit, by payment to the Fund of the amount of the separation benefit plus interest thereon to the date of payment.

(Source: P.A. 86-1488; 87-1265; revised 9-9-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/18-125) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 18-125)

Sec. 18-125. Retirement annuity amount.

(a) The annual retirement annuity for a participant who terminated service as a judge prior to July 1, 1971 shall be based on the law in effect at the time of termination of service.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), effective July 1, 1971, the retirement annuity for any participant in service on or after such date shall be 3 1/2% of final average salary, as defined in this Section, for each of the first 10 years of service, and 5% of such final average salary for each year of service in on excess of 10.

For purposes of this Section, final average salary for a participant who first serves as a judge before August 10, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-207) shall be:

(1) the average salary for the last 4 years of credited service as a judge for a participant who terminates service before July 1, 1975.

(2) for a participant who terminates service after June 30, 1975 and before July 1, 1982, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge.

(3) for any participant who terminates service after June 30, 1982 and before January 1, 1990, the average salary for the final year of service as a judge.

(4) for a participant who terminates service on or after January 1, 1990 but before July 14, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-136) this amendatory Act of 1995, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge.

(5) for a participant who terminates service on or after July 14, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-136) this amendatory Act of 1995, the salary on the last day of employment as a judge, or the highest salary received by the participant for employment as a judge in a position held by the participant for at least 4 consecutive years, whichever is greater.

However, in the case of a participant who elects to discontinue contributions as provided in subdivision (a)(2) of Section 18-133, the time of such election shall be considered the last day of employment in the determination of final average salary under this subsection.

For a participant who first serves as a judge on or after August 10, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-207) and before January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889), final average salary shall be the average monthly salary obtained by dividing the total salary of the participant during the period of: (1) the 48 consecutive months of service within the last 120 months of service in which the total compensation was the highest, or (2) the total period of service, if less than 48 months, by the number of months of service in that period.

The maximum retirement annuity for any participant shall be 85% of final average salary.

(b-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, for a participant who first serves as a judge on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889), the annual retirement annuity is 3% of the participant's final average salary for each year of service. The maximum retirement annuity payable shall be 60% of the participant's final average salary.

For a participant who first serves as a judge on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889), final average salary shall be the average monthly salary obtained by dividing the total salary of the judge during the 96 consecutive months of service within the last 120 months of service in which the total salary was the highest by the number of months of service in that period; however, beginning January 1, 2011, the annual salary may not exceed $106,800, except that that amount shall annually thereafter be increased by the lesser of (i) 3% of that amount, including all previous adjustments, or (ii) the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1. "Consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the Board by November 1st of each year.

(c) The retirement annuity for a participant who retires prior to age 60 with less than 28 years of service in the System shall be reduced 1/2 of 1% for each month that the participant's age is under 60 years at the time the annuity commences. However, for a participant who retires on or after December 10, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-653) this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, the percentage reduction in retirement annuity imposed under this subsection shall be reduced by 5/12 of 1% for every month of service in this System in excess of 20 years, and therefore a participant with at least 26 years of service in this System may retire at age 55 without any reduction in annuity.

The reduction in retirement annuity imposed by this subsection shall not apply in the case of retirement on account of disability.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, for a participant who first serves as a judge on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889) and who is retiring after attaining age 62, the retirement annuity shall be reduced by 1/2 of 1% for each month that the participant's age is under age 67 at the time the annuity commences.

(Source: P.A. 96-207, eff. 8-10-09; 96-889, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1490, eff. 1-1-11; revised 9-9-16.)

(40 ILCS 5/22A-111) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 22A-111)

Sec. 22A-111. The Board shall manage the investments of any pension fund, retirement system, or education fund for the purpose of obtaining a total return on investments for the long term. It also shall perform such other functions as may be assigned or directed by the General Assembly.

The authority of the board to manage pension fund investments and the liability shall begin when there has been a physical transfer of the pension fund investments to the board and placed in the custody of the board's custodian.

The authority of the board to manage monies from the education fund for investment and the liability of the board shall begin when there has been a physical transfer of education fund investments to the board and placed in the custody of the board's custodian.

The board may not delegate its management functions, but it may, but is not required to, arrange to compensate for personalized investment advisory service for any or all investments under its control with any national or state bank or trust company authorized to do a trust business and domiciled in Illinois, other financial institution organized under the laws of Illinois, or an investment advisor who is qualified under the Federal Investment Advisers Advisors Act of 1940 and is registered under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953. Nothing contained herein shall prevent the Board from subscribing to general investment research services available for purchase or use by others. The Board shall also have the authority to compensate for accounting services.

This Section shall not be construed to prohibit the Illinois State Board of Investment from directly investing pension assets in public market investments, private investments, real estate investments, or other investments authorized by this Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-708, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 245. The Public Building Commission Act is amended by changing Section 20.5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 20/20.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2018)

Sec. 20.5. Procedures for design-build selection.

(a) The Commission must use a two-phase procedure for the selection of the successful design-build entity. Phase I of the procedure will evaluate and shortlist the design-build entities based on qualifications, and Phase II will evaluate the technical and cost proposals.

(b) The Commission shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in Phase I. These factors are in addition to any prequalification requirements of design-build entities that the Commission has set forth. Each request for proposal shall establish the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the Commission. The Commission must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The Commission shall include the following criteria in every Phase I evaluation of design-build entities: (1) experience of personnel; (2) successful experience with similar project types; (3) financial capability; (4) timeliness of past performance; (5) experience with similarly sized projects; (6) successful reference checks of the firm; (7) commitment to assign personnel for the duration of the project and qualifications of the entity's consultants; and (8) ability or past performance in meeting or exhausting good faith efforts to meet the utilization goals for minority and women business enterprises established by the corporate authorities of the Commission and in complying with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The Commission may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review. The Commission may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review.

The Commission may not consider any design-build entity for evaluation or award if the entity has any pecuniary interest in the project or has other relationships or circumstances, including but not limited to, long-term leasehold, mutual performance, or development contracts with the Commission, that may give the design-build entity a financial or tangible advantage over other design-build entities in the preparation, evaluation, or performance of the design-build contract or that create the appearance of impropriety. No design-build proposal shall be considered that does not include an entity's plan to comply with the requirements established in the minority and women business enterprises and economically disadvantaged firms established by the corporate authorities of the Commission and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

Upon completion of the qualifications evaluation, the Commission shall create a shortlist of the most highly qualified design-build entities. The Commission, in its discretion, is not required to shortlist the maximum number of entities as identified for Phase II evaluation, provided however, no less than 2 design-build entities nor more than 6 are selected to submit Phase II proposals.

The Commission shall notify the entities selected for the shortlist in writing. This notification shall commence the period for the preparation of the Phase II technical and cost evaluations. The Commission must allow sufficient time for the shortlist entities to prepare their Phase II submittals considering the scope and detail requested by the Commission.

(c) The Commission shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in the technical and cost submission components of Phase II. Each request for proposal shall establish, for both the technical and cost submission components of Phase II, the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the Commission. The Commission must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The Commission shall include the following criteria in every Phase II technical evaluation of design-build entities: (1) compliance with objectives of the project; (2) compliance of proposed services to the request for proposal requirements; (3) quality of products or materials proposed; (4) quality of design parameters; (5) design concepts; (6) innovation in meeting the scope and performance criteria; and (7) constructability of the proposed project. The Commission may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection.

The Commission shall include the following criteria in every Phase II cost evaluation: the guaranteed maximum project cost and the time of completion. The Commission may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection. The guaranteed maximum project cost criteria weighing factor shall not exceed 30%.

The Commission shall directly employ or retain a licensed design professional to evaluate the technical and cost submissions to determine if the technical submissions are in accordance with generally accepted industry standards.

Upon completion of the technical submissions and cost submissions evaluation, the Commission may award the design-build contract to the highest overall ranked entity.

(d) This Section is repealed on June 1, 2018; provided that any design-build contracts entered into before such date or any procurement of a project under this Act commenced before such date, and the contracts resulting from those procurements, shall remain effective.

(Source: P.A. 98-299, eff. 8-9-13; reenacted by P.A. 98-619, eff. 1-7-14; revised 9-20-16.)

Section 250. The Public Officer Prohibited Activities Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(50 ILCS 105/3) (from Ch. 102, par. 3)

Sec. 3. Prohibited interest in contracts.

(a) No person holding any office, either by election or appointment under the laws or Constitution of this State, may be in any manner financially interested directly in his own name or indirectly in the name of any other person, association, trust, or corporation, in any contract or the performance of any work in the making or letting of which such officer may be called upon to act or vote. No such officer may represent, either as agent or otherwise, any person, association, trust, or corporation, with respect to any application or bid for any contract or work in regard to which such officer may be called upon to vote. Nor may any such officer take or receive, or offer to take or receive, either directly or indirectly, any money or other thing of value as a gift or bribe or means of influencing his vote or action in his official character. Any contract made and procured in violation hereof is void. This Section shall not apply to any person serving on an advisory panel or commission, to any director serving on a hospital district board as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 13 of the Hospital District Law, or to any person serving as both a contractual employee and as a member of a public hospital board as provided under Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code in a municipality with a population between 13,000 and 16,000 that is located in a county with a population between 50,000 and 70,000.

(b) However, any elected or appointed member of the governing body may provide materials, merchandise, property, services, or labor, subject to the following provisions under either paragraph (1) or (2):

(1) If:

A. the contract is with a person, firm, partnership, association, corporation, or cooperative association in which such interested member of the governing body of the municipality has less than a 7 1/2% share in the ownership; and

B. such interested member publicly discloses the nature and extent of his interest prior to or during deliberations concerning the proposed award of the contract; and

C. such interested member abstains from voting on the award of the contract, though he shall be considered present for the purposes of establishing a quorum; and

D. such contract is approved by a majority vote of those members presently holding office; and

E. the contract is awarded after sealed bids to the lowest responsible bidder if the amount of the contract exceeds $1500, or awarded without bidding if the amount of the contract is less than $1500; and

F. the award of the contract would not cause the aggregate amount of all such contracts so awarded to the same person, firm, association, partnership, corporation, or cooperative association in the same fiscal year to exceed $25,000.

(2) If:

A. the award of the contract is approved by a majority vote of the governing body of the municipality provided that any such interested member shall abstain from voting; and

B. the amount of the contract does not exceed $2,000; and

C. the award of the contract would not cause the aggregate amount of all such contracts so awarded to the same person, firm, association, partnership, corporation, or cooperative association in the same fiscal year to exceed $4,000; and

D. such interested member publicly discloses the nature and extent of his interest prior to or during deliberations concerning the proposed award of the contract; and

E. such interested member abstains from voting on the award of the contract, though he shall be considered present for the purposes of establishing a quorum.

(b-5) In addition to the above exemptions, any elected or appointed member of the governing body may provide materials, merchandise, property, services, or labor if:

A. the contract is with a person, firm, partnership, association, corporation, or cooperative association in which the interested member of the governing body of the municipality, advisory panel, or commission has less than a 1% share in the ownership; and

B. the award of the contract is approved by a majority vote of the governing body of the municipality provided that any such interested member shall abstain from voting; and

C. such interested member publicly discloses the nature and extent of his interest before or during deliberations concerning the proposed award of the contract; and

D. such interested member abstains from voting on the award of the contract, though he shall be considered present for the purposes of establishing a quorum.

(c) A contract for the procurement of public utility services by a public entity with a public utility company is not barred by this Section by one or more members of the governing body of the public entity being an officer or employee of the public utility company or holding an ownership interest of no more than 7 1/2% in the public utility company, or holding an ownership interest of any size if the public entity is a municipality with a population of less than 7,500 and the public utility's rates are approved by the Illinois Commerce Commission. An elected or appointed member of the governing body of the public entity having such an interest shall be deemed not to have a prohibited interest under this Section.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section or any other law to the contrary, until January 1, 1994, a member of the city council of a municipality with a population under 20,000 may purchase real estate from the municipality, at a price of not less than 100% of the value of the real estate as determined by a written MAI certified appraisal or by a written certified appraisal of a State certified or licensed real estate appraiser, if the purchase is approved by a unanimous vote of the city council members then holding office (except for the member desiring to purchase the real estate, who shall not vote on the question).

(e) For the purposes of this Section only, a municipal officer shall not be deemed interested if the officer is an employee of a company or owns or holds an interest of 1% or less in the municipal officer's individual name in a company, or both, that company is involved in the transaction of business with the municipality, and that company's stock is traded on a nationally recognized securities market, provided the interested member: (i) publicly discloses the fact that he or she is an employee or holds an interest of 1% or less in a company before deliberation of the proposed award of the contract; (ii) refrains from evaluating, recommending, approving, deliberating, or otherwise participating in negotiation, approval, or both, of the contract, work, or business; (iii) abstains from voting on the award of the contract though he or she shall be considered present for purposes of establishing a quorum; and (iv) the contract is approved by a majority vote of those members currently holding office.

A municipal officer shall not be deemed interested if the officer owns or holds an interest of 1% or less, not in the officer's individual name but through a mutual fund or exchange-traded fund, in a company, that company is involved in the transaction of business with the municipality, and that company's stock is traded on a nationally recognized securities market.

(f) Under either of the following circumstances, a municipal or county officer may hold a position on the board of a not-for-profit corporation that is interested in a contract, work, or business of the municipality or county:

(1) If the municipal or county officer is appointed by the governing body of the municipality or county to represent the interests of the municipality or county on a not-for-profit corporation's board, then the municipal or county officer may actively vote on matters involving either that board or the municipality or county, at any time, so long as the membership on the not-for-profit board is not a paid position, except that the municipal or county officer may be reimbursed by the not-for-profit non-for-profit board for expenses incurred as the result of membership on the not-for-profit non-for-profit board.

(2) If the municipal or county officer is not appointed to the governing body of a not-for-profit corporation by the governing body of the municipality or county, then the municipal or county officer may continue to serve; however, the municipal or county officer shall abstain from voting on any proposition before the municipal or county governing body directly involving the not-for-profit corporation and, for those matters, shall not be counted as present for the purposes of a quorum of the municipal or county governing body.

(Source: P.A. 97-520, eff. 8-23-11; 98-1083, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-22-16.)

Section 255. The Local Government Travel Expense Control Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 150/10)

Sec. 10. Regulation of travel expenses. All local public agencies shall, by resolution or ordinance, regulate the reimbursement of all travel, meal, and lodging expenses of officers and employees, including, but not limited to: (1) the types of official business for which travel, meal, and lodging expenses are allowed; (2) maximum allowable reimbursement for travel, meal, and lodging expenses; and (3) a standardized form for submission of travel, meal, and lodging expenses supported by the minimum documentation required under Section 20 of this Act. The regulations may allow for approval of expenses that exceed the maximum allowable travel, meal, or lodging expenses because of emergency or other extraordinary circumstances. On and after 180 days after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of this Act) of the 99th General Assembly, no travel, meal, or lodging expense shall be approved or paid by a local public agency unless regulations have been adopted under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-604, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-31-16.)

(50 ILCS 150/15)

Sec. 15. Approval of expenses. On or after 60 days after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of this Act) of the 99th General Assembly, expenses for travel, meals, and lodging of: (1) any officer or employee that exceeds the maximum allowed under the regulations adopted under Section 10 of this Act; or (2) any member of the governing board or corporate authorities of the local public agency, may only be approved by roll call vote at an open meeting of the governing board or corporate authorities of the local public agency.

(Source: P.A. 99-604, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-31-16.)

Section 260. The Local Records Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(50 ILCS 205/6) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.106)

Sec. 6. For those agencies comprising counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or located in or coterminous co-terminous with any such county or a majority of whose inhabitants reside in any such county, this Act shall be administered by a Local Records Commission consisting of the president of the county board of the county wherein the records are kept, the mayor of the most populous city in such county, the State's attorney of such county, the County comptroller, the State archivist, and the State historian. The president of the county board shall be the chairman of the Commission.

For all other agencies, this Act shall be administered by a Local Records Commission consisting of a chairman of a county board, who shall be chairman of the Commission, a mayor or president of a city, village or incorporated town, a county auditor, and a State's attorney, all of whom shall be appointed by the Governor, the State archivist, and the State historian.

A member of either Commission may designate a substitute.

Either Commission may employ such technical, professional and clerical assistants as are necessary.

Either Commission shall meet upon call of its chairman.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3503; revised 9-20-16.)

Section 265. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10.19 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/10.19)

Sec. 10.19. Training; administration of epinephrine.

(a) This Section, along with Section 40 of the State Police Act, may be referred to as the Annie LeGere Law.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body prescribed in the name of a local governmental agency.

(c) The Board shall conduct or approve an optional advanced training program for police officers to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving an allergic reaction;

(3) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector;

(4) how to respond to an individual with a known allergy as well as an individual with a previously unknown allergy;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted by the Board.

(d) A local governmental agency may authorize a police officer who has completed an optional advanced training program under subsection (c) to carry, administer, or assist with the administration of epinephrine auto-injectors provided by the local governmental agency whenever he or she is performing official duties.

(e) A local governmental agency that authorizes its officers to carry and administer epinephrine auto-injectors under subsection (d) must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, administration, and disposal of epinephrine auto-injectors and to provide continued training in the administration of epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f) A physician, physician's assistant with prescriptive authority, or advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority may provide a standing protocol or prescription for epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of a local governmental agency to be maintained for use when necessary.

(g) When a police officer administers an epinephrine auto-injector in good faith, the police officer and local governmental agency, and its employees and agents, incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury or death arising from the use of an epinephrine auto-injector.

(Source: P.A. 99-711, eff. 1-1-17.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.20)

Sec. 10.20 10.19. Disposal of medications. The Board shall develop rules and minimum standards for local governmental agencies that authorize police officers to dispose of unused medications under Section 18 of the Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-648, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-21-16.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.21)

Sec. 10.21 10.19. Training; sexual assault and sexual abuse.

(a) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall conduct or approve training programs in trauma-informed responses and investigations of sexual assault and sexual abuse, which include, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) recognizing the symptoms of trauma;

(2) understanding the role trauma has played in a victim's life;

(3) responding to the needs and concerns of a victim;

(4) delivering services in a compassionate, sensitive, and nonjudgmental manner;

(5) interviewing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in subsection (f) of this Section;

(6) understanding cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse; and

(7) report writing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in subsection (f) of this Section.

(b) This training must be presented in all full and part-time basic law enforcement academies on or before July 1, 2018.

(c) Agencies employing law enforcement officers must present this training to all law enforcement officers within 3 years after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-801) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly and must present in-service training on sexual assault and sexual abuse response and report writing training requirements every 3 years.

(d) Agencies employing law enforcement officers who conduct sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations must provide specialized training to these officers on sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations within 2 years after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-801) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly and must present in-service training on sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations to these officers every 3 years.

(e) Instructors providing this training shall have successfully completed training on evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered response to cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse and have experience responding to sexual assault and sexual abuse cases.

(f) The Board shall adopt rules, in consultation with the Office of the Illinois Attorney General and the Department of State Police, to determine the specific training requirements for these courses, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) evidence-based curriculum standards for report writing and immediate response to sexual assault and sexual abuse, including trauma-informed, victim-centered interview techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for probationary police officers and all law enforcement officers; and

(2) evidence-based curriculum standards for trauma-informed, victim-centered investigation and interviewing techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse for law enforcement officers who conduct sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-21-16.)

Section 270. The Regional Fire Protection Agency Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(50 ILCS 741/25)

Sec. 25. Creation of an Agency by petition and referendum.

(a) Petition. A Regional Fire Protection Agency may exclusively be formed upon petition signed by the lesser of: (i) at least 8% of the total votes cast for candidates for Governor in the preceding gubernatorial election in each of the units of local government governments included in the Regional Fire Protection Agency; or (ii) at least 500 legal voters in each of the units of local government to be included in the Regional Fire Protection Agency. The petition shall be filed in the circuit court of the county in which the greater part of the land of the proposed Regional Fire Protection Agency shall be situated. The petition shall set forth the names of the units of local government proposed to be included, the name of the proposed Regional Fire Protection Agency, the benefits of consolidating the units of local government within a Regional Fire Protection Agency, the names of the representatives of the petitioners from each unit of local government who shall be authorized to serve on the Joint Committee, and up to 3 alternate representatives from each unit of local government in the event a designated representative ceases to be an elector of their jurisdiction or resigns from the Joint Committee. Upon its filing, the petition shall be presented to the court, and the court shall fix the date and hour for a hearing.

(b) Notice of Hearing. Upon the filing of the petition, the court shall set a hearing date that is at least 4 weeks, but not more than 8 weeks, after the date the petition is filed. The court, clerk, petitioner's counsel, or sheriff shall, upon order of the court, give notice 21 days before the hearing in one or more daily or weekly newspapers of general circulation in each county where an affected unit of local government is organized. The notice must describe the units of local government to be included and shall state that if the conditions required by this Section are met, then the proposition for the creation of the Agency shall be submitted to the voters of the units of local government in the proposed Agency by order of the court.

(c) Hearing and referendum. At the hearing, the court shall first determine whether the petition is supported by the required number of valid signatures of legal voters within the contiguous units of local government. If the petition is proper, then the court shall remand the matter to a Special Mediator who shall mediate the negotiations regarding the terms of an intergovernmental agreement by the members of the Joint Committee as provided in subsection (d) of this Section. The Special Mediator shall be a member of the bar of the State of Illinois or a member of the faculty of an accredited law school. The Special Mediator shall have practiced law for at least 7 years and be knowledgeable about municipal, labor, employment, and election law. The Special Mediator shall be free of any conflicts of interest. The Special Mediator shall have strong mediation skills and the temperament and training to listen well, facilitate communication, and assist with negotiations. Special Mediators shall have sufficient experience and familiarity with municipal, labor, employment, and election law to provide a credible evaluation and assessment of relative positions. The Special Mediator assigned to mediate the Joint Committee's negotiations shall be selected by the members of the Joint Committee from a panel of 7 individuals provided by the Joint Labor Management Committee, as it is defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act. The panel shall be randomly selected by the Joint Labor Management Committee from a master list maintained by the Joint Labor Management Committee consisting of at least 14 qualified Special Mediators. If the members fail to agree, the court shall appoint the Special Mediator. The Joint Committee may elect to conduct negotiations without the assistance of the Special Mediator upon a majority vote of the Joint Committee. To certify a question for referendum, the court must find that: (i) based upon a preponderance of the evidence, at least 2 of the 3 Joint Committee representatives appointed by the court for each unit of local government included in the proposed Agency have executed an intergovernmental agreement that includes terms that are in compliance with the requirements under subsection (d) of this Section; (ii) the terms of an agreed-upon intergovernmental agreement have been approved by the requisite governing bodies of each of the units of local government; and (iii) should the terms of an agreed-upon intergovernmental agreement change the terms of the collective bargaining agreement for a bargaining unit of employees of any local unit of government of the proposed Regional Fire Protection Agency, any affected collective bargaining units must also approve all such changes in the terms of the collective bargaining agreement.

(d) Joint Committee. The court shall allow appointments to the Joint Committee as follows:

(1) A representative of each unit of local government included within the proposed service area of the proposed Agency.

(2) A representative of each collective bargaining unit that is a party to a collective bargaining agreement with a unit of local government to provide fire suppression or emergency medical services, or both, included within the proposed Agency.

(3) A representative for the petitioners from each unit of local government included within the proposed Agency, as designated by the petition, or, if none are designated or willing to serve, then chosen by the court from among the legal voters that signed the petition.

(e) Joint Committee Negotiations. After remand, the Special Mediator shall schedule a meeting of the Joint Committee and facilitate the members in negotiating the terms of an intergovernmental agreement. The first order of business shall be to establish a financial baseline for the current costs of fire and emergency medical services provided by the units of local government party to the Joint Committee. To this end, each unit of local government party to the Joint Committee shall disclose to the Joint Committee the total aggregate expenditures it allocates for providing all fire, rescue, and emergency medical services. These expenditures shall include, but are not limited to, the following cost factors: (i) all expenses from the corporate fund and other operational funds related to fire protection services, whether direct or indirect, for the current fiscal year; and (ii) all costs, whether direct or indirect, paid from other funds, including, but not limited to, capital or building funds, pension funds, workers' compensation funds, health insurance funds, enterprise funds, administrative funds, and all other funds from which money is, or may be, paid or transferred to pay for the administration and compensation or benefits for employees or persons assigned to provide fire or emergency medical services or related services, equipment, and buildings and their maintenance or operation and debt service for any expenditures related to these or related cost factors.

The Special Mediator or the court, or both if necessary, shall facilitate the computation and production of this financial baseline unless the Joint Committee elects to conduct negotiations without the assistance of the Special Mediator. The financial baseline shall serve as the predicate to: (i) the annual contributions to be made by each unit of local government to the costs of providing fire and emergency medical services to the service area established for the proposed Regional Fire Protection Agency; and (ii) for the court's findings pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section.

The Joint Committee may take note or give due consideration to available resources, studies, and plans that may facilitate the resolution of issues relating to the terms of an agreement. Negotiations may continue for a period of 90 days or, if the court determines that additional time will facilitate agreement, longer.

If no agreement is reached, the court shall dismiss the petition. If an agreement is reached, the court shall schedule an evidentiary hearing with notice to determine if the terms of the agreement are in compliance with the requirements of subsection (f) of this Section. The expenses of the Special Mediator shall be apportioned equally among the included units of local government unless the parties agree otherwise in the intergovernmental agreement.

If the intergovernmental agreement has been approved by the governing bodies of at least 2 units of local government included in the original petition, then the petition may proceed, provided that the agreement is also executed by at least 2 of 3 Joint Committee representatives from each affected unit of local government included in the original petition. The units of local government that did not consent to inclusion shall be dismissed, and an amended petition on behalf of the consenting units of local government shall be scheduled for an evidentiary hearing.

The persons or entities, or their duly authorized representatives, that shall have standing to present evidence at the hearing are the petitioners, the units of local government that sought to be included in the proposed Agency, and the representatives of each collective bargaining unit that is a party to a collective bargaining agreement with a fire protection jurisdiction within a unit of local government included within the proposed Agency.

If the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the petition is supported by a proper intergovernmental agreement, the court shall enter an order certifying the proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit the question of the creation of the proposed Agency to the legal voters of each included unit of local government at the next election. Notice of the election shall be given and the election conducted in the manner provided by the general election law. The notice shall state the boundaries of the proposed Agency.

The question shall be submitted in substantially the following form:

Shall the service areas of (names of existing units of local government to be combined) be combined to create the (name of the Regional Fire Protection Agency)?

Responses shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

A written statement of the election results shall be filed with the court. If, in each unit of local government included within the boundaries of the Regional Fire Protection Agency, a majority of the voters voting on the question favor the proposition, then the court shall issue an order stating that the Agency has been approved.

(f) Intergovernmental agreement; minimum standards of service. The terms of the intergovernmental agreement shall ensure that all of the following standards of service are met:

(1) The formation of the Agency shall result in no net increase in the cost of fire protection services and emergency medical services to the units of local government in the proposed Agency due to the reduction or elimination of duplicative administrative costs, operational costs, equipment costs, or capital expenditures unless members of the Joint Committee can demonstrate that an increase in the cost to a participating unit of local government is justified by a corresponding increase in the level of services provided under the terms of the intergovernmental agreement.

(2) The formation of the Agency shall not increase the average response times in any included unit of local government.

(3) Agencies shall have no independent ability to levy taxes and shall rely on the fiscal support and contributions from component fire protection jurisdictions, as required under the terms of the intergovernmental agreement.

(Source: P.A. 98-1095, eff. 8-26-14; revised 9-20-16.)

Section 275. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-6012.1, 4-2002.1, 4-11001.5, 5-25013, and 5-43035 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-6012.1)

Sec. 3-6012.1. Court security officers. The sheriff of any county in Illinois with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants may hire court security officers in such number as the county board shall from time to time deem necessary. Court security officers may be designated by the Sheriff to attend courts and perform the functions set forth in Section 3-6023. Court security officers shall have the authority to arrest; however, such arrest powers shall be limited to performance of their official duties as court security officers. Court security officers may carry weapons, upon which they have been trained and qualified as permitted by law, at their place of employment and to and from their place of employment with the consent of the Sheriff. The court security officers shall be sworn officers of the Sheriff and shall be primarily responsible for the security of the courthouse and its courtrooms. The court security officers shall be under the sole control of the sheriff of the county in which they are hired. No court security officer shall be subject to the jurisdiction of a Sheriff's Merit Commission unless the officer was hired through the Sheriff's Merit Commission's certified applicant process under Section 3-8010 of the Counties Code. They are not regular appointed deputies under Section 3-6008. The position of court security officer shall not be considered a rank when seeking initial appointment as deputy sheriff under Section 3-8011.

Every court security officer hired on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) this amendatory Act of 1996 shall serve a probationary period of 12 months during which time they may be discharged at the will of the Sheriff.

(Source: P.A. 99-10, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-20-16.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-2002.1) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-2002.1)

Sec. 4-2002.1. State's attorney fees in counties of 3,000,000 or more population. This Section applies only to counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

(a) State's attorneys shall be entitled to the following fees:

For each conviction in prosecutions on indictments for first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, kidnapping, arson and forgery, $60. All other cases punishable by imprisonment in the penitentiary, $60.

For each conviction in other cases tried before judges of the circuit court, $30; except that if the conviction is in a case which may be assigned to an associate judge, whether or not it is in fact assigned to an associate judge, the fee shall be $20.

For preliminary examinations for each defendant held to bail or recognizance, $20.

For each examination of a party bound over to keep the peace, $20.

For each defendant held to answer in a circuit court on a charge of paternity, $20.

For each trial on a charge of paternity, $60.

For each case of appeal taken from his county or from the county to which a change of venue is taken to his county to the Supreme or Appellate Court when prosecuted or defended by him, $100.

For each day actually employed in the trial of a case, $50; in which case the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which a per diem shall be allowed.

For each day actually employed in the trial of cases of felony arising in their respective counties and taken by change of venue to another county, $50; and the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which said per diem shall be allowed; and it is hereby made the duty of each State's attorney to prepare and try each case of felony arising when so taken by change of venue.

For assisting in a trial of each case on an indictment for felony brought by change of venue to their respective counties, the same fees they would be entitled to if such indictment had been found for an offense committed in his county, and it shall be the duty of the State's attorney of the county to which such cause is taken by change of venue to assist in the trial thereof.

For each case of forfeited recognizance where the forfeiture is set aside at the instance of the defense, in addition to the ordinary costs, $20 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged mental illness of any person, $20 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged dependency or delinquency of any child, $20.

For each day actually employed in the hearing of a case of habeas corpus in which the people are interested, $50.

All the foregoing fees shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. But in cases of inquiry into the mental illness of any person alleged to be mentally ill, in cases on a charge of paternity and in cases of appeal in the Supreme or Appellate Court, where judgment is in favor of the accused, the fees allowed the State's attorney therein shall be retained out of the fines and forfeitures collected by them in other cases.

Ten per cent of all moneys except revenue, collected by them and paid over to the authorities entitled thereto, which per cent together with the fees provided for herein that are not collected from the parties tried or examined, shall be paid out of any fines and forfeited recognizances collected by them, provided however, that in proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes State's attorneys shall receive a fee, to be credited to the earnings of their office, of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in such proceedings. Such fees shall be paid from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in such proceedings.

State's attorneys shall have a lien for their fees on all judgments for fines or forfeitures procured by them and on moneys except revenue received by them until such fees and earnings are fully paid.

No fees shall be charged on more than 10 counts in any one indictment or information on trial and conviction; nor on more than 10 counts against any one defendant on pleas of guilty.

The Circuit Court may direct that of all monies received, by restitution or otherwise, which monies are ordered paid to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) as a direct result of the efforts of the State's attorney and which payments arise from Civil or Criminal prosecutions involving the Illinois Public Aid Code or the Criminal Code, the following amounts shall be paid quarterly by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services to the General Corporate Fund of the County in which the prosecution or cause of action took place:

(1) where the monies result from child support obligations, not less than 25% of the federal share of the monies received,

(2) where the monies result from other than child support obligations, not less than 25% of the State's share of the monies received.

In addition to any other amounts to which State's Attorneys are entitled under this Section, State's Attorneys are entitled to $10 of the fine that is imposed under Section 5-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as set forth in that Section.

(b) A municipality shall be entitled to a $25 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code prosecuted by the municipal attorney pursuant to Section 16-102 of that Code which is tried before a circuit or associate judge and shall be entitled to a $25 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of a municipal vehicle ordinance prosecuted by the municipal attorney which is tried before a circuit or associate judge. Such fee shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. A municipality shall have a lien for such prosecution fees on all judgments or fines procured by the municipal attorney from prosecutions for violations of the Illinois Vehicle Code and municipal vehicle ordinances.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), "municipal vehicle ordinance" means any ordinance enacted pursuant to Sections 11-40-1, 11-40-2, 11-40-2a, and 11-40-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted by a municipality which is similar to a provision of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(c) State's attorneys shall be entitled to a $2 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for a violation of any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or any felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense to discharge the expenses of the State's Attorney's office for establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems. The fee shall be remitted monthly to the county treasurer, to be deposited by him or her into a special fund designated as the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund. Expenditures from this fund may be made by the State's Attorney for hardware, software, research, and development costs and personnel related thereto.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), "municipal vehicle ordinance" means any ordinance enacted pursuant to Sections 11-40-1, 11-40-2, 11-40-2a, and 11-40-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted by a municipality which is similar to a provision of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-707, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1186, eff. 7-22-10; 97-673, eff. 6-1-12; revised 10-31-16.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-11001.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 4-11001.5. Lake County Children's Advocacy Center Pilot Program.

(a) The Lake County Children's Advocacy Center Pilot Program is established. Under the Pilot Program, any grand juror or petit juror in Lake County may elect to have his or her juror fees earned under Section 4-11001 of this Code to be donated to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center, a division of the Lake County State's Attorney's office.

(b) On or before January 1, 2017, the Lake County board shall adopt, by ordinance or resolution, rules and policies governing and effectuating the ability of jurors to donate their juror fees to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center beginning January 1, 2017 and ending December 31, 2018. At a minimum, the rules and policies must provide:

(1) for a form that a juror may fill out to elect to donate his or her their juror fees. The form must contain a statement, in at least 14-point bold type, that donation of juror fees is optional;

(2) that all monies donated by jurors shall be transferred by the county to the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center at the same time a juror is paid under Section 4-11001 of this Code who did not elect to donate his or her their juror fees; and

(3) that all juror fees donated under this Section shall be used exclusively for the operation of Lake County Children's Advocacy Center.

(c) The following information shall be reported to the General Assembly and the Governor by the Lake County board after each calendar year of the Pilot Program on or before March 31, 2018 and March 31, 2019:

(1) the number of grand and petit jurors who earned fees under Section 4-11001 of this Code during the previous calendar year;

(2) the number of grand and petit jurors who donated fees under this Section during the previous calendar year;

(3) the amount of donated fees under this Section during the previous calendar year;

(4) how the monies donated in the previous calendar year were used by the Lake County Children's Advocacy Center; and

(5) how much cost there was incurred by Lake County and the Lake County State's Attorney's office in the previous calendar year in implementing the Pilot Program.

(d) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 99-583, eff. 7-15-16; revised 9-1-16.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-25013) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-25013)

Sec. 5-25013. Organization of board; powers and duties.

(A) The board of health of each county or multiple-county health department shall, immediately after appointment, meet and organize, by the election of one of its number as president and one as secretary, and either from its number or otherwise, a treasurer and such other officers as it may deem necessary. A board of health may make and adopt such rules for its own guidance and for the government of the health department as may be deemed necessary to protect and improve public health not inconsistent with this Division. It shall:

1. Hold a meeting prior to the end of each operating fiscal year, at which meeting officers shall be elected for the ensuing operating fiscal year.

2. Hold meetings at least quarterly.

3. Hold special meetings upon a written request signed by two members and filed with the Secretary or on request of the medical health officer or public health administrator.

4. Provide, equip and maintain suitable offices, facilities and appliances for the health department.

5. Publish annually, within 90 days after the end of the county's operating fiscal year, in pamphlet form, for free distribution, an annual report showing the condition of its trust on the last day of the most recently completed operating fiscal year, the sums of money received from all sources, giving the name of any donor, how all moneys have been expended and for what purpose, and such other statistics and information in regard to the work of the health department as it may deem of general interest.

6. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and technical competence, enforce and observe all State laws pertaining to the preservation of health, and all county and municipal ordinances except as otherwise provided in this Division.

7. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and technical competence, investigate the existence of any contagious or infectious disease and adopt measures, not inconsistent with the regulations of the State Department of Public Health, to arrest the progress of the same.

8. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and technical competence, make all necessary sanitary and health investigations and inspections.

9. Upon request, give professional advice and information to all city, village, incorporated town and school authorities, within its jurisdiction, in all matters pertaining to sanitation and public health.

10. Appoint a medical health officer as the executive officer for the department, who shall be a citizen of the United States and shall possess such qualifications as may be prescribed by the State Department of Public Health; or appoint a public health administrator who shall possess such qualifications as may be prescribed by the State Department of Public Health as the executive officer for the department, provided that the board of health shall make available medical supervision which is considered adequate by the Director of Public Health.

10.5. 10 1/2. Appoint such professional employees as may be approved by the executive officer who meet the qualification requirements of the State Department of Public Health for their respective positions provided, that in those health departments temporarily without a medical health officer or public health administrator approval by the State Department of Public Health shall suffice.

11. Appoint such other officers and employees as may be necessary.

12. Prescribe the powers and duties of all officers and employees, fix their compensation, and authorize payment of the same and all other department expenses from the County Health Fund of the county or counties concerned.

13. Submit an annual budget to the county board or boards.

14. Submit an annual report to the county board or boards, explaining all of its activities and expenditures.

15. Establish and carry out programs and services in mental health, including intellectual disabilities and alcoholism and substance abuse, not inconsistent with the regulations of the Department of Human Services.

16. Consult with all other private and public health agencies in the county in the development of local plans for the most efficient delivery of health services.

(B) The board of health of each county or multiple-county health department may:

1. Initiate and carry out programs and activities of all kinds, not inconsistent with law, that may be deemed necessary or desirable in the promotion and protection of health and in the control of disease including tuberculosis.

2. Receive contributions of real and personal property.

3. Recommend to the county board or boards the adoption of such ordinances and of such rules and regulations as may be deemed necessary or desirable for the promotion and protection of health and control of disease.

4. Appoint a medical and dental advisory committee and a non-medical advisory committee to the health department.

5. Enter into contracts with the State, municipalities, other political subdivisions and non-official agencies for the purchase, sale or exchange of health services.

6. Set fees it deems reasonable and necessary (i) to provide services or perform regulatory activities, (ii) when required by State or federal grant award conditions, (iii) to support activities delegated to the board of health by the Illinois Department of Public Health, or (iv) when required by an agreement between the board of health and other private or governmental organizations, unless the fee has been established as a part of a regulatory ordinance adopted by the county board, in which case the board of health shall make recommendations to the county board concerning those fees. Revenue generated under this Section shall be deposited into the County Health Fund or to the account of the multiple-county health department.

7. Enter into multiple year employment contracts with the medical health officer or public health administrator as may be necessary for the recruitment and retention of personnel and the proper functioning of the health department.

8. Enter into contracts with municipal health departments, county health departments, other boards of health, private or public hospitals, and not for profit entities to provide public health services outside of a board of health's own jurisdiction in order to protect the public health in an effective manner.

(C) The board of health of a multiple-county health department may hire attorneys to represent and advise the department concerning matters that are not within the exclusive jurisdiction of the State's Attorney of one of the counties that created the department.

(Source: P.A. 99-730, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-43035)

Sec. 5-43035. Enforcement of judgment.

(a) Any fine, other sanction, or costs imposed, or part of any fine, other sanction, or costs imposed, remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of or the failure to exhaust judicial review procedures under the Illinois Administrative Review Law are a debt due and owing the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, and may be collected in accordance with applicable law.

(b) After expiration of the period in which judicial review under the Illinois Administrative Review Law may be sought for a final determination of a code violation, unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the findings, decision, and order of the hearing officer may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) In any case in which a defendant has failed to comply with a judgment ordering a defendant to correct a code violation or imposing any fine or other sanction as a result of a code violation, any expenses incurred by a county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, to enforce the judgment, including, but not limited to, attorney's fees, court costs, and costs related to property demolition or foreclosure, after they are fixed by a court of competent jurisdiction or a hearing officer, shall be a debt due and owing the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, and the findings, decision, and order of the hearing officer may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court. Prior to any expenses being fixed by a hearing officer pursuant to this subsection (c), the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, shall provide notice to the defendant that states that the defendant shall appear at a hearing before the administrative hearing officer to determine whether the defendant has failed to comply with the judgment. The notice shall set the date for the hearing, which shall not be less than 7 days after the date that notice is served. If notice is served by mail, the 7-day period shall begin to run on the date that the notice was deposited in the mail.

(c-5) A default in the payment of a fine or penalty or any installment of a fine or penalty may be collected by any means authorized for the collection of monetary judgments. The state's attorney of the county in which the fine or penalty was imposed may retain attorneys and private collection agents for the purpose of collecting any default in payment of any fine or penalty or installment of that fine or penalty. Any fees or costs incurred by the county or participating unit of local government with respect to attorneys or private collection agents retained by the state's attorney under this Section shall be charged to the offender.

(d) Upon being recorded in the manner required by Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure or by the Uniform Commercial Code, a lien shall be imposed on the real estate or personal estate, or both, of the defendant in the amount of any debt due and owing the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, under this Section. The lien may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment lien pursuant to a judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction.

(e) A hearing officer may set aside any judgment entered by default and set a new hearing date, upon a petition filed within 21 days after the issuance of the order of default, if the hearing officer determines that the petitioner's failure to appear at the hearing was for good cause or at any time if the petitioner establishes that the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, did not provide proper service of process. If any judgment is set aside pursuant to this subsection (e), the hearing officer shall have authority to enter an order extinguishing any lien that has been recorded for any debt due and owing the county for a violation of a county ordinance, or the participating unit of local government for a violation of a participating unit of local government's ordinance, as a result of the vacated default judgment.

(Source: P.A. 99-18, eff. 1-1-16; 99-739, eff. 1-1-17; 99-754, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-21-16.)

Section 280. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 3.1-50-15, 8-11-1.8, 8-11-2, 11-6-10, 11-74.4-3, 11-74.4-3.5, 11-74.4-6, 11-74.4-8a, and 11-102-2 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/3.1-50-15) (from Ch. 24, par. 3.1-50-15)

Sec. 3.1-50-15. Compensation of members of corporate authorities.

(a) The ordinance fixing compensation for members of the corporate authorities shall specify whether those members are to be compensated (i) at an annual rate or, (ii) for each meeting of the corporate authorities actually attended if public notice of the meeting was given.

(b) Each member of the corporate authorities may receive reimbursement from the municipality for expenses incurred by the member in attending committee meetings of the corporate authorities or for other expenses incurred by the member in the course of performing official duties.

(Source: P.A. 91-208, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-20-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.8)

Sec. 8-11-1.8. Non-home rule municipal tax rescission recision. Whenever the corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 have imposed a municipal retailers occupation tax under Sec. 8-11-1.6 and a municipal service occupation tax under Section 8-11-1.7, the question of discontinuing the tax imposed under those Sections shall be submitted to the voters of the municipality at the next regularly scheduled election in accordance with the general election law upon a petition signed by not fewer than 10% of the registered voters in the municipality. The petition shall be filed with the clerk, of the municipality within one year of the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax; provided, the petition shall be filed not less than 60 days prior to the election at which the question is to be submitted to the voters of the municipality, and its validity shall be determined as provided by the general election law. The municipal clerk shall certify the question to the proper election officials, who shall submit the question to the voters.

Notice shall be given in the manner provided for in the general election law.

Referenda initiated under this Section shall be subject to the provisions and limitations of the general election law.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall the additional Municipal Service Occupation Tax and Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax imposed within the municipal limits of (name of municipality) by Ordinance No. (state number) adopted on (date of adoption) be discontinued?

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of all ballots cast on the proposition shall be in favor of discontinuing the tax, within one month after approval of the referendum discontinuing the tax the corporate authorities shall certify the results of the referenda to the Department of Revenue and shall also file with the Department a certified copy of an ordinance discontinuing the tax. Thereupon, the Department shall discontinue collection of tax as of the first day of January next following the referendum.

Except as herein otherwise provided, the referenda authorized by the terms of this Section shall be conducted in all respects in the manner provided by the general election law.

This Section shall apply only to taxes that have been previously imposed under the provisions of Sections 8-11-1.6 and 8-11-1.7.

(Source: P.A. 88-334; 89-399, eff. 8-20-95; revised 9-20-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-2) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-2)

Sec. 8-11-2. The corporate authorities of any municipality may tax any or all of the following occupations or privileges:

1. (Blank).

2. Persons engaged in the business of distributing, supplying, furnishing, or selling gas for use or consumption within the corporate limits of a municipality of 500,000 or fewer population, and not for resale, at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts therefrom.

2a. Persons engaged in the business of distributing, supplying, furnishing, or selling gas for use or consumption within the corporate limits of a municipality of over 500,000 population, and not for resale, at a rate not to exceed 8% of the gross receipts therefrom. If imposed, this tax shall be paid in monthly payments.

3. The privilege of using or consuming electricity acquired in a purchase at retail and used or consumed within the corporate limits of the municipality at rates not to exceed the following maximum rates, calculated on a monthly basis for each purchaser:

(i) For the first 2,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.61 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(ii) For the next 48,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.40 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(iii) For the next 50,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.36 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(iv) For the next 400,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.35 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(v) For the next 500,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.34 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(vi) For the next 2,000,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.32 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(vii) For the next 2,000,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.315 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(viii) For the next 5,000,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.31 cents per kilowatt-hour;

(ix) For the next 10,000,000 kilowatt-hours used or consumed in a month; 0.305 cents per kilowatt-hour; and

(x) For all electricity used or consumed in excess of 20,000,000 kilowatt-hours in a month, 0.30 cents per kilowatt-hour.

If a municipality imposes a tax at rates lower than either the maximum rates specified in this Section or the alternative maximum rates promulgated by the Illinois Commerce Commission, as provided below, the tax rates shall be imposed upon the kilowatt hour categories set forth above with the same proportional relationship as that which exists among such maximum rates. Notwithstanding the foregoing, until December 31, 2008, no municipality shall establish rates that are in excess of rates reasonably calculated to produce revenues that equal the maximum total revenues such municipality could have received under the tax authorized by this subparagraph in the last full calendar year prior to August 1, 1998 (the effective date of Section 65 of Public Act 90-561) this amendatory Act of 1997; provided that this shall not be a limitation on the amount of tax revenues actually collected by such municipality.

Upon the request of the corporate authorities of a municipality, the Illinois Commerce Commission shall, within 90 days after receipt of such request, promulgate alternative rates for each of these kilowatt-hour categories that will reflect, as closely as reasonably practical for that municipality, the distribution of the tax among classes of purchasers as if the tax were based on a uniform percentage of the purchase price of electricity. A municipality that has adopted an ordinance imposing a tax pursuant to subparagraph 3 as it existed prior to August 1, 1998 (the effective date of Section 65 of Public Act 90-561) this amendatory Act of 1997 may, rather than imposing the tax permitted by Public Act 90-561 this amendatory Act of 1997, continue to impose the tax pursuant to that ordinance with respect to gross receipts received from residential customers through July 31, 1999, and with respect to gross receipts from any non-residential customer until the first bill issued to such customer for delivery services in accordance with Section 16-104 of the Public Utilities Act but in no case later than the last bill issued to such customer before December 31, 2000. No ordinance imposing the tax permitted by Public Act 90-561 this amendatory Act of 1997 shall be applicable to any non-residential customer until the first bill issued to such customer for delivery services in accordance with Section 16-104 of the Public Utilities Act but in no case later than the last bill issued to such non-residential customer before December 31, 2000.

4. Persons engaged in the business of distributing, supplying, furnishing, or selling water for use or consumption within the corporate limits of the municipality, and not for resale, at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts therefrom.

None of the taxes authorized by this Section may be imposed with respect to any transaction in interstate commerce or otherwise to the extent to which the business or privilege may not, under the constitution and statutes of the United States, be made the subject of taxation by this State or any political sub-division thereof; nor shall any persons engaged in the business of distributing, supplying, furnishing, selling or transmitting gas, water, or electricity, or using or consuming electricity acquired in a purchase at retail, be subject to taxation under the provisions of this Section for those transactions that are or may become subject to taxation under the provisions of the "Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" authorized by Section 8-11-1; nor shall any tax authorized by this Section be imposed upon any person engaged in a business or on any privilege unless the tax is imposed in like manner and at the same rate upon all persons engaged in businesses of the same class in the municipality, whether privately or municipally owned or operated, or exercising the same privilege within the municipality.

Any of the taxes enumerated in this Section may be in addition to the payment of money, or value of products or services furnished to the municipality by the taxpayer as compensation for the use of its streets, alleys, or other public places, or installation and maintenance therein, thereon or thereunder of poles, wires, pipes, or other equipment used in the operation of the taxpayer's business.

(a) If the corporate authorities of any home rule municipality have adopted an ordinance that imposed a tax on public utility customers, between July 1, 1971, and October 1, 1981, on the good faith belief that they were exercising authority pursuant to Section 6 of Article VII of the 1970 Illinois Constitution, that action of the corporate authorities shall be declared legal and valid, notwithstanding a later decision of a judicial tribunal declaring the ordinance invalid. No municipality shall be required to rebate, refund, or issue credits for any taxes described in this paragraph, and those taxes shall be deemed to have been levied and collected in accordance with the Constitution and laws of this State.

(b) In any case in which (i) prior to October 19, 1979, the corporate authorities of any municipality have adopted an ordinance imposing a tax authorized by this Section (or by the predecessor provision of the "Revised Cities and Villages Act") and have explicitly or in practice interpreted gross receipts to include either charges added to customers' bills pursuant to the provision of paragraph (a) of Section 36 of the Public Utilities Act or charges added to customers' bills by taxpayers who are not subject to rate regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of recovering any of the tax liabilities or other amounts specified in such paragraph (a) of Section 36 of that Act, and (ii) on or after October 19, 1979, a judicial tribunal has construed gross receipts to exclude all or part of those charges, then neither that those municipality nor any taxpayer who paid the tax shall be required to rebate, refund, or issue credits for any tax imposed or charge collected from customers pursuant to the municipality's interpretation prior to October 19, 1979. This paragraph reflects a legislative finding that it would be contrary to the public interest to require a municipality or its taxpayers to refund taxes or charges attributable to the municipality's more inclusive interpretation of gross receipts prior to October 19, 1979, and is not intended to prescribe or limit judicial construction of this Section. The legislative finding set forth in this subsection does not apply to taxes imposed after January 1, 1996 (the effective date of Public Act 89-325) this amendatory Act of 1995.

(c) The tax authorized by subparagraph 3 shall be collected from the purchaser by the person maintaining a place of business in this State who delivers the electricity to the purchaser. This tax shall constitute a debt of the purchaser to the person who delivers the electricity to the purchaser and if unpaid, is recoverable in the same manner as the original charge for delivering the electricity. Any tax required to be collected pursuant to an ordinance authorized by subparagraph 3 and any such tax collected by a person delivering electricity shall constitute a debt owed to the municipality by such person delivering the electricity, provided, that the person delivering electricity shall be allowed credit for such tax related to deliveries of electricity the charges for which are written off as uncollectible, and provided further, that if such charges are thereafter collected, the delivering supplier shall be obligated to remit such tax. For purposes of this subsection (c), any partial payment not specifically identified by the purchaser shall be deemed to be for the delivery of electricity. Persons delivering electricity shall collect the tax from the purchaser by adding such tax to the gross charge for delivering the electricity, in the manner prescribed by the municipality. Persons delivering electricity shall also be authorized to add to such gross charge an amount equal to 3% of the tax to reimburse the person delivering electricity for the expenses incurred in keeping records, billing customers, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the municipality upon request. If the person delivering electricity fails to collect the tax from the purchaser, then the purchaser shall be required to pay the tax directly to the municipality in the manner prescribed by the municipality. Persons delivering electricity who file returns pursuant to this paragraph (c) shall, at the time of filing such return, pay the municipality the amount of the tax collected pursuant to subparagraph 3.

(d) For the purpose of the taxes enumerated in this Section:

"Gross receipts" means the consideration received for distributing, supplying, furnishing or selling gas for use or consumption and not for resale, and the consideration received for distributing, supplying, furnishing or selling water for use or consumption and not for resale, and for all services rendered in connection therewith valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credit, services and property of every kind and material and for all services rendered therewith, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the service, product or commodity supplied, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost, or any other expenses whatsoever. "Gross receipts" shall not include that portion of the consideration received for distributing, supplying, furnishing, or selling gas or water to business enterprises described in paragraph (e) of this Section to the extent and during the period in which the exemption authorized by paragraph (e) is in effect or for school districts or units of local government described in paragraph (f) during the period in which the exemption authorized in paragraph (f) is in effect.

For utility bills issued on or after May 1, 1996, but before May 1, 1997, and for receipts from those utility bills, "gross receipts" does not include one-third of (i) amounts added to customers' bills under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, or (ii) amounts added to customers' bills by taxpayers who are not subject to rate regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of recovering any of the tax liabilities described in Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act. For utility bills issued on or after May 1, 1997, but before May 1, 1998, and for receipts from those utility bills, "gross receipts" does not include two-thirds of (i) amounts added to customers' bills under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, or (ii) amount added to customers' bills by taxpayers who are not subject to rate regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of recovering any of the tax liabilities described in Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act. For utility bills issued on or after May 1, 1998, and for receipts from those utility bills, "gross receipts" does not include (i) amounts added to customers' bills under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, or (ii) amounts added to customers' bills by taxpayers who are not subject to rate regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of recovering any of the tax liabilities described in Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act.

For purposes of this Section "gross receipts" shall not include amounts added to customers' bills under Section 9-221 of the Public Utilities Act. This paragraph is not intended to nor does it make any change in the meaning of "gross receipts" for the purposes of this Section, but is intended to remove possible ambiguities, thereby confirming the existing meaning of "gross receipts" prior to January 1, 1996 (the effective date of Public Act 89-325) this amendatory Act of 1995.

"Person" as used in this Section means any natural individual, firm, trust, estate, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, corporation, limited liability company, municipal corporation, the State or any of its political subdivisions, any State university created by statute, or a receiver, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Person maintaining a place of business in this State" shall mean any person having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary or other affiliate, an office, generation facility, distribution facility, transmission facility, sales office or other place of business, or any employee, agent, or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the person or its subsidiary or other affiliate, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located in this State permanently or temporarily, or whether such person, subsidiary or other affiliate is licensed or qualified to do business in this State.

"Public utility" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act and shall include alternative retail electric suppliers as defined in Section 16-102 of that Act.

"Purchase at retail" shall mean any acquisition of electricity by a purchaser for purposes of use or consumption, and not for resale, but shall not include the use of electricity by a public utility directly in the generation, production, transmission, delivery or sale of electricity.

"Purchaser" shall mean any person who uses or consumes, within the corporate limits of the municipality, electricity acquired in a purchase at retail.

(e) Any municipality that imposes taxes upon public utilities or upon the privilege of using or consuming electricity pursuant to this Section whose territory includes any part of an enterprise zone or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone may, by a majority vote of its corporate authorities, exempt from those taxes for a period not exceeding 20 years any specified percentage of gross receipts of public utilities received from, or electricity used or consumed by, business enterprises that:

(1) either (i) make investments that cause the creation of a minimum of 200 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) make investments of at least $175,000,000 that cause the creation of a minimum of 150 full-time equivalent jobs in Illinois, or (iii) make investments that cause the retention of a minimum of 1,000 full-time jobs in Illinois; and

(2) are either (i) located in an Enterprise Zone established pursuant to the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or (ii) Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact Businesses located in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone; and

(3) are certified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity as complying with the requirements specified in clauses (1) and (2) of this paragraph (e).

Upon adoption of the ordinance authorizing the exemption, the municipal clerk shall transmit a copy of that ordinance to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall determine whether the business enterprises located in the municipality meet the criteria prescribed in this paragraph. If the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity determines that the business enterprises meet the criteria, it shall grant certification. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall act upon certification requests within 30 days after receipt of the ordinance.

Upon certification of the business enterprise by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall notify the Department of Revenue of the certification. The Department of Revenue shall notify the public utilities of the exemption status of the gross receipts received from, and the electricity used or consumed by, the certified business enterprises. Such exemption status shall be effective within 3 months after certification.

(f) A municipality that imposes taxes upon public utilities or upon the privilege of using or consuming electricity under this Section and whose territory includes part of another unit of local government or a school district may by ordinance exempt the other unit of local government or school district from those taxes.

(g) The amendment of this Section by Public Act 84-127 shall take precedence over any other amendment of this Section by any other amendatory Act passed by the 84th General Assembly before August 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-127).

(h) In any case in which, before July 1, 1992, a person engaged in the business of transmitting messages through the use of mobile equipment, such as cellular phones and paging systems, has determined the municipality within which the gross receipts from the business originated by reference to the location of its transmitting or switching equipment, then (i) neither the municipality to which tax was paid on that basis nor the taxpayer that paid tax on that basis shall be required to rebate, refund, or issue credits for any such tax or charge collected from customers to reimburse the taxpayer for the tax and (ii) no municipality to which tax would have been paid with respect to those gross receipts if the provisions of Public Act 87-773 this amendatory Act of 1991 had been in effect before July 1, 1992, shall have any claim against the taxpayer for any amount of the tax.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 9-21-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-6-10)

Sec. 11-6-10. Reimbursement of volunteer fire protection assistance.

(a) Municipalities may fix, charge, and collect fees not exceeding the reasonable cost of the service for all services rendered by a volunteer municipal fire department or a volunteer firefighter of any municipal fire department for persons, businesses, and other entities who are not residents of the municipality.

(b) The charge for any fees under subsection (a) shall be computed at a rate not to exceed $250 per hour and not to exceed $70 per hour per firefighter responding to a call for assistance. An additional charge may be levied to reimburse the district for extraordinary expenses of materials used in rendering such services. No charge shall be made for services for which the total amount would be less than $50.

(c) All revenue from the fees assessed pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into to the general fund of the municipality.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall allow a fee to be fixed, charged, or collected that is not allowed under any contract that a fire department has entered into with another entity, including, but not limited to, a fire protection district.

(Source: P.A. 99-770, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-31-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-3)

Sec. 11-74.4-3. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Division 74.4 shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context.

(a) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "blighted area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "blighted area" means any improved or vacant area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality where:

(1) If improved, industrial, commercial, and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, or welfare because of a combination of 5 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the improved part of the redevelopment project area:

(A) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(B) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(C) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(D) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(E) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(F) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(G) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(H) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(I) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: (i) the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and (ii) the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(J) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(K) Environmental clean-up. The proposed redevelopment project area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(L) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(M) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(2) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) Obsolete platting of vacant land that results in parcels of limited or narrow size or configurations of parcels of irregular size or shape that would be difficult to develop on a planned basis and in a manner compatible with contemporary standards and requirements, or platting that failed to create rights-of-ways for streets or alleys or that created inadequate right-of-way widths for streets, alleys, or other public rights-of-way or that omitted easements for public utilities.

(B) Diversity of ownership of parcels of vacant land sufficient in number to retard or impede the ability to assemble the land for development.

(C) Tax and special assessment delinquencies exist or the property has been the subject of tax sales under the Property Tax Code within the last 5 years.

(D) Deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas adjacent to the vacant land.

(E) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(F) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(3) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by one of the following factors that (i) is present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) is reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) The area consists of one or more unused quarries, mines, or strip mine ponds.

(B) The area consists of unused rail yards, rail tracks, or railroad rights-of-way.

(C) The area, prior to its designation, is subject to (i) chronic flooding that adversely impacts on real property in the area as certified by a registered professional engineer or appropriate regulatory agency or (ii) surface water that discharges from all or a part of the area and contributes to flooding within the same watershed, but only if the redevelopment project provides for facilities or improvements to contribute to the alleviation of all or part of the flooding.

(D) The area consists of an unused or illegal disposal site containing earth, stone, building debris, or similar materials that were removed from construction, demolition, excavation, or dredge sites.

(E) Prior to November 1, 1999, the area is not less than 50 nor more than 100 acres and 75% of which is vacant (notwithstanding that the area has been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area), and the area meets at least one of the factors itemized in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the area has been designated as a town or village center by ordinance or comprehensive plan adopted prior to January 1, 1982, and the area has not been developed for that designated purpose.

(F) The area qualified as a blighted improved area immediately prior to becoming vacant, unless there has been substantial private investment in the immediately surrounding area.

(b) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "conservation area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "conservation area" means any improved area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more. Such an area is not yet a blighted area but because of a combination of 3 or more of the following factors is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such an area may become a blighted area:

(1) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(2) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(3) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(4) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(5) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(6) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(7) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence or inadequacy of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(8) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(9) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(10) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(11) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(12) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(13) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available.

(c) "Industrial park" means an area in a blighted or conservation area suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research or transportation enterprise, of facilities to include but not be limited to factories, mills, processing plants, assembly plants, packing plants, fabricating plants, industrial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities or railroad facilities.

(d) "Industrial park conservation area" means an area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality or within 1 1/2 miles of the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality if the area is annexed to the municipality; which area is zoned as industrial no later than at the time the municipality by ordinance designates the redevelopment project area, and which area includes both vacant land suitable for use as an industrial park and a blighted area or conservation area contiguous to such vacant land.

(e) "Labor surplus municipality" means a municipality in which, at any time during the 6 months before the municipality by ordinance designates an industrial park conservation area, the unemployment rate was over 6% and was also 100% or more of the national average unemployment rate for that same time as published in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics publication entitled "The Employment Situation" or its successor publication. For the purpose of this subsection, if unemployment rate statistics for the municipality are not available, the unemployment rate in the municipality shall be deemed to be the same as the unemployment rate in the principal county in which the municipality is located.

(f) "Municipality" shall mean a city, village, incorporated town, or a township that is located in the unincorporated portion of a county with 3 million or more inhabitants, if the county adopted an ordinance that approved the township's redevelopment plan.

(g) "Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in a State Sales Tax Boundary during the calendar year 1985.

(g-1) "Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located within the State Sales Tax Boundary revised pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8a(9) of this Act.

(h) "Municipal Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid to a municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, for as long as the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, exist over and above the aggregate amount of taxes as certified by the Illinois Department of Revenue and paid under the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen, on transactions at places of business located in the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall determine the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts". For purposes of determining the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the amount paid to the municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the redevelopment project area or the State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, to June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending June 30 to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts, as the case may be.

(i) "Net State Sales Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary. If, however, a municipality established a tax increment financing district in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 before January 1, 1986, and the municipality entered into a contract or issued bonds after January 1, 1986, but before December 31, 1986, to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, then the Net State Sales Tax Increment means, for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990, and July 1, 1991, 100% of the State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for those fiscal years the Department of Revenue shall distribute to those municipalities 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment before any distribution to any other municipality and regardless of whether or not those other municipalities will receive 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment. For Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991, or that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988, shall continue to receive their proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund distribution until the date on which the redevelopment project is completed or terminated. If, however, a municipality that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991 retires the bonds prior to June 30, 2007 or a municipality that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988 completes the contracts prior to June 30, 2007, then so long as the redevelopment project is not completed or is not terminated, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated, beginning on the date on which the bonds are retired or the contracts are completed, as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to July 29, 1991, shall not alter the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(j) "State Utility Tax Increment Amount" means an amount equal to the aggregate increase in State electric and gas tax charges imposed on owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties located within the redevelopment project area under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, over and above the aggregate of such charges as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid by owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties within the redevelopment project area during the base year, which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year of the adoption of the ordinance authorizing tax increment allocation financing.

(k) "Net State Utility Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of the State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area. For the State Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a redevelopment project area, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for the State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issue bonds in connection with the redevelopment project during the period from June 1, 1988 until 3 years after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988 shall receive the Net State Utility Tax Increment, subject to appropriation, for 15 State Fiscal Years after the issuance of such bonds. For the 16th through the 20th State Fiscal Years after issuance of the bonds, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in year 16; 80% in year 17; 70% in year 18; 60% in year 19; and 50% in year 20. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to June 1, 1988, shall not alter the revised Net State Utility Tax Increment payments set forth above.

(l) "Obligations" mean bonds, loans, debentures, notes, special certificates or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the municipality to carry out a redevelopment project or to refund outstanding obligations.

(m) "Payment in lieu of taxes" means those estimated tax revenues from real property in a redevelopment project area derived from real property that has been acquired by a municipality which according to the redevelopment project or plan is to be used for a private use which taxing districts would have received had a municipality not acquired the real property and adopted tax increment allocation financing and which would result from levies made after the time of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized value of real property in the redevelopment project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property in said area.

(n) "Redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the municipality for development or redevelopment intended by the payment of redevelopment project costs to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the redevelopment project area as a "blighted area" or "conservation area" or combination thereof or "industrial park conservation area," and thereby to enhance the tax bases of the taxing districts which extend into the redevelopment project area, provided that, with respect to redevelopment project areas described in subsections (p-1) and (p-2), "redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the affected municipality for the development of qualifying transit facilities. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting. Each redevelopment plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish the objectives and shall include but not be limited to:

(A) an itemized list of estimated redevelopment project costs;

(B) evidence indicating that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise, provided that such evidence shall not be required for any redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3;

(C) an assessment of any financial impact of the redevelopment project area on or any increased demand for services from any taxing district affected by the plan and any program to address such financial impact or increased demand;

(D) the sources of funds to pay costs;

(E) the nature and term of the obligations to be issued;

(F) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the redevelopment project area;

(G) an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after redevelopment and the general land uses to apply in the redevelopment project area;

(H) a commitment to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan;

(I) if it concerns an industrial park conservation area, the plan shall also include a general description of any proposed developer, user and tenant of any property, a description of the type, structure and general character of the facilities to be developed, a description of the type, class and number of new employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed; and

(J) if property is to be annexed to the municipality, the plan shall include the terms of the annexation agreement.

The provisions of items (B) and (C) of this subsection (n) shall not apply to a municipality that before March 14, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-537) had fixed, either by its corporate authorities or by a commission designated under subsection (k) of Section 11-74.4-4, a time and place for a public hearing as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5. No redevelopment plan shall be adopted unless a municipality complies with all of the following requirements:

(1) The municipality finds that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise and would not reasonably be anticipated to be developed without the adoption of the redevelopment plan, provided, however, that such a finding shall not be required with respect to any redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3.

(2) The municipality finds that the redevelopment plan and project conform to the comprehensive plan for the development of the municipality as a whole, or, for municipalities with a population of 100,000 or more, regardless of when the redevelopment plan and project was adopted, the redevelopment plan and project either: (i) conforms to the strategic economic development or redevelopment plan issued by the designated planning authority of the municipality, or (ii) includes land uses that have been approved by the planning commission of the municipality.

(3) The redevelopment plan establishes the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs. Those dates may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5.

A municipality may by municipal ordinance amend an existing redevelopment plan to conform to this paragraph (3) as amended by Public Act 91-478, which municipal ordinance may be adopted without further hearing or notice and without complying with the procedures provided in this Act pertaining to an amendment to or the initial approval of a redevelopment plan and project and designation of a redevelopment project area.

(3.5) The municipality finds, in the case of an industrial park conservation area, also that the municipality is a labor surplus municipality and that the implementation of the redevelopment plan will reduce unemployment, create new jobs and by the provision of new facilities enhance the tax base of the taxing districts that extend into the redevelopment project area.

(4) If any incremental revenues are being utilized under Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of this Act in redevelopment project areas approved by ordinance after January 1, 1986, the municipality finds: (a) that the redevelopment project area would not reasonably be developed without the use of such incremental revenues, and (b) that such incremental revenues will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area.

(5) If: (a) the redevelopment plan will not result in displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, and the municipality certifies in the plan that such displacement will not result from the plan; or (b) the redevelopment plan is for a redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3, and the applicable project is subject to the process for evaluation of environmental effects under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. § 4321 et seq., then a housing impact study need not be performed. If, however, the redevelopment plan would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, or if the redevelopment project area contains 75 or more inhabited residential units and no certification is made, then the municipality shall prepare, as part of the separate feasibility report required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5, a housing impact study.

Part I of the housing impact study shall include (i) data as to whether the residential units are single family or multi-family units, (ii) the number and type of rooms within the units, if that information is available, (iii) whether the units are inhabited or uninhabited, as determined not less than 45 days before the date that the ordinance or resolution required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5 is passed, and (iv) data as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units. The data requirement as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units shall be deemed to be fully satisfied by data from the most recent federal census.

Part II of the housing impact study shall identify the inhabited residential units in the proposed redevelopment project area that are to be or may be removed. If inhabited residential units are to be removed, then the housing impact study shall identify (i) the number and location of those units that will or may be removed, (ii) the municipality's plans for relocation assistance for those residents in the proposed redevelopment project area whose residences are to be removed, (iii) the availability of replacement housing for those residents whose residences are to be removed, and shall identify the type, location, and cost of the housing, and (iv) the type and extent of relocation assistance to be provided.

(6) On and after November 1, 1999, the housing impact study required by paragraph (5) shall be incorporated in the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area.

(7) On and after November 1, 1999, no redevelopment plan shall be adopted, nor an existing plan amended, nor shall residential housing that is occupied by households of low-income and very low-income persons in currently existing redevelopment project areas be removed after November 1, 1999 unless the redevelopment plan provides, with respect to inhabited housing units that are to be removed for households of low-income and very low-income persons, affordable housing and relocation assistance not less than that which would be provided under the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 and the regulations under that Act, including the eligibility criteria. Affordable housing may be either existing or newly constructed housing. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "low-income households", "very low-income households", and "affordable housing" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to ensure that this affordable housing is located in or near the redevelopment project area within the municipality.

(8) On and after November 1, 1999, if, after the adoption of the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area, any municipality desires to amend its redevelopment plan to remove more inhabited residential units than specified in its original redevelopment plan, that change shall be made in accordance with the procedures in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-5.

(9) For redevelopment project areas designated prior to November 1, 1999, the redevelopment plan may be amended without further joint review board meeting or hearing, provided that the municipality shall give notice of any such changes by mail to each affected taxing district and registrant on the interested party registry, to authorize the municipality to expend tax increment revenues for redevelopment project costs defined by paragraphs (5) and (7.5), subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (11), and paragraph (11.5) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3, so long as the changes do not increase the total estimated redevelopment project costs set out in the redevelopment plan by more than 5% after adjustment for inflation from the date the plan was adopted.

(o) "Redevelopment project" means any public and private development project in furtherance of the objectives of a redevelopment plan. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting.

(p) "Redevelopment project area" means an area designated by the municipality, which is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres and in respect to which the municipality has made a finding that there exist conditions which cause the area to be classified as an industrial park conservation area or a blighted area or a conservation area, or a combination of both blighted areas and conservation areas.

(p-1) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, on and after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-680), a redevelopment project area may include areas within a one-half mile radius of an existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station without a finding that the area is classified as an industrial park conservation area, a blighted area, a conservation area, or a combination thereof, but only if the municipality receives unanimous consent from the joint review board created to review the proposed redevelopment project area.

(p-2) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a redevelopment project area may include areas within a transit facility improvement area that has been established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3 without a finding that the area is classified as an industrial park conservation area, a blighted area, a conservation area, or any combination thereof.

(q) "Redevelopment project costs", except for redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection subsections (p-1) or (p-2), means and includes the sum total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or estimated to be incurred, and any such costs incidental to a redevelopment plan and a redevelopment project. Such costs include, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans, and specifications, implementation and administration of the redevelopment plan including but not limited to staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected; except that on and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years. In addition, "redevelopment project costs" shall not include lobbying expenses. After consultation with the municipality, each tax increment consultant or advisor to a municipality that plans to designate or has designated a redevelopment project area shall inform the municipality in writing of any contracts that the consultant or advisor has entered into with entities or individuals that have received, or are receiving, payments financed by tax increment revenues produced by the redevelopment project area with respect to which the consultant or advisor has performed, or will be performing, service for the municipality. This requirement shall be satisfied by the consultant or advisor before the commencement of services for the municipality and thereafter whenever any other contracts with those individuals or entities are executed by the consultant or advisor;

(1.5) After July 1, 1999, annual administrative costs shall not include general overhead or administrative costs of the municipality that would still have been incurred by the municipality if the municipality had not designated a redevelopment project area or approved a redevelopment plan;

(1.6) The cost of marketing sites within the redevelopment project area to prospective businesses, developers, and investors;

(2) Property assembly costs, including but not limited to acquisition of land and other property, real or personal, or rights or interests therein, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, and the clearing and grading of land;

(3) Costs of rehabilitation, reconstruction or repair or remodeling of existing public or private buildings, fixtures, and leasehold improvements; and the cost of replacing an existing public building if pursuant to the implementation of a redevelopment project the existing public building is to be demolished to use the site for private investment or devoted to a different use requiring private investment; including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification;

(4) Costs of the construction of public works or improvements, including any direct or indirect costs relating to Green Globes or LEED certified construction elements or construction elements with an equivalent certification, except that on and after November 1, 1999, redevelopment project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building as provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3 unless either (i) the construction of the new municipal building implements a redevelopment project that was included in a redevelopment plan that was adopted by the municipality prior to November 1, 1999, (ii) the municipality makes a reasonable determination in the redevelopment plan, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the redevelopment plan, or (iii) the new municipal public building is for the storage, maintenance, or repair of transit vehicles and is located in a transit facility improvement area that has been established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3;

(5) Costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within the redevelopment project area;

(6) Financing costs, including but not limited to all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any redevelopment project for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(7) To the extent the municipality by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from the redevelopment project necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan and project; .

(7.5) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after November 1, 1999, an elementary, secondary, or unit school district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act, and which costs shall be paid by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units and shall be calculated annually as follows:

(A) for foundation districts, excluding any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general State aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 25% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 17% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 8% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(B) For alternate method districts, flat grant districts, and foundation districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge equal to or more than $5,900, excluding any school district with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general state aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts, no more than 40% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts, no more than 27% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts, no more than 13% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(C) For any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, the following restrictions shall apply to the reimbursement of increased costs under this paragraph (7.5):

(i) no increased costs shall be reimbursed unless the school district certifies that each of the schools affected by the assisted housing project is at or over its student capacity;

(ii) the amount reimbursable shall be reduced by the value of any land donated to the school district by the municipality or developer, and by the value of any physical improvements made to the schools by the municipality or developer; and

(iii) the amount reimbursed may not affect amounts otherwise obligated by the terms of any bonds, notes, or other funding instruments, or the terms of any redevelopment agreement.

Any school district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.5) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with reasonable evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the school district. If the school district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. School districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.5). By acceptance of this reimbursement the school district waives the right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(7.7) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-961), a public library district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act shall be paid to the library district by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units. This paragraph (7.7) applies only if (i) the library district is located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law or (ii) the library district is not located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law but the district is prohibited by any other law from increasing its tax levy rate without a prior voter referendum.

The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be calculated by multiplying (i) the net increase in the number of persons eligible to obtain a library card in that district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by (ii) the per-patron cost of providing library services so long as it does not exceed $120. The per-patron cost shall be the Total Operating Expenditures Per Capita for the library in the previous fiscal year. The municipality may deduct from the amount that it must pay to a library district under this paragraph any amount that it has voluntarily paid to the library district from the tax increment revenue. The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be no more than 2% of the amount produced by the assisted housing units and deposited into the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

A library district is not eligible for any payment under this paragraph (7.7) unless the library district has experienced an increase in the number of patrons from the municipality that created the tax-increment-financing district since the designation of the redevelopment project area.

Any library district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.7) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with convincing evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the library district. If the library district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. Library districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.7). By acceptance of such reimbursement, the library district shall forfeit any right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner whatsoever the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to make payment of relocation costs by federal or State law or in order to satisfy subparagraph (7) of subsection (n);

(9) Payment in lieu of taxes;

(10) Costs of job training, retraining, advanced vocational education or career education, including but not limited to courses in occupational, semi-technical or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, provided that such costs (i) are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in a redevelopment project area; and (ii) when incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, are set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts, which agreement describes the program to be undertaken, including but not limited to the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay for the same, and the term of the agreement. Such costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20a and 10-23.3a of the The School Code;

(11) Interest cost incurred by a redeveloper related to the construction, renovation or rehabilitation of a redevelopment project provided that:

(A) such costs are to be paid directly from the special tax allocation fund established pursuant to this Act;

(B) such payments in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the redeveloper with regard to the redevelopment project during that year;

(C) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment pursuant to this paragraph (11) then the amounts so due shall accrue and be payable when sufficient funds are available in the special tax allocation fund;

(D) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total (i) cost paid or incurred by the redeveloper for the redevelopment project plus (ii) redevelopment project costs excluding any property assembly costs and any relocation costs incurred by a municipality pursuant to this Act; and

(E) the cost limits set forth in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11) shall be modified for the financing of rehabilitated or new housing units for low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The percentage of 75% shall be substituted for 30% in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11); and .

(F) instead Instead of the eligible costs provided by subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11), as modified by this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the municipality may pay from tax increment revenues up to 50% of the cost of construction of new housing units to be occupied by low-income households and very low-income households as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The cost of construction of those units may be derived from the proceeds of bonds issued by the municipality under this Act or other constitutional or statutory authority or from other sources of municipal revenue that may be reimbursed from tax increment revenues or the proceeds of bonds issued to finance the construction of that housing.

The eligible costs provided under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be an eligible cost for the construction, renovation, and rehabilitation of all low and very low-income housing units, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, within the redevelopment project area. If the low and very low-income units are part of a residential redevelopment project that includes units not affordable to low and very low-income households, only the low and very low-income units shall be eligible for benefits under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11). The standards for maintaining the occupancy by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, of those units constructed with eligible costs made available under the provisions of this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be established by guidelines adopted by the municipality. The responsibility for annually documenting the initial occupancy of the units by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, shall be that of the then current owner of the property. For ownership units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for a reasonable recapture of funds, or other appropriate methods designed to preserve the original affordability of the ownership units. For rental units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for the affordability of rent to low and very low-income households. As units become available, they shall be rented to income-eligible tenants. The municipality may modify these guidelines from time to time; the guidelines, however, shall be in effect for as long as tax increment revenue is being used to pay for costs associated with the units or for the retirement of bonds issued to finance the units or for the life of the redevelopment project area, whichever is later; .

(11.5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a municipality with a population of more than 100,000, the cost of day care services for children of employees from low-income families working for businesses located within the redevelopment project area and all or a portion of the cost of operation of day care centers established by redevelopment project area businesses to serve employees from low-income families working in businesses located in the redevelopment project area. For the purposes of this paragraph, "low-income families" means families whose annual income does not exceed 80% of the municipal, county, or regional median income, adjusted for family size, as the annual income and municipal, county, or regional median income are determined from time to time by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(12) Unless explicitly stated herein the cost of construction of new privately-owned buildings shall not be an eligible redevelopment project cost.

(13) After November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), none of the redevelopment project costs enumerated in this subsection shall be eligible redevelopment project costs if those costs would provide direct financial support to a retail entity initiating operations in the redevelopment project area while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 10 miles of the redevelopment project area but outside the boundaries of the redevelopment project area municipality. For purposes of this paragraph, termination means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a redevelopment project area, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality that the current location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

(14) No cost shall be a redevelopment project cost in a redevelopment project area if used to demolish, remove, or substantially modify a historic resource, after August 26, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-934), unless no prudent and feasible alternative exists. "Historic resource" for the purpose of this paragraph item (14) means (i) a place or structure that is included or eligible for inclusion on the National Register of Historic Places or (ii) a contributing structure in a district on the National Register of Historic Places. This paragraph item (14) does not apply to a place or structure for which demolition, removal, or modification is subject to review by the preservation agency of a Certified Local Government designated as such by the National Park Service of the United States Department of the Interior.

If a special service area has been established pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law may be used within the redevelopment project area for the purposes permitted by that Act or Law as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(q-1) For redevelopment project areas created pursuant to subsection (p-1), redevelopment project costs are limited to those costs in paragraph (q) that are related to the existing or proposed Regional Transportation Authority Suburban Transit Access Route (STAR Line) station.

(q-2) For a redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3, redevelopment project costs means those costs described in subsection (q) that are related to the construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, or repair of any existing or proposed transit facility.

(r) "State Sales Tax Boundary" means the redevelopment project area or the amended redevelopment project area boundaries which are determined pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a of this Act. The Department of Revenue shall certify pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a the appropriate boundaries eligible for the determination of State Sales Tax Increment.

(s) "State Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen, other than retailers and servicemen subject to the Public Utilities Act, on transactions at places of business located within a State Sales Tax Boundary pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, except such portion of such increase that is paid into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Local Government Distributive Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund, for as long as State participation exists, over and above the Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid under those Acts by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing, less 3.0% of such amounts generated under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which sum shall be appropriated to the Department of Revenue to cover its costs of administering and enforcing this Section. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall compute the Initial Sales Tax Amount for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amount". For purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the State Sales Tax Boundary, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989 this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, until June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial State Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending on June 30, to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts. Municipalities intending to receive a distribution of State Sales Tax Increment must report a list of retailers to the Department of Revenue by October 31, 1988 and by July 31, of each year thereafter.

(t) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, cities and incorporated towns and villages, school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium and any other municipal corporations or districts with the power to levy taxes.

(u) "Taxing districts' capital costs" means those costs of taxing districts for capital improvements that are found by the municipal corporate authorities to be necessary and directly result from the redevelopment project.

(v) As used in subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-3 of this Act, "vacant land" means any parcel or combination of parcels of real property without industrial, commercial, and residential buildings which has not been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area, unless the parcel is included in an industrial park conservation area or the parcel has been subdivided; provided that if the parcel was part of a larger tract that has been divided into 3 or more smaller tracts that were accepted for recording during the period from 1950 to 1990, then the parcel shall be deemed to have been subdivided, and all proceedings and actions of the municipality taken in that connection with respect to any previously approved or designated redevelopment project area or amended redevelopment project area are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act. For purposes of this Section and only for land subject to the subdivision requirements of the Plat Act, land is subdivided when the original plat of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly certified, acknowledged, approved, and recorded or filed in accordance with the Plat Act and a preliminary plat, if any, for any subsequent phases of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly approved and filed in accordance with the applicable ordinance of the municipality.

(w) "Annual Total Increment" means the sum of each municipality's annual Net Sales Tax Increment and each municipality's annual Net Utility Tax Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(x) "LEED certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design Accredited Professional as determined by the U.S. Green Building Council.

(y) "Green Globes certified" means any certification level of construction elements by a qualified Green Globes Professional as determined by the Green Building Initiative.

(Source: P.A. 99-792, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-31-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(a-5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted.

(a-7) A municipality may adopt tax increment financing for a redevelopment project area located in a transit facility improvement area that also includes real property located within an existing redevelopment project area established prior to August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-792) this amendatory Act of 99th General Assembly. In such case: (i) the provisions of this Division shall apply with respect to the previously established redevelopment project area until the municipality adopts, as required in accordance with applicable provisions of this Division, an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for such redevelopment project area and terminating the designation of such redevelopment project area as a redevelopment project area; and (ii) after the effective date of the ordinance described in (i), the provisions of this Division shall apply with respect to the subsequently established redevelopment project area located in a transit facility improvement area.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 28th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on October 12, 1989 by the City of Lawrenceville.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) If the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981.

(2) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989.

(3) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport.

(4) If the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County.

(5) If the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law.

(6) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont.

(7) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997.

(8) If the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis.

(9) If the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget.

(10) If the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island.

(11) If the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline.

(12) If the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village.

(13) If the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village.

(14) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva.

(15) If the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville.

(16) If the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis.

(17) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo.

(18) If the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton.

(19) If the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport.

(20) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola.

(21) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta.

(22) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown.

(23) If the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville.

(24) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville.

(25) If the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton.

(26) If the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington.

(27) If the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy.

(28) If the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham.

(29) If the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin.

(30) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign.

(31) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana.

(32) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth.

(33) If the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth.

(34) If the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth.

(35) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero.

(36) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham.

(37) If the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton.

(38) If the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst.

(39) If the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan.

(40) If the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan.

(41) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan.

(42) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan.

(43) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby.

(44) If the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion.

(45) If the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion.

(46) If the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect.

(47) If the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull.

(48) If the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville.

(49) If the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City.

(50) If the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard.

(51) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner.

(52) If the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw.

(53) If the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park.

(54) If the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland.

(55) If the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale.

(56) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg.

(57) If the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg.

(58) If the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago.

(59) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest.

(60) If the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove.

(61) If the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion.

(62) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno.

(63) If the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights.

(64) If the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont.

(65) If the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park.

(66) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb.

(67) If the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora.

(68) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan.

(69) If the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort.

(70) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville.

(71) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates.

(72) If the ordinance was adopted on September 17, 1986 by the Village of Sherman.

(73) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Macomb.

(74) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington Street TIF.

(75) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF.

(76) If the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000 by the City of Des Plaines.

(77) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington Square TIF #2.

(78) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Morris.

(79) If the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Steeleville.

(80) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St TIF).

(81) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the Interstate TIF).

(82) If the ordinance was adopted on November 6, 2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF District.

(83) If the ordinance was adopted on November 4, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine TIF District.

(84) If the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District.

(85) If the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall TIF District.

(86) If the ordinance was adopted on December 27, 1986 by the City of Mendota.

(87) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Cahokia.

(88) If the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1999 by the City of Belleville.

(89) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF District 1.

(90) If the ordinance was adopted on December 13, 1993 by the Village of Crete.

(91) If the ordinance was adopted on February 12, 2001 by the Village of Crete.

(92) If the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 2001 by the Village of Crete.

(93) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Champaign.

(94) If the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1986 by the City of Charleston.

(95) If the ordinance was adopted on June 6, 1989 by the Village of Romeoville.

(96) If the ordinance was adopted on October 14, 1993 and amended on August 2, 2010 by the City of Venice.

(97) If the ordinance was adopted on June 1, 1994 by the City of Markham.

(98) If the ordinance was adopted on May 19, 1998 by the Village of Bensenville.

(99) If the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1987 by the City of Dixon.

(100) If the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1988 by the Village of Lansing.

(101) If the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1998 by the City of Moline.

(102) If the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1991 by the Village of Glenwood.

(103) If the ordinance was adopted on January 28, 1992 by the City of East Peoria.

(104) If the ordinance was adopted on December 14, 1998 by the City of Carlyle.

(105) If the ordinance was adopted on May 17, 2000, as subsequently amended, by the City of Chicago to create the Midwest Redevelopment TIF District.

(106) If the ordinance was adopted on September 13, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Michigan/Cermak Area TIF District.

(107) If the ordinance was adopted on March 30, 1992 by the Village of Ohio.

(108) If the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Orangeville.

(109) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1997 by the Village of Germantown.

(110) If the ordinance was adopted on April 28, 2003 by Gibson City.

(111) If the ordinance was adopted on December 18, 1990 by the Village of Washington Park, but only after the Village of Washington Park becomes compliant with the reporting requirements under subsection (d) of Section 11-74.4-5, and after the State Comptroller's certification of such compliance.

(112) If the ordinance was adopted on February 28, 2000 by the City of Harvey.

(113) If the ordinance was adopted on January 11, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Read/Dunning TIF District.

(114) If the ordinance was adopted on July 24, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Sanitary and Ship Canal TIF District.

(115) If the ordinance was adopted on December 4, 2007 by the City of Naperville.

(116) If the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 2002 by the Village of Arlington Heights.

(117) If the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1991 by the Village of Machesney Park.

(118) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1993 by the City of Ottawa.

(119) If the ordinance was adopted on June 4, 1991 by the Village of Lansing.

(120) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 2004 by the Village of Fox Lake.

(121) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1992 by the City of Fairfield.

(122) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 1992 by the City of Mt. Sterling.

(123) If the ordinance was adopted on March 15, 2004 by the City of Batavia.

(124) If the ordinance was adopted on March 18, 2002 by the Village of Lake Zurich.

(125) If the ordinance was adopted on September 23, 1997 by the City of Granite City.

(126) If the ordinance was adopted on May 8, 2013 by the Village of Rosemont to create the Higgins Road/River Road TIF District No. 6.

(127) If the ordinance was adopted on November 22, 1993 by the City of Arcola.

(128) If the ordinance was adopted on September 7, 2004 by the City of Arcola.

(129) If the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1999 by the City of Paris.

(130) If the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1994 by the City of Ottawa to create the U.S. Route 6 East Ottawa TIF.

(131) If the ordinance was adopted on May 2, 2002 by the Village of Crestwood.

(132) If the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1992 by the City of Blue Island.

(133) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1993 by the City of Lacon.

(134) If the ordinance was adopted on May 4, 1998 by the Village of Bradford.

(135) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of Oak Forest.

(136) If the ordinance was adopted on November 16, 1992 by the City of Pinckneyville.

(137) If the ordinance was adopted on March 1, 2001 by the Village of South Jacksonville.

(138) If the ordinance was adopted on February 26, 1992 by the City of Chicago to create the Stockyards Southeast Quadrant TIF District.

(139) If the ordinance was adopted on January 25, 1993 by the City of LaSalle.

(140) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1997 by the Village of Dieterich.

(141) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 2016 by the Village of Rosemont to create the Balmoral/Pearl TIF No. 8 Tax Increment Financing Redevelopment Project Area.

(142) (132) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of Oak Forest.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f-5) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 47 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on December 29, 1981 by the City of Springfield; provided that (i) the City city of Springfield adopts an ordinance extending the life of the redevelopment project area to 47 years and (ii) the City of Springfield provides notice to the taxing bodies that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area not more than 30 and not less than 14 days prior to the adoption of that ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67), (68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-135, eff. 8-2-13; 98-230, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-614, eff. 12-27-13; 98-667, eff. 6-25-14; 98-889, eff. 8-15-14; 98-893, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1064, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1136, eff. 12-29-14; 98-1153, eff. 1-9-15; 98-1157, eff. 1-9-15; 98-1159, eff. 1-9-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-136, eff. 7-24-15; 99-263, eff. 8-4-15; 99-361, eff. 1-1-16; 99-394, eff. 8-18-15; 99-495, eff. 12-17-15; 99-508, eff. 6-24-16; 99-792, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-22-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-6) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-6)

Sec. 11-74.4-6. (a) Except as provided herein, notice of the public hearing shall be given by publication and mailing; provided, however, that no notice by mailing shall be required under this subsection (a) with respect to any redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3. Notice by publication shall be given by publication at least twice, the first publication to be not more than 30 nor less than 10 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the taxing districts having property in the proposed redevelopment project area. Notice by mailing shall be given by depositing such notice in the United States mails by certified mail addressed to the person or persons in whose name the general taxes for the last preceding year were paid on each lot, block, tract, or parcel of land lying within the project redevelopment area. Said notice shall be mailed not less than 10 days prior to the date set for the public hearing. In the event taxes for the last preceding year were not paid, the notice shall also be sent to the persons last listed on the tax rolls within the preceding 3 years as the owners of such property. For redevelopment project areas with redevelopment plans or proposed redevelopment plans that would require removal of 10 or more inhabited residential units or that contain 75 or more inhabited residential units, the municipality shall make a good faith effort to notify by mail all residents of the redevelopment project area. At a minimum, the municipality shall mail a notice to each residential address located within the redevelopment project area. The municipality shall endeavor to ensure that all such notices are effectively communicated and shall include (in addition to notice in English) notice in the predominant language other than English when appropriate.

(b) The notices issued pursuant to this Section shall include the following:

(1) The time and place of public hearing.

(2) The boundaries of the proposed redevelopment project area by legal description and by street location where possible.

(3) A notification that all interested persons will be given an opportunity to be heard at the public hearing.

(4) A description of the redevelopment plan or redevelopment project for the proposed redevelopment project area if a plan or project is the subject matter of the hearing.

(5) Such other matters as the municipality may deem appropriate.

(c) Not less than 45 days prior to the date set for hearing, the municipality shall give notice by mail as provided in subsection (a) to all taxing districts of which taxable property is included in the redevelopment project area, project or plan and to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in addition to the other requirements under subsection (b) the notice shall include an invitation to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and each taxing district to submit comments to the municipality concerning the subject matter of the hearing prior to the date of hearing.

(d) In the event that any municipality has by ordinance adopted tax increment financing prior to 1987, and has complied with the notice requirements of this Section, except that the notice has not included the requirements of subsection (b), paragraphs (2), (3) and (4), and within 90 days of December 16, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-813) this amendatory Act of 1991, that municipality passes an ordinance which contains findings that: (1) all taxing districts prior to the time of the hearing required by Section 11-74.4-5 were furnished with copies of a map incorporated into the redevelopment plan and project substantially showing the legal boundaries of the redevelopment project area; (2) the redevelopment plan and project, or a draft thereof, contained a map substantially showing the legal boundaries of the redevelopment project area and was available to the public at the time of the hearing; and (3) since the adoption of any form of tax increment financing authorized by this Act, and prior to June 1, 1991, no objection or challenge has been made in writing to the municipality in respect to the notices required by this Section, then the municipality shall be deemed to have met the notice requirements of this Act and all actions of the municipality taken in connection with such notices as were given are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act.

(e) If a municipality desires to propose a redevelopment plan for a redevelopment project area that would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units or for a redevelopment project area that contains 75 or more inhabited residential units, the municipality shall hold a public meeting before the mailing of the notices of public hearing as provided in subsection (c) of this Section. However, such a meeting shall be required for any redevelopment plan for a redevelopment project area located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3.3 if the applicable project is subject to the process for evaluation of environmental effects under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. § 4321 et seq. The meeting shall be for the purpose of enabling the municipality to advise the public, taxing districts having real property in the redevelopment project area, taxpayers who own property in the proposed redevelopment project area, and residents in the area as to the municipality's possible intent to prepare a redevelopment plan and designate a redevelopment project area and to receive public comment. The time and place for the meeting shall be set by the head of the municipality's Department of Planning or other department official designated by the mayor or city or village manager without the necessity of a resolution or ordinance of the municipality and may be held by a member of the staff of the Department of Planning of the municipality or by any other person, body, or commission designated by the corporate authorities. The meeting shall be held at least 14 business days before the mailing of the notice of public hearing provided for in subsection (c) of this Section.

Notice of the public meeting shall be given by mail. Notice by mail shall be not less than 15 days before the date of the meeting and shall be sent by certified mail to all taxing districts having real property in the proposed redevelopment project area and to all entities requesting that information that have registered with a person and department designated by the municipality in accordance with registration guidelines established by the municipality pursuant to Section 11-74.4-4.2. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to notify all residents and the last known persons who paid property taxes on real estate in a redevelopment project area. This requirement shall be deemed to be satisfied if the municipality mails, by regular mail, a notice to each residential address and the person or persons in whose name property taxes were paid on real property for the last preceding year located within the redevelopment project area. Notice shall be in languages other than English when appropriate. The notices issued under this subsection shall include the following:

(1) The time and place of the meeting.

(2) The boundaries of the area to be studied for possible designation as a redevelopment project area by street and location.

(3) The purpose or purposes of establishing a redevelopment project area.

(4) A brief description of tax increment financing.

(5) The name, telephone number, and address of the person who can be contacted for additional information about the proposed redevelopment project area and who should receive all comments and suggestions regarding the development of the area to be studied.

(6) Notification that all interested persons will be given an opportunity to be heard at the public meeting.

(7) Such other matters as the municipality deems appropriate.

At the public meeting, any interested person or representative of an affected taxing district may be heard orally and may file, with the person conducting the meeting, statements that pertain to the subject matter of the meeting.

(Source: P.A. 99-792, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-31-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-8a) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-8a)

Sec. 11-74.4-8a. (1) Until June 1, 1988, a municipality which has adopted tax increment allocation financing prior to January 1, 1987, may by ordinance (1) authorize the Department of Revenue, subject to appropriation, to annually certify and cause to be paid from the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to such municipality for deposit in the municipality's special tax allocation fund an amount equal to the Net State Sales Tax Increment and (2) authorize the Department of Revenue to annually notify the municipality of the amount of the Municipal Sales Tax Increment which shall be deposited by the municipality in the municipality's special tax allocation fund. Provided that for purposes of this Section no amendments adding additional area to the redevelopment project area which has been certified as the State Sales Tax Boundary shall be taken into account if such amendments are adopted by the municipality after January 1, 1987. If an amendment is adopted which decreases the area of a State Sales Tax Boundary, the municipality shall update the list required by subsection (3)(a) of this Section. The Retailers' Occupation Tax liability, Use Tax liability, Service Occupation Tax liability and Service Use Tax liability for retailers and servicemen located within the disconnected area shall be excluded from the base from which tax increments are calculated and the revenue from any such retailer or serviceman shall not be included in calculating incremental revenue payable to the municipality. A municipality adopting an ordinance under this subsection (1) of this Section for a redevelopment project area which is certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary shall not be entitled to payments of State taxes authorized under subsection (2) of this Section for the same redevelopment project area. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a municipality from receiving payment of State taxes authorized under subsection (2) of this Section for a separate redevelopment project area that does not overlap in any way with the State Sales Tax Boundary receiving payments of State taxes pursuant to subsection (1) of this Section.

A certified copy of such ordinance shall be submitted by the municipality to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Department of Revenue not later than 30 days after the effective date of the ordinance. Upon submission of the ordinances, and the information required pursuant to subsection 3 of this Section, the Department of Revenue shall promptly determine the amount of such taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in the redevelopment project area during the base year, and shall certify all the foregoing "initial sales tax amounts" to the municipality within 60 days of submission of the list required of subsection (3)(a) of this Section.

If a retailer or serviceman with a place of business located within a redevelopment project area also has one or more other places of business within the municipality but outside the redevelopment project area, the retailer or serviceman shall, upon request of the Department of Revenue, certify to the Department of Revenue the amount of taxes paid pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act at each place of business which is located within the redevelopment project area in the manner and for the periods of time requested by the Department of Revenue.

When the municipality determines that a portion of an increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, or the Service Occupation Tax Act is the result of a retailer or serviceman initiating retail or service operations in the redevelopment project area by such retailer or serviceman with a resulting termination of retail or service operations by such retailer or serviceman at another location in Illinois in the standard metropolitan statistical area of such municipality, the Department of Revenue shall be notified that the retailers occupation tax liability, use tax liability, service occupation tax liability, or service use tax liability from such retailer's or serviceman's terminated operation shall be included in the base Initial Sales Tax Amounts from which the State Sales Tax Increment is calculated for purposes of State payments to the affected municipality; provided, however, for purposes of this paragraph "termination" shall mean a closing of a retail or service operation which is directly related to the opening of the same retail or service operation in a redevelopment project area which is included within a State Sales Tax Boundary, but it shall not include retail or service operations closed for reasons beyond the control of the retailer or serviceman, as determined by the Department.

If the municipality makes the determination referred to in the prior paragraph and notifies the Department and if the relocation is from a location within the municipality, the Department, at the request of the municipality, shall adjust the certified aggregate amount of taxes that constitute the Municipal Sales Tax Increment paid by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year using the same procedures as are employed to make the adjustment referred to in the prior paragraph. The adjusted Municipal Sales Tax Increment calculated by the Department shall be sufficient to satisfy the requirements of subsection (1) of this Section.

When a municipality which has adopted tax increment allocation financing in 1986 determines that a portion of the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen under the Retailers Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, or Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, includes revenue of a retailer or serviceman which terminated retailer or service operations in 1986, prior to the adoption of tax increment allocation financing, the Department of Revenue shall be notified by such municipality that the retailers' occupation tax liability, use tax liability, service occupation tax liability or service use tax liability, from such retailer's or serviceman's terminated operations shall be excluded from the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes. The revenue from any such retailer or serviceman which is excluded from the base year under this paragraph, shall not be included in calculating incremental revenues if such retailer or serviceman reestablishes such business in the redevelopment project area.

For State fiscal year 1992, the Department of Revenue shall budget, and the Illinois General Assembly shall appropriate from the Illinois Tax Increment Fund in the State treasury, an amount not to exceed $18,000,000 to pay to each eligible municipality the Net State Sales Tax Increment to which such municipality is entitled.

Beginning on January 1, 1993, each municipality's proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund shall be determined by adding the annual Net State Sales Tax Increment and the annual Net Utility Tax Increment to determine the Annual Total Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

Beginning in October, 1993, and each January, April, July and October thereafter, the Department of Revenue shall certify to the Treasurer and the Comptroller the amounts payable quarter annually during the fiscal year to each municipality under this Section. The Comptroller shall promptly then draw warrants, ordering the State Treasurer to pay such amounts from the Illinois Tax Increment Fund in the State treasury.

The Department of Revenue shall utilize the same periods established for determining State Sales Tax Increment to determine the Municipal Sales Tax Increment for the area within a State Sales Tax Boundary and certify such amounts to such municipal treasurer who shall transfer such amounts to the special tax allocation fund.

The provisions of this subsection (1) do not apply to additional municipal retailers' occupation or service occupation taxes imposed by municipalities using their home rule powers or imposed pursuant to Sections 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4 and 8-11-1.5 of this Act. A municipality shall not receive from the State any share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund unless such municipality deposits all its Municipal Sales Tax Increment and the local incremental real property tax revenues, as provided herein, into the appropriate special tax allocation fund. If, however, a municipality has extended the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013 under subsection (n) of Section 11-74.4-3, then that municipality shall continue to receive from the State a share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund so long as the municipality deposits, from any funds available, excluding funds in the special tax allocation fund, an amount equal to the municipal share of the real property tax increment revenues into the special tax allocation fund during the extension period. The amount to be deposited by the municipality in each of the tax years affected by the extension to December 31, 2013 shall be equal to the municipal share of the property tax increment deposited into the special tax allocation fund by the municipality for the most recent year that the property tax increment was distributed. A municipality located within an economic development project area created under the County Economic Development Project Area Property Tax Allocation Act which has abated any portion of its property taxes which otherwise would have been deposited in its special tax allocation fund shall not receive from the State the Net Sales Tax Increment.

(2) A municipality which has adopted tax increment allocation financing with regard to an industrial park or industrial park conservation area, prior to January 1, 1988, may by ordinance authorize the Department of Revenue to annually certify and pay from the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to such municipality for deposit in the municipality's special tax allocation fund an amount equal to the Net State Utility Tax Increment. Provided that for purposes of this Section no amendments adding additional area to the redevelopment project area shall be taken into account if such amendments are adopted by the municipality after January 1, 1988. Municipalities adopting an ordinance under this subsection (2) of this Section for a redevelopment project area shall not be entitled to payment of State taxes authorized under subsection (1) of this Section for the same redevelopment project area which is within a State Sales Tax Boundary. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a municipality from receiving payment of State taxes authorized under subsection (1) of this Section for a separate redevelopment project area within a State Sales Tax Boundary that does not overlap in any way with the redevelopment project area receiving payments of State taxes pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section.

A certified copy of such ordinance shall be submitted to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Department of Revenue not later than 30 days after the effective date of the ordinance.

When a municipality determines that a portion of an increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by industrial or commercial facilities under the Public Utilities Act, is the result of an industrial or commercial facility initiating operations in the redevelopment project area with a resulting termination of such operations by such industrial or commercial facility at another location in Illinois, the Department of Revenue shall be notified by such municipality that such industrial or commercial facility's liability under the Public Utility Tax Act shall be included in the base from which tax increments are calculated for purposes of State payments to the affected municipality.

After receipt of the calculations by the public utility as required by subsection (4) of this Section, the Department of Revenue shall annually budget and the Illinois General Assembly shall annually appropriate from the General Revenue Fund through State Fiscal Year 1989, and thereafter from the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, an amount sufficient to pay to each eligible municipality the amount of incremental revenue attributable to State electric and gas taxes as reflected by the charges imposed on persons in the project area to which such municipality is entitled by comparing the preceding calendar year with the base year as determined by this Section. Beginning on January 1, 1993, each municipality's proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund shall be determined by adding the annual Net State Utility Tax Increment and the annual Net Utility Tax Increment to determine the Annual Total Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

A municipality shall not receive any share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund from the State unless such municipality imposes the maximum municipal charges authorized pursuant to Section 9-221 of the Public Utilities Act and deposits all municipal utility tax incremental revenues as certified by the public utilities, and all local real estate tax increments into such municipality's special tax allocation fund.

(3) Within 30 days after the adoption of the ordinance required by either subsection (1) or subsection (2) of this Section, the municipality shall transmit to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and the Department of Revenue the following:

(a) if applicable, a certified copy of the ordinance required by subsection (1) accompanied by a complete list of street names and the range of street numbers of each street located within the redevelopment project area for which payments are to be made under this Section in both the base year and in the year preceding the payment year; and the addresses of persons registered with the Department of Revenue; and, the name under which each such retailer or serviceman conducts business at that address, if different from the corporate name; and the Illinois Business Tax Number of each such person (The municipality shall update this list in the event of a revision of the redevelopment project area, or the opening or closing or name change of any street or part thereof in the redevelopment project area, or if the Department of Revenue informs the municipality of an addition or deletion pursuant to the monthly updates given by the Department.);

(b) if applicable, a certified copy of the ordinance required by subsection (2) accompanied by a complete list of street names and range of street numbers of each street located within the redevelopment project area, the utility customers in the project area, and the utilities serving the redevelopment project areas;

(c) certified copies of the ordinances approving the redevelopment plan and designating the redevelopment project area;

(d) a copy of the redevelopment plan as approved by the municipality;

(e) an opinion of legal counsel that the municipality had complied with the requirements of this Act; and

(f) a certification by the chief executive officer of the municipality that with regard to a redevelopment project area: (1) the municipality has committed all of the municipal tax increment created pursuant to this Act for deposit in the special tax allocation fund, (2) the redevelopment projects described in the redevelopment plan would not be completed without the use of State incremental revenues pursuant to this Act, (3) the municipality will pursue the implementation of the redevelopment plan in an expeditious manner, (4) the incremental revenues created pursuant to this Section will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area, and (5) the increased revenue created pursuant to this Section shall be used exclusively to pay redevelopment project costs as defined in this Act.

(4) The Department of Revenue upon receipt of the information set forth in paragraph (b) of subsection (3) shall immediately forward such information to each public utility furnishing natural gas or electricity to buildings within the redevelopment project area. Upon receipt of such information, each public utility shall promptly:

(a) provide to the Department of Revenue and the municipality separate lists of the names and addresses of persons within the redevelopment project area receiving natural gas or electricity from such public utility. Such list shall be updated as necessary by the public utility. Each month thereafter the public utility shall furnish the Department of Revenue and the municipality with an itemized listing of charges imposed pursuant to Sections 9-221 and 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act on persons within the redevelopment project area.

(b) determine the amount of charges imposed pursuant to Sections 9-221 and 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act on persons in the redevelopment project area during the base year, both as a result of municipal taxes on electricity and gas and as a result of State taxes on electricity and gas and certify such amounts both to the municipality and the Department of Revenue; and

(c) determine the amount of charges imposed pursuant to Sections 9-221 and 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act on persons in the redevelopment project area on a monthly basis during the base year, both as a result of State and municipal taxes on electricity and gas and certify such separate amounts both to the municipality and the Department of Revenue.

After the determinations are made in paragraphs (b) and (c), the public utility shall monthly during the existence of the redevelopment project area notify the Department of Revenue and the municipality of any increase in charges over the base year determinations made pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c).

(5) The payments authorized under this Section shall be deposited by the municipal treasurer in the special tax allocation fund of the municipality, which for accounting purposes shall identify the sources of each payment as: municipal receipts from the State retailers occupation, service occupation, use and service use taxes; and municipal public utility taxes charged to customers under the Public Utilities Act and State public utility taxes charged to customers under the Public Utilities Act.

(6) Before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, any municipality receiving payments authorized under this Section for any redevelopment project area or area within a State Sales Tax Boundary within the municipality shall submit to the Department of Revenue and to the taxing districts which are sent the notice required by Section 6 of this Act annually within 180 days after the close of each municipal fiscal year the following information for the immediately preceding fiscal year:

(a) Any amendments to the redevelopment plan, the redevelopment project area, or the State Sales Tax Boundary.

(b) Audited financial statements of the special tax allocation fund.

(c) Certification of the Chief Executive Officer of the municipality that the municipality has complied with all of the requirements of this Act during the preceding fiscal year.

(d) An opinion of legal counsel that the municipality is in compliance with this Act.

(e) An analysis of the special tax allocation fund which sets forth:

(1) the balance in the special tax allocation fund at the beginning of the fiscal year;

(2) all amounts deposited in the special tax allocation fund by source;

(3) all expenditures from the special tax allocation fund by category of permissible redevelopment project cost; and

(4) the balance in the special tax allocation fund at the end of the fiscal year including a breakdown of that balance by source. Such ending balance shall be designated as surplus if it is not required for anticipated redevelopment project costs or to pay debt service on bonds issued to finance redevelopment project costs, as set forth in Section 11-74.4-7 hereof.

(f) A description of all property purchased by the municipality within the redevelopment project area including:

1. Street address

2. Approximate size or description of property

3. Purchase price

4. Seller of property.

(g) A statement setting forth all activities undertaken in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan, including:

1. Any project implemented in the preceding fiscal year

2. A description of the redevelopment activities undertaken

3. A description of any agreements entered into by the municipality with regard to the disposition or redevelopment of any property within the redevelopment project area or the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary.

(h) With regard to any obligations issued by the municipality:

1. copies of bond ordinances or resolutions

2. copies of any official statements

3. an analysis prepared by financial advisor or underwriter setting forth: (a) nature and term of obligation; and (b) projected debt service including required reserves and debt coverage.

(i) A certified audit report reviewing compliance with this statute performed by an independent public accountant certified and licensed by the authority of the State of Illinois. The financial portion of the audit must be conducted in accordance with Standards for Audits of Governmental Organizations, Programs, Activities, and Functions adopted by the Comptroller General of the United States (1981), as amended. The audit report shall contain a letter from the independent certified public accountant indicating compliance or noncompliance with the requirements of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3. If the audit indicates that expenditures are not in compliance with the law, the Department of Revenue shall withhold State sales and utility tax increment payments to the municipality until compliance has been reached, and an amount equal to the ineligible expenditures has been returned to the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

(6.1) After July 29, 1988 and before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, any funds which have not been designated for use in a specific development project in the annual report shall be designated as surplus. No funds may be held in the Special Tax Allocation Fund for more than 36 months from the date of receipt unless the money is required for payment of contractual obligations for specific development project costs. If held for more than 36 months in violation of the preceding sentence, such funds shall be designated as surplus. Any funds designated as surplus must first be used for early redemption of any bond obligations. Any funds designated as surplus which are not disposed of as otherwise provided in this paragraph, shall be distributed as surplus as provided in Section 11-74.4-7.

(7) Any appropriation made pursuant to this Section for the 1987 State fiscal year shall not exceed the amount of $7 million and for the 1988 State fiscal year the amount of $10 million. The amount which shall be distributed to each municipality shall be the incremental revenue to which each municipality is entitled as calculated by the Department of Revenue, unless the requests of the municipality exceed the appropriation, then the amount to which each municipality shall be entitled shall be prorated among the municipalities in the same proportion as the increment to which the municipality would be entitled bears to the total increment which all municipalities would receive in the absence of this limitation, provided that no municipality may receive an amount in excess of 15% of the appropriation. For the 1987 Net State Sales Tax Increment payable in Fiscal Year 1989, no municipality shall receive more than 7.5% of the total appropriation; provided, however, that any of the appropriation remaining after such distribution shall be prorated among municipalities on the basis of their pro rata share of the total increment. Beginning on January 1, 1993, each municipality's proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund shall be determined by adding the annual Net State Sales Tax Increment and the annual Net Utility Tax Increment to determine the Annual Total Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(7.1) No distribution of Net State Sales Tax Increment to a municipality for an area within a State Sales Tax Boundary shall exceed in any State Fiscal Year an amount equal to 3 times the sum of the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the real property tax increment and deposits of funds from other sources, excluding state and federal funds, as certified by the city treasurer to the Department of Revenue for an area within a State Sales Tax Boundary. After July 29, 1988, for those municipalities which issue bonds between June 1, 1988 and 3 years from July 29, 1988 to finance redevelopment projects within the area in a State Sales Tax Boundary, the distribution of Net State Sales Tax Increment during the 16th through 20th years from the date of issuance of the bonds shall not exceed in any State Fiscal Year an amount equal to 2 times the sum of the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the real property tax increment and deposits of funds from other sources, excluding State and federal funds.

(8) Any person who knowingly files or causes to be filed false information for the purpose of increasing the amount of any State tax incremental revenue commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(9) The following procedures shall be followed to determine whether municipalities have complied with the Act for the purpose of receiving distributions after July 1, 1989 pursuant to subsection (1) of this Section 11-74.4-8a.

(a) The Department of Revenue shall conduct a preliminary review of the redevelopment project areas and redevelopment plans pertaining to those municipalities receiving payments from the State pursuant to subsection (1) of Section 8a of this Act for the purpose of determining compliance with the following standards:

(1) For any municipality with a population of more than 12,000 as determined by the 1980 U.S. Census: (a) the redevelopment project area, or in the case of a municipality which has more than one redevelopment project area, each such area, must be contiguous and the total of all such areas shall not comprise more than 25% of the area within the municipal boundaries nor more than 20% of the equalized assessed value of the municipality; (b) the aggregate amount of 1985 taxes in the redevelopment project area, or in the case of a municipality which has more than one redevelopment project area, the total of all such areas, shall be not more than 25% of the total base year taxes paid by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the municipality under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act. Redevelopment project areas created prior to 1986 are not subject to the above standards if their boundaries were not amended in 1986.

(2) For any municipality with a population of 12,000 or less as determined by the 1980 U.S. Census: (a) the redevelopment project area, or in the case of a municipality which has more than one redevelopment project area, each such area, must be contiguous and the total of all such areas shall not comprise more than 35% of the area within the municipal boundaries nor more than 30% of the equalized assessed value of the municipality; (b) the aggregate amount of 1985 taxes in the redevelopment project area, or in the case of a municipality which has more than one redevelopment project area, the total of all such areas, shall not be more than 35% of the total base year taxes paid by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the municipality under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act. Redevelopment project areas created prior to 1986 are not subject to the above standards if their boundaries were not amended in 1986.

(3) Such preliminary review of the redevelopment project areas applying the above standards shall be completed by November 1, 1988, and on or before November 1, 1988, the Department shall notify each municipality by certified mail, return receipt requested that either (1) the Department requires additional time in which to complete its preliminary review; or (2) the Department is issuing either (a) a Certificate of Eligibility or (b) a Notice of Review. If the Department notifies a municipality that it requires additional time to complete its preliminary investigation, it shall complete its preliminary investigation no later than February 1, 1989, and by February 1, 1989 shall issue to each municipality either (a) a Certificate of Eligibility or (b) a Notice of Review. A redevelopment project area for which a Certificate of Eligibility has been issued shall be deemed a "State Sales Tax Boundary."

(4) The Department of Revenue shall also issue a Notice of Review if the Department has received a request by November 1, 1988 to conduct such a review from taxpayers in the municipality, local taxing districts located in the municipality or the State of Illinois, or if the redevelopment project area has more than 5 retailers and has had growth in State sales tax revenue of more than 15% from calendar year 1985 to 1986.

(b) For those municipalities receiving a Notice of Review, the Department will conduct a secondary review consisting of: (i) application of the above standards contained in subsection (9)(a)(1)(a) and (b) or (9)(a)(2)(a) and (b), and (ii) the definitions of blighted and conservation area provided for in Section 11-74.4-3. Such secondary review shall be completed by July 1, 1989.

Upon completion of the secondary review, the Department will issue (a) a Certificate of Eligibility or (b) a Preliminary Notice of Deficiency. Any municipality receiving a Preliminary Notice of Deficiency may amend its redevelopment project area to meet the standards and definitions set forth in this paragraph (b). This amended redevelopment project area shall become the "State Sales Tax Boundary" for purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment.

(c) If the municipality advises the Department of its intent to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this subsection outlined in the Preliminary Notice of Deficiency, within 120 days of receiving such notice from the Department, the municipality shall submit documentation to the Department of the actions it has taken to cure any deficiencies. Thereafter, within 30 days of the receipt of the documentation, the Department shall either issue a Certificate of Eligibility or a Final Notice of Deficiency. If the municipality fails to advise the Department of its intent to comply or fails to submit adequate documentation of such cure of deficiencies the Department shall issue a Final Notice of Deficiency that provides that the municipality is ineligible for payment of the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(d) If the Department issues a final determination of ineligibility, the municipality shall have 30 days from the receipt of determination to protest and request a hearing. Such hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Sections 10-25, 10-35, 10-40, and 10-50 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The decision following the hearing shall be subject to review under the Administrative Review Law.

(e) Any Certificate of Eligibility issued pursuant to this subsection 9 shall be binding only on the State for the purposes of establishing municipal eligibility to receive revenue pursuant to subsection (1) of this Section 11-74.4-8a.

(f) It is the intent of this subsection that the periods of time to cure deficiencies shall be in addition to all other periods of time permitted by this Section, regardless of the date by which plans were originally required to be adopted. To cure said deficiencies, however, the municipality shall be required to follow the procedures and requirements pertaining to amendments, as provided in Sections 11-74.4-5 and 11-74.4-6 of this Act.

(10) If a municipality adopts a State Sales Tax Boundary in accordance with the provisions of subsection (9) of this Section, such boundaries shall subsequently be utilized to determine Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts and the Net State Sales Tax Increment; provided, however, that such revised State Sales Tax Boundary shall not have any effect upon the boundary of the redevelopment project area established for the purposes of determining the ad valorem taxes on real property pursuant to Sections 11-74.4-7 and 11-74.4-8 of this Act nor upon the municipality's authority to implement the redevelopment plan for that redevelopment project area. For any redevelopment project area with a smaller State Sales Tax Boundary within its area, the municipality may annually elect to deposit the Municipal Sales Tax Increment for the redevelopment project area in the special tax allocation fund and shall certify the amount to the Department prior to receipt of the Net State Sales Tax Increment. Any municipality required by subsection (9) to establish a State Sales Tax Boundary for one or more of its redevelopment project areas shall submit all necessary information required by the Department concerning such boundary and the retailers therein, by October 1, 1989, after complying with the procedures for amendment set forth in Sections 11-74.4-5 and 11-74.4-6 of this Act. Net State Sales Tax Increment produced within the State Sales Tax Boundary shall be spent only within that area. However expenditures of all municipal property tax increment and municipal sales tax increment in a redevelopment project area are not required to be spent within the smaller State Sales Tax Boundary within such redevelopment project area.

(11) The Department of Revenue shall have the authority to issue rules and regulations for purposes of this Section. and regulations for purposes of this Section.

(12) If, under Section 5.4.1 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a municipality determines that property that lies within a State Sales Tax Boundary has an improvement, rehabilitation, or renovation that is entitled to a property tax abatement, then that property along with any improvements, rehabilitation, or renovations shall be immediately removed from any State Sales Tax Boundary. The municipality that made the determination shall notify the Department of Revenue within 30 days after the determination. Once a property is removed from the State Sales Tax Boundary because of the existence of a property tax abatement resulting from an enterprise zone, then that property shall not be permitted to be amended into a State Sales Tax Boundary.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 9-21-16.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-102-2) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-102-2)

Sec. 11-102-2. Every municipality specified in Section 11-102-1 may purchase, construct, reconstruct, expand and improve landing fields, landing strips, landing floats, hangars hangers, terminal buildings and other structures relating thereto and may provide terminal facilities for public airports; may construct, reconstruct and improve causeways, roadways, and bridges for approaches to or connections with the landing fields, landing strips and landing floats; and may construct and maintain breakwaters for the protection of such airports with a water front. Before any work of construction is commenced in, over or upon any public waters of the state, the plans and specifications therefor shall be submitted to and approved by the Department of Transportation of the state. Submission to and approval by the Department of Transportation is not required for any work or construction undertaken as part of the O'Hare Modernization Program as defined in Section 10 of the O'Hare Modernization Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-450, eff. 8-6-03; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 285. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by renumbering Section 11l as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/11m)

Sec. 11m 11l. Enforcement of the Fire Investigation Act.

(a) The fire chief has the authority to enforce the provisions of any rules adopted by the State Fire Marshal under the provisions of the Fire Investigation Act or to carry out the duties imposed on local officers under Section 9 of the Fire Investigation Act as provided in this Section.

(b) In the event that a fire chief determines that a dangerous condition or fire hazard is found to exist contrary to the rules referred to in Section 9 of the Fire Investigation Act, or if a dangerous condition or fire hazard is found to exist as specified in the first paragraph of Section 9 of the Fire Investigation Act, the fire chief shall order the dangerous condition or fire hazard removed or remedied and shall so notify the owner, occupant, or other interested person in the premises. Service of the notice upon the owner, occupant, or other interested person may be made in person or by registered or certified mail. If the owner, occupant, or other interested person cannot be located by the fire chief, the fire chief may post the order upon the premises where the dangerous condition or fire hazard exists.

(c) In the event that a fire chief determines that the dangerous condition or fire hazard which has been found to exist places persons occupying or present in the premises at risk of imminent bodily injury or serious harm, the fire chief may, as part of the order issued under subsection (b), order that the premises where such condition or fire hazard exists be immediately vacated and not be occupied until the fire chief inspects the premises and issues a notice that the dangerous condition or fire hazard is no longer present and that the premises may be occupied. An order under this subsection (c) shall be effective immediately and notice of the order may be given by the fire chief by posting the order at premises where the dangerous condition or fire hazard exists.

(d) In the event an owner, occupant, or other interested person fails to comply with an order issued by a fire chief under subsections (b) or (c), the fire chief may refer the order to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney may apply to the circuit court for enforcement of the order of the fire chief, as issued by the fire chief or as modified by the circuit court, under the provisions of Article XI of the Code of Civil Procedure by temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction or permanent injunction, provided, however, that no bond shall be required by the court under Section 11-103 of the Code of Civil Procedure and no damages may be assessed by the court under Section 11-110 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) The provisions of this Section are supplementary to the provisions of the Fire Investigation Act and do not limit the authority of any fire chief or other local officers charged with the responsibility of investigating fires under Section 9 of the Fire Investigation Act or any other law or limit the authority of the State Fire Marshal under the Fire Investigation Act or any other law.

(Source: P.A. 99-811, eff. 8-15-16; revised 10-19-16.)

Section 290. The Park District Code is amended by changing Section 9-2c as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/9-2c) (from Ch. 105, par. 9-2c)

Sec. 9-2c. Whenever the proposition is submitted to the voters of any park district to levy a tax for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, maintaining, and operating airports and landing fields for aircraft as provided in Section 9-2b, and a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition is in favor of the levy of such tax, the board of any such park district may provide that bonds of such park district be issued for the purpose of acquiring and constructing airports and landing fields for aircraft, or for the purpose of improving and extending such facilities when constructed. The bonds shall be authorized by ordinance of the board, shall mature serially in not to exceed 20 years from their date, and bear such rate of interest as the board may determine, not, however, to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract, payable semi-annually, and shall be sold by the board as it may determine but for not less than the par value thereof and accrued interest. The bonds shall be signed by the president (or such official as the board may designate) and secretary and countersigned by the treasurer with the corporate seal of the district affixed. The bonds shall be authorized by the board of the district by ordinance which shall fix all the details of the bonds and provide for a levy of a tax sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on the bonds as they mature. A certified copy of the ordinance shall be filed in the office of the clerk of the county wherein the park district is situated, and the county clerk shall extend a tax sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on the bonds as they mature without limitation as to rate or amount, and the county clerk shall reduce the tax rate levied by the district pursuant to Section 9-2b by the amount of the rate extended for payment of principal and interest of the bonds. The clerk shall extend the tax as provided in Section 6-6. If the rate necessary to be extended for the payment of principal and interest of the bonds exceeds the rate authorized to be levied by the district, pursuant to Section 9-2b, then the rate of tax for the payment of bonds and interest only shall be extended. Where the district is situated in more than one county the tax shall be certified, apportioned and levied as provided in Section 5-4. Notwithstanding the foregoing, after July 28, 1969, any park district may issue bonds under this Section for the purpose of maintaining, improving or replacing its existing airport facilities or landing fields to the extent required to conform to the standards of the Department of Transportation or of any appropriate federal agency relating to a State or of federal airports plan or airways system. If such bonds are issued the tax levied for the payment of principal and interest of the bonds as they mature shall be in addition to that levied by the district under Section 9-2b and the county clerk shall extend both taxes accordingly. The aggregate principal amount of bonds issued under this Section that may be outstanding at any time may not exceed 1/2 of 1% of the aggregate valuation of all taxable property within the district, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. No bond ordinance may take effect nor may bonds be issued thereunder if the amount of bonds taken with the outstanding principal indebtedness under this Section exceeds the 1/2 of 1% limit unless the question of whether such additional bonds shall be issued is submitted to the legal voters of the district, in the manner provided by Section 6-4, and a majority of those voting on the proposition vote in favor thereof. In no event may the principal aggregate amount of any bonds issued under such ordinance exceed, together with the principal amount of bonds previously issued under this Section and then outstanding, 1 1/4% of the aggregate valuation of all taxable property within the district, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue.

Bonds issued under this Section are not a part of the existing indebtedness of a park district for purposes of Article 6 of this Code.

With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989, it is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 86-494; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 295. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Section 26.10-8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/26.10-8)

Sec. 26.10-8. Procedures for design-build selection.

(a) The Chicago Park District must use a two-phase procedure for the selection of the successful design-build entity. Phase I of the procedure will evaluate and shortlist the design-build entities based on qualifications, and Phase II will evaluate the technical and cost proposals.

(b) The Chicago Park District shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in Phase I. These factors are in addition to any prequalification requirements of design-build entities that the Chicago Park District has set forth. Each request for proposal shall establish the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the Chicago Park District. The Chicago Park District must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The Chicago Park District shall include the following criteria in every Phase I evaluation of design-build entities: (1) experience of personnel; (2) successful experience with similar project types; (3) financial capability; (4) timeliness of past performance; (5) experience with similarly sized projects; (6) successful reference checks of the firm; (7) commitment to assign personnel for the duration of the project and qualifications of the entity's consultants; and (8) ability or past performance in meeting or exhausting good faith efforts to meet the utilization goals for minority and women business enterprises established by the corporate authorities of the Chicago Park District and in complying with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The Chicago Park District may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review. The Chicago Park District may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review.

The Chicago Park District may not consider any design-build entity for evaluation or award if the entity has any pecuniary interest in the project or has other relationships or circumstances, including but not limited to, long-term leasehold, mutual performance, or development contracts with the Chicago Park District, that may give the design-build entity a financial or tangible advantage over other design-build entities in the preparation, evaluation, or performance of the design-build contract or that create the appearance of impropriety. No design-build proposal shall be considered that does not include an entity's plan to comply with the requirements established in the minority and women business enterprises and economically disadvantaged firms established by the corporate authorities of the Chicago Park District and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

Upon completion of the qualifications evaluation, the Chicago Park District shall create a shortlist of the most highly qualified design-build entities. The Chicago Park District, in its discretion, is not required to shortlist the maximum number of entities as identified for Phase II evaluation, provided however, no less than 2 design-build entities nor more than 6 are selected to submit Phase II proposals.

The Chicago Park District shall notify the entities selected for the shortlist in writing. This notification shall commence the period for the preparation of the Phase II technical and cost evaluations. The Chicago Park District must allow sufficient time for the shortlist entities to prepare their Phase II submittals considering the scope and detail requested by the Chicago Park District.

(c) The Chicago Park District shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in the technical and cost submission components of Phase II. Each request for proposal shall establish, for both the technical and cost submission components of Phase II, the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the Chicago Park District. The Chicago Park District must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The Chicago Park District shall include the following criteria in every Phase II technical evaluation of design-build entities: (1) compliance with objectives of the project; (2) compliance of proposed services to the request for proposal requirements; (3) quality of products or materials proposed; (4) quality of design parameters; (5) design concepts; (6) innovation in meeting the scope and performance criteria; and (7) constructability of the proposed project. The Chicago Park District may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection.

The Chicago Park District shall include the following criteria in every Phase II cost evaluation: the guaranteed maximum project cost and the time of completion. The Chicago Park District may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection. The guaranteed maximum project cost criteria weighing factor shall not exceed 30%.

The Chicago Park District shall directly employ or retain a licensed design professional or landscape architect design professional, as appropriate, to evaluate the technical and cost submissions to determine if the technical submissions are in accordance with generally accepted industry standards.

Upon completion of the technical submissions and cost submissions evaluation, the Chicago Park District may award the design-build contract to the highest overall ranked entity.

(Source: P.A. 96-777, eff. 8-28-09; revised 9-21-16.)

Section 300. The Sanitary District Act of 1907 is amended by changing Sections 14.4 and 24 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2205/14.4) (from Ch. 42, par. 260.4)

Sec. 14.4. The board of trustees of any sanitary district organized under this Act may require that, before any person or municipal corporation connects to the sewage system of the district, the district be permitted to inspect the drainage lines of the person or municipal corporation to determine whether they are adequate and suitable for connection to its sewage system. In addition to the other charges provided for in this Act, the sanitary district may collect a reasonable charge for this inspection service. Funds collected as inspection charges shall be used by the sanitary district for its general corporate purposes after payment of the costs of making the inspections.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 3287; revised 9-21-16.)

(70 ILCS 2205/24) (from Ch. 42, par. 270)

Sec. 24. In case any sanitary district organized hereunder, shall include within its limits, in whole or in part, any drainage district or districts organized under the laws of this state having levees, drains or ditches which are conducive to sanitary purposes, such drainage district or districts shall have paid and reimbursed re-imbursed to it or them, upon such terms as may be agreed upon by its or their corporate authorities and the board of trustees of said sanitary district, the reasonable cost or value of such levee, drains or ditches, which valuation shall in no case be fixed at less than any unpaid indebtedness incurred by such district or districts in contracting the same. Upon such payment being made, the sanitary district shall have the right to appropriate and use such levees, drains or ditches, or any part thereof, as it may desire, for or in connection with any improvements authorized by this act, and for or in connection with the purposes for which said sanitary district is organized; Provided, no such levee, drain or ditch shall be destroyed, removed or otherwise so used as to impair its usefulness for the purposes for which the same was constructed, without the consent of the corporate authorities of such drainage district. In case the board of trustees of said sanitary district and the corporate authorities of any such drainage district shall be unable to agree upon the compensation to be paid or reimbursed re-imbursed to such drainage district, the same may be ascertained and enforced by any proper proceeding in the circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 79-1360; revised 9-21-16.)

Section 305. The North Shore Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2305/8) (from Ch. 42, par. 284)

Sec. 8. Such sanitary district may acquire by purchase, condemnation, or otherwise any and all real and personal property, right of way and privilege, either within or without its corporate limits that may be required for its corporate purposes; and in case any district formed hereunder shall be unable to agree with any other sanitary district upon the terms under which it shall be permitted to use the drains, channels or ditches of such other sanitary district, the right to use the same may be required by condemnation in the circuit court by proceedings in the manner, as near as may be, as is provided in Section 4-17 of the "Illinois Drainage Code", approved June 29, 1955, as amended. The compensation to be paid for such use may be a gross sum, or it may be in the form of an annual rental, to be paid in yearly installments as and in the manner provided by the judgment of the court wherein such proceedings may be had. Provided, all moneys for the purchase and condemnation of any property shall be paid before possession is taken, or any work done on the premises damaged by the construction of such channel or outlet, and in case of an appeal from the Circuit Court taken by either party whereby the amount of damages is not finally determined, then possession may be taken, provided that the amount of judgment in such court shall be deposited at some bank or savings and loan association to be designated by the judge thereof subject to the payment of such damages on orders signed by such judge, whenever the amount of damages is finally determined; and when no not longer required for such purposes, to sell, convey, vacate and release the same.

(Source: P.A. 83-1362; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 310. The Sanitary District Act of 1936 is amended by changing Sections 32a.5, 33, 37.1, 44, and 45 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2805/32a.5) (from Ch. 42, par. 443a.5)

Sec. 32a.5. Any contiguous territory located within the boundaries of any sanitary district organized under this Act, and upon the border of such district, may become disconnected from such district in the manner provided in this Section. Ten per cent or more of the legal voters resident in the territory sought to be disconnected from such district, may petition the circuit court for the county in which the original petition for the organization of the district was filed, to cause the question of such disconnection to be submitted to the legal voters of such territory whether the territory shall be disconnected. The petition shall be addressed to the court and shall contain a definite description of the boundaries of such territory and recite as a fact, that as of the date the petition is filed there is no bonded indebtedness of the sanitary district outstanding and that no special assessments for local improvements were levied upon or assessed against any of the lands within such territory or if so levied or assessed, that all of such assessments have been fully paid and discharged and that such territory is not, at the time of the filing of such petition, and will not be, either benefited or served by any work or improvements either then existing or then authorized by the sanitary district. Upon filing such petition in the office of the circuit clerk of the county in which the original petition for the formation of such sanitary district has been filed it is the duty of the court to consider the boundaries of such territory and the facts upon which the petition is founded. The court may alter the boundaries of such territory and shall deny the prayer of the petition, if the material allegations therein contained are not founded in fact. The decision of the court is appealable as in other civil cases.

Notice shall be given by the court of the time and place when and where all persons interested will be heard substantially as provided in and by Section 1 of this Act. The conduct of the hearing on the question whether such territory shall become disconnected shall be, as nearly as possible, in accordance with Section 1 of this Act. ; The court shall certify the question to the proper election officials who shall submit the question at an election in accordance with the general election law. The question shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

For disconnection from sanitary district.

-------------------------------------------------------------

Against disconnection from sanitary district.

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the votes cast on the question shall be in favor of disconnection, and if the trustees of such sanitary district shall, by ordinance, disconnect such territory, thereupon the court shall enter an appropriate order of record in the court and thereafter such territory shall be deemed disconnected from such sanitary district.

(Source: P.A. 83-343; revised 9-8-16.)

(70 ILCS 2805/33) (from Ch. 42, par. 444)

Sec. 33. Any sanitary district created under this Act which does not have outstanding and unpaid any revenue bonds issued under the provisions of this Act may be dissolved as follows:

(a) Any 50 electors residing within the area of any sanitary district may file with the circuit clerk of the county in which the area is situated, a petition addressed to the circuit court to cause submission of the question whether the sanitary district shall be dissolved. Upon the filing of the petition with the clerk, the court shall certify the question to the proper election officials who shall submit the question at an election in accordance with the general election law, and give notice of the election in the manner provided by the general election law.

The question shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

"Shall the sanitary YES district of .... be ----------------------------

dissolved?"? NO

-------------------------------------------------------------

If a majority of the votes cast on this question are in favor of dissolution of the sanitary district, then such organization shall cease, and the sanitary district is dissolved, and the court shall direct the sanitary district to discharge all outstanding obligations.

(b) The County of Lake may dissolve the Fox Lake Hills Sanitary District, thereby acquiring all of the District's assets and responsibilities, upon adopting a resolution stating: (1) the reasons for dissolving the District; (2) that there are no outstanding debts of the District or that the County has sufficient funds on hand or available to satisfy such debts; (3) that no federal or State permit or grant will be impaired by dissolution of the District; and (4) that the County assumes all assets and responsibilities of the District. Upon dissolution of the District, the statutory powers of the former District shall be exercised by the county board of the Lake County. Within 60 days after the effective date of such resolution, the County of Lake shall notify the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency regarding the dissolution of the Fox Hills Sanitary District.

(Source: P.A. 99-783, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-26-16.)

(70 ILCS 2805/37.1)

Sec. 37.1. Dissolution of district with no employees and no bond indebtedness; winding up sanitary district business; tax by acquiring municipalities.

(a) Any sanitary district created under this Act which is located in a county having a population of 3,000,000 or more, which is wholly included in 3 three or more municipalities, which no part is included in any unincorporated area, which has no employees, and which has no revenue bond indebtedness shall, upon July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-14) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, be dissolved by operation of law. Each of the municipalities within the territory of a dissolved sanitary district shall be responsible for providing sewers for collecting and disposing of sewage.

(b) The officers of any dissolved sanitary district immediately preceding July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-14) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall close up the business affairs of the sanitary district by conveying title of a dissolved sanitary district's property to the municipalities collecting and disposing of sewage and by liquidating any remaining personal property of a dissolved sanitary district. After all the debts and obligations of the dissolved sanitary district have been satisfied, any remaining monies shall be distributed to the municipalities collecting and disposing of sewage in proportion to the percentage of territory located within the boundaries of each affected municipality.

(c) The corporate authorities of any municipality required to provide sewer service under this Section after the dissolution of a sanitary district is hereby authorized to levy and collect a tax for the purpose of maintaining, constructing or replacing sewers, upon the taxable property within that municipality, the aggregate amount of which for each year may not exceed 0.25% of the value of such property as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue and that tax shall be in addition to any taxes that may otherwise be authorized to be levied for the general corporate purposes of the municipality as currently provided in Section 37 of this Act. Any outstanding obligations of the dissolved sanitary district shall be paid from the taxes levied and collected pursuant to this subsection.

If any tax has been levied for sewer or water purposes prior to July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-14) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly by a municipality that who would also have the power to levy such a tax under this subsection, that tax is expressly validated.

(Source: P.A. 99-14, eff. 7-10-15; revised 9-8-16.)

(70 ILCS 2805/44) (from Ch. 42, par. 447.8)

Sec. 44. Public hearing and second resolution. At the time and place fixed in the specified notice for the public hearing, the committee of local improvements shall meet and hear the representations of any person desiring to be heard on the subject of the necessity for the proposed improvement, the nature thereof or the cost as estimated. The district's engineer may revise the plans, specifications or estimate of cost at any time prior to the committee's adoption of a resolution recommending passage of an ordinance as hereinafter set forth. The committee may adopt a second or further resolution abandoning the proposed scheme or adhering thereto, or changing, altering or modifying the extent, nature, kind, character and estimated cost, provided the change does not increase the estimated cost of the improvement to exceed 20% of the estimate set forth in the mailed notice of the public hearing without a further public hearing pursuant to a new mailed notice given in like manner as the first. Thereupon, if the proposed improvement is not abandoned, the committee shall have an ordinance prepared therefor to be submitted to the board. This ordinance shall prescribe the nature, character, locality and description of the improvement and shall provide whether the improvement shall be made wholly or in part by special assessment or special taxation of benefited property and may provide that plans and specifications for the proposed improvement be made part of the ordinance by reference to plans and specifications specification on file in the office of the district's engineer or to plans and specifications adopted or published by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision or agency thereof. If the improvement is to be paid in part only by special assessment or special taxation, the ordinance shall so state. If the improvement requires the taking or damaging of property, the ordinance shall so state, and the proceedings for making just compensation therefor shall be as described in Sections 9-2-14 through 9-2-37 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 85-1137; revised 9-8-16.)

(70 ILCS 2805/45) (from Ch. 42, par. 447.9)

Sec. 45. Recommendation by committee. Accompanying any ordinance for a local improvement presented by the committee of local improvements to the board shall be a recommendation of such improvement by the committee signed by at a least a majority of the members thereof, together with an estimate of the cost of the improvement, including the cost of engineering services, as originally contemplated or as changed, altered or modified at the public hearing, itemized so far as the committee deems necessary and signed by the board's engineer. The recommendation by the committee shall be prima facie evidence that all the preliminary requirements of the law have been complied with. If a variance is shown on the proceedings in the court, it shall not affect the validity of the proceeding unless the court deems the variance willful and substantial.

In the event the improvement is to be constructed with assistance from any agency of the federal government or other governmental agency, the estimate of cost shall state this fact and shall set forth the estimated amount that is to be provided by the agency of the federal government or other governmental agency.

The person appointed to make the assessments as provided hereinafter shall make a true and impartial assessment upon the petitioning district and the property benefited by such improvement of that portion of the estimated cost that is within the benefits exclusive of the amount to be provided by the agency of the federal government or other governmental agency.

(Source: P.A. 85-1137; revised 9-7-16.)

Section 315. The Surface Water Protection District Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3405/21) (from Ch. 42, par. 468)

Sec. 21. The board of trustees may levy and collect other taxes for all corporate purposes, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the payment of all obligations incurred in taking over the surface water protection facilities of any city, village, or incorporated town located within the boundaries of any such district, exclusive of taxes to pay bonded indebtedness upon all the taxable property within the territorial limits of such surface water protection district, the aggregate amount of which shall not exceed .125% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue except as provided in this Section.

If the board of trustees desires desire to levy such taxes at a rate in excess of .125% but not in excess of .25% of the value of all taxable property within the district as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, the board of trustees they shall certify the question to the proper election officials who shall submit the question at an a election in accordance with the general election law. The result of the referendum shall be entered upon the records of the district. If a majority of the votes on the proposition are in favor of the proposition, the board of trustees may levy such taxes at a rate not to exceed .25% of the value of all taxable property within the district, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the maximum allowable tax rate for .... Surface Water YES Protection District be increased to .25% of the value of all taxable -------------------

property within the District as equalized or assessed by the NO Department of Revenue?

-------------------------------------------------------------

In any surface water protection district organized under Section 4a, the board of trustees may levy such taxes at a rate in excess of .125% but not in excess of .25% of the value of all taxable property in the district as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue without an election provided such tax rate increase is authorized by the owners of all the property within the district.

(Source: P.A. 81-1550; revised 9-7-16.)

Section 320. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Section 12a as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/12a) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 312a)

Sec. 12a. (a) In addition to other powers provided in Section 12b, the Authority may issue its notes from time to time, in anticipation of tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority or of other revenues or receipts of the Authority, in order to provide money for the Authority to cover any cash flow deficit which the Authority anticipates incurring. Provided, however, that no such notes may be issued unless the annual cost thereof is incorporated in a budget or revised budget of the Authority which has been approved by the Regional Transportation Authority. Any such notes are referred to as "Working Cash Notes". Provided further that, the board shall not issue and have outstanding or demand and direct that the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority issue and have outstanding more than an aggregate of $40,000,000 in Working Cash Notes. No Working Cash Notes shall be issued for a term of longer than 18 months. Proceeds of Working Cash Notes may be used to pay day to day operating expenses of the Authority, consisting of wages, salaries and fringe benefits, professional and technical services (including legal, audit, engineering and other consulting services), office rental, furniture, fixtures and equipment, insurance premiums, claims for self-insured amounts under insurance policies, public utility obligations for telephone, light, heat and similar items, travel expenses, office supplies, postage, dues, subscriptions, public hearings and information expenses, fuel purchases, and payments of grants and payments under purchase of service agreements for operations of transportation agencies, prior to the receipt by the Authority from time to time of funds for paying such expenses. Proceeds of the Working Cash Notes shall not be used (i) to increase or provide a debt service reserve fund for any bonds or notes other than Working Cash Notes of the same Series, or (ii) to pay principal of or interest or redemption premium on any capital bonds or notes, whether as such amounts become due or by earlier redemption, issued by the Authority or a transportation agency to construct or acquire public transportation facilities, or to provide funds to purchase such capital bonds or notes.

(b) The ordinance providing for the issuance of any such notes shall fix the date or dates of maturity, the dates on which interest is payable, any sinking fund account or reserve fund account provisions and all other details of such notes and may provide for such covenants or agreements necessary or desirable with regard to the issue, sale and security of such notes. The Authority shall determine and fix the rate or rates of interest of its notes issued under this Act in an ordinance adopted by the Board prior to the issuance thereof, none of which rates of interest shall exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Interest may be payable annually or semi-annually, or at such other times as determined by the Board. Notes issued under this Section may be issued as serial or term obligations, shall be of such denomination or denominations and form, including interest coupons to be attached thereto, be executed in such manner, shall be payable at such place or places and bear such date as the Board shall fix by the ordinance authorizing such note and shall mature at such time or times, within a period not to exceed 18 months from the date of issue, and may be redeemable prior to maturity with or without premium, at the option of the Board, upon such terms and conditions as the Board shall fix by the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such notes. The Board may provide for the registration of notes in the name of the owner as to the principal alone or as to both principal and interest, upon such terms and conditions as the Board may determine. The ordinance authorizing notes may provide for the exchange of such notes which are fully registered, as to both principal and interest, with notes which are registerable as to principal only. All notes issued under this Section by the Board shall be sold at a price which may be at a premium or discount but such that the interest cost (excluding any redemption premium) to the Board of the proceeds of an issue of such notes, computed to stated maturity according to standard tables of bond values, shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such notes shall be sold at such time or times as the Board shall determine. The notes may be sold either upon competitive bidding or by negotiated sale (without any requirement of publication of intention to negotiate the sale of such notes), as the Board shall determine by ordinance adopted with the affirmative votes of at least 4 Directors. In case any officer whose signature appears on any notes or coupons authorized pursuant to this Section shall cease to be such officer before delivery of such notes, such signature shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as if such officer had remained in office until such delivery. Neither the Directors of the Regional Transportation Authority, the Directors of the Authority nor any person executing any bonds or notes thereof shall be liable personally on any such bonds or notes or coupons by reason of the issuance thereof.

(c) All notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section shall be general obligations of the Authority to which shall be pledged the full faith and credit of the Authority, as provided in this Section. Such notes shall be secured as provided in the authorizing ordinance, which may, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, include in addition to any other security, a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any or all tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority and on any or all other revenues or moneys of the Authority from whatever source which may by law be utilized for debt service purposes and a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any funds or accounts established or provided for by the ordinance of the Board authorizing the issuance of such notes. Any such pledge, assignment, lien or security interest for the benefit of holders of notes of the Authority shall be valid and binding from the time the notes are issued without any physical delivery or further act, and shall be valid and binding as against and prior to the claims of all other parties having claims of any kind against the Authority or any other person irrespective of whether such other parties have notice of such pledge, assignment, lien or security interest. The obligations of the Authority incurred pursuant to this Section shall be superior to and have priority over any other obligations of the Authority except for obligations under Section 12. The Board may provide in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of any notes issued pursuant to this Section for the creation of, deposits in, and regulation and disposition of sinking fund or reserve accounts relating to such notes. The ordinance authorizing the issuance of any notes pursuant to this Section may contain provisions as part of the contract with the holders of the notes, for the creation of a separate fund to provide for the payment of principal and interest on such notes and for the deposit in such fund from any or all the tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority and from any or all such other moneys or revenues of the Authority from whatever source which may by law be utilized for debt service purposes, all as provided in such ordinance, of amounts to meet the debt service requirements on such notes, including principal and interest, and any sinking fund or reserve fund account requirements as may be provided by such ordinance, and all expenses incident to or in connection with such fund and accounts or the payment of such notes. Such ordinance may also provide limitations on the issuance of additional notes of the Authority. No such notes of the Authority shall constitute a debt of the State of Illinois.

(d) The ordinance of the Board authorizing the issuance of any notes may provide additional security for such notes by providing for appointment of a corporate trustee (which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within the State) with respect to such notes. The ordinance shall prescribe the rights, duties and powers of the trustee to be exercised for the benefit of the Authority and the protection of the holders of such notes. The ordinance may provide for the trustee to hold in trust, invest and use amounts in funds and accounts created as provided by the ordinance with respect to the notes. The ordinance shall provide that amounts so paid to the trustee which are not required to be deposited, held or invested in funds and accounts created by the ordinance with respect to notes or used for paying notes to be paid by the trustee to the Authority.

(e) Any notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section shall constitute a contract between the Authority and the holders from time to time of such notes. In issuing any note, the Board may include in the ordinance authorizing such issue a covenant as part of the contract with the holders of the notes, that as long as such obligations are outstanding, it shall make such deposits, as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section. A certified copy of the ordinance authorizing the issuance of any such obligations shall be filed at or prior to the issuance of such obligations with the Regional Transportation Authority, Comptroller of the State of Illinois and the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(f) The State of Illinois pledges to and agrees with the holders of the notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act or in the Regional Transportation Authority by the "Regional Transportation Authority Act" so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with such holders or in any way impair the rights and remedies of such holders until such notes, together with interest thereon, with interest on any unpaid installments of interest, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of such holders, are fully met and discharged. In addition, the State pledges to and agrees with the holders of the notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the basis on which State funds are to be paid to the Authority as provided in the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the use of such funds, so as to impair the terms of any such contract. The Board is authorized to include these pledges and agreements of the State in any contract with the holders of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this Section.

(g) The Board shall not at any time issue, sell or deliver any Interim Financing Notes pursuant to this Section which will cause it to have issued and outstanding at any time in excess of $40,000,000 of Working Cash Notes. Notes which are being paid or retired by such issuance, sale or delivery of notes, and notes for which sufficient funds have been deposited with the paying agency of such notes to provide for payment of principal and interest thereon or to provide for the redemption thereof, all pursuant to the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such notes, shall not be considered to be outstanding for the purposes of this paragraph.

(h) The Board, subject to the terms of any agreements with noteholders as may then exist, shall have power, out of any funds available therefor, to purchase notes of the Authority which shall thereupon be cancelled.

(i) In addition to any other authority granted by law, the State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest, at a price not to exceed par, any State money in the State Treasury which is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due in Interim Financing Notes.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 9-22-16.)

Section 325. The Public Transit Employee Training Programs Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3620/3) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 803)

Sec. 3. (a). All mass transit employees shall be required to participate in an anti-crime program that comprehensively addresses the identification of and reaction to potentially dangerous situations involving carrier operatives or passengers.

(b). The establishment of minimum standards, however, in no way precludes a carrier from implementing alternate or more advanced programs so long as said programs are:

(1) consistent with the imperative of subsection (a);

(2) developed in consultation with a recognized crime prevention organization; and

(3) carried out in consultation with the Review Committee established under Section 8 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 81-846; revised 9-12-16.)

Section 330. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.161, 10-22.29a, 14-6.01, 21B-70, 22-30, 27A-9, 30-14.2, 34-54.2, and 34A-404, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.167, 10-20.58, and 34-18.50, and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 34-18.49 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.161)

Sec. 2-3.161. Definition of dyslexia; reading instruction advisory group.

(a) The State Board of Education shall incorporate, in both general education and special education, the following definition of dyslexia:

Dyslexia is a specific learning disability that is neurobiological in origin. Dyslexia is characterized by difficulties with accurate and/or fluent word recognition and by poor spelling and decoding abilities. These difficulties typically result from a deficit in the phonological component of language that is often unexpected in relation to other cognitive abilities and the provision of effective classroom instruction. Secondary consequences may include problems in reading comprehension and reduced reading experience that can impede growth of vocabulary and background knowledge.

(b) Subject to specific State appropriation or the availability of private donations, the State Board of Education shall establish an advisory group to develop a training module or training modules to provide education and professional development to teachers, school administrators, and other education professionals regarding multi-sensory, systematic, and sequential instruction in reading. This advisory group shall complete its work before December 15, 2015 and is abolished on December 15, 2015. The State Board of Education shall reestablish the advisory group abolished on December 15, 2015 to complete the abolished group's work. The reestablished advisory group shall complete its work before December 31, 2016 and is abolished on December 31, 2016. The provisions of this subsection (b), other than this sentence, are inoperative after December 31, 2016.

(Source: P.A. 98-705, eff. 7-14-14; 99-65, eff. 7-16-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-602, eff. 7-22-16; 99-603, eff. 7-22-16; revised 9-6-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.167)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2018)

Sec. 2-3.167. Task Force on Computer Science Education.

(a) The State Board of Education shall establish a Task Force on Computer Science Education, to be comprised of all of the following members, with an emphasis on bipartisan legislative representation and diverse non-legislative stakeholder representation:

(1) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(2) One member appointed by the President of the Senate.

(3) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) One member appointed by the head of a statewide association representing teachers.

(6) One member appointed by the head of an association representing teachers in a city of over 500,000 people.

(7) One member appointed by the head of an association representing computer science teachers.

(8) One member appointed by the head of an association representing school boards.

(9) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the media.

(10) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the non-profit sector that promotes computer science education as a core mission.

(11) One member appointed by the head of an association representing the non-profit sector that promotes computer science education among the general public.

(12) One member appointed by the president of an institution of higher education who teaches college or graduate-level government courses or facilitates a program dedicated to cultivating computer science education.

(13) One member appointed by the head of an association representing principals or district superintendents.

(14) The chief executive officer of the school district organized under Article 34 of this Code or his or her designee.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose. The members of the Task Force shall be reimbursed for their travel expenses from appropriations to the State Board of Education available for that purpose and subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board.

(c) The members of the Task Force shall be considered members with voting rights. A quorum of the Task Force shall consist of a simple majority of the members of the Task Force. All actions and recommendations of the Task Force must be approved by a simple majority vote of the members.

(d) The Task Force shall meet initially at the call of the State Superintendent of Education, shall elect one member as chairperson at its initial meeting through a simple majority vote of the Task Force, and shall thereafter meet at the call of the chairperson.

(e) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force is charged with all of the following tasks:

(1) To analyze the current state of computer science education in this State.

(2) To analyze current computer science education laws in other jurisdictions, both mandated and permissive.

(3) To identify best practices in computer science education in other jurisdictions.

(4) To make recommendations to the General Assembly focused on substantially increasing computer science education and the capacity of youth to obtain the requisite knowledge, skills, and practices to be educated in computer science.

(5) To make funding recommendations, if the Task Force's recommendations to the General Assembly would require a fiscal commitment.

(g) No later than July 1, 2017, the Task Force shall summarize its findings and recommendations in a report to the General Assembly, filed as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. Upon filing its report, the Task Force is dissolved.

(h) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2018.

(Source: P.A. 99-647, eff. 7-28-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.168)

Sec. 2-3.168 2-3.167. Advisory Council on At-Risk Students.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "at-risk students" means students served by the Department of Human Services who receive services through Medicaid, the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, as well as students under the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services. Students may not be counted more than once for receiving multiple services from the Department of Human Services or if they receive those services and are under the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services.

(b) The Advisory Council on At-Risk Students is created within the State Board of Education. The Advisory Council shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(2) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(3) One member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate.

(4) One member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) The following members appointed by the State Superintendent of Education:

(A) One member who is an educator representing a statewide professional teachers' organization.

(B) One member who is an educator representing a different statewide professional teachers' organization.

(C) One member who is an educator representing a professional teachers' organization in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(D) One member from an organization that works for economic, educational, and social progress for African Americans and promotes strong sustainable communities through advocacy, collaboration, and innovation.

(E) One member from an organization that facilitates the involvement of Latino Americans at all levels of public decision-making.

(F) One member from an organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(G) One member from an organization dedicated to advocating for public policies to prevent homelessness.

(H) One member from the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(I) One member from an organization that works to ensure the health and safety of Illinois youth and families by providing capacity building services.

(J) One member from an organization that provides public high school students with opportunities to explore and develop their talents, while gaining critical skills for work, college, and beyond.

(K) One member from an organization that promotes the strengths and abilities of youth and families by providing community-based services that empower each to face life's challenges with confidence, competence, and dignity.

(L) One member from an organization that connects former members of the foster care system with current children in the foster care system.

(M) One member who has experience with research and statistics.

(N) Three members who are parents of at-risk students.

(O) One member from an organization that optimizes the positive growth of at-risk youth and individuals working with at-risk youth through support services.

(P) One member from a statewide organization representing regional offices of education. Members of the Council shall, to the extent possible, be selected on the basis of experience with or knowledge of various programs for at-risk students. The Council shall, to the extent possible, include diverse membership from a variety of socio-economic, racial, and ethnic backgrounds.

(c) Initial members of the Council shall serve terms determined by lot as follows:

(1) Seven members shall serve for one year.

(2) Seven members shall serve for 2 years.

(3) The remaining members shall serve for 3 years. Successors shall serve 3-year terms. Members must serve until their successors are appointed and have qualified.

(d) Members of the Council shall not receive compensation for the performance of their duties on the Council.

(e) The Council shall initially meet at the call of the State Superintendent of Education. At the initial meeting, members shall select a chairperson from among their number by majority vote; a representative from the State Board of Education may cast a deciding vote if there is a tie. The Council shall select a chairperson annually, who may be the same chairperson as the year prior. The Council shall meet at the call of the chairperson after the initial meeting.

(f) The State Board of Education and City of Chicago School District 299 shall provide administrative support to the Council.

(g) The Council shall accept and consider public comments when making its recommendations.

(h) By no later than December 15, 2017, the Council shall submit a report to the State Superintendent of Education, the Governor, and the General Assembly addressing, at a minimum, the following with respect to school districts where racial minorities comprise a majority of the student population:

(1) What are the barriers to success present for at-risk students?

(2) How much does socio-economic status impact academic and career achievement?

(3) How do at-risk students perform academically?

(4) How do at-risk students perform academically compared to students from higher socio-economic statuses?

(5) What programs are shown to help at-risk students reach higher levels of academic and career achievement?

(6) What specific curriculums help the academic success of at-risk students?

(7) Of curriculums that help at-risk students, which of these need to be implemented within the Illinois Learning Standards?

(8) To what degree do school districts teach cultural history, and how can this be improved?

(9) Specific policy recommendations to improve the academic success of at-risk students.

(10) Any other information that the Council determines will assist in the understanding of the barriers to success for or increase the academic performance of at-risk students. The Council shall submit an annual report with updated information on the barriers to academic success and the academic progress of at-risk students by no later than December 15 of each year beginning the year after the initial report is submitted.

(Source: P.A. 99-721, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-14-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.169)

Sec. 2-3.169 2-3.167. State Global Scholar Certification.

(a) The State Global Scholar Certification Program is established to recognized public high school graduates who have attained global competence. State Global Scholar Certification shall be awarded beginning with the 2017-2018 school year. School district participation in this certification is voluntary.

(b) The purposes of State Global Scholar Certification are as follows:

(1) To recognize the value of a global education.

(2) To certify attainment of global competence.

(3) To provide employers with a method of identifying globally competent employees.

(4) To provide colleges and universities with an additional method to recognize applicants seeking admission.

(5) To prepare students with 21st century skills.

(6) To encourage the development of a globally ready workforce in the STEM (science, technology, engineering, and mathematics), manufacturing, agriculture, and service sectors.

(c) State Global Scholar Certification confirms attainment of global competence, sufficient for meaningful use in college and a career, by a graduating public high school student.

(d) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish the criteria that students must achieve to earn State Global Scholar Certification, which shall minimally include attainment of units of credit in globally focused courses, service learning experiences, global collaboration and dialogue, and passage of a capstone project demonstrating global competency, as approved by the participating school district for this purpose.

(e) The State Board of Education shall do both of the following:

(1) Prepare and deliver to participating school districts an appropriate mechanism for designating State Global Scholar Certification on the diploma and transcript of a student indicating that the student has been awarded State Global Scholar Certification by the State Board of Education.

(2) Provide other information the State Board of Education deems necessary for school districts to successfully participate in the certification.

(f) A school district that participates in certification under this Section shall do both of the following:

(1) Maintain appropriate records in order to identify students who have earned State Global Scholar Certification.

(2) Make the appropriate designation on the diploma and transcript of each student who earns State Global Scholar Certification.

(g) No fee may be charged to a student to receive the designation pursuant to the Section. Notwithstanding this prohibition, costs may be incurred by the student in demonstrating proficiency.

(Source: P.A. 99-780, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-14-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.58)

Sec. 10-20.58. Accelerate College pilot program. School districts may enter into Accelerate College educational partnership agreements as authorized under Section 3-42.4 of the Public Community College Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-611, eff. 7-22-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.59)

Sec. 10-20.59 10-20.58. DCFS liaison.

(a) Each school board may appoint at least one employee to act as a liaison to facilitate the enrollment and transfer of records of students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services when enrolling in or changing schools. The school board may appoint any employee of the school district who is licensed under Article 21B of this Code to act as a liaison; however, employees who meet any of the following criteria must be prioritized for appointment:

(1) Employees who have worked with mobile student populations or students in foster care.

(2) Employees who are familiar with enrollment, record transfers, existing community services, and student support services.

(3) Employees who serve as a high-level administrator.

(4) Employees who are counselors or have experience with student counseling.

(5) Employees who are knowledgeable on child welfare policies.

(6) Employees who serve as a school social worker.

(b) Liaisons under this Section are encouraged to build capacity and infrastructure within their school district to support students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services. Liaison responsibilities may include the following:

(1) streamlining the enrollment processes for students in foster care;

(2) implementing student data tracking and monitoring mechanisms;

(3) ensuring that students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services receive all school nutrition and meal programs available;

(4) coordinating student withdrawal from a school, record transfers, and credit recovery;

(5) becoming experts on the foster care system and State laws and policies in place that support children under the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(6) coordinating with child welfare partners;

(7) providing foster care-related information and training to the school district;

(8) working with the Department of Children and Family Services to help students maintain their school placement, if appropriate;

(9) reviewing student schedules to ensure that students are on track to graduate;

(10) encouraging a successful transition into adulthood and post-secondary opportunities;

(11) encouraging involvement in extracurricular activities; and

(12) knowing what support is available within the school district and community for students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services.

(c) A school district is encouraged to designate a liaison by the beginning of the 2017-2018 school year.

(d) Individuals licensed under Article 21B of this Code acting as a liaison under this Section shall perform the duties of a liaison in addition to existing contractual obligations.

(Source: P.A. 99-781, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-18-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.29a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.29a)

Sec. 10-22.29a. To authorize the establishment of an investment club, in any high school within the district, to be organized on a purely voluntary basis. The State Board of Education may, however, promulgate reasonable standards regarding the establishment, organization and operation of investment clubs formed pursuant to this Section which standards must be complied with by all those concerned. The superintendent of schools shall, when the board has authorized the establishment of an investment club, designate a teacher in the high school where the club is organized to serve as sponsor of the club and as the fiduciary for members of the club in making the purchases and sales of securities on behalf of the members and shall also designate an investment dealer registered with the Secretary of State of Illinois as an investment dealer; to provide investment counseling and brokerage services for the members of the club. That investment dealer shall (a) reflect all transactions entered into on behalf of the investment club in an account in the name of the teacher as fiduciary, (b) submit monthly to the fiduciary a statement of account reflecting all transactions entered into on behalf of the club during the previous month including the prices paid on purchases and the proceeds received on sales of securities and the costs and fees incurred in each transaction and listing the accumulated holdings of the investment club by type of security, number of shares of stock, name of the issuer and any other information necessary to identify the composition of the accumulated security holdings of the club, and (c) handle transactions on behalf of the club, through the designated fiduciary as a street account rather than through issuance of certificates in the name of the fiduciary or of individual club members. Any investment club formed under this Section must sell all securities purchased through the club and distribute the proceeds of sales to its members by May 20th each year. All investment clubs are subject to the provisions of the "The Illinois Securities Law of 1953", as amended.

(Source: P.A. 81-1508; revised 10-25-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-6.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-6.01)

Sec. 14-6.01. Powers and duties of school boards. School boards of one or more school districts establishing and maintaining any of the educational facilities described in this Article shall, in connection therewith, exercise similar powers and duties as are prescribed by law for the establishment, maintenance and management of other recognized educational facilities. Such school boards shall include only eligible children in the program and shall comply with all the requirements of this Article and all rules and regulations established by the State Board of Education. Such school boards shall accept in part-time attendance children with disabilities of the types described in Sections 14-1.02 through 14-1.07 who are enrolled in nonpublic schools. A request for part-time attendance must be submitted by a parent or guardian of the child with a disability and may be made only to those public schools located in the district where the child attending the nonpublic school resides; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting an agreement between the district where the child resides and another public school district to provide special educational services if such an arrangement is deemed more convenient and economical. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. Transportation for students in part time attendance shall be provided only if required in the child's individualized educational program on the basis of the child's disabling condition or as the special education program location may require.

A school board shall publish a public notice in its newsletter of general circulation or in the newsletter of another governmental entity of general circulation in the district or if neither is available in the district, then in a newspaper of general circulation in the district, the right of all children with disabilities to a free appropriate public education as provided under this Code. Such notice shall identify the location and phone number of the office or agent of the school district to whom inquiries should be directed regarding the identification, assessment and placement of such children.

School boards shall immediately provide upon request by any person written materials and other information that indicates the specific policies, procedures, rules and regulations regarding the identification, evaluation or educational placement of children with disabilities under Section 14-8.02 of the School Code. Such information shall include information regarding all rights and entitlements of such children under this Code, and of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents or guardian in the parents' or guardian's native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and federal Public Law 94-142; it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and federal Public Law 94-142, as amended, to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents or guardian of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents or guardians in exercising rights or entitlements under this Code.

Any parent or guardian who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter.

No student with a disability or, in a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, child with a learning disability may be denied promotion, graduation or a general diploma on the basis of failing a minimal competency test when such failure can be directly related to the disabling condition of the student. For the purpose of this Act, "minimal competency testing" is defined as tests which are constructed to measure the acquisition of skills to or beyond a certain defined standard.

Effective July 1, 1966, high school districts are financially responsible for the education of pupils with disabilities who are residents in their districts when such pupils have reached age 15 but may admit children with disabilities into special educational facilities without regard to graduation from the eighth grade after such pupils have reached the age of 14 1/2 years. Upon a pupil with a disability attaining the age of 14 1/2 years, it shall be the duty of the elementary school district in which the pupil resides to notify the high school district in which the pupil resides of the pupil's current eligibility for special education services, of the pupil's current program, and of all evaluation data upon which the current program is based. After an examination of that information the high school district may accept the current placement and all subsequent timelines shall be governed by the current individualized educational program; or the high school district may elect to conduct its own evaluation and multidisciplinary staff conference and formulate its own individualized educational program, in which case the procedures and timelines contained in Section 14-8.02 shall apply.

(Source: P.A. 98-219, eff. 8-9-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-592, eff. 7-22-16; revised 9-6-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-70)

Sec. 21B-70. Illinois Teaching Excellence Program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Poverty or low-performing school" means a school identified as a priority school under Section 2-3.25d-5 of this Code or a school in which 50% or more of its students are eligible for free or reduced-price school lunches.

"Qualified educator" means a teacher or school counselor currently employed in a school district who is in the process of obtaining certification through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards or who has completed certification and holds a current Professional Educator License with a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation or a retired teacher or school counselor who holds a Professional Educator License with a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation.

(b) Beginning on July 1, 2011, any funds appropriated for the Illinois Teaching Excellence Program must be used to provide monetary assistance and incentives for qualified educators who are employed by school districts and who have or are in the process of obtaining licensure through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards. The goal of the program is to improve instruction and student performance.

The State Board of Education shall allocate an amount as annually appropriated by the General Assembly for the Illinois Teaching Excellence Program for (i) application fees for each qualified educator seeking to complete certification through the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards, to be paid directly to the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards, and (ii) incentives for each qualified educator to be distributed to the respective school district. The school district shall distribute this payment to each eligible teacher or school counselor as a single payment.

The State Board of Education's annual budget must set out by separate line item the appropriation for the program. Unless otherwise provided by appropriation, qualified educators are eligible for monetary assistance and incentives outlined in subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) When there are adequate funds available, monetary assistance and incentives shall include the following:

(1) A maximum of $2,000 towards the application fee for up to 750 teachers or school counselors in a poverty or low-performing school who apply on a first-come, first-serve basis for National Board certification.

(2) A maximum of $2,000 towards the application fee for up to 250 teachers or school counselors in a school other than a poverty or low-performing school who apply on a first-come, first-serve basis for National Board certification. However, if there were fewer than 750 individuals supported in item (1) of this subsection (c), then the number supported in this item (2) may be increased as such that the combination of item (1) of this subsection (c) and this item (2) shall equal 1,000 applicants.

(3) A maximum of $1,000 towards the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards' renewal application fee.

(4) (Blank).

(5) An annual incentive equal to $1,500, which shall be paid to each qualified educator currently employed in a school district who holds both a National Board for Professional Teaching Standards designation and a current corresponding certificate issued by the National Board for Professional Teaching Standards and who agrees, in writing, to provide at least 30 hours of mentoring or National Board for Professional Teaching Standards professional development or both during the school year to classroom teachers or school counselors, as applicable. Funds must be disbursed dispersed on a first-come, first-serve basis, with priority given to poverty or low-performing schools. Mentoring shall include, either singly or in combination, the following:

(A) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards certification candidates.

(B) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards re-take candidates.

(C) National Board for Professional Teaching Standards renewal candidates.

(D) (Blank).

Funds may also be used for instructional leadership training for qualified educators interested in supporting implementation of the Illinois Learning Standards or teaching and learning priorities of the State Board of Education or both.

(Source: P.A. 98-646, eff. 7-1-14; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; revised 10-25-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. their The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; and

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 911;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, then the school district, public school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine auto-injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 98-795, eff. 8-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 99-843, eff. 8-19-16; revised 9-8-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-9)

Sec. 27A-9. Term of charter; renewal.

(a) For charters granted before January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-840) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a charter may be granted for a period not less than 5 and not more than 10 school years. For charters granted on or after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-840) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a charter shall be granted for a period of 5 school years. For charters renewed before January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-840) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a charter may be renewed in incremental periods not to exceed 5 school years. For charters renewed on or after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-840) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a charter may be renewed in incremental periods not to exceed 10 school years; however, the Commission may renew a charter only in incremental periods not to exceed 5 years. Authorizers shall ensure that every charter granted on or after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-840) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly includes standards and goals for academic, organizational, and financial performance. A charter must meet all standards and goals for academic, organizational, and financial performance set forth by the authorizer in order to be renewed for a term in excess of 5 years but not more than 10 years. If an authorizer fails to establish standards and goals, a charter shall not be renewed for a term in excess of 5 years. Nothing contained in this Section shall require an authorizer to grant a full 10-year renewal term to any particular charter school, but an authorizer may award a full 10-year renewal term to charter schools that have a demonstrated track record of improving student performance.

(b) A charter school renewal proposal submitted to the local school board or the Commission, as the chartering entity, shall contain:

(1) A report on the progress of the charter school in achieving the goals, objectives, pupil performance standards, content standards, and other terms of the initial approved charter proposal; and

(2) A financial statement that discloses the costs of administration, instruction, and other spending categories for the charter school that is understandable to the general public and that will allow comparison of those costs to other schools or other comparable organizations, in a format required by the State Board.

(c) A charter may be revoked or not renewed if the local school board or the Commission, as the chartering entity, clearly demonstrates that the charter school did any of the following, or otherwise failed to comply with the requirements of this law:

(1) Committed a material violation of any of the conditions, standards, or procedures set forth in the charter.

(2) Failed to meet or make reasonable progress toward achievement of the content standards or pupil performance standards identified in the charter.

(3) Failed to meet generally accepted standards of fiscal management.

(4) Violated any provision of law from which the charter school was not exempted.

In the case of revocation, the local school board or the Commission, as the chartering entity, shall notify the charter school in writing of the reason why the charter is subject to revocation. The charter school shall submit a written plan to the local school board or the Commission, whichever is applicable, to rectify the problem. The plan shall include a timeline for implementation, which shall not exceed 2 years or the date of the charter's expiration, whichever is earlier. If the local school board or the Commission, as the chartering entity, finds that the charter school has failed to implement the plan of remediation and adhere to the timeline, then the chartering entity shall revoke the charter. Except in situations of an emergency where the health, safety, or education of the charter school's students is at risk, the revocation shall take place at the end of a school year. Nothing in Public Act 96-105 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be construed to prohibit an implementation timetable that is less than 2 years in duration.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Notice of a local school board's decision to deny, revoke, or not to renew a charter shall be provided to the Commission and the State Board. The Commission may reverse a local board's decision if the Commission finds that the charter school or charter school proposal (i) is in compliance with this Article, and (ii) is in the best interests of the students it is designed to serve. The Commission may condition the granting of an appeal on the acceptance by the charter school of funding in an amount less than that requested in the proposal submitted to the local school board. Final decisions of the Commission shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(f) Notwithstanding other provisions of this Article, if the Commission on appeal reverses a local board's decision or if a charter school is approved by referendum, the Commission shall act as the authorized chartering entity for the charter school. The Commission shall approve the charter and shall perform all functions under this Article otherwise performed by the local school board. The State Board shall determine whether the charter proposal approved by the Commission is consistent with the provisions of this Article and, if the approved proposal complies, certify the proposal pursuant to this Article. The State Board shall report the aggregate number of charter school pupils resident in a school district to that district and shall notify the district of the amount of funding to be paid by the State Board to the charter school enrolling such students. The Commission shall require the charter school to maintain accurate records of daily attendance that shall be deemed sufficient to file claims under Section 18-8.05 notwithstanding any other requirements of that Section regarding hours of instruction and teacher certification. The State Board shall withhold from funds otherwise due the district the funds authorized by this Article to be paid to the charter school and shall pay such amounts to the charter school.

(g) For charter schools authorized by the Commission, the Commission shall quarterly certify to the State Board the student enrollment for each of its charter schools.

(h) For charter schools authorized by the Commission, the State Board shall pay directly to a charter school any federal or State aid attributable to a student with a disability attending the school.

(Source: P.A. 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 99-840, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/30-14.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 30-14.2)

Sec. 30-14.2. MIA/POW scholarships.

(a) Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson who possesses all necessary entrance requirements shall, upon application and proper proof, be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship consisting of the equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment including summer terms, to the state supported Illinois institution of higher learning of his choice, subject to the restrictions listed below.

"Eligible veteran or serviceperson" means any veteran or serviceperson, including an Illinois National Guard member who is on active duty or is active on a training assignment, who has been declared by the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S. Department of Veterans Veterans' Affairs to be a prisoner of war, be missing in action, have died as the result of a service-connected disability or have become a person with a permanent disability from service-connected causes with 100% disability and who (i) at the time of entering service was an Illinois resident, (ii) was an Illinois resident within 6 months after entering such service, or (iii) until July 1, 2014, became an Illinois resident within 6 months after leaving the service and can establish at least 30 years of continuous residency in the State of Illinois.

Full-time enrollment means 12 or more semester hours of courses per semester, or 12 or more quarter hours of courses per quarter, or the equivalent thereof per term. Scholarships utilized by dependents enrolled in less than full-time study shall be computed in the proportion which the number of hours so carried bears to full-time enrollment.

Scholarships awarded under this Section may be used by a spouse or child without regard to his or her age. The holder of a Scholarship awarded under this Section shall be subject to all examinations and academic standards, including the maintenance of minimum grade levels, that are applicable generally to other enrolled students at the Illinois institution of higher learning where the Scholarship is being used. If the surviving spouse remarries or if there is a divorce between the veteran or serviceperson and his or her spouse while the dependent is pursuing his or her course of study, Scholarship benefits will be terminated at the end of the term for which he or she is presently enrolled. Such dependents shall also be entitled, upon proper proof and application, to enroll in any extension course offered by a State supported Illinois institution of higher learning without payment of tuition and approved fees.

The holder of a MIA/POW Scholarship authorized under this Section shall not be required to pay any matriculation or application fees, tuition, activities fees, graduation fees or other fees, except multipurpose building fees or similar fees for supplies and materials.

Any dependent who has been or shall be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship shall be reimbursed by the appropriate institution of higher learning for any fees which he or she has paid and for which exemption is granted under this Section if application for reimbursement is made within 2 months following the end of the school term for which the fees were paid.

(b) In lieu of the benefit provided in subsection (a), any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson, which spouse or child has a physical, mental or developmental disability, shall be entitled to receive, upon application and proper proof, a benefit to be used for the purpose of defraying the cost of the attendance or treatment of such spouse or child at one or more appropriate therapeutic, rehabilitative or educational facilities. The application and proof may be made by the parent or legal guardian of the spouse or child on his or her behalf.

The total benefit provided to any beneficiary under this subsection shall not exceed the cost equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time enrollment, including summer terms, at the University of Illinois. Whenever practicable in the opinion of the Department of Veterans' Affairs, payment of benefits under this subsection shall be made directly to the facility, the cost of attendance or treatment at which is being defrayed, as such costs accrue.

(c) The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid for out of funds made available to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due to any state supported Illinois institution of higher learning shall be payable by the Comptroller to such institution on vouchers approved by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due under subsection (b) of this Section shall be payable by warrant upon vouchers issued by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and approved by the Comptroller. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall determine the eligibility of the persons who make application for the benefits provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 9-2-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.49)

Sec. 34-18.49. Carbon monoxide alarm required.

(a) In this Section:

"Approved carbon monoxide alarm" and "alarm" have the meaning ascribed to those terms in the Carbon Monoxide Alarm Detector Act.

"Carbon monoxide detector" and "detector" mean a device having a sensor that responds to carbon monoxide gas and that is connected to an alarm control unit and approved in accordance with rules adopted by the State Fire Marshal.

(b) The board shall require that each school under its authority be equipped with approved carbon monoxide alarms or carbon monoxide detectors. The alarms must be powered as follows:

(1) For a school designed before January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-470) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, alarms powered by batteries are permitted. Alarms permanently powered by the building's electrical system and monitored by any required fire alarm system are also permitted.

(2) For a school designed on or after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-470) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, alarms must be permanently powered by the building's electrical system or be an approved carbon monoxide detection system. An installation required in this subdivision (2) must be monitored by any required fire alarm system.

Alarms or detectors must be located within 20 feet of a carbon monoxide emitting device. Alarms or detectors must be in operating condition and be inspected annually. A school is exempt from the requirements of this Section if it does not have or is not close to any sources of carbon monoxide. A school must require plans, protocols, and procedures in response to the activation of a carbon monoxide alarm or carbon monoxide detection system.

(Source: P.A. 99-470, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-6-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.50)

Sec. 34-18.50. Accelerate College pilot program. The district may enter into an Accelerate College educational partnership agreement as authorized under Section 3-42.4 of the Public Community College Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-611, eff. 7-22-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.51)

Sec. 34-18.51 34-18.49. Committee on the retention of students.

(a) The board may create a committee on the retention of students. The committee shall consist of the general superintendent of schools or his or her designee, a district administrator who directs student instruction and curriculum, a principal from a school of the district, and a teacher from a school of the district.

(b) Prior to retention in a grade, a school may submit, by a date as set by the committee on the retention of students, the names of all students determined by the school to not qualify for promotion to the next higher grade and the reason for that determination. The committee shall review the school's decision to retain with respect to each student and shall make a final decision regarding whether or not to retain a particular student. The committee shall take into consideration the relevant data and evidence gathered during the Response to Intervention process. The committee may vote to overturn a retention decision if the committee determines that the student should be promoted after examining the student's access to remedial assistance, performance, attendance, and participation and the resources and facilities provided by the school district or due to the student having an undiagnosed learning disability.

(Source: P.A. 99-592, eff. 7-22-16; revised 9-6-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.52)

Sec. 34-18.52 34-18.50. DCFS liaison.

(a) The board may appoint at least one employee to act as a liaison to facilitate the enrollment and transfer of records of students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services when enrolling in or changing schools. The board may appoint any employee of the school district who is licensed under Article 21B of this Code to act as a liaison; however, employees who meet any of the following criteria must be prioritized for appointment:

(1) Employees who have worked with mobile student populations or students in foster care.

(2) Employees who are familiar with enrollment, record transfers, existing community services, and student support services.

(3) Employees who serve as a high-level administrator.

(4) Employees who are counselors or have experience with student counseling.

(5) Employees who are knowledgeable on child welfare policies.

(6) Employees who serve as a school social worker.

(b) Liaisons under this Section are encouraged to build capacity and infrastructure within the school district to support students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services. Liaison responsibilities may include the following:

(1) streamlining the enrollment processes for students in foster care;

(2) implementing student data tracking and monitoring mechanisms;

(3) ensuring that students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services receive all school nutrition and meal programs available;

(4) coordinating student withdrawal from a school, record transfers, and credit recovery;

(5) becoming experts on the foster care system and State laws and policies in place that support children under the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(6) coordinating with child welfare partners;

(7) providing foster care-related information and training to the school district;

(8) working with the Department of Children and Family Services to help students maintain their school placement, if appropriate;

(9) reviewing student schedules to ensure that students are on track to graduate;

(10) encouraging a successful transition into adulthood and post-secondary opportunities;

(11) encouraging involvement in extracurricular activities; and

(12) knowing what support is available within the school district and community for students in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services.

(c) The school district is encouraged to designate a liaison by the beginning of the 2017-2018 school year.

(d) Individuals licensed under Article 21B of this Code acting as a liaison under this Section shall perform the duties of a liaison in addition to existing contractual obligations.

(Source: P.A. 99-781, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-18-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-54.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-54.2)

Sec. 34-54.2. Taxes levied in 1989 and 1990.

(a) All real property taxes levied by the board in 1989 and 1990 are confirmed and validated, and are declared to be and are valid, in all respects as if they had been timely and properly levied by the city council upon the demand and direction of the Board. It shall not be a valid ground for any person in any way to object to, protest, bring any proceeding with regard to or defend against the collection of any such taxes, that the taxes were levied by the board.

(b) The board may levy taxes against all taxable property located within the city in an amount equal to all taxes purported to be levied by the board in 1989 and in 1990, for each purpose for which taxes were purported so to be levied, to the extent those taxes shall not yet have been extended for collection at the time of the levy authorized by this paragraph (b). The taxes authorized to be levied by this paragraph (b) shall be levied by a resolution of the board selected pursuant to Public Act 86-1477 this amendatory Act of 1991. The resolution shall be adopted upon concurrence of a majority of the members of the board. The taxes levied pursuant to this paragraph (b) shall be extended for collection in 1991 and subsequent years and in amounts so that they do not exceed the maximum rates at which taxes may be extended for the various school purposes, all as shall be set forth in a certificate of the controller of the board as provided in Section Sec. 34-54.1 of this the School Code, as amended. Taxes levied pursuant to this paragraph (b) shall be in addition to all other taxes which have been or may be levied by or for the board, except that the extension of taxes levied pursuant to this paragraph (b), to the extent valid and legal in all respects, shall be an abatement of the same amount of taxes previously purported to be levied by the board which were to have been extended in the same year for the same purpose, it being the intention of the General Assembly that there not be extended duplicate taxes for the same year and purpose. It shall not be necessary that the board give any notice or conduct any hearings for any purpose whatsoever or to have adopted any proceedings with respect to any budget, in connection with the levy and extension of taxes pursuant to this paragraph (b). The board shall cause a certified copy of its resolution levying taxes pursuant to this paragraph (b) to be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any taxable property in the city is located within 30 days after the adoption of the resolution.

(Source: P.A. 86-1477; revised 9-2-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/34A-404) (from Ch. 122, par. 34A-404)

Sec. 34A-404. Budgets. The Board shall develop and adopt and submit to the Authority on or before February 1, 1980, for approval by the Authority, a revised Budget for the remaining portion of the Fiscal Year ending in 1980 and, thereafter, an annual Budget for each Fiscal Year. After adoption by the Board, the Board shall submit each Budget to the Authority for its approval not later than 30 days prior to the commencement of the Fiscal Year to which the Budget relates. The Authority shall approve or reject the Budget within 15 days of its receipt from the Board. No Budget shall have force or effect without approval of the Authority. Each Budget shall be developed, submitted, approved and monitored in accordance with the following procedures:

(a) Each Budget submitted by the Board shall be based upon revenue estimates approved or prepared by the Authority, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 34A-403 of this Article.

(b) Each Budget shall contain such information and detail as may be prescribed by the Authority. The Authority may also prescribe any reasonable time, standards, procedures or forms for preparation and submission of the Budget. Any deficit for the Fiscal Year ending in 1981 and for any Fiscal Year thereafter shall be included as a current expense item for the succeeding Fiscal Year.

(c)(1) The Authority shall approve each Budget if, in its judgment, the Budget is complete, is reasonably capable of being achieved, will meet the requirement set forth in Section 34A-402 of this Article, and will be consistent with the Financial Plan in effect. Otherwise, the Authority shall reject the Budget. In the event of rejection, the Authority may prescribe a procedure and standards for revision of the Budget by the Board.

(c)(2) For any Fiscal Year, the Authority may approve a provisional budget that, in its judgment, will satisfy the standards of subdivision (c)(1) of this Section if, notwithstanding the provisions of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act or any other law to the contrary, the amount appropriated therein for all spending for operations shall not at any time, on an annualized basis, exceed an Expenditure Limitation established by the Authority. The Authority may establish and enforce, including by exercise of its powers under Section 34A-409(b), such monitoring and control measures as it deems necessary to assure that the commitments, obligations, expenditures, and cash disbursements of the Board continue to conform on an ongoing basis with any Expenditure Limitation. No commitment, contract, or other obligation of the Board in excess of the Expenditure Limitation shall be legally binding, and any member of the Board or any local school council, or officer, employee or agent thereof, who violates the provisions of this Section shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 34-52 and 34A-608. An Expenditure Limitation established by the Authority shall remain in effect for that Fiscal Year or until revoked by the Authority.

(d) The Board shall report to the Authority at such times and in such manner as the Authority may direct, concerning the Board's compliance with each Budget. The Authority may review the Board's operations, obtain budgetary data and financial statements, require the Board to produce reports, and have access to any other information in the possession of the Board that the Authority deems relevant. The Authority may issue recommendations or directives within its powers to the Board to assure compliance with the Budget. The Board shall produce such budgetary data, financial statements, reports and other information and comply with such directives.

(e) After approval of each Budget, the Board shall promptly notify the Authority of any material change in the revenue or expenditure estimates in the Budget. The Board may submit to the Authority, or the Authority may require the Board to submit, a supplemental Budget. The Authority shall approve or reject each supplemental Budget pursuant to paragraph (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 88-511; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 335. The Education for Homeless Children Act is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(105 ILCS 45/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Choice of schools.

(a) When a child loses permanent housing and becomes a homeless person within the meaning of Section 1-5 5, or when a homeless child changes his or her temporary living arrangements, the parents or guardians of the homeless child shall have the option of either:

(1) continuing the child's education in the school of origin for as long as the child remains homeless or, if the child becomes permanently housed, until the end of the academic year during which the housing is acquired; or

(2) enrolling the child in any school that nonhomeless students who live in the attendance area in which the child or youth is actually living are eligible to attend.

(Source: P.A. 88-634, eff. 1-1-95; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 340. The Speech Rights of Student Journalists Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(105 ILCS 80/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"School official" means a school's principal or his or her designee."

"School-sponsored media" means any material that is prepared, substantially written, published, or broadcast by a student journalist at a public school, distributed or generally made available to members of the student body, and prepared under the direction of a student media adviser. School-sponsored media does not include media intended for distribution or transmission solely in the classroom in which the media is produced.

"Student journalist" means a public high school student who gathers, compiles, writes, edits, photographs, records, or prepares information for dissemination in school-sponsored media.

"Student media adviser" means an individual employed, appointed, or designated by a school district to supervise or provide instruction relating to school-sponsored media.

(Source: P.A. 99-678, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 345. The Career and Workforce Transition Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 151/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Board" means the Illinois Community College Board.

"Institution" means a non-degree granting institution that is regulated and approved by the Board of Higher Education under the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012 and that is nationally accredited by an accreditor approved by the U.S. Department of Education.

(Source: P.A. 99-468, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 350. The University of Illinois Construction Financing Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 415/1) (from Ch. 144, par. 68)

Sec. 1. For the purpose of obtaining a grant or inducing the making of a grant by the United States or any agency thereof (herein called the "Government") or a grant, gift or loan by or from any person or corporation, to aid in financing the acquiring, constructing or equipping of any one or more, or all university, college, or educational building or buildings (herein called the "project") on which the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois (herein called the "Board") shall enter into a year-to-year year to year or other lease, or be given the privilege to enter into any such lease, the Board shall have the following powers in addition to those conferred by other laws:

1. To create a trust or trusts (the trustee or trustees thereunder being herein called the "active trustee" ') for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, equipping any one or more, or all, such projects and providing for the use thereof during such period as the Board may determine and for other purposes, which trust may be for exclusively university or other public educational purposes; to convey, upon such terms as it may determine, any of its property to an active trustee to be held in trust under the terms and provisions of the trust agreement relating thereto;

2. To enter into trust agreements creating trusts which shall be and constitute charitable trusts and shall not be subject to the rule against perpetuities, providing the powers and duties of the active trustee, which may consist of such powers and duties as the Board may deem necessary or convenient to accomplish the purposes of the trust, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the power of such active trustee:

(a) to construct, reconstruct, improve, alter and repair any such project; to hold, manage, operate, use, insure, lease or rent any project;

(b) to issue negotiable bonds, notes or interim receipts (herein called the "bonds") maturing over a period not exceeding 30 years for the purpose of aiding in financing any project and to make covenants securing the bonds or relating to the bonds and the disposition and use of the proceeds thereof;

(c) to secure such bonds by an indenture to a trustee or trustees for the holders of such bonds (herein called the "bondholders' trustee") providing the rights and powers of such trustee and of the bondholders, their respective rights to enforce the payment of the bonds or any covenants securing or relating to same, which shall not, however, include the right to forfeit or obtain title to the project through foreclosure proceedings or otherwise; to covenant as to events of default, the consequences thereof and the conditions upon which bonds may become or be declared due before maturity;

(d) to confer upon the bondholders' trustee the power, in case of a default under the bonds or indenture securing same, to enforce the payments of all sums due under leases of any project, to compel the performance of any covenants or conditions therein, to take possession, use, operate, manage and control any project and collect and dispose of the rents therefrom; in the event that such powers are conferred upon the bondholders' trustee, same may be exercised by it without its forfeiting or obtaining title to the project through foreclosure proceedings or otherwise;

(e) to confer upon the bondholders' trustee the power, in case of a default under the bonds or indenture securing same, to lease, use or operate a project for purposes other than those for which the active trustee itself may lease, use or operate same; the conferring of such power upon the bondholders' trustee shall not, however, affect the validity or exclusively public educational character of a trust or the property held by the active trustee thereunder;

(f) to execute all instruments and contracts and to do all things necessary or convenient to carry out the powers conferred by such trust agreement.

3. To enter into agreements creating or authorizing the creation of special funds for moneys held for the construction of any project and to covenant as to the use and disposition of the moneys held in such funds;

4. To enter into a year-to-year year to year or other lease on any such projects, with the privilege in the Board of terminating or not renewing such lease for any year or years, upon giving such notice as may be prescribed in such lease; such lease shall be in such form, with such rental, terms, parties and conditions as the Board may determine; to obtain options to lease any such projects from year to year, and to exercise such options; to vest in its lessor and in a trustee for the holders of bonds issued by its lessor, the right by mandamus, injunction, civil action or proceedings, to enforce the payment by the Board of any sums due under any such lease or to compel its performance of any covenants or conditions contained therein;

5. To agree with the Government that if the Board leases any such project or projects from an active trustee, a bondholders' trustee or otherwise, the Board shall pledge for the payment of its rentals or the performance of its obligations under any such lease its own receipts, collections or trust funds thereunto available (herein called "funds") which it is authorized by law to retain in its own treasury for the performance of any contract or undertaking with the Government or any person in connection with any grant, advance, loan, trust agreement or contract for the erection of a building or buildings; to pledge and use said funds for the payment of its rents or for the performance of its obligations under any such lease; provided, however, that the aggregate amount pledged by the Board for the payment in any year of rentals or obligations under such lease or leases of any project for the construction of which the Government makes both a loan and a grant together with all sums pledged for the payment in any such year of other obligations incurred by the Board under the University of Illinois Works Projects Act "An Act to authorize the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois to enter into contracts with the United States for the erection of buildings and improvements, pursuant to Public Resolution 11, 74th Congress, First Session, House Joint Resolution 117, approved by the President of the United States April 8, 1935, at 4:00 p.m., and to authorize the financing of such improvements in conformity with such resolution, the National Industrial Recovery Act, and such other Acts of Congress enacted for the purpose of aiding the processes of national recovery," approved July 11, 1935, or this Act, or under both such Acts, for the construction of which the Government makes both a loan and a grant, and including the Congressional Resolution approved June 29, 1937, as amended June 21, 1938, known as Federal Public Buildings Appropriation Act of 1938, and other acts of the United States Congress heretofore or hereafter enacted for the purpose of providing public buildings for the States and governmental agencies thereof, shall not exceed the sum of $100,000; to covenant against pledging all or any part of said receipts or collections or permitting or suffering any lien thereon;

6. To create a trust or trusts, in which the Board itself may serve as trustee, for the acquisition, through lease, purchase or construction, and for maintenance and operation of self-liquidating buildings, such as a student center building or student residence halls, or both, through the collection of service charges or rentals from students, and for whose use such funds shall be held by the Board in its own treasury, which service charges or rentals shall be so held in trust by the Board and expended solely for the purpose described in the instruments creating the trust or trusts;

7. To exercise all or any part or combination of the powers herein granted and to execute all instruments and contracts and to do all things necessary or convenient to carry out the powers herein granted; provided, however, that the obligations under leases, trust agreements or otherwise incurred by the Board pursuant to this Act shall not be a debt of the State of Illinois and the State shall not be liable thereon, and provided further that the bonds and other obligations of an active trustee appointed hereunder by the Board shall not be a debt of the Board or the State and neither the Board nor the State shall be liable thereon, and the bonds shall in substance so recite. The obligations under leases, trust agreements or otherwise incurred hereunder by the Board and the bonds or other obligations of an active trustee appointed hereunder shall not constitute an indebtedness within the meaning of any constitutional or other debt limitation or restriction.

(Source: P.A. 83-345; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 355. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 90 and 135 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/90)

Sec. 90. State income tax refund and other payment intercept. The Commission may provide by rule for certification to the Comptroller: (a) of delinquent or defaulted amounts due and owing owning from a borrower on any loan guaranteed by the Commission under this Act or on any "eligible loan" as that term is defined under the Educational Loan Purchase Program Law; and (b) of any amounts recoverable under Section 120 in a civil action from a person who received a scholarship, grant, monetary award, or guaranteed loan. The purpose of certification shall be to intercept State income tax refunds and other payments due such borrowers and persons in order to satisfy, in whole or in part: (i) delinquent or defaulted amounts due and owing from any such borrower on any such guaranteed or eligible loan; and (ii) amounts recoverable from a person against whom a civil action will lie under the provisions of Section 120. The rule shall provide for notice to any such borrower or person affected, and any final administrative decision rendered by the Commission with respect to any certification made pursuant to this Section shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 87-997; revised 9-2-16.)

(110 ILCS 947/135)

Sec. 135. Definitions. In this Act, and except to the extent that any of the following words or phrases is specifically qualified by its context:

(a) "Purchase Program" means the Commission exercising its power to establish a secondary market for certain loans of borrowers by the purchase thereof with the proceeds from the sale of the bonds of the Commission issued pursuant to this Act, with the earnings received by the Commission from any authorized investment, or with eligible loan receipts.

(b) "Eligible loans" means loans of borrowers made, purchased, or guaranteed by or transferred to the Commission, including but not limited to loans on which:

(1) the borrower is contractually delinquent in his repayment obligations within time limitations specified by the Commission; or

(2) the borrower is temporarily unable to meet his repayment obligations for reasons of unemployment, or financial, medical or other hardship as determined by the Commission; or

(3) the borrower has at least one loan held by the Commission under the Purchase Program; or

(4) the borrower's lender, because of the bankruptcy of that lender, is no longer able or the Commission otherwise determines that such lender is no longer able to satisfactorily service the borrower's loan or fulfill the borrower's credit needs under the Commission's program; or

(5) the borrower has defaulted on his loan, but has subsequently established a satisfactory repayment history under the rules of the Commission; and notwithstanding the limitations of this Act, the Purchase Program shall have the authority to purchase those defaulted accounts in order to restore the borrower's credit rating and continued eligibility for benefits under other Federal student assistance programs.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit the Commission from making or purchasing any category of loans if the Commission determines that the making or purchasing of such loans would tend to make more loans available to eligible borrowers.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to excuse the holder of an eligible loan from exercising reasonable care and diligence in the making and collecting of such loans. If the Commission finds that the lender has substantially failed to exercise that care and diligence, the Commission shall disqualify the lender from participation in Commission programs until the Commission is satisfied that the lender's failure has ceased and finds that there is reasonable assurance that the lender will in the future exercise necessary care and diligence and comply with the rules and regulations of the Commission.

(c) "Eligible loan receipts" means any of the following:

(1) Principal, accrued interest, late charges and other sums paid on eligible loans held by the Commission.

(2) Reimbursements paid by the federal government, the State of Illinois, the Commission exercising its power to guarantee the loans of borrowers, or any other source held by the Commission.

(3) Accruing interest payments and special allowance payments paid by the federal government pursuant to the Higher Education Act of 1965. or any other federal statute providing for federal payment of interest and special allowances on loans or by any other source on eligible loans held by the Commission.

(4) Any other sums paid by any source to the Commission on or for eligible loans held by the Commission.

(d) "Bonds" means bonds, notes, and other evidences of borrowing of the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 88-553; 89-442, eff. 12-21-95; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 360. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Sections 4013, 5001, and 9002.5 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/4013) (from Ch. 17, par. 7304-13)

Sec. 4013. Access to books and records; communication with members and shareholders.

(a) Every member or shareholder shall have the right to inspect books and records of the savings bank that pertain to his accounts. Otherwise, the right of inspection and examination of the books and records shall be limited as provided in this Act, and no other person shall have access to the books and records nor shall be entitled to a list of the members or shareholders.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of (1) a document granting signature authority over a deposit or account; (2) a statement, ledger card, or other record on any deposit or account that shows each transaction in or with respect to that account; (3) a check, draft, or money order drawn on a savings bank or issued and payable by a savings bank; or (4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of a savings bank's business between a savings bank and its customer, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the member or shareholder.

(c) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation, examination, handling, or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee, or agent of a savings bank having custody of records or examination of records by a certified public accountant engaged by the savings bank to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by, or the furnishing of financial records by a savings bank to, any officer, employee, or agent of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the federal depository institution regulator for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee, or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to members or holders of capital where the data cannot be identified to any particular member, shareholder, or account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a savings bank and other savings banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a savings bank and other savings banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a purchase or sale involving the savings bank or assets or liabilities of the savings bank.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the savings bank reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information pursuant to the federal "Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act", (Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.).

(11) The furnishing of information pursuant to any other statute which by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any savings bank governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the savings bank a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A savings bank providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the savings bank in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A savings bank shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(13) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the savings bank that a customer who is an elderly person or person with a disability has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (13), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "person with a disability" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the savings bank to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or person with a disability, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the assets or resources of the elderly person or person with a disability by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A savings bank or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (13) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(14) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the member or holder of capital, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the member or holder of capital;

(B) maintaining or servicing an account of a member or holder of capital with the savings bank; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a member or holder of capital.

Nothing in this item (14), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a member or holder of capital without the consent of the member or holder of capital.

(15) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between a savings bank and any commonly owned affiliate of the savings bank, subject to the provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law.

(16) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(17)(a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(b)(1) For purposes of this paragraph (17) of subsection (c) of Section 4013, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (17) of subsection (c) of Section 4013, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(d) A savings bank may not disclose to any person, except to the member or holder of capital or his duly authorized agent, any financial records relating to that member or shareholder of the savings bank unless:

(1) the member or shareholder has authorized disclosure to the person; or

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order that meets the requirements of subsection (e) of this Section.

(e) A savings bank shall disclose financial records under subsection (d) of this Section pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the savings bank mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the savings bank, if living, and otherwise, his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid, unless the savings bank is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court.

(f) Any officer or employee of a savings bank who knowingly and willfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(g) Any person who knowingly and willfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a savings bank to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(h) If any member or shareholder desires to communicate with the other members or shareholders of the savings bank with reference to any question pending or to be presented at an annual or special meeting, the savings bank shall give that person, upon request, a statement of the approximate number of members or shareholders entitled to vote at the meeting and an estimate of the cost of preparing and mailing the communication. The requesting member shall submit the communication to the Commissioner who, upon finding it to be appropriate and truthful, shall direct that it be prepared and mailed to the members upon the requesting member's or shareholder's payment or adequate provision for payment of the expenses of preparation and mailing.

(i) A savings bank shall be reimbursed for costs that are necessary and that have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, or transporting books, papers, records, or other data of a customer required to be reproduced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order.

(j) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a savings bank may sell or otherwise make use of lists of customers' names and addresses. All other information regarding a customer's account are subject to the disclosure provisions of this Section. At the request of any customer, that customer's name and address shall be deleted from any list that is to be sold or used in any other manner beyond identification of the customer's accounts.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 9-14-16.)

(205 ILCS 205/5001) (from Ch. 17, par. 7305-1)

Sec. 5001. Minimum capital.

(a) A savings saving bank may be organized to exercise the powers conferred by this Act with minimum capital, surplus, and reserves for operating expenses as determined by the Commissioner. In no case may the Commissioner establish requirements for insured savings banks at a level less than that required for insurance of accounts. For any savings bank other than those resulting from conversion from an existing financial institution to one operating under this Act, the Commissioner must establish capital requirements no less stringent than those required of banks chartered under the Illinois Banking Act.

(b) No savings bank may commence business until it has capital as required by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(c) Each depository institution converting to a savings bank, before declaration of a dividend on its capital stock, must maintain the minimum capital standards as required by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(Source: P.A. 90-301, eff. 8-1-97; revised 9-14-16.)

(205 ILCS 205/9002.5)

Sec. 9002.5. Regulatory fees.

(a) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2007 and every year thereafter, each savings bank and each service corporation operating under this Act shall pay in quarterly installments equal to one-fourth of a fixed fee of $520, plus a variable fee based on the total assets of the savings bank or service corporation, as shown in the quarterly report of condition, at the following rates:

24.97¢ per $1,000 of the first $2,000,000 of total assets;

22.70¢ per $1,000 of the next $3,000,000 of total assets;

20.43¢ per $1,000 of the next $5,000,000 of total assets;

17.025¢ per $1,000 of the next $15,000,000 of total assets;

14.755¢ per $1,000 of the next $25,000,000 of total assets;

12.485¢ per $1,000 of the next $50,000,000 of total assets;

10.215¢ per $1,000 of the next $400,000,000 of total assets;

6.81¢ per $1,000 of the next $500,000,000 of total assets; and

4.54¢ per $1,000 of all total assets in excess of $1,000,000,000 of such savings bank or service corporation.

As used in this Section, "quarterly report of condition" means the Report of Condition and Income (Call Report), which the Secretary requires.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Secretary shall receive and there shall be paid to the Secretary by each savings bank and each service corporation a fee of $520 for each approved branch office or facility office established under the Illinois Administrative Code. The determination of the fees shall be made annually as of the close of business of the prior calendar year ended December 31.

(d) The Secretary shall receive for each fiscal year, commencing with the fiscal year ending June 30, 2014, a contingent fee equal to the lesser of the aggregate of the fees paid by all savings banks under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section for that year, or the amount, if any, whereby the aggregate of the administration expenses, as defined in subsection (c) of Section 9002.1 of this Act, for that fiscal year exceeds the sum of the aggregate of the fees payable by all savings banks for that year under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, plus any amounts transferred into the Savings Bank Regulatory Fund from the State Pensions Fund for that year, plus all other amounts collected by the Secretary for that year under any other provision of this Act. The aggregate amount of the contingent fee thus arrived at for any fiscal year shall be apportioned amongst, assessed upon, and paid by the savings banks, respectively, in the same proportion that the fee of each under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, respectively, for that year bears to the aggregate for that year of the fees collected under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section. The aggregate amount of the contingent fee, and the portion thereof to be assessed upon each savings bank, respectively, shall be determined by the Secretary and shall be paid by each, respectively, within 120 days of the close of the period for which the contingent fee is computed and is payable, and the Secretary shall give 20 days' days advance notice of the amount of the contingent fee payable by the savings bank and of the date fixed by the Secretary for payment of the fee.

(Source: P.A. 98-1081, eff. 1-1-15; 99-39, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 365. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Sections 12, 34.1, 46, and 57.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/12) (from Ch. 17, par. 4413)

Sec. 12. Regulatory fees.

(1) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2007, a credit union regulated by the Department shall pay a regulatory fee to the Department based upon its total assets as shown by its Year-end Call Report at the following rates or at a lesser rate established by the Secretary in a manner proportionately consistent with the following rates and sufficient to fund the actual administrative and operational expenses of the Department's Credit Union Section pursuant to subsection (4) of this Section:

(2) The Secretary shall review the regulatory fee schedule in subsection (1) and the projected earnings on those fees on an annual basis and adjust the fee schedule no more than 5% annually if necessary to defray the estimated administrative and operational expenses of the Credit Union Section of the Department as defined in subsection (5). However, the fee schedule shall not be increased if the amount remaining in the Credit Union Fund at the end of any fiscal year is greater than 25% of the total actual and operational expenses incurred by the State in administering and enforcing the Illinois Credit Union Act and other laws, rules, and regulations as may apply to the administration and enforcement of the foregoing laws, rules, and regulations as amended from time to time for the preceding fiscal year. The regulatory fee for the next fiscal year shall be calculated by the Secretary based on the credit union's total assets as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year. The Secretary shall provide credit unions with written notice of any adjustment made in the regulatory fee schedule.

(3) A credit union shall pay to the Department a regulatory fee in quarterly installments equal to one-fourth of the regulatory fee due in accordance with the regulatory fee schedule in subsection (1), on the basis of assets as of the Year-end Call Report of the preceding calendar year. The total annual regulatory fee shall not be less than $100 or more than $141,875, provided that the regulatory fee cap of $141,875 shall be adjusted to incorporate the same percentage increase as the Secretary makes in the regulatory fee schedule from time to time under subsection (2). No regulatory fee shall be collected from a credit union until it has been in operation for one year. The regulatory fee shall be billed to credit unions on a quarterly basis and it shall be payable by credit unions on the due date for the Call Report for the subject quarter.

(4) The aggregate of all fees collected by the Department under this Act shall be paid promptly after they are received, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the State Treasury and shall be set apart in the Credit Union Fund, a special fund hereby created in the State treasury. The amount from time to time deposited in the Credit Union Fund and shall be used to offset the ordinary administrative and operational expenses of the Credit Union Section of the Department under this Act. All earnings received from investments of funds in the Credit Union Fund shall be deposited into the Credit Union Fund and may be used for the same purposes as fees deposited into that fund. Moneys deposited in the Credit Union Fund may be transferred to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund, as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Notwithstanding provisions in the State Finance Act, as now or hereafter amended, or any other law to the contrary, the Governor may, during any fiscal year through January 10, 2011, from time to time direct the State Treasurer and Comptroller to transfer a specified sum not exceeding 10% of the revenues to be deposited into the Credit Union Fund during that fiscal year from that Fund to the General Revenue Fund in order to help defray the State's operating costs for the fiscal year. Notwithstanding provisions in the State Finance Act, as now or hereafter amended, or any other law to the contrary, the total sum transferred from the Credit Union Fund to the General Revenue Fund pursuant to this provision shall not exceed during any fiscal year 10% of the revenues to be deposited into the Credit Union Fund during that fiscal year. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practicable after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(5) The administrative and operational expenses for any fiscal year shall mean the ordinary and contingent expenses for that year incidental to making the examinations provided for by, and for administering, this Act, including all salaries and other compensation paid for personal services rendered for the State by officers or employees of the State to enforce this Act; all expenditures for telephone and telegraph charges, postage and postal charges, office supplies and services, furniture and equipment, office space and maintenance thereof, travel expenses and other necessary expenses; all to the extent that such expenditures are directly incidental to such examination or administration.

(6) When the balance in the Credit Union Fund at the end of a fiscal year exceeds 25% of the total administrative and operational expenses incurred by the State in administering and enforcing the Illinois Credit Union Act and other laws, rules, and regulations as may apply to the administration and enforcement of the foregoing laws, rules, and regulations as amended from time to time for that fiscal year, such excess shall be credited to credit unions and applied against their regulatory fees for the subsequent fiscal year. The amount credited to each credit union shall be in the same proportion as the regulatory fee paid by such credit union for the fiscal year in which the excess is produced bears to the aggregate amount of all fees collected by the Department under this Act for the same fiscal year.

(7) (Blank).

(8) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the General Assembly from appropriating funds to the Department from the General Revenue Fund for the purpose of administering this Act.

(9) For purposes of this Section, "fiscal year" means a period beginning on July 1 of any calendar year and ending on June 30 of the next calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 97-133, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-16.)

(205 ILCS 305/34.1)

Sec. 34.1. Compliance review.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Affiliate" means an organization established to serve the needs of credit unions, the business of which relates to the daily operations of credit unions.

"Compliance review committee" means:

(1) one or more persons appointed by the board of directors or supervisory committee of a credit union for the purposes set forth in subsection (b); or

(2) any other person to the extent the person acts in an investigatory capacity at the direction of a compliance review committee.

"Compliance review documents" means documents prepared in connection with a review or evaluation conducted by or for a compliance review committee.

"Person" means an individual, a group of individuals, a board committee, a partnership, a firm, an association, a corporation, or any other entity.

(b) This Section applies to compliance review committees whose functions are to evaluate and seek to improve any of the following:

(1) loan policies or underwriting standards;

(2) asset quality;

(3) financial reporting to federal or State governmental or regulatory agencies; or

(4) compliance with federal or State statutory or regulatory requirements.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (d), compliance review documents and the deliberations of the compliance review committee are privileged and confidential and are nondiscoverable and nonadmissible.

(1) Compliance review documents are privileged and confidential and are not subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any civil action.

(2) Individuals serving on compliance review committees or acting under the direction of a compliance review committee shall not be required to testify in any civil action about the contents of any compliance review document or conclusions of any compliance review committee or about the actions taken by a compliance review committee.

(3) An affiliate of a credit union, a credit union regulatory agency, and the insurer of credit union share accounts shall have access to compliance review documents, provided that (i) the documents shall remain confidential and are not subject to discovery from such entity and (ii) delivery of compliance review documents to an affiliate or pursuant to the requirements of a credit union regulatory agency or an insurer of credit union share accounts shall not constitute a waiver of the privilege granted in this Section.

(d) This Section does not apply to: (1) compliance review committees on which individuals serving on or at the direction of the compliance review committee have management responsibility for the operations, records, employees, or activities being examined or evaluated by the compliance review committee and (2) any civil or administrative action initiated by a credit union regulatory agency or an insurer of credit union share accounts.

(e) This Section shall not be construed to limit the discovery or admissibility in any civil action of any documents other than compliance review documents or to require the appointment of a compliance review committee.

(Source: P.A. 90-665, eff. 7-30-98; revised 9-14-16.)

(205 ILCS 305/46) (from Ch. 17, par. 4447)

Sec. 46. Loans and interest rate.

(1) A credit union may make loans to its members for such purpose and upon such security and terms, including rates of interest, as the credit committee, credit manager, or loan officer approves. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law in connection with extensions of credit, a credit union may elect to contract for and receive interest and fees and other charges for extensions of credit subject only to the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under this Act, except that extensions of credit secured by residential real estate shall be subject to the laws applicable thereto. The rates of interest to be charged on loans to members shall be set by the board of directors of each individual credit union in accordance with Section 30 of this Act and such rates may be less than, but may not exceed, the maximum rate set forth in this Section. A borrower may repay his loan prior to maturity, in whole or in part, without penalty. A prepayment penalty does not include a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the credit union imposes if the borrower prepays all of the transaction's principal sooner than 36 months after consummation of a closed-end credit transaction, a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the credit union imposes if the borrower terminates an open-end credit plan sooner than 36 months after account opening, or a yield maintenance fee imposed on a business loan transaction. The credit contract may provide for the payment by the member and receipt by the credit union of all costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney's fees and collection agency charges, incurred by the credit union to collect or enforce the debt in the event of a delinquency by the member, or in the event of a breach of any obligation of the member under the credit contract. A contingency or hourly arrangement established under an agreement entered into by a credit union with an attorney or collection agency to collect a loan of a member in default shall be presumed prima facie reasonable.

(2) Credit unions may make loans based upon the security of any interest or equity in real estate, subject to rules and regulations promulgated by the Secretary. In any contract or loan which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or conveyance in the nature of a mortgage, on residential real estate, the interest which is computed, calculated, charged, or collected pursuant to such contract or loan, or pursuant to any regulation or rule promulgated pursuant to this Act, may not be computed, calculated, charged or collected for any period of time occurring after the date on which the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties, is paid in full.

For purposes of this subsection (2) of this Section 46, a prepayment shall mean the payment of the total indebtedness, with the exception of late payment penalties if incurred or charged, on any date before the date specified in the contract or loan agreement on which the total indebtedness shall be paid in full, or before the date on which all payments, if timely made, shall have been made. In the event of a prepayment of the indebtedness which is made on a date after the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged, or collected but before the next date on which interest on the indebtedness was to be calculated, computed, charged, or collected, the lender may calculate, charge and collect interest on the indebtedness for the period which elapsed between the date on which the prepayment is made and the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated, charged or collected at a rate equal to 1/360 of the annual rate for each day which so elapsed, which rate shall be applied to the indebtedness outstanding as of the date of prepayment. The lender shall refund to the borrower any interest charged or collected which exceeds that which the lender may charge or collect pursuant to the preceding sentence. Public Act 84-941 January 1, 1986 (Public Act 84-941)

(3) (Blank).

(4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, a credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by an interest or equity in real property may engage in making revolving credit loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust on such real property or by security assignments of beneficial interests in land trusts.

For purposes of this Section, "revolving credit" has the meaning defined in Section 4.1 of the Interest Act.

Any mortgage or deed of trust given to secure a revolving credit loan may, and when so expressed therein shall, secure not only the existing indebtedness but also such future advances, whether such advances are obligatory or to be made at the option of the lender, or otherwise, as are made within twenty years from the date thereof, to the same extent as if such future advances were made on the date of the execution of such mortgage or deed of trust, although there may be no advance made at the time of execution of such mortgage or other instrument, and although there may be no indebtedness outstanding at the time any advance is made. The lien of such mortgage or deed of trust, as to third persons without actual notice thereof, shall be valid as to all such indebtedness and future advances form the time said mortgage or deed of trust is filed for record in the office of the recorder of deeds or the registrar of titles of the county where the real property described therein is located. The total amount of indebtedness that may be so secured may increase or decrease from time to time, but the total unpaid balance so secured at any one time shall not exceed a maximum principal amount which must be specified in such mortgage or deed of trust, plus interest thereon, and any disbursements made for the payment of taxes, special assessments, or insurance on said real property, with interest on such disbursements.

Any such mortgage or deed of trust shall be valid and have priority over all subsequent liens and encumbrances, including statutory liens, except taxes and assessments levied on said real property.

(4-5) For purposes of this Section, "real estate" and "real property" include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

(5) Compliance with federal or Illinois preemptive laws or regulations governing loans made by a credit union chartered under this Act shall constitute compliance with this Act.

(6) Credit unions may make residential real estate mortgage loans on terms and conditions established by the United States Department of Agriculture through its Rural Development Housing and Community Facilities Program. The portion of any loan in excess of the appraised value of the real estate shall be allocable only to the guarantee fee required under the program.

(7) For a renewal, refinancing, or restructuring of an existing loan at the credit union that is secured by an interest or equity in real estate, a new appraisal of the collateral shall not be required when (i) no new moneys are advanced other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs, or (ii) there has been no obvious or material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the real estate that threatens the adequacy of the credit union's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new moneys. The Department reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subsection (7) whenever the Department believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns.

(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-149, eff. 1-1-16; 99-331, eff. 1-1-16; 99-614, eff. 7-22-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-20-16.)

(205 ILCS 305/57.1)

Sec. 57.1. Services to other credit unions. (a) A credit union may act as a representative of and enter into an agreement with credit unions or other organizations for the purposes of:

(1) sharing, utilizing, renting, leasing, purchasing, selling, and joint ownership of fixed assets or engaging in activities and services that relate to the daily operations of credit unions; and

(2) providing correspondent services to other credit unions that the service provider credit union is authorized to perform for its own members or as part of its operations, including, but not limited to, loan processing, loan servicing, member check cashing services, disbursing share withdrawals and loan proceeds, cashing and selling money orders, ACH and wire transfer services, implementation and administrative support services related to the use of debit cards, payroll debit cards, and other prepaid debit cards and credit cards, coin and currency services, performing internal audits, and automated teller machine deposit services.

(Source: P.A. 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-149, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 370. The Transmitters of Money Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(205 ILCS 657/90)

Sec. 90. Enforcement.

(a) If it appears to the Director that a person has committed or is about to commit a violation of this Act, a rule promulgated under this Act, or an order of the Director, the Director may apply to the circuit court for an order enjoining the person from violating or continuing to violate this Act, the rule, or order and for injunctive or other relief that the nature of the case may require and may, in addition, request the court to assess a civil penalty up to $1,000 along with costs and attorney fees.

(b) If the Director finds, after an investigation that he considers appropriate, that a licensee or other person is engaged in practices contrary to this Act or to the rules promulgated under this Act, the Director may issue an order directing the licensee or person to cease and desist the violation. The Director may, in addition to or without the issuance of a cease and desist order, assess an administrative penalty up to $1,000 against a licensee for each violation of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act. The issuance of an order under this Section shall not be a prerequisite to the taking of any action by the Director under this or any other Section of this Act. The Director shall serve notice of his action, including a statement of the reasons for his actions, either personally or by certified mail, return receipt requested. Service by mail shall be deemed completed if the notice is deposited in the post office, postage paid, addressed to the last known address for a license.

(c) In the case of the issuance of a cease and desist order or assessment order, a hearing may be requested in writing within 30 days after the date of service. The hearing shall be held at the time and place designated by the Director in either the City of Springfield or the City of Chicago. The Director and any administrative law judge designated by him shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, subpoena witnesses and compel their attendance, take evidence, authorize the taking of depositions, and require the production of books, papers, correspondence, and other records or information that he considers relevant or material to the inquiry.

(d) After the Director's final determination under a hearing under this Section, a party to the proceedings whose interests are affected by the Director's final determination shall be entitled to judicial review of that final determination under the Administrative Review Law.

(e) The costs for administrative hearings shall be set by rule.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a violation of this Act shall subject to the party violating it to a fine of $1,000 for each offense.

(g) Each transaction in violation of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act and each day that a violation continues shall be a separate offense.

(h) A person who engages in conduct requiring a license under this Act and fails to obtain a license from the Director or knowingly makes a false statement, misrepresentation, or false certification in an application, financial statement, account record, report, or other document filed or required to be maintained or filed under this Act or who knowingly makes a false entry or omits a material entry in a document is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(i) The Director is authorized to compromise, settle, and collect civil penalties and administrative penalties, as set by rule, with any person for violations of this Act or of any rule or order issued or promulgated under this Act. Any person who, without the required license, engages in conduct requiring a license under this Act shall be liable to the Department in an amount equal to the greater of (i) $5,000 or (ii) an amount of money accepted for transmission plus an amount equal to 3 times the amount accepted for transmission. The Department shall cause any funds so recovered to be deposited in the TOMA Consumer Protection Fund.

(j) The Director may enter into consent orders at any time with a person to resolve a matter arising under this Act. A consent order must be signed by the person to whom it is issued and must indicate agreement to the terms contained in it. A consent order need not constitute an admission by a person that this Act or a rule or order issued or promulgated under this Act has been violated, nor need it constitute a finding by the Director that the person has violated this Act or a rule or order promulgated under this Act.

(k) Notwithstanding the issuance of a consent order, the Director may seek civil or criminal penalties or compromise civil penalties concerning matter encompassed by the consent order unless the consent order by its terms expressly precludes the Director from doing so.

(l) Appeals from all final orders and judgments entered by the circuit court under this Section in review of a decision of the Director may be taken as in other civil actions by any party to the proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 93-535, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 375. The Debt Management Service Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(205 ILCS 665/2) (from Ch. 17, par. 5302)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Credit counselor" means an individual, corporation, or other entity that is not a debt management service that provides (1) guidance, educational programs, or advice for the purpose of addressing budgeting, personal finance, financial literacy, saving and spending practices, or the sound use of consumer credit; or (2) assistance or offers to assist individuals and families with financial problems by providing counseling; or (3) a combination of the activities described in items (1) and (2) of this definition.

"Debt management service" means the planning and management of the financial affairs of a debtor for a fee and the receiving of money from the debtor for the purpose of distributing it to the debtor's creditors in payment or partial payment of the debtor's obligations or soliciting financial contributions from creditors. The business of debt management is conducted in this State if the debt management business, its employees, or its agents are located in this State or if the debt management business solicits or contracts with debtors located in this State. "Debt management service" does not include "debt settlement service" as defined in the Debt Settlement Consumer Protection Act.

This term shall not include the following when engaged in the regular course of their respective businesses and professions:

(a) Attorneys at law licensed, or otherwise authorized to practice, in Illinois who are engaged in the practice of law.

(b) Banks, operating subsidiaries of banks, affiliates of banks, fiduciaries, credit unions, savings and loan associations, and savings banks as duly authorized and admitted to transact business in the State of Illinois and performing credit and financial adjusting service in the regular course of their principal business.

(c) Title insurers, title agents, independent escrowees, and abstract companies, while doing an escrow business.

(d) Judicial officers or others acting pursuant to court order.

(e) Employers for their employees, except that no employer shall retain the services of an outside debt management service to perform this service unless the debt management service is licensed pursuant to this Act..

(f) Bill payment services, as defined in the Transmitters of Money Act.

(g) Credit counselors, only when providing services described in the definition of credit counselor in this Section.

"Debtor" means the person or persons for whom the debt management service is performed.

"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, limited liability company, corporation, or not-for-profit corporation.

"Licensee" means a person licensed under this Act.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1420, eff. 8-3-10; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 380. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-109 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/7-109) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-109)

Sec. 7-109. Designated donors.

(a) Each blood bank may allow a recipient of blood to designate a donor of his choice, for the purpose of receiving red cells, under the following conditions:

(1) the recipient, or someone on his behalf, has solicited the donors;

(2) the designated donor consents to the donation;

(3) the designated donor's blood may be obtained in sufficient time to meet the health care needs of the recipient;

(4) the designated donor is qualified to donate blood under the criteria for donor selection promulgated by the federal Food and Drug Administration; and

(5) the blood of the donor is acceptable for the patient's medical needs.

(b) Blood donated for designated use shall be reserved for the designated recipient; however, if it has not been used within 7 days from the day of donation, it may be used for any other medically appropriate purpose.

(c) This Section shall not limit other procedures blood banks may establish to enable directed donations.

(Source: P.A. 97-264, eff. 8-5-11; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 385. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 3-303.1 and 3-306 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-303.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-303.1)

Sec. 3-303.1. Upon application by a facility, the Director may grant or renew the waiver of the facility's compliance with a rule or standard for a period not to exceed the duration of the current license or, in the case of an application for license renewal, the duration of the renewal period. The waiver may be conditioned upon the facility taking action prescribed by the Director as a measure equivalent to compliance. In determining whether to grant or renew a waiver, the Director shall consider the duration and basis for any current waiver with respect to the same rule or standard and the validity and effect upon patient health and safety of extending it on the same basis, the effect upon the health and safety of residents, the quality of resident care, the facility's history of compliance with the rules and standards of this Act, and the facility's attempts to comply with the particular rule or standard in question. The Department may provide, by rule, for the automatic renewal of waivers concerning physical plant requirements upon the renewal of a license. The Department shall renew waivers relating to physical plant standards issued pursuant to this Section at the time of the indicated reviews, unless it can show why such waivers should not be extended for the following reasons:

(a) the condition of the physical plant has deteriorated or its use substantially changed so that the basis upon which the waiver was issued is materially different; or

(b) the facility is renovated or substantially remodeled in such a way as to permit compliance with the applicable rules and standards without substantial increase in cost.

A copy of each waiver application and each waiver granted or renewed shall be on file with the Department and available for public inspection. The Director shall annually review such file and recommend to the Long-Term Long Term Care Facility Advisory Board any modification in rules or standards suggested by the number and nature of waivers requested and granted and the difficulties faced in compliance by similarly situated facilities.

(Source: P.A. 85-1216; revised 10-26-16.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-306) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-306)

Sec. 3-306. In determining whether a penalty is to be imposed and in determining the amount of the penalty to be imposed, if any, for a violation, the Director shall consider the following factors:

(1) the The gravity of the violation, including the probability that death or serious physical or mental harm to a resident will result or has resulted; the severity of the actual or potential harm, and the extent to which the provisions of the applicable statutes or regulations were violated;

(2) the The reasonable diligence exercised by the licensee and efforts to correct violations; .

(3) any Any previous violations committed by the licensee; and

(4) the The financial benefit to the facility of committing or continuing the violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 390. The MC/DD Act is amended by changing Section 3-318 as follows:

(210 ILCS 46/3-318)

Sec. 3-318. Business offenses.

(a) No person shall:

(1) intentionally Intentionally fail to correct or interfere with the correction of a Type "AA", Type "A", or Type "B" violation within the time specified on the notice or approved plan of correction under this Act as the maximum period given for correction, unless an extension is granted and the corrections are made before expiration of extension;

(2) intentionally Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any duly authorized investigation and enforcement of this Act;

(3) intentionally Intentionally prevent or attempt to prevent any examination of any relevant books or records pertinent to investigations and enforcement of this Act;

(4) intentionally Intentionally prevent or interfere with the preservation of evidence pertaining to any violation of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act;

(5) intentionally Intentionally retaliate or discriminate against any resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any state official, or for initiating, participating in, or testifying in an action for any remedy authorized under this Act;

(6) willfully Willfully file any false, incomplete or intentionally misleading information required to be filed under this Act, or willfully fail or refuse to file any required information;

(7) open Open or operate a facility without a license; or

(8) intentionally Intentionally retaliate or discriminate against any resident for consenting to authorized electronic monitoring under the Authorized Electronic Monitoring in Long-Term Care Facilities Act; or .

(9) prevent Prevent the installation or use of an electronic monitoring device by a resident who has provided the facility with notice and consent as required in Section 20 of the Authorized Electronic Monitoring in Long-Term Care Facilities Act.

(b) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $10,000, except as otherwise provided in subsection (2) of Section 3-103 as to submission of false or misleading information in a license application.

(c) The State's Attorney of the county in which the facility is located, or the Attorney General, shall be notified by the Director of any violations of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-784, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 395. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 is amended by changing Sections 1-102 and 4-201 as follows:

(210 ILCS 49/1-102)

Sec. 1-102. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Abuse" means any physical or mental injury or sexual assault inflicted on a consumer other than by accidental means in a facility.

"Accreditation" means any of the following:

(1) the Joint Commission;

(2) the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities;

(3) the Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program; or

(4) any other national standards of care as approved by the Department.

"Applicant" means any person making application for a license or a provisional license under this Act.

"Consumer" means a person, 18 years of age or older, admitted to a mental health rehabilitation facility for evaluation, observation, diagnosis, treatment, stabilization, recovery, and rehabilitation.

"Consumer" does not mean any of the following:

(i) an individual requiring a locked setting;

(ii) an individual requiring psychiatric hospitalization because of an acute psychiatric crisis;

(iii) an individual under 18 years of age;

(iv) an individual who is actively suicidal or violent toward others;

(v) an individual who has been found unfit to stand trial;

(vi) an individual who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity based on committing a violent act, such as sexual assault, assault with a deadly weapon, arson, or murder;

(vii) an individual subject to temporary detention and examination under Section 3-607 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(viii) an individual deemed clinically appropriate for inpatient admission in a State psychiatric hospital; and

(ix) an individual transferred by the Department of Corrections pursuant to Section 3-8-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

"Consumer record" means a record that organizes all information on the care, treatment, and rehabilitation services rendered to a consumer in a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility.

"Controlled drugs" means those drugs covered under the federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention Control Act of 1970, as amended, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Discharge" means the full release of any consumer from a facility.

"Drug administration" means the act in which a single dose of a prescribed drug or biological is given to a consumer. The complete act of administration entails removing an individual dose from a container, verifying the dose with the prescriber's orders, giving the individual dose to the consumer, and promptly recording the time and dose given.

"Drug dispensing" means the act entailing the following of a prescription order for a drug or biological and proper selection, measuring, packaging, labeling, and issuance of the drug or biological to a consumer.

"Emergency" means a situation, physical condition, or one or more practices, methods, or operations which present imminent danger of death or serious physical or mental harm to consumers of a facility.

"Facility" means a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility that provides at least one of the following services: (1) triage center; (2) crisis stabilization; (3) recovery and rehabilitation supports; or (4) transitional living units for 3 or more persons. The facility shall provide a 24-hour program that provides intensive support and recovery services designed to assist persons, 18 years or older, with mental disorders to develop the skills to become self-sufficient and capable of increasing levels of independent functioning. It includes facilities that meet the following criteria:

(1) 100% of the consumer population of the facility has a diagnosis of serious mental illness;

(2) no more than 15% of the consumer population of the facility is 65 years of age or older;

(3) none of the consumers are non-ambulatory;

(4) none of the consumers have a primary diagnosis of moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability; and

(5) the facility must have been licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act or the Nursing Home Care Act immediately preceding July 22, 2013 (the effective date of this Act) and qualifies as an a institute for mental disease under the federal definition of the term.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) a home, institution, or place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois;

(2) a hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefor which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) a facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) a community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) a nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination; however, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(6) a facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(7) a supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(8) a supportive living facility in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(9) an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(10) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(11) a home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(12) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(13) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of this Act); or

(14) a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act.

"Executive director" means a person who is charged with the general administration and supervision of a facility licensed under this Act.

"Guardian" means a person appointed as a guardian of the person or guardian of the estate, or both, of a consumer under the Probate Act of 1975.

"Identified offender" means a person who meets any of the following criteria:

(1) Has been convicted of, found guilty of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for, any felony offense listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act, except for the following:

(i) a felony offense described in Section 10-5 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(ii) a felony offense described in Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act;

(iii) a felony offense described in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a felony offense described in Section 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; and

(v) a felony offense described in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) Has been convicted of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for, any sex offense as defined in subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

"Transitional living units" are residential units within a facility that have the purpose of assisting the consumer in developing and reinforcing the necessary skills to live independently outside of the facility. The duration of stay in such a setting shall not exceed 120 days for each consumer. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to be a prerequisite for transitioning out of a facility.

"Licensee" means the person, persons, firm, partnership, association, organization, company, corporation, or business trust to which a license has been issued.

"Misappropriation of a consumer's property" means the deliberate misplacement, exploitation, or wrongful temporary or permanent use of a consumer's belongings or money without the consent of a consumer or his or her guardian.

"Neglect" means a facility's failure to provide, or willful withholding of, adequate medical care, mental health treatment, psychiatric rehabilitation, personal care, or assistance that is necessary to avoid physical harm and mental anguish of a consumer.

"Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, maintenance, or general supervision and oversight of the physical and mental well-being of an individual who is incapable of maintaining a private, independent residence or who is incapable of managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual. "Personal care" shall not be construed to confine or otherwise constrain a facility's pursuit to develop the skills and abilities of a consumer to become self-sufficient and capable of increasing levels of independent functioning.

"Recovery and rehabilitation supports" means a program that facilitates a consumer's longer-term symptom management and stabilization while preparing the consumer for transitional living units by improving living skills and community socialization. The duration of stay in such a setting shall be established by the Department by rule.

"Restraint" means:

(i) a physical restraint that is any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to a consumer's body that the consumer cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body; devices used for positioning, including, but not limited to, bed rails, gait belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints for purposes of this Section; or

(ii) a chemical restraint that is any drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms; the Department shall, by rule, designate certain devices as restraints, including at least all those devices that have been determined to be restraints by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. For the purposes of this Act, restraint shall be administered only after utilizing a coercive free environment and culture.

"Self-administration of medication" means consumers shall be responsible for the control, management, and use of their own medication.

"Crisis stabilization" means a secure and separate unit that provides short-term behavioral, emotional, or psychiatric crisis stabilization as an alternative to hospitalization or re-hospitalization for consumers from residential or community placement. The duration of stay in such a setting shall not exceed 21 days for each consumer.

"Therapeutic separation" means the removal of a consumer from the milieu to a room or area which is designed to aid in the emotional or psychiatric stabilization of that consumer.

"Triage center" means a non-residential 23-hour center that serves as an alternative to emergency room care, hospitalization, or re-hospitalization for consumers in need of short-term crisis stabilization. Consumers may access a triage center from a number of referral sources, including family, emergency rooms, hospitals, community behavioral health providers, federally qualified health providers, or schools, including colleges or universities. A triage center may be located in a building separate from the licensed location of a facility, but shall not be more than 1,000 feet from the licensed location of the facility and must meet all of the facility standards applicable to the licensed location. If the triage center does operate in a separate building, safety personnel shall be provided, on site, 24 hours per day and the triage center shall meet all other staffing requirements without counting any staff employed in the main facility building.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 9-8-16.)

(210 ILCS 49/4-201)

Sec. 4-201. Accreditation and licensure. At the end of the provisional licensure period established in Part 1 of this Article 4, the Department shall license a facility as a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility under this Act that successfully completes and obtains valid national accreditation in behavioral health from a recognized national accreditation entity and complies with licensure standards as established by the Department of Public Health in administrative rule. Rules governing licensure standards shall include, but not be limited to, appropriate fines and sanctions associated with violations of laws or regulations. The following shall be considered to be valid national accreditation in behavioral health from a an national accreditation entity:

(1) the Joint Commission;

(2) the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities;

(3) the Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program; or

(4) any other national standards of care as approved by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-712, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 400. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.40 and 3.220 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.40)

Sec. 3.40. EMS System Participation Suspensions and Due Process.

(a) An EMS Medical Director may suspend from participation within the System any EMS personnel, EMS Lead Instructor (LI), individual, individual provider or other participant considered not to be meeting the requirements of the Program Plan of that approved EMS System.

(b) Prior to suspending any individual or entity, an EMS Medical Director shall provide an opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board in accordance with subsection (f) and the rules promulgated by the Department.

(1) If the local System review board affirms or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the individual or entity shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(2) If the local System review board reverses or modifies the EMS Medical Director's order, the EMS Medical Director shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(3) The suspension shall commence only upon the occurrence of one of the following:

(A) the individual or entity has waived the opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board; or

(B) the order has been affirmed or modified by the local system review board and the individual or entity has waived the opportunity for review by the State Board; or

(C) the order has been affirmed or modified by the local system review board, and the local board's decision has been affirmed or modified by the State Board.

(c) An EMS Medical Director may immediately suspend an EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHRN, LI, or other individual or entity if he or she finds that the continuation in practice by the individual or entity would constitute an imminent danger to the public. The suspended individual or entity shall be issued an immediate verbal notification followed by a written suspension order by the EMS Medical Director which states the length, terms and basis for the suspension.

(1) Within 24 hours following the commencement of the suspension, the EMS Medical Director shall deliver to the Department, by messenger, telefax, or other Department-approved electronic communication, a copy of the suspension order and copies of any written materials which relate to the EMS Medical Director's decision to suspend the individual or entity. All medical and patient-specific information, including Department findings with respect to the quality of care rendered, shall be strictly confidential pursuant to the Medical Studies Act (Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure).

(2) Within 24 hours following the commencement of the suspension, the suspended individual or entity may deliver to the Department, by messenger, telefax, or other Department-approved electronic communication, a written response to the suspension order and copies of any written materials which the individual or entity feels are appropriate. All medical and patient-specific information, including Department findings with respect to the quality of care rendered, shall be strictly confidential pursuant to the Medical Studies Act.

(3) Within 24 hours following receipt of the EMS Medical Director's suspension order or the individual or entity's written response, whichever is later, the Director or the Director's designee shall determine whether the suspension should be stayed pending an opportunity for a hearing or review in accordance with this Act, or whether the suspension should continue during the course of that hearing or review. The Director or the Director's designee shall issue this determination to the EMS Medical Director, who shall immediately notify the suspended individual or entity. The suspension shall remain in effect during this period of review by the Director or the Director's designee.

(d) Upon issuance of a suspension order for reasons directly related to medical care, the EMS Medical Director shall also provide the individual or entity with the opportunity for a hearing before the local System review board, in accordance with subsection (f) and the rules promulgated by the Department.

(1) If the local System review board affirms or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the individual or entity shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(2) If the local System review board reverses or modifies the EMS Medical Director's suspension order, the EMS Medical Director shall have the opportunity for a review of the local board's decision by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board, pursuant to Section 3.45 of this Act.

(3) The suspended individual or entity may elect to bypass the local System review board and seek direct review of the EMS Medical Director's suspension order by the State EMS Disciplinary Review Board.

(e) The Resource Hospital shall designate a local System review board in accordance with the rules of the Department, for the purpose of providing a hearing to any individual or entity participating within the System who is suspended from participation by the EMS Medical Director. The EMS Medical Director shall arrange for a certified shorthand reporter to make a stenographic record of that hearing and thereafter prepare a transcript of the proceedings. The transcript, all documents or materials received as evidence during the hearing and the local System review board's written decision shall be retained in the custody of the EMS system. The System shall implement a decision of the local System review board unless that decision has been appealed to the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board in accordance with this Act and the rules of the Department.

(f) The Resource Hospital shall implement a decision of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board which has been rendered in accordance with this Act and the rules of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 9-8-16.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.220)

Sec. 3.220. EMS Assistance Fund.

(a) There is hereby created an "EMS Assistance Fund" within the State treasury, for the purpose of receiving fines and fees collected by the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to this Act.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) All licensing, testing, and certification fees authorized by this Act, excluding ambulance licensure fees, within this fund shall be used by the Department for administration, oversight, and enforcement of activities authorized under this Act.

(c) All other moneys within this fund shall be distributed by the Department to the EMS Regions for disbursement in accordance with protocols established in the EMS Region Plans, for the purposes of organization, development and improvement of Emergency Medical Services Systems, including but not limited to training of personnel and acquisition, modification and maintenance of necessary supplies, equipment and vehicles.

(d) All fees and fines collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited into the EMS Assistance Fund, except that all fees collected under Section 3.86 in connection with the licensure of stretcher van providers shall be deposited into the Stretcher Van Licensure Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-702, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1469, eff. 1-1-11; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 405. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 10.01 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/10.01) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2810.01)

Sec. 10.01. All fines shall be paid to the Department within 10 days of the notice of assessment or, if the fine is contested under Section 10 of this Act, within 10 days of the receipt of the final decision, unless the decision is appealed and the order is stayed by court order under Section 12 of this Act. A fine assessed under this Act shall be collected by the Department. If the licensee against whom the fine has been assessed does not comply with a written demand for payment within 30 days, the Director shall issue an order to do any of the following:

(a) certify to the Comptroller, as provided by rule of the Department of delinquent fines due and owing from the licensee or any amounts due and owing as a result of a civil action pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. The purpose of certification shall be to intercept State income tax refunds and other payments due such licensee in order to satisfy, in whole or in part, any delinquent fines or amounts recoverable in a civil action brought pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. The rule shall provide for notice to any such licensee or person affected. Any final administrative decision rendered by the Department with respect to any certification made pursuant to this subsection (a) shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law; .

(b) certify to the Social Security Administration, as provided by rule of the Department, of delinquent fines due and owing from the licensee or any amounts due and owing as a result of a civil action pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. The purpose of certification shall be to request the Social Security Administration to intercept and remit to the Department Medicaid reimbursement payments due such licensee in order to satisfy, in whole or in part, any delinquent fines or amounts recoverable in a civil action brought pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section. The rules shall provide for notice to any such licensee or person affected. Any final administrative decision rendered by the Department with respect to any certification made pursuant to this subsection (b) shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law; .

(c) add the amount of the penalty to the agency's licensing fee; if the licensee refuses to make the payment at the time of application for renewal of its license, the license shall not be renewed; or

(d) bring an action in circuit court to recover the amount of the penalty.

(Source: P.A. 94-379, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 410. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 10.8 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151)

Sec. 10. Board creation; Department rules.

(a) The Governor shall appoint a Hospital Licensing Board composed of 14 persons, which shall advise and consult with the Director in the administration of this Act. The Secretary of Human Services (or his or her designee) shall serve on the Board, along with one additional representative of the Department of Human Services to be designated by the Secretary. Four appointive members shall represent the general public and 2 of these shall be members of hospital governing boards; one appointive member shall be a registered professional nurse or advanced practice, nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who is employed in a hospital; 3 appointive members shall be hospital administrators actively engaged in the supervision or administration of hospitals; 2 appointive members shall be practicing physicians, licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches; and one appointive member shall be a physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987; and one appointive member shall be a dentist licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. In making Board appointments, the Governor shall give consideration to recommendations made through the Director by professional organizations concerned with hospital administration for the hospital administrative and governing board appointments, registered professional nurse organizations for the registered professional nurse appointment, professional medical organizations for the physician appointments, and professional dental organizations for the dentist appointment.

(b) Each appointive member shall hold office for a term of 3 years, except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term and the terms of office of the members first taking office shall expire, as designated at the time of appointment, 2 at the end of the first year, 2 at the end of the second year, and 3 at the end of the third year, after the date of appointment. The initial terms of office of the 2 additional members representing the general public provided for in this Section shall expire at the end of the third year after the date of appointment. The term of office of each original appointee shall commence July 1, 1953; the term of office of the original registered professional nurse appointee shall commence July 1, 1969; the term of office of the original licensed podiatric physician appointee shall commence July 1, 1981; the term of office of the original dentist appointee shall commence July 1, 1987; and the term of office of each successor shall commence on July 1 of the year in which his predecessor's term expires. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual and necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence. The Board shall meet as frequently as the Director deems necessary, but not less than once a year. Upon request of 5 or more members, the Director shall call a meeting of the Board.

(c) The Director shall prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and statements of policy needed to implement, interpret, or make specific the provisions and purposes of this Act. The Department shall adopt rules which set forth standards for determining when the public interest, safety or welfare requires emergency action in relation to termination of a research program or experimental procedure conducted by a hospital licensed under this Act. No rule, regulation, or standard shall be adopted by the Department concerning the operation of hospitals licensed under this Act which has not had prior approval of the Hospital Licensing Board, nor shall the Department adopt any rule, regulation or standard relating to the establishment of a hospital without consultation with the Hospital Licensing Board.

(d) Within one year after August 7, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1248) this amendatory Act of 1984, all hospitals licensed under this Act and providing perinatal care shall comply with standards of perinatal care promulgated by the Department. The Director shall promulgate rules or regulations under this Act which are consistent with the Developmental Disability Prevention Act "An Act relating to the prevention of developmental disabilities", approved September 6, 1973, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-26-16.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.8)

Sec. 10.8. Requirements for employment of physicians.

(a) Physician employment by hospitals and hospital affiliates. Employing entities may employ physicians to practice medicine in all of its branches provided that the following requirements are met:

(1) The employed physician is a member of the medical staff of either the hospital or hospital affiliate. If a hospital affiliate decides to have a medical staff, its medical staff shall be organized in accordance with written bylaws where the affiliate medical staff is responsible for making recommendations to the governing body of the affiliate regarding all quality assurance activities and safeguarding professional autonomy. The affiliate medical staff bylaws may not be unilaterally changed by the governing body of the affiliate. Nothing in this Section requires hospital affiliates to have a medical staff.

(2) Independent physicians, who are not employed by an employing entity, periodically review the quality of the medical services provided by the employed physician to continuously improve patient care.

(3) The employing entity and the employed physician sign a statement acknowledging that the employer shall not unreasonably exercise control, direct, or interfere with the employed physician's exercise and execution of his or her professional judgment in a manner that adversely affects the employed physician's ability to provide quality care to patients. This signed statement shall take the form of a provision in the physician's employment contract or a separate signed document from the employing entity to the employed physician. This statement shall state: "As the employer of a physician, (employer's name) shall not unreasonably exercise control, direct, or interfere with the employed physician's exercise and execution of his or her professional judgment in a manner that adversely affects the employed physician's ability to provide quality care to patients."

(4) The employing entity shall establish a mutually agreed upon independent review process with criteria under which an employed physician may seek review of the alleged violation of this Section by physicians who are not employed by the employing entity. The affiliate may arrange with the hospital medical staff to conduct these reviews. The independent physicians shall make findings and recommendations to the employing entity and the employed physician within 30 days of the conclusion of the gathering of the relevant information.

(b) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section:

"Employing entity" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or a hospital affiliate.

"Employed physician" means a physician who receives an IRS W-2 form, or any successor federal income tax form, from an employing entity.

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, except county hospitals as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, or similar organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily to the provision, management, or support of health care services and that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control of the hospital. "Control" means having at least an equal or a majority ownership or membership interest. A hospital affiliate shall be 100% owned or controlled by any combination of hospitals, their parent corporations, or physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois. "Hospital affiliate" does not include a health maintenance organization regulated under the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Physician" means an individual licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

"Professional judgment" means the exercise of a physician's independent clinical judgment in providing medically appropriate diagnoses, care, and treatment to a particular patient at a particular time. Situations in which an employing entity does not interfere with an employed physician's professional judgment include, without limitation, the following:

(1) practice restrictions based upon peer review of the physician's clinical practice to assess quality of care and utilization of resources in accordance with applicable bylaws;

(2) supervision of physicians by appropriately licensed medical directors, medical school faculty, department chairpersons or directors, or supervising physicians;

(3) written statements of ethical or religious directives; and

(4) reasonable referral restrictions that do not, in the reasonable professional judgment of the physician, adversely affect the health or welfare of the patient.

(c) Private enforcement. An employed physician aggrieved by a violation of this Act may seek to obtain an injunction or reinstatement of employment with the employing entity as the court may deem appropriate. Nothing in this Section limits or abrogates any common law cause of action. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to alter the law of negligence.

(d) Department enforcement. The Department may enforce the provisions of this Section, but nothing in this Section shall require or permit the Department to license, certify, or otherwise investigate the activities of a hospital affiliate not otherwise required to be licensed by the Department.

(e) Retaliation prohibited. No employing entity shall retaliate against any employed physician for requesting a hearing or review under this Section. No action may be taken that affects the ability of a physician to practice during this review, except in circumstances where the medical staff bylaws authorize summary suspension.

(f) Physician collaboration. No employing entity shall adopt or enforce, either formally or informally, any policy, rule, regulation, or practice inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration, including medical direction of licensed advanced practice nurses or supervision of licensed physician assistants and delegation to other personnel under Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(g) Physician disciplinary actions. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or prohibit the governing body of an employing entity or its medical staff, if any, from taking disciplinary actions against a physician as permitted by law.

(h) Physician review. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit a hospital or hospital affiliate from making a determination not to pay for a particular health care service or to prohibit a medical group, independent practice association, hospital medical staff, or hospital governing body from enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization review protocols or determining whether the employed physician complied with those protocols.

(i) Review. Nothing in this Section may be used or construed to establish that any activity of a hospital or hospital affiliate is subject to review under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(j) Rules. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-455, eff. 9-30-01; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 415. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 35A-15, 35A-60, 126.12, 126.25, 143.19, 355a, and 1303 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/35A-15)

Sec. 35A-15. Company action level event.

(a) A company action level event means any of the following events:

(1) The filing of an RBC Report by an insurer that indicates that:

(A) the insurer's total adjusted capital is greater than or equal to its regulatory action level RBC, but less than its company action level RBC;

(B) the insurer, if a life, health, or life and health insurer or a fraternal benefit society, has total adjusted capital that is greater than or equal to its company action level RBC, but less than the product of its authorized control level RBC and 3.0 and has a negative trend; or

(C) the insurer, if a property and casualty insurer, has total adjusted capital that is greater than or equal to its company action level RBC, but less than the product of its authorized control level RBC and 3.0 and triggers the trend test determined in accordance with the trend test calculation included in the property and casualty RBC Instructions; or .

(D) the insurer, if a health organization, has total adjusted capital that is greater than or equal to its company action level RBC but less than the product of its authorized control level RBC and 3.0 and triggers the trend test determined in accordance with the trend test calculation included in the Health RBC Instructions.

(2) The notification by the Director to the insurer of an Adjusted RBC Report that indicates an event described in paragraph (1), provided the insurer does not challenge the Adjusted RBC Report under Section 35A-35.

(3) The notification by the Director to the insurer that the Director has, after a hearing, rejected the insurer's challenge under Section 35A-35 to an Adjusted RBC Report that indicates the event described in paragraph (1).

(b) In the event of a company action level event, the insurer shall prepare and submit to the Director an RBC Plan that does all of the following:

(1) Identifies the conditions that contribute to the company action level event.

(2) Contains proposed corrective actions that the insurer intends to take and that are expected to result in the elimination of the company action level event. A health organization is not prohibited from proposing recognition of a parental guarantee or a letter of credit to eliminate the company action level event; however the Director shall, at his discretion, determine whether or the extent to which the proposed parental guarantee or letter of credit is an acceptable part of a satisfactory RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan.

(3) Provides projections of the insurer's financial results in the current year and at least the 4 succeeding years, both in the absence of proposed corrective actions and giving effect to the proposed corrective actions, including projections of statutory operating income, net income, capital, and surplus. The projections for both new and renewal business may include separate projections for each major line of business and separately identify each significant income, expense, and benefit component.

(4) Identifies the key assumptions affecting the insurer's projections and the sensitivity of the projections to the assumptions.

(5) Identifies the quality of, and problems associated with, the insurer's business including, but not limited to, its assets, anticipated business growth and associated surplus strain, extraordinary exposure to risk, mix of business, and use of reinsurance, if any, in each case.

(c) The insurer shall submit the RBC Plan to the Director within 45 days after the company action level event occurs or within 45 days after the Director notifies the insurer that the Director has, after a hearing, rejected its challenge under Section 35A-35 to an Adjusted RBC Report.

(d) Within 60 days after an insurer submits an RBC Plan to the Director, the Director shall notify the insurer whether the RBC Plan shall be implemented or is, in the judgment of the Director, unsatisfactory. If the Director determines the RBC Plan is unsatisfactory, the notification to the insurer shall set forth the reasons for the determination and may set forth proposed revisions that will render the RBC Plan satisfactory in the judgment of the Director. Upon notification from the Director, the insurer shall prepare a Revised RBC Plan, which may incorporate by reference any revisions proposed by the Director. The insurer shall submit the Revised RBC Plan to the Director within 45 days after the Director notifies the insurer that the RBC Plan is unsatisfactory or within 45 days after the Director notifies the insurer that the Director has, after a hearing, rejected its challenge under Section 35A-35 to the determination that the RBC Plan is unsatisfactory.

(e) In the event the Director notifies an insurer that its RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan is unsatisfactory, the Director may, at the Director's discretion and subject to the insurer's right to a hearing under Section 35A-35, specify in the notification that the notification constitutes a regulatory action level event.

(f) Every domestic insurer that files an RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan with the Director shall file a copy of the RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan with the chief insurance regulatory official in any state in which the insurer is authorized to do business if that state has a law substantially similar to the confidentiality provisions in subsection (a) of Section 35A-50 and if that official requests in writing a copy of the plan. The insurer shall file a copy of the RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan in that state no later than the later of 15 days after receiving the written request for the copy or the date on which the RBC Plan or Revised RBC Plan is filed under subsection (c) or (d) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-157, eff. 8-2-13; 99-542, eff. 7-8-16; revised 9-9-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/35A-60)

Sec. 35A-60. Phase-in of Article.

(a) For RBC Reports filed with respect to the December 31, 1993 annual statement, instead of the provisions of Sections 35A-15, 35A-20, 35A-25, and 35A-30, the following provisions apply:

(1) In the event of a company action level event, the Director shall take no action under this Article.

(2) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-15.

(3) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20 or an authorized control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-20.

(4) In the event of a mandatory control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-25.

(b) For RBC Reports required to be filed by property and casualty insurers with respect to the December 31, 1995 annual statement, instead of the provisions of Sections Section 35A-15, 35A-20, 35A-25, and 35A-30, the following provisions apply:

(1) In the event of a company action level event with respect to a domestic insurer, the Director shall take no regulatory action under this Article.

(2) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-15.

(3) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20 or an authorized control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-20.

(4) In the event of a mandatory control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-25.

(c) For RBC Reports required to be filed by health organizations with respect to the December 31, 1999 annual statement and the December 31, 2000 annual statement, instead of the provisions of Sections 35A-15, 35A-20, 35A-25, and 35A-30, the following provisions apply:

(1) In the event of a company action level event with respect to a domestic insurer, the Director shall take no regulatory action under this Article.

(2) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-15.

(3) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20 or an authorized control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-20.

(4) In the event of a mandatory control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-25.

This subsection does not apply to a health organization that provides or arranges for a health care plan under which enrollees may access health care services from contracted providers without a referral from their primary care physician.

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude or limit other powers or duties of the Director under any other laws.

(d) For RBC Reports required to be filed by fraternal benefit societies with respect to the December 31, 2013 annual statement and the December 31, 2014 annual statement, instead of the provisions of Sections 35A-15, 35A-20, 35A-25, and 35A-30, the following provisions apply:

(1) In the event of a company action level event with respect to a domestic insurer, the Director shall take no regulatory action under this Article.

(2) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-15.

(3) In the event of a regulatory action level event under paragraph (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 35A-20 or an authorized control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-20.

(4) In the event of a mandatory control level event, the Director shall take the actions required under Section 35A-25.

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude or limit other powers or duties of the Director under any other laws.

(Source: P.A. 98-157, eff. 8-2-13; revised 9-2-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/126.12)

Sec. 126.12. Insurer investment pools.

A. An insurer may acquire investments in investment pools that:

(1) Invest only in:

(a) Obligations that are rated 1 or 2 by the SVO or have an equivalent of an SVO 1 or 2 rating (or, in the absence of a 1 or 2 rating or equivalent rating, the issuer has outstanding obligations with an SVO 1 or 2 or equivalent rating) by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization recognized by the SVO and have:

(i) A remaining maturity of 397 days or less or a put that entitles the holder to receive the principal amount of the obligation which put may be exercised through maturity at specified intervals not exceeding 397 days; or

(ii) A remaining maturity of 3 years or less and a floating interest rate that resets no less frequently than quarterly on the basis of a current short-term index (federal funds, prime rate, treasury bills, London InterBank Offered Rate (LIBOR) or commercial paper) and is subject to no maximum limit, if the obligations do not have an interest rate that varies inversely to market interest rate changes;

(b) Government money market mutual funds or class one money market mutual funds; or

(c) Securities lending, repurchase, and reverse repurchase transactions that meet all the requirements of Section 126.16, except the quantitative limitations of Section 126.16D; or

(2) Invest only in investments which an insurer may acquire under this Article, if the insurer's proportionate interest in the amount invested in these investments when combined with amount of such investments made directly or indirectly through an investment subsidiary or other insurer investment pool permitted under this subsection A(2) does not exceed the applicable limits of this Article for such investments.

B. For an investment in an investment pool to be qualified under this Article, the investment pool shall not:

(1) Acquire securities issued, assumed, guaranteed or insured by the insurer or an affiliate of the insurer;

(2) Borrow or incur any indebtedness for borrowed money, except for securities lending and reverse repurchase transactions that meet the requirements of Section 126.16 except the quantitative limitations of Section 126.16D; or

(3) Acquire an investment if, as a result of such transaction, the aggregate value of securities then loaned or sold to, purchased from or invested in any one business entity under this Section would exceed 10% of the total assets of the investment pool.

C. The limitations of Section 126.10A shall not apply to an insurer's investment in an investment pool, however an insurer shall not acquire an investment in an investment pool under this Section if, as a result of and after giving effect to the investment, the aggregate amount of investments then held by the insurer under this Section:

(1) In all investment pools investing in investments permitted under subsection A(2) of this Section would exceed 25% of its admitted assets; or

(2) In all investment pools would exceed 35% of its admitted assets.

D. For an investment in an investment pool to be qualified under this Article, the manager of the investment pool shall:

(1) Be organized under the laws of the United States or a state and designated as the pool manager in a pooling agreement;

(2) Be the insurer, an affiliated insurer or a business entity affiliated with the insurer, a qualified bank, a business entity registered under the Investment Advisers Advisors Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.), as amended or, in the case of a reciprocal insurer or interinsurance exchange, its attorney-in-fact, or in the case of a United States branch of an alien insurer, its United States manager or an affiliate or subsidiary of its United States manager;

(3) Be responsible for the compilation and maintenance of detailed accounting records setting forth:

(a) The cash receipts and disbursements reflecting each participant's proportionate investment in the investment pool;

(b) A complete description of all underlying assets of the investment pool (including amount, interest rate, maturity date (if any) and other appropriate designations); and

(c) Other records which, on a daily basis, allow third parties to verify each participant's investment in the investment pool; and

(4) Maintain the assets of the investment pool in one or more accounts, in the name of or on behalf of the investment pool, under a custody agreement with a qualified bank. The custody agreement shall:

(a) State and recognize the claims and rights of each participant;

(b) Acknowledge that the underlying assets of the investment pool are held solely for the benefit of each participant in proportion to the aggregate amount of its investments in the investment pool; and

(c) Contain an agreement that the underlying assets of the investment pool shall not be commingled with the general assets of the custodian qualified bank or any other person.

E. The pooling agreement for each investment pool shall be in writing and shall provide that:

(1) An insurer and its affiliated insurers or, in the case of an investment pool investing solely in investments permitted under subsection A(1) of this Section, the insurer and its subsidiaries, affiliates or any pension or profit sharing plan of the insurer, its subsidiaries and affiliates or, in the case of a United States branch of an alien insurer, affiliates or subsidiaries of its United States manager, shall, at all times, hold 100% of the interests in the investment pool;

(2) The underlying assets of the investment pool shall not be commingled with the general assets of the pool manager or any other person;

(3) In proportion to the aggregate amount of each pool participant's interest in the investment pool:

(a) Each participant owns an undivided interest in the underlying assets of the investment pool; and

(b) The underlying assets of the investment pool are held solely for the benefit of each participant;

(4) A participant, or in the event of the participant's insolvency, bankruptcy or receivership, its trustee, receiver or other successor-in-interest, may withdraw all or any portion of its investment from the investment pool under the terms of the pooling agreement;

(5) Withdrawals may be made on demand without penalty or other assessment on any business day, but settlement of funds shall occur within a reasonable and customary period thereafter not to exceed 10 business days. Distributions under this paragraph shall be calculated in each case net of all then applicable fees and expenses of the investment pool. The pooling agreement shall provide that the pool manager shall distribute to a participant, at the discretion of the pool manager:

(a) In cash, the then fair market value of the participant's pro rata share of each underlying asset of the investment pool;

(b) In kind, a pro rata share of each underlying asset; or

(c) In a combination of cash and in kind distributions, a pro rata share in each underlying asset; and

(6) The pool manager shall make the records of the investment pool available for inspection by the Director.

F. Except for the formation of the investment pool, transactions and between a domestic insurer and an affiliated insurer investment pool shall not be subject to the requirements of Section 131.20a of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-418, eff. 8-15-97; revised 9-2-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/126.25)

Sec. 126.25. Insurer investment pools.

A. An insurer may acquire investments in investment pools that:

(1) Invest only in:

(a) Obligations that are rated 1 or 2 by the SVO or have an equivalent of an SVO 1 or 2 rating (or, in the absence of a 1 or 2 rating or equivalent rating, the issuer has outstanding obligations with an SVO 1 or 2 or equivalent rating) by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization recognized by the SVO and have:

(i) A remaining maturity of 397 days or less or a put that entitles the holder to receive the principal amount of the obligation which put may be exercised through maturity at specified intervals not exceeding 397 days; or

(ii) A remaining maturity of 3 years or less and a floating interest rate that resets no less frequently than quarterly on the basis of a current short-term index (federal funds, prime rate, treasury bills, London InterBank Offered Rate (LIBOR) or commercial paper) and is subject to no maximum limit, if the obligations do not have an interest rate that varies inversely to market interest rate changes;

(b) Government money market mutual funds or class one money market mutual funds; or

(c) Securities lending, repurchase, and reverse repurchase, transactions that meet all the requirements of Section 126.29, except the quantitative limitations of Section 126.29D; or

(2) Invest only in investments which an insurer may acquire under this Article, if the insurer's proportionate interest in the amount invested in these investments when combined with amounts of such investments made directly or indirectly through an investment subsidiary or other insurer investment pool permitted under this subsection A(2) does not exceed the applicable limits of this Article for such investments.

B. For an investment in an investment pool to be qualified under this Article, the investment pool shall not:

(1) Acquire securities issued, assumed, guaranteed, or insured by the insurer or an affiliate of the insurer;

(2) Borrow or incur any indebtedness for borrowed money, except for securities lending and reverse repurchase transactions that meet the requirements of Section 126.29 except the quantitative limitations of Section 126.29D; or

(3) Acquire an investment if, as a result of such transaction, the aggregate value of securities then loaned or sold to, purchased from or invested in any one business entity under this Section would exceed 10% of the total assets of the investment pool.

C. The limitations of Section 126.23A shall not apply to an insurer's investment in an investment pool, however an insurer shall not acquire an investment in an investment pool under this Section if, as a result of and after giving effect to the investment, the aggregate amount of investments then held by the insurer under this Section:

(1) In all investment pools investing in investments permitted under subsection A(2) of this Section would exceed 25% of its admitted assets; or

(2) In all investment pools would exceed 40% of its admitted assets.

D. For an investment in an investment pool to be qualified under this Article, the manager of the investment pool shall:

(1) Be organized under the laws of the United States or a state and designated as the pool manager in a pooling agreement;

(2) Be the insurer, an affiliated insurer or a business entity affiliated with the insurer, a qualified bank, a business entity registered under the Investment Advisers Advisors Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.), as amended or, in the case of a reciprocal insurer or interinsurance exchange, its attorney-in-fact, or in the case of a United States branch of an alien insurer, its United States manager or an affiliate or subsidiary of its United States manager;

(3) Be responsible for the compilation and maintenance of detailed accounting records setting forth:

(a) The cash receipts and disbursements reflecting each participant's proportionate investment in the investment pool;

(b) A complete description of all underlying assets of the investment pool (including amount, interest rate, maturity date (if any) and other appropriate designations); and

(c) Other records which, on a daily basis, allow third parties to verify each participant's investment in the investment pool; and

(4) Maintain the assets of the investment pool in one or more accounts, in the name of or on behalf of the investment pool, under a custody agreement with a qualified bank. The custody agreement shall:

(a) State and recognize the claims and rights of each participant;

(b) Acknowledge that the underlying assets of the investment pool are held solely for the benefit of each participant in proportion to the aggregate amount of its investments in the investment pool; and

(c) Contain an agreement that the underlying assets of the investment pool shall not be commingled with the general assets of the custodian qualified bank or any other person.

E. The pooling agreement for each investment pool shall be in writing and shall provide that:

(1) An insurer and its affiliated insurers or, in the case of an investment pool investing solely in investments permitted under subsection A(1) of this Section, the insurer and its subsidiaries, affiliates or any pension or profit sharing plan of the insurer, its subsidiaries and affiliates or, in the case of a United States branch of an alien insurer, affiliates or subsidiaries of its United States manager, shall, at all times, hold 100% of the interests in the investment pool;

(2) The underlying assets of the investment pool shall not be commingled with the general assets of the pool manager or any other person;

(3) In proportion to the aggregate amount of each pool participant's interest in the investment pool:

(a) Each participant owns an undivided interest in the underlying assets of the investment pool; and

(b) The underlying assets of the investment pool are held solely for the benefit of each participant;

(4) A participant, or in the event of the participant's insolvency, bankruptcy or receivership, its trustee, receiver or other successor-in-interest, may withdraw all or any portion of its investment from the investment pool under the terms of the pooling agreement;

(5) Withdrawals may be made on demand without penalty or other assessment on any business day, but settlement of funds shall occur within a reasonable and customary period thereafter not to exceed 10 business days. Distributions under this paragraph shall be calculated in each case net of all then applicable fees and expenses of the investment pool. The pooling agreement shall provide that the pool manager shall distribute to a participant, at the discretion of the pool manager:

(a) In cash, the then fair market value of the participant's pro rata share of each underlying asset of the investment pool;

(b) In kind, a pro rata share of each underlying asset; or

(c) In a combination of cash and in kind distributions, a pro rata share in each underlying asset; and

(6) The pool manager shall make the records of the investment pool available for inspection by the Director.

F. Except for the formation of the investment pool, transactions between a domestic insurer and an affiliated insurer investment pool shall not be subject to the requirements of Section 131.20a of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 90-418, eff. 8-15-97; revised 9-2-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/143.19) (from Ch. 73, par. 755.19)

Sec. 143.19. Cancellation of automobile insurance policy; grounds Automobile Insurance Policy - Grounds. After a policy of automobile insurance as defined in Section 143.13(a) has been effective for 60 days, or if such policy is a renewal policy, the insurer shall not exercise its option to cancel such policy except for one or more of the following reasons:

a. Nonpayment of premium;

b. The policy was obtained through a material misrepresentation;

c. Any insured violated any of the terms and conditions of the policy;

d. The named insured failed to disclose fully his motor vehicle accidents and moving traffic violations for the preceding 36 months if called for in the application;

e. Any insured made a false or fraudulent claim or of knowingly aided or abetted another in the presentation of such a claim;

f. The named insured or any other operator who either resides in the same household or customarily operates an automobile insured under such policy:

1. has, within the 12 months prior to the notice of cancellation, had his driver's license under suspension or revocation;

2. is or becomes subject to epilepsy or heart attacks, and such individual does not produce a certificate from a physician testifying to his unqualified ability to operate a motor vehicle safely;

3. has an accident record, conviction record (criminal or traffic), physical, or mental condition which is such that his operation of an automobile might endanger the public safety;

4. has, within the 36 months prior to the notice of cancellation, been addicted to the use of narcotics or other drugs; or

5. has been convicted, or forfeited bail, during the 36 months immediately preceding the notice of cancellation, for any felony, criminal negligence resulting in death, homicide or assault arising out of the operation of a motor vehicle, operating a motor vehicle while in an intoxicated condition or while under the influence of drugs, being intoxicated while in, or about, an automobile or while having custody of an automobile, leaving the scene of an accident without stopping to report, theft or unlawful taking of a motor vehicle, making false statements in an application for an operator's or chauffeur's license or has been convicted or forfeited bail for 3 or more violations within the 12 months immediately preceding the notice of cancellation, of any law, ordinance, or regulation limiting the speed of motor vehicles or any of the provisions of the motor vehicle laws of any state, violation of which constitutes a misdemeanor, whether or not the violations were repetitions of the same offense or of different offenses;

g. The insured automobile is:

1. so mechanically defective that its operation might endanger public safety;

2. used in carrying passengers for hire or compensation (the use of an automobile for a car pool shall not be considered use of an automobile for hire or compensation);

3. used in the business of transportation of flammables or explosives;

4. an authorized emergency vehicle;

5. changed in shape or condition during the policy period so as to increase the risk substantially; or

6. subject to an inspection law and has not been inspected or, if inspected, has failed to qualify.

Nothing in this Section shall apply to nonrenewal.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 9-19-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/355a) (from Ch. 73, par. 967a)

Sec. 355a. Standardization of terms and coverage.

(1) The purposes purpose of this Section shall be (a) to provide reasonable standardization and simplification of terms and coverages of individual accident and health insurance policies to facilitate public understanding and comparisons; (b) to eliminate provisions contained in individual accident and health insurance policies which may be misleading or unreasonably confusing in connection either with the purchase of such coverages or with the settlement of claims; and (c) to provide for reasonable disclosure in the sale of accident and health coverages.

(2) Definitions applicable to this Section are as follows:

(a) "Policy" means all or any part of the forms constituting the contract between the insurer and the insured, including the policy, certificate, subscriber contract, riders, endorsements, and the application if attached, which are subject to filing with and approval by the Director.

(b) "Service corporations" means voluntary health and dental corporations organized and operating respectively under the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act and the Dental Service Plan Act.

(c) "Accident and health insurance" means insurance written under Article XX of this the Insurance Code, other than credit accident and health insurance, and coverages provided in subscriber contracts issued by service corporations. For purposes of this Section such service corporations shall be deemed to be insurers engaged in the business of insurance.

(3) The Director shall issue such rules as he shall deem necessary or desirable to establish specific standards, including standards of full and fair disclosure that set forth the form and content and required disclosure for sale, of individual policies of accident and health insurance, which rules and regulations shall be in addition to and in accordance with the applicable laws of this State, and which may cover but shall not be limited to: (a) terms of renewability; (b) initial and subsequent conditions of eligibility; (c) non-duplication of coverage provisions; (d) coverage of dependents; (e) pre-existing conditions; (f) termination of insurance; (g) probationary periods; (h) limitation, exceptions, and reductions; (i) elimination periods; (j) requirements regarding replacements; (k) recurrent conditions; and (l) the definition of terms, including, but not limited to, the following: hospital, accident, sickness, injury, physician, accidental means, total disability, partial disability, nervous disorder, guaranteed renewable, and non-cancellable.

The Director may issue rules that specify prohibited policy provisions not otherwise specifically authorized by statute which in the opinion of the Director are unjust, unfair or unfairly discriminatory to the policyholder, any person insured under the policy, or beneficiary.

(4) The Director shall issue such rules as he shall deem necessary or desirable to establish minimum standards for benefits under each category of coverage in individual accident and health policies, other than conversion policies issued pursuant to a contractual conversion privilege under a group policy, including but not limited to the following categories: (a) basic hospital expense coverage; (b) basic medical-surgical expense coverage; (c) hospital confinement indemnity coverage; (d) major medical expense coverage; (e) disability income protection coverage; (f) accident only coverage; and (g) specified disease or specified accident coverage.

Nothing in this subsection (4) shall preclude the issuance of any policy which combines two or more of the categories of coverage enumerated in subparagraphs (a) through (f) of this subsection.

No policy shall be delivered or issued for delivery in this State which does not meet the prescribed minimum standards for the categories of coverage listed in this subsection unless the Director finds that such policy is necessary to meet specific needs of individuals or groups and such individuals or groups will be adequately informed that such policy does not meet the prescribed minimum standards, and such policy meets the requirement that the benefits provided therein are reasonable in relation to the premium charged. The standards and criteria to be used by the Director in approving such policies shall be included in the rules required under this Section with as much specificity as practicable.

The Director shall prescribe by rule the method of identification of policies based upon coverages provided.

(5) (a) In order to provide for full and fair disclosure in the sale of individual accident and health insurance policies, no such policy shall be delivered or issued for delivery in this State unless the outline of coverage described in paragraph (b) of this subsection either accompanies the policy, or is delivered to the applicant at the time the application is made, and an acknowledgment signed by the insured, of receipt of delivery of such outline, is provided to the insurer. In the event the policy is issued on a basis other than that applied for, the outline of coverage properly describing the policy must accompany the policy when it is delivered and such outline shall clearly state that the policy differs, and to what extent, from that for which application was originally made. All policies, except single premium nonrenewal policies, shall have a notice prominently printed on the first page of the policy or attached thereto stating in substance, that the policyholder shall have the right to return the policy within 10 days of its delivery and to have the premium refunded if after examination of the policy the policyholder is not satisfied for any reason.

(b) The Director shall issue such rules as he shall deem necessary or desirable to prescribe the format and content of the outline of coverage required by paragraph (a) of this subsection. "Format" means style, arrangement, and overall appearance, including such items as the size, color, and prominence of type and the arrangement of text and captions. "Content" shall include without limitation thereto, statements relating to the particular policy as to the applicable category of coverage prescribed under subsection (4) 4; principal benefits; exceptions, reductions and limitations; and renewal provisions, including any reservation by the insurer of a right to change premiums. Such outline of coverage shall clearly state that it constitutes a summary of the policy issued or applied for and that the policy should be consulted to determine governing contractual provisions.

(c) Without limiting the generality of paragraph (b) of this subsection (5), no qualified health plans shall be offered for sale directly to consumers through the health insurance marketplace operating in the State in accordance with Sections 1311 and 1321 of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-148), as amended by the federal Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Public Law 111-152), and any amendments thereto, or regulations or guidance issued thereunder (collectively, "the Federal Act"), unless the following information is made available to the consumer at the time he or she is comparing policies and their premiums:

(i) With respect to prescription drug benefits, the most recently published formulary where a consumer can view in one location covered prescription drugs; information on tiering and the cost-sharing structure for each tier; and information about how a consumer can obtain specific copayment amounts or coinsurance percentages for a specific qualified health plan before enrolling in that plan. This information shall clearly identify the qualified health plan to which it applies.

(ii) The most recently published provider directory where a consumer can view the provider network that applies to each qualified health plan and information about each provider, including location, contact information, specialty, medical group, if any, any institutional affiliation, and whether the provider is accepting new patients at each of the specific locations listing the provider. Dental providers shall notify qualified health plans electronically or in writing of any changes to their information as listed in the provider directory. Qualified health plans shall update their directories in a manner consistent with the information provided by the provider or dental management service organization within 10 business days after being notified of the change by the provider. Nothing in this paragraph (ii) shall void any contractual relationship between the provider and the plan. The information shall clearly identify the qualified health plan to which it applies.

(d) Each company that offers qualified health plans for sale directly to consumers through the health insurance marketplace operating in the State shall make the information in paragraph (c) of this subsection (5), for each qualified health plan that it offers, available and accessible to the general public on the company's Internet website and through other means for individuals without access to the Internet.

(e) The Department shall ensure that State-operated Internet websites, in addition to the Internet website for the health insurance marketplace established in this State in accordance with the Federal Act, prominently provide links to Internet-based materials and tools to help consumers be informed purchasers of health insurance.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted or implemented in a manner not consistent with the Federal Act. This Section shall apply to all qualified health plans offered for sale directly to consumers through the health insurance marketplace operating in this State for any coverage year beginning on or after January 1, 2015.

(6) Prior to the issuance of rules pursuant to this Section, the Director shall afford the public, including the companies affected thereby, reasonable opportunity for comment. Such rulemaking is subject to the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(7) When a rule has been adopted, pursuant to this Section, all policies of insurance or subscriber contracts which are not in compliance with such rule shall, when so provided in such rule, be deemed to be disapproved as of a date specified in such rule not less than 120 days following its effective date, without any further or additional notice other than the adoption of the rule.

(8) When a rule adopted pursuant to this Section so provides, a policy of insurance or subscriber contract which does not comply with the rule shall, not less than 120 days from the effective date of such rule, be construed, and the insurer or service corporation shall be liable, as if the policy or contract did comply with the rule.

(9) Violation of any rule adopted pursuant to this Section shall be a violation of the insurance law for purposes of Sections 370 and 446 of this the Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-1035, eff. 8-25-14; 99-329, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-9-16.)

(215 ILCS 5/1303) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.1003)

Sec. 1303. Definitions. The following definitions shall apply to this Article:

"Consolidation" means any transaction in which a financial institution makes its premium collection services available to its mortgage debtors in connection with a particular insurer's ("new insurer") offer of mortgage insurance, which offer is made to debtors who, immediately prior to the offer, had mortgage insurance with another insurer ("old insurer") and were paying premiums for that insurance with their monthly mortgage payments.

"Financial institution" or "servicer" means any entity or organization that services mortgage loans by collecting and accounting for monthly mortgage insurance premiums as part of the debtor's monthly mortgage payment for one or more insurers.

"Insured" means the individual loan customer or certificate holder.

"Loan transfer" means a transaction in which the servicing of a block of mortgage loans is transferred from one servicer to another servicer. This shall include, but not be limited, to, mergers or acquisitions.

"Loan transfer consolidation" means a consolidation in which coverage is limited to insureds whose mortgage loans have been sold or transferred in the secondary market from one servicer to another.

"Group-to-group consolidation" means a consolidation in which coverages under both the old plan and the new plan is provided under group policies.

"Mortgage insurance" means mortgage life insurance (term or ordinary), mortgage disability insurance, mortgage accidental death insurance, or any combination thereof, including both individual and group policies, and any certificates issued thereunder, on credit transactions of more than 10 years duration and written in connection with a credit transaction that is secured by a first mortgage or deed of trust and made to finance the purchase of real property or the construction of a dwelling thereon or to refinance a prior credit transaction made for such a purpose.

"New coverage" or "new plan" means the mortgage insurance coverage or plan for which a financial institution collects premium beginning on the effective date of a consolidation.

"New insurer" means any insurer who offers mortgage insurance coverage to borrowers of the financial institution who can no longer remit monthly premiums for the old insurer along with their monthly mortgage payment.

"Old coverage" or "old plan" means the mortgage insurance coverage or plan for which a financial institution collects premiums immediately prior to a consolidation.

"Old insurer" means any insurer for whom a financial institution will no longer make its premium collection facilities available for all or some of the insurer's policyholders or certificate holders.

(Source: P.A. 86-378; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 420. The Reinsurance Intermediary Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 100/10) (from Ch. 73, par. 1610)

Sec. 10. Licensure.

(a) No person, firm, association, or corporation that maintains an office, officer, director, agent, or employee, directly or indirectly, in this State shall act as an intermediary broker unless licensed as an insurance producer in this State. No person, firm, association, or corporation that does not maintain an office, officer, director, agent, or employee in this State shall act as an intermediary broker in this State unless licensed as an insurance producer in this State, unless licensed as an insurance producer in another state that has a law substantially similar to this law, or unless licensed in this State as a nonresident reinsurance intermediary.

(b) No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act as an intermediary manager, except in compliance with this subsection, as follows:

(1) For a reinsurer domiciled in this State, unless the intermediary manager is a licensed producer in this State.

(2) In this State, if the intermediary manager maintains an office, either directly or as a member or employee of a firm or association, or an officer, director, or employee of a corporation, in this State, unless the intermediary manager is a licensed producer in this State.

(3) In another state for a nondomestic insurer, unless the intermediary manager is a licensed producer in this State or another state having a law substantially similar to this law or the person is licensed in this State as a nonresident reinsurance intermediary.

(c) The Director may require an intermediary manager subject to subsection (b) to:

(1) file a bond in an amount and from an insurer acceptable to the Director for the protection of the reinsurer; and

(2) maintain an errors and omissions policy in an amount acceptable to the Director.

(d) The Director may issue a reinsurance intermediary license to any person, firm, association, or corporation that has complied compiled with the requirements of this Act. Any license issued to a firm or association will authorize all the members of the firm or association and any designated employees to act as reinsurance intermediaries under the license. All of those persons shall be named in the application and any supplements thereto. Any license issued to a corporation shall authorize all of the officers and any designated employees and directors thereof to act as reinsurance intermediaries on behalf of the corporation, and all of those persons shall be named in the application and any supplements thereto.

If the applicant for a reinsurance intermediary license is a nonresident, the applicant, as a condition precedent to receiving or holding a license, shall designate the Director as agent for service of process in the manner, and with the same legal effect, provided in the Illinois Insurance Code for designation of service of process upon unauthorized insurers. The applicant shall also furnish the Director with the name and address of a resident of this State upon whom notices or orders of the Director or process affecting the nonresident reinsurance intermediary may be served. The licensee shall promptly notify the Director in writing of every change in its designated agent for service of process. The change shall not become effective until acknowledged by the Director.

(e) The Director may refuse to issue a reinsurance intermediary license if, in his judgment, the applicant, any one named on the application or any member, principal, officer, or director of the applicant is not trustworthy; or that any controlling person of the applicant is not trustworthy to act as a reinsurance intermediary; or any of the foregoing has given cause for revocation or suspension of that kind of license or has failed to comply with any prerequisite for the issuance of the license. Upon written request therefor, the Director will furnish a summary of the basis for refusal to issue a license, which document shall be privileged and not subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(f) Licensed attorneys at law of this State, when acting in their professional capacity as an attorney, shall be exempt from this Section.

(g) All licenses issued under this Act shall terminate 24 months following the date of issuance and may be renewed by providing to the Director satisfactory evidence that the reinsurance intermediary continues to meet the requirements of this Section and upon payment of the fees specified in Section 408 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 89-97, eff. 7-7-95; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 425. The Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act is amended by changing Sections 4, 5, and 15 as follows:

(215 ILCS 105/4) (from Ch. 73, par. 1304)

Sec. 4. Powers and authority of the board. The board shall have the general powers and authority granted under the laws of this State to insurance companies licensed to transact health and accident insurance and in addition thereto, the specific authority to:

a. Enter into contracts as are necessary or proper to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act, including the authority, with the approval of the Director, to enter into contracts with similar plans of other states for the joint performance of common administrative functions, or with persons or other organizations for the performance of administrative functions including, without limitation, utilization review and quality assurance programs, or with health maintenance organizations or preferred provider organizations for the provision of health care services.

b. Sue or be sued, including taking any legal actions necessary or proper.

c. Take such legal action as necessary to:

(1) avoid the payment of improper claims against the plan or the coverage provided by or through the plan;

(2) to recover any amounts erroneously or improperly paid by the plan;

(3) to recover any amounts paid by the plan as a result of a mistake of fact or law; or

(4) to recover or collect any other amounts, including assessments, that are due or owed the Plan or have been billed on its or the Plan's behalf.

d. Establish appropriate rates, rate schedules, rate adjustments, expense allowances, agents' referral fees, claim reserves, and formulas and any other actuarial function appropriate to the operation of the plan. Rates and rate schedules may be adjusted for appropriate risk factors such as age and area variation in claim costs and shall take into consideration appropriate risk factors in accordance with established actuarial and underwriting practices.

e. Issue policies of insurance in accordance with the requirements of this Act.

f. Appoint appropriate legal, actuarial and other committees as necessary to provide technical assistance in the operation of the plan, policy and other contract design, and any other function within the authority of the plan.

g. Borrow money to effect the purposes of the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan. Any notes or other evidence of indebtedness of the plan not in default shall be legal investments for insurers and may be carried as admitted assets.

h. Establish rules, conditions and procedures for reinsuring risks under this Act.

i. Employ and fix the compensation of employees. Such employees may be paid on a warrant issued by the State Treasurer pursuant to a payroll voucher certified by the Board and drawn by the Comptroller against appropriations or trust funds held by the State Treasurer.

j. Enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements with other agencies or entities of State government for the purpose of sharing the cost of providing health care services that are otherwise authorized by this Act for children who are both plan participants and eligible for financial assistance from the Division of Specialized Care for Children of the University of Illinois.

k. Establish conditions and procedures under which the plan may, if funds permit, discount or subsidize premium rates that are paid directly by senior citizens, as defined by the Board, and other plan participants, who are retired or unemployed and meet other qualifications.

l. Establish and maintain the Plan Fund authorized in Section 3 of this Act, which shall be divided into separate accounts, as follows:

(1) accounts to fund the administrative, claim, and other expenses of the Plan associated with eligible persons who qualify for Plan coverage under Section 7 of this Act, which shall consist of:

(A) premiums paid on behalf of covered persons;

(B) appropriated funds and other revenues collected or received by the Board;

(C) reserves for future losses maintained by the Board; and

(D) interest earnings from investment of the funds in the Plan Fund or any of its accounts other than the funds in the account established under item (2) 2 of this subsection;

(2) an account, to be denominated the federally eligible individuals account, to fund the administrative, claim, and other expenses of the Plan associated with federally eligible individuals who qualify for Plan coverage under Section 15 of this Act, which shall consist of:

(A) premiums paid on behalf of covered persons;

(B) assessments and other revenues collected or received by the Board;

(C) reserves for future losses maintained by the Board; and

(D) interest earnings from investment of the federally eligible individuals account funds; and

(E) grants provided pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002; and

(3) such other accounts as may be appropriate.

m. Charge and collect assessments paid by insurers pursuant to Section 12 of this Act and recover any assessments for, on behalf of, or against those insurers.

(Source: P.A. 93-33, eff. 6-23-03; 93-34, eff. 6-23-03; revised 9-1-16.)

(215 ILCS 105/5) (from Ch. 73, par. 1305)

Sec. 5. Plan administrator.

a. The Board shall select a Plan administrator through a competitive bidding process to administer the Plan. The Board shall evaluate bids submitted under this Section based on criteria established by the Board which shall include:

(1) The Plan administrator's proven ability to handle other large group accident and health benefit plans.

(2) The efficiency and timeliness of the Plan administrator's claim processing procedures.

(3) An estimate of total net cost for administering the Plan, including any discounts or income the Plan could expect to receive or benefit from.

(4) The Plan administrator's ability to apply effective cost containment programs and procedures and to administer the Plan in a cost-efficient manner.

(5) The financial condition and stability of the Plan administrator.

b. The Plan administrator shall serve for a period of 5 years subject to removal for cause and subject to the terms, conditions and limitations of the contract between the Board and the Plan administrator. At least one year prior to the expiration of each 5-year 5 year period of service by the current Plan administrator, the Board shall begin to advertise for bids to serve as the Plan administrator for the succeeding 5-year 5 year period. Selection of the Plan administrator for the succeeding period shall be made at least 6 months prior to the end of the current 5-year 5 year period. Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection, the Board at its option may extend the term of a Plan administrator contract for a period not to exceed 3 years.

c. The Plan administrator shall perform such functions relating to the Plan as may be assigned to it including:

(1) establishment of a premium billing procedure for collection of premiums from Plan participants. Billings shall be made on a periodic basis as determined by the Board;

(2) payment and processing of claims and various cost containment functions; and

(3) other functions to assure timely payment of benefits to participants under the Plan, including:

(a) making available information relating to the proper manner of submitting a claim for benefits under the Plan and distributing forms upon which submissions shall be made, and

(b) evaluating the eligibility of each claim for payment under the Plan.

The Plan administrator shall be governed by the requirements of Part 919 of Title 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code, promulgated by the Department of Insurance, regarding the handling of claims under this Act.

d. The Plan administrator shall submit regular reports to the Board regarding the operation of the Plan. The frequency, content and form of the report shall be as determined by the Board.

e. The Plan administrator shall pay or be reimbursed for claims expenses from the premium payments received from or on behalf of Plan participants. If the Plan administrator's payments or reimbursements for claims expenses exceed the portion of premiums allocated by the Board for payment of claims expenses, the Board shall provide additional funds to the Plan administrator for payment or reimbursement of such claims expenses.

f. The Plan administrator shall be paid as provided in the contract between the Board and the Plan administrator.

(Source: P.A. 97-11, eff. 6-14-11; revised 9-2-16.)

(215 ILCS 105/15)

Sec. 15. Alternative portable coverage for federally eligible individuals.

(a) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection a a. of Section 7 and except as otherwise provided in this Section, any federally eligible individual for whom a Plan application, and such enclosures and supporting documentation as the Board may require, is received by the Board within 90 days after the termination of prior creditable coverage shall qualify to enroll in the Plan under the portability provisions of this Section.

A federally eligible person who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002 and whose Plan application and enclosures and supporting documentation as the Board may require is received by the Board within 63 days after the termination of previous creditable coverage shall qualify to enroll in the Plan under the portability provisions of this Section.

(b) Any federally eligible individual seeking Plan coverage under this Section must submit with his or her application evidence, including acceptable written certification of previous creditable coverage, that will establish to the Board's satisfaction, that he or she meets all of the requirements to be a federally eligible individual and is currently and permanently residing in this State (as of the date his or her application was received by the Board).

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a period of creditable coverage shall not be counted, with respect to qualifying an applicant for Plan coverage as a federally eligible individual under this Section, if after such period and before the application for Plan coverage was received by the Board, there was at least a 90-day 90 day period during all of which the individual was not covered under any creditable coverage.

For a federally eligible person who has been certified as eligible pursuant to the federal Trade Act of 2002, a period of creditable coverage shall not be counted, with respect to qualifying an applicant for Plan coverage as a federally eligible individual under this Section, if after such period and before the application for Plan coverage was received by the Board, there was at least a 63-day 63 day period during all of which the individual was not covered under any creditable coverage.

(d) Any federally eligible individual who the Board determines qualifies for Plan coverage under this Section shall be offered his or her choice of enrolling in one of alternative portability health benefit plans which the Board is authorized under this Section to establish for these federally eligible individuals and their dependents.

(e) The Board shall offer a choice of health care coverages consistent with major medical coverage under the alternative health benefit plans authorized by this Section to every federally eligible individual. The coverages to be offered under the plans, the schedule of benefits, deductibles, co-payments, exclusions, and other limitations shall be approved by the Board. One optional form of coverage shall be comparable to comprehensive health insurance coverage offered in the individual market in this State or a standard option of coverage available under the group or individual health insurance laws of the State. The standard benefit plan that is authorized by Section 8 of this Act may be used for this purpose. The Board may also offer a preferred provider option and such other options as the Board determines may be appropriate for these federally eligible individuals who qualify for Plan coverage pursuant to this Section.

(f) Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection f f. of Section 8, any Plan coverage that is issued to federally eligible individuals who qualify for the Plan pursuant to the portability provisions of this Section shall not be subject to any preexisting conditions exclusion, waiting period, or other similar limitation on coverage.

(g) Federally eligible individuals who qualify and enroll in the Plan pursuant to this Section shall be required to pay such premium rates as the Board shall establish and approve in accordance with the requirements of Section 7.1 of this Act.

(h) A federally eligible individual who qualifies and enrolls in the Plan pursuant to this Section must satisfy on an ongoing basis all of the other eligibility requirements of this Act to the extent not inconsistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 in order to maintain continued eligibility for coverage under the Plan.

(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 430. The Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(215 ILCS 120/12) (from Ch. 73, par. 1262)

Sec. 12. Investments. Without the prior approval of the Director, the funds of any company operating under or regulated by the provisions of this Act, shall be invested only in the following:

(1) Direct obligations of the United States of America, or obligations of agencies or instrumentalities of the United States to the extent guaranteed or insured as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States of America;

(2) Bonds which are direct, general obligations of the State of Illinois or any other state, subject to a maximum of 30% of admitted assets in states other than Illinois in the aggregate;

(3) Bonds which are direct, general obligations of political subdivisions of the State of Illinois or any other state, subject to the following conditions:

(a) Maximum of 5% of admitted assets in any one political subdivision;

(b) Maximum of 30% of admitted assets in all political subdivisions in the aggregate;

(c) Rating of A3 or higher by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. or A- or higher by Standard & Poor's Corporation;

(4) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of the United States of America, its agencies, and its instrumentalities, subject to a maximum investment of 10% of admitted assets in any one issuer;

(5) Bonds that are obligations of corporations organized by the United States of America, subject to the following conditions:

(a) Maximum of 5% of admitted assets in any one issuer;

(b) Maximum of 15% of admitted assets in the aggregate;

(c) Rating of A3 or higher by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. or A- or higher by Standard & Poor's Corporation;

(d) Maximum maturity of no longer than that 10 years;

(6) Mutual funds, unit investment trusts, and exchange traded funds, subject to the following conditions:

(a) Maximum of 6% of policyholders' surplus in any one balanced or growth mutual fund that invests in common stock;

(b) Maximum of 5% of admitted assets in any one bond or income mutual fund or any one non-governmental money market mutual fund;

(c) Maximum of 10% of admitted assets in any one governmental money market mutual fund;

(d) Maximum of 25% of admitted assets in all mutual funds in the aggregate;

(7) Common stock and preferred stock subject to the following conditions:

(a) Common stock and preferred stock shall be traded on the New York Stock Exchange or the American Stock Exchange or listed on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation (NASDAQ) system;

(b) Maximum of 3% of policyholders' surplus in excess of $400,000 in any one common stock or preferred stock issuer provided that the net unearned premium reserve does not exceed policyholders' surplus;

(8) Investments authorized under subdivision (a) of item (6) and subdivision (a) of item (7) of this Section shall not in the aggregate exceed 15% of policyholders' surplus;

(9) Funds on deposit in solvent banks and savings and loan associations which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; however, the uninsured portion of funds held in any one such bank or association shall not exceed 5% of the company's policyholders' surplus;

(10) Real estate for home office building purposes, provided that such investments are approved by the Director of Insurance on the basis of a showing by the company that the company has adequate assets available for such investment and that the proposed acquisition does not exceed the reasonable normal value of such property;

(11) Amounts in excess of the investment limitations contained in items (2) through (9) may be allowed, subject to the following conditions:

(a) Maximum additional investment of 3% of admitted assets in any one issuer;

(b) Maximum additional investment of 6% of admitted assets in the aggregate.

An investment that qualified under this Section at the time it was acquired by the company shall continue to qualify under this Section.

Investments permitted under this Section shall be registered in the name of the company and under its direct control or shall be held in a custodial account with a bank or trust company that is qualified to administer trusts in Illinois under the Corporate Fiduciary Act and that has an office in Illinois. However, securities may be held in street form and in the custody of a licensed dealer for a period not to exceed 30 days.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this Act, the Director may, after notice and hearing, order a company to limit or withdraw from certain investments or discontinue certain investments or investment practices to the extent the Director finds those investments or investment practices endanger the solvency of the company.

(Source: P.A. 98-823, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 435. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4-10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/4-10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1409.3)

Sec. 4-10. Medical necessity; dispute resolution; independent second opinion. (a) Medical Necessity - Dispute Resolution-Independent Second Opinion. Each Health Maintenance Organization shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a physician holding the same class of license as the primary care physician, who is unaffiliated with the Health Maintenance Organization, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself), primary care physician and the Health Maintenance Organization in the event of a dispute between the primary care physician and the Health Maintenance Organization regarding the medical necessity of a covered service proposed by a primary care physician. In the event that the reviewing physician determines the covered service to be medically necessary, the Health Maintenance Organization shall provide the covered service. Future contractual or employment action by the Health Maintenance Organization regarding the primary care physician shall not be based solely on the physician's participation in this procedure.

(Source: P.A. 85-20; 85-850; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 440. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Sections 4003 and 4006 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or of more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-486, eff. 1-1-12; 97-592, 1-1-12; 97-805, eff. 1-1-13; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-5-16.)

(215 ILCS 130/4006) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-6)

Sec. 4006. Supervision of rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation by the Director.

(a) For purposes of the rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation of a limited health service organization, the operation of a limited health service organization in this State constitutes a form of insurance protection which should be governed by the same provisions governing the rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation of insurance companies. Any rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation of a limited health service organization shall be based upon the grounds set forth in and subject to the provisions of the laws of this State regarding the rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation of an insurance company and shall be conducted under the supervision of the Director. Insolvency, as a ground for rehabilitation, liquidation or conservation of a limited health service organization, shall be recognized when a limited health service organization cannot be expected to satisfy its financial obligations when such obligations are to become due or when the limited health service organization has neglected to correct, within the time prescribed by subsection (c) of Section 2004, a deficiency occurring due to such organization's prescribed minimum net worth being impaired. For purpose of determining the priority of distribution of general assets, claims of enrollees and enrollees' beneficiaries shall have the same priority as established by Section 205 of the Illinois Insurance Code, for policyholders and beneficiaries of insureds of insurance companies. If an enrollee is liable to any provider for services provided pursuant to and covered by the limited health care plan, that liability shall have the status of an enrollee claim for distribution of general assets.

Any provider who is obligated by statute or agreement to hold enrollees harmless from liability for services provided pursuant to and covered by a limited health care plan shall have a priority of distribution of the general assets immediately following that of enrollees and enrollees' beneficiaries as described herein, and immediately preceding the priority of distribution described in paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of Section 205 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of Articles XIII and XIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, organizations in the following categories shall be deemed to be a domestic company and a domiciliary company:

(1) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 20% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except where such a corporation is, in its state of incorporation, subject to rehabilitation, liquidation and conservation under the laws relating to insurance companies.

(Source: P.A. 89-206, eff. 7-21-95; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 445. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/15)

Sec. 15. License revocation for viatical settlement providers.

(a) The Director may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend or revoke the license of any viatical settlement provider if the Director finds any of the following:

(1) there was any material misrepresentation in the application for the license;

(2) the viatical settlement provider or any officer, partner, member, or controlling person uses fraudulent or dishonest practices or is otherwise shown to be untrustworthy, incompetent, or financially irresponsible in this State or elsewhere;

(3) the viatical settlement provider demonstrates a pattern of unreasonable payments to viators;

(4) the viatical settlement provider or any officer, partner, member, or controlling person has violated any insurance laws or any rule, subpoena, or order of the Director or of another state's chief insurance regulatory official or is subject to a final administrative action brought by the Director or by the Illinois Secretary of State or by another state's chief insurance regulatory official or chief securities regulatory official;

(5) the viatical settlement provider has used a viatical settlement contract that has not been approved pursuant to this Act;

(6) the viatical settlement provider has failed to honor contractual obligations set out in a viatical settlement contract;

(7) the viatical settlement provider no longer meets the requirements for initial licensure;

(8) the viatical settlement provider has assigned, transferred, or pledged a purchased policy to a person other than a viatical settlement provider licensed in this State, a viatical settlement purchaser, a financing entity, a special purpose entity, or a related provider trust; or

(9) the viatical settlement provider or any officer, partner, member, or controlling person of the viatical settlement provider has violated any of the provisions of this Act.

(b) If the Director denies a viatical settlement provider license application or suspends, revokes, or refuses to renew the license of a viatical settlement provider, the Director shall notify the applicant or viatical settlement provider and advise, in writing, the applicant or viatical settlement provider of the reason for the suspension, revocation, denial, or nonrenewal of the applicant's or licensee's license. The applicant or viatical settlement provider may make a written demand upon the Director within 30 days after the date of mailing for a hearing before the Director to determine the reasonableness of the Director's action. The hearing must be held within not fewer than 20 days nor more than 30 days after the mailing of the notice of hearing and shall be held in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and 50 Ill. Adm. Code 2402 Section 2402 of Chapter 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; revised 9-13-16.)

Section 450. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 13-703 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/13-703) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 13-703)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2017)

Sec. 13-703. (a) The Commission shall design and implement a program whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications device capable of servicing the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability together with a single party line, at no charge additional to the basic exchange rate, to any subscriber who is certified as having a hearing or speech disability by a hearing care professional, as defined in the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, a speech-language pathologist, or a qualified State agency and to any subscriber which is an organization serving the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability as determined and specified by the Commission pursuant to subsection (d).

(b) The Commission shall design and implement a program, whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications relay system, using third party intervention to connect those persons having a hearing or speech disability with persons of normal hearing by way of intercommunications devices and the telephone system, making available reasonable access to all phases of public telephone service to persons who have a hearing or speech disability. In order to design a telecommunications relay system which will meet the requirements of those persons with a hearing or speech disability available at a reasonable cost, the Commission shall initiate an investigation and conduct public hearings to determine the most cost-effective method of providing telecommunications relay service to those persons who have a hearing or speech disability when using telecommunications devices and therein solicit the advice, counsel, and physical assistance of Statewide nonprofit consumer organizations that serve persons with hearing or speech disabilities in such hearings and during the development and implementation of the system. The Commission shall phase in this program, on a geographical basis, as soon as is practicable, but no later than June 30, 1990.

(c) The Commission shall establish a competitively neutral rate recovery mechanism that establishes charges in an amount to be determined by the Commission for each line of a subscriber to allow telecommunications carriers providing local exchange service to recover costs as they are incurred under this Section. Beginning no later than April 1, 2016, and on a yearly basis thereafter, the Commission shall initiate a proceeding to establish the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service in a manner consistent with this subsection (c) and subsection (f) of this Section. The Commission shall issue its order establishing the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and purchasers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service on or prior to June 1 of each year, and such amount shall take effect June 1 of each year.

Telecommunications carriers, wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall have 60 days from the date the Commission files its order to implement the new rate established by the order.

(d) The Commission shall determine and specify those organizations serving the needs of those persons having a hearing or speech disability that shall receive a telecommunications device and in which offices the equipment shall be installed in the case of an organization having more than one office. For the purposes of this Section, "organizations serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities" means centers for independent living as described in Section 12a of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act and not-for-profit organizations whose primary purpose is serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities. The Commission shall direct the telecommunications carriers subject to its jurisdiction and this Section to comply with its determinations and specifications in this regard.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Prepaid wireless telecommunications service" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Retail transaction" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Seller" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service" includes, without otherwise limiting the meaning of the term, telecommunications carriers which are purely mutual concerns, having no rates or charges for services, but paying the operating expenses by assessment upon the members of such a company and no other person.

"Wireless carrier" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(f) Interconnected VoIP service providers, sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service, and wireless carriers in Illinois shall collect and remit assessments determined in accordance with this Section in a competitively neutral manner in the same manner as a telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service. However, the assessment imposed on consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall be collected by the seller from the consumer and imposed per retail transaction as a percentage of that retail transaction on all retail transactions occurring in this State. The assessment on subscribers of wireless carriers and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall not be imposed or collected prior to June 1, 2016.

Sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall remit the assessments to the Department of Revenue on the same form and in the same manner which they remit the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act. For the purposes of display on the consumers' receipts, the rates of the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and the assessment under this Section may be combined. In administration and enforcement of this Section, the provisions of Sections 15 and 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act (except subsections (a), (a-5), (b-5), (e), and (e-5) of Section 15 and subsections (c) and (e) of Section 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and, from June 29, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-6), the seller shall be permitted to deduct and retain 3% of the assessments that are collected by the seller from consumers and that are remitted and timely filed with the Department) that are not inconsistent with this Section, shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Section to the same extent as if those provisions were included in this Section. The Department shall deposit all assessments and penalties collected under this Section into the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount available to the Commission for distribution out of the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The amount certified shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body or fund. The amount paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund shall not include any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department to retailers under this Section or any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were payable to a different taxing body or fund but were erroneously paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The Commission shall distribute all the funds to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation and the funds may only be used in accordance with the provisions of this Section. The Department shall deduct 2% of all amounts deposited in the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund during every year of remitted assessments. Of the 2% deducted by the Department, one-half shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund to reimburse the Department for its direct costs of administering the collection and remittance of the assessment. The remaining one-half shall be transferred into the Public Utilities Fund to reimburse the Commission for its costs of distributing to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation the amount certified by the Department for distribution. The amount to be charged or assessed under subsections (c) and (f) is not imposed on a provider or the consumer for wireless Lifeline service where the consumer does not pay the provider for the service. Where the consumer purchases from the provider optional minutes, texts, or other services in addition to the federally funded Lifeline benefit, a consumer must pay the charge or assessment, and it must be collected by the seller according to this subsection (f).

Interconnected VoIP services shall not be considered an intrastate telecommunications service for the purposes of this Section in a manner inconsistent with federal law or Federal Communications Commission regulation.

(g) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(h) The Commission may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-847, eff. 8-19-16; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 455. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 2.09, 7, and 14.6 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.09) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.09)

Sec. 2.09. "Day care center" means any child care facility which regularly provides day care for less than 24 hours per day for (1) more than 8 children in a family home, or (2) more than 3 children in a facility other than a family home, including senior citizen buildings.

The term does not include:

(a) programs operated by (i) public or private elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning that serve children who shall have attained the age of 3 years or (ii) private entities on the grounds of public or private elementary or secondary schools and that serve children who have attained the age of 3 years, except that this exception applies only to the facility and not to the private entities' personnel operating the program;

(b) programs or that portion of the program which serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are recognized by the State Board of Education;

(c) educational program or programs serving children who shall have attained the age of 3 years and which are operated by a school which is registered with the State Board of Education and which is recognized or accredited by a recognized national or multistate educational organization or association which regularly recognizes or accredits schools;

(d) programs which exclusively serve or that portion of the program which serves children with disabilities who shall have attained the age of 3 years but are less than 21 years of age and which are registered and approved as meeting standards of the State Board of Education and applicable fire marshal standards;

(e) facilities operated in connection with a shopping center or service, religious services, or other similar facility, where transient children are cared for temporarily while parents or custodians of the children are occupied on the premises and readily available;

(f) any type of day care center that is conducted on federal government premises;

(g) special activities programs, including athletics, crafts instruction, and similar activities conducted on an organized and periodic basis by civic, charitable and governmental organizations;

(h) part day child care facilities, as defined in Section 2.10 of this Act;

(i) programs or that portion of the program which:

(1) serves children who shall have attained the age of 3 years; ,

(2) is operated by churches or religious institutions as described in Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code; ,

(3) receives no governmental aid; ,

(4) is operated as a component of a religious, nonprofit elementary school; ,

(5) operates primarily to provide religious education; , and

(6) meets appropriate State or local health and fire safety standards; or

(j) programs or portions of programs that:

(1) serve only school-age children and youth (defined as full-time kindergarten children, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 407.45, or older); ,

(2) are organized to promote childhood learning, child and youth development, educational or recreational activities, or character-building; ,

(3) operate primarily during out-of-school time or at times when school is not normally in session; ,

(4) comply with the standards of the Illinois Department of Public Health (77 Ill. Adm. Code 750) or the local health department, the Illinois State Fire Marshal (41 Ill. Adm. Code 100), and the following additional health and safety requirements: procedures for employee and volunteer emergency preparedness and practice drills; procedures to ensure that first aid kits are maintained and ready to use; the placement of a minimum level of liability insurance as determined by the Department; procedures for the availability of a working telephone that is onsite and accessible at all times; procedures to ensure that emergency phone numbers are posted onsite; and a restriction on handgun or weapon possession onsite, except if possessed by a peace officer; ,

(5) perform and maintain authorization and results of criminal history checks through the Illinois State Police and FBI and checks of the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the National Sex Offender Registry, and Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System for employees and volunteers who work directly with children; ,

(6) make hiring decisions in accordance with the prohibitions against barrier crimes as specified in Section 4.2 of this Act or in Section 21B-80 of the School Code; ,

(7) provide parents with written disclosure that the operations of the program are not regulated by licensing requirements; , and

(8) obtain and maintain records showing the first and last name and date of birth of the child, name, address, and telephone number of each parent, emergency contact information, and written authorization for medical care.

Programs or portions of programs requesting Child Care Assistance Program (CCAP) funding and otherwise meeting the requirements under item (j) shall request exemption from the Department and be determined exempt prior to receiving funding and must annually meet the eligibility requirements and be appropriate for payment under the CCAP.

Programs or portions of programs under item (j) that do not receive State or federal funds must comply with staff qualification and training standards established by rule by the Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services shall set such standards after review of Afterschool for Children and Teens Now (ACT Now) evidence-based quality standards developed for school-age out-of-school time programs, feedback from the school-age out-of-school time program professionals, and review of out-of-school time professional development frameworks and quality tools.

Out-of-school time programs for school-age youth that receive State or federal funds must comply with only those staff qualifications and training standards set for the program by the State or federal entity issuing the funds.

For purposes of items (a), (b), (c), (d), and (i) of this Section, "children who shall have attained the age of 3 years" shall mean children who are 3 years of age, but less than 4 years of age, at the time of enrollment in the program.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-699, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 10/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2217)

Sec. 7. (a) The Department must prescribe and publish minimum standards for licensing that apply to the various types of facilities for child care defined in this Act and that are equally applicable to like institutions under the control of the Department and to foster family homes used by and under the direct supervision of the Department. The Department shall seek the advice and assistance of persons representative of the various types of child care facilities in establishing such standards. The standards prescribed and published under this Act take effect as provided in the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, and are restricted to regulations pertaining to the following matters and to any rules and regulations required or permitted by any other Section of this Act:

(1) The operation and conduct of the facility and responsibility it assumes for child care;

(2) The character, suitability and qualifications of the applicant and other persons directly responsible for the care and welfare of children served. All child day care center licensees and employees who are required to report child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act shall be required to attend training on recognizing child abuse and neglect, as prescribed by Department rules;

(3) The general financial ability and competence of the applicant to provide necessary care for children and to maintain prescribed standards;

(4) The number of individuals or staff required to insure adequate supervision and care of the children received. The standards shall provide that each child care institution, maternity center, day care center, group home, day care home, and group day care home shall have on its premises during its hours of operation at least one staff member certified in first aid, in the Heimlich maneuver and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the American Red Cross or other organization approved by rule of the Department. Child welfare agencies shall not be subject to such a staffing requirement. The Department may offer, or arrange for the offering, on a periodic basis in each community in this State in cooperation with the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association or other appropriate organization, voluntary programs to train operators of foster family homes and day care homes in first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(5) The appropriateness, safety, cleanliness, and general adequacy of the premises, including maintenance of adequate fire prevention and health standards conforming to State laws and municipal codes to provide for the physical comfort, care, and well-being of children received;

(6) Provisions for food, clothing, educational opportunities, program, equipment and individual supplies to assure the healthy physical, mental, and spiritual development of children served;

(7) Provisions to safeguard the legal rights of children served;

(8) Maintenance of records pertaining to the admission, progress, health, and discharge of children, including, for day care centers and day care homes, records indicating each child has been immunized as required by State regulations. The Department shall require proof that children enrolled in a facility have been immunized against Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB);

(9) Filing of reports with the Department;

(10) Discipline of children;

(11) Protection and fostering of the particular religious faith of the children served;

(12) Provisions prohibiting firearms on day care center premises except in the possession of peace officers;

(13) Provisions prohibiting handguns on day care home premises except in the possession of peace officers or other adults who must possess a handgun as a condition of employment and who reside on the premises of a day care home;

(14) Provisions requiring that any firearm permitted on day care home premises, except handguns in the possession of peace officers, shall be kept in a disassembled state, without ammunition, in locked storage, inaccessible to children and that ammunition permitted on day care home premises shall be kept in locked storage separate from that of disassembled firearms, inaccessible to children;

(15) Provisions requiring notification of parents or guardians enrolling children at a day care home of the presence in the day care home of any firearms and ammunition and of the arrangements for the separate, locked storage of such firearms and ammunition; and

(16) Provisions requiring all licensed child care facility employees who care for newborns and infants to complete training every 3 years on the nature of sudden unexpected infant death (SUID), sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), and the safe sleep recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics; and .

(17) With respect to foster family homes, provisions requiring the Department to review quality of care concerns and to consider those concerns in determining whether a foster family home is qualified to care for children.

(b) If, in a facility for general child care, there are children diagnosed as mentally ill or children diagnosed as having an intellectual or physical disability, who are determined to be in need of special mental treatment or of nursing care, or both mental treatment and nursing care, the Department shall seek the advice and recommendation of the Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, or both Departments regarding the residential treatment and nursing care provided by the institution.

(c) The Department shall investigate any person applying to be licensed as a foster parent to determine whether there is any evidence of current drug or alcohol abuse in the prospective foster family. The Department shall not license a person as a foster parent if drug or alcohol abuse has been identified in the foster family or if a reasonable suspicion of such abuse exists, except that the Department may grant a foster parent license to an applicant identified with an alcohol or drug problem if the applicant has successfully participated in an alcohol or drug treatment program, self-help group, or other suitable activities and if the Department determines that the foster family home can provide a safe, appropriate environment and meet the physical and emotional needs of children.

(d) The Department, in applying standards prescribed and published, as herein provided, shall offer consultation through employed staff or other qualified persons to assist applicants and licensees in meeting and maintaining minimum requirements for a license and to help them otherwise to achieve programs of excellence related to the care of children served. Such consultation shall include providing information concerning education and training in early childhood development to providers of day care home services. The Department may provide or arrange for such education and training for those providers who request such assistance.

(e) The Department shall distribute copies of licensing standards to all licensees and applicants for a license. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall distribute copies of the appropriate licensing standards and any other information required by the Department to child care facilities under its supervision. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the distribution of the standards. Such documentation shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(f) The Department shall prepare summaries of day care licensing standards. Each licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall distribute a copy of the appropriate summary and any other information required by the Department, to the legal guardian of each child cared for in that facility at the time when the child is enrolled or initially placed in the facility. The licensee or holder of a permit for a day care facility shall secure appropriate documentation of the distribution of the summary and brochure. Such documentation shall be a part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by an authorized representative of the Department.

(g) The Department shall distribute to each licensee and holder of a permit copies of the licensing or permit standards applicable to such person's facility. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall make available by posting at all times in a common or otherwise accessible area a complete and current set of licensing standards in order that all employees of the facility may have unrestricted access to such standards. All employees of the facility shall have reviewed the standards and any subsequent changes. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain appropriate documentation of the current review of licensing standards by all employees. Such records shall be part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection by authorized representatives of the Department.

(h) Any standards involving physical examinations, immunization, or medical treatment shall include appropriate exemptions for children whose parents object thereto on the grounds that they conflict with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious organization, of which the parent is an adherent or member, and for children who should not be subjected to immunization for clinical reasons.

(i) The Department, in cooperation with the Department of Public Health, shall work to increase immunization awareness and participation among parents of children enrolled in day care centers and day care homes by publishing on the Department's website information about the benefits of immunization against vaccine preventable diseases, including influenza and pertussis. The information for vaccine preventable diseases shall include the incidence and severity of the diseases, the availability of vaccines, and the importance of immunizing children and persons who frequently have close contact with children. The website content shall be reviewed annually in collaboration with the Department of Public Health to reflect the most current recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP). The Department shall work with day care centers and day care homes licensed under this Act to ensure that the information is annually distributed to parents in August or September.

(j) Any standard adopted by the Department that requires an applicant for a license to operate a day care home to include a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate with his or her application shall be deemed to be satisfied if the applicant includes a copy of a high school diploma or equivalent certificate or a copy of a degree from an accredited institution of higher education or vocational institution or equivalent certificate.

(Source: P.A. 98-817, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-779, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 10/14.6)

Sec. 14.6. Agency payment of salaries or other compensation.

(a) A licensed child welfare agency may pay salaries or other compensation to its officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on its behalf for providing adoption services, provided that all of the following limitations apply:

(1) The fees, wages, salaries, or other compensation of any description paid to the officers, employees, contractors, or any other person acting on behalf of a child welfare agency providing adoption services shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services actually rendered. Every form of compensation shall be taken into account in determining whether fees, wages, salaries, or compensation are unreasonably high, including, but not limited to, salary, bonuses, deferred and non-cash compensation, retirement funds, medical and liability insurance, loans, and other benefits such as the use, purchase, or lease of vehicles, expense accounts, and food, housing, and clothing allowances.

(2) Any earnings, if applicable, or compensation paid to the child welfare agency's directors, stockholders, or members of its governing body shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services rendered.

(3) Persons providing adoption services for a child welfare agency may be compensated only for services actually rendered and only on a fee-for-service, hourly wage, or salary basis.

(b) The Department may adopt rules setting forth the criteria to determine what constitutes unreasonably high fees and compensation as those terms are used in this Section. In determining the reasonableness of fees, wages, salaries, and compensation under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, the Department shall take into account the location, number, and qualifications of staff, workload requirements, budget, and size of the agency or person and available norms for compensation within the adoption community. Every licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services shall provide the Department and the Attorney General with a report, on an annual basis, providing a description of the fees, wages, salaries and other compensation described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. Nothing in Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be construed to prevent a child welfare agency from charging fees or the payment of salaries and compensation as limited in this Section and any applicable Section of this Act or the Adoption Act.

(c) This Section does not apply to international adoption services performed by those child welfare agencies governed by the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Intercountry Adoption and the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000.

(d) Eligible agencies may be deemed compliant with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 460. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 6353)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. : The following words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed to them in this Section unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

1. "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

2. "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

3. "Board" means the Social Work Examining and Disciplinary Board.

4. "Licensed Clinical Social Worker" means a person who holds a license authorizing the independent practice of clinical social work in Illinois under the auspices of an employer or in private practice or under the auspices of public human service agencies or private, nonprofit agencies providing publicly sponsored human services.

5. "Clinical social work practice" means the providing of mental health services for the evaluation, treatment, and prevention of mental and emotional disorders in individuals, families, and groups based on knowledge and theory of professionally accepted theoretical structures, including, but not limited to, psychosocial development, behavior, psychopathology, unconscious motivation, interpersonal relationships, and environmental stress.

6. "Treatment procedures" means among other things, individual, marital, family, and group psychotherapy.

7. "Independent practice of clinical social work" means the application of clinical social work knowledge and skills by a licensed clinical social worker who regulates and is responsible for her or his own practice or treatment procedures.

8. "License" means that which is required to practice clinical social work or social work under this Act, the qualifications for which include specific education, acceptable experience, and examination requirements.

9. "Licensed social worker" means a person who holds a license authorizing the practice of social work, which includes social services to individuals, groups or communities in any one or more of the fields of social casework, social group work, community organization for social welfare, social work research, social welfare administration, or social work education. Social casework and social group work may also include clinical social work, as long as it is not conducted in an independent practice, as defined in this Section.

10. "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 465. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 8.1 and 44 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and sedation.

(a) No licensed dentist shall administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.

(b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by rule, shall:

(1) establish the minimum educational and training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an appropriate permit;

(2) establish the standards for properly equipped dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;

(3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who assist the dentist in the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, including minimum training requirements for each member of the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping requirements, and emergency procedures; and

(4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS); and .

(5) establish continuing education requirements in sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under this Section.

When establishing requirements under this Section, the Department shall consider the current American Dental Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.

(c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.

(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 25/44) (from Ch. 111, par. 2344)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 44. Practice by corporations prohibited; exceptions prohibited. Exceptions. No corporation shall practice dentistry or engage therein, or hold itself out as being entitled to practice dentistry, or furnish dental services or dentists, or advertise under or assume the title of dentist or dental surgeon or equivalent title, or furnish dental advice for any compensation, or advertise or hold itself out with any other person or alone, that it has or owns a dental office or can furnish dental service or dentists, or solicit through itself, or its agents, officers, employees, directors or trustees, dental patronage for any dentist employed by any corporation.

Nothing contained in this Act, however, shall:

(a) prohibit a corporation from employing a dentist or dentists to render dental services to its employees, provided that such dental services shall be rendered at no cost or charge to the employees;

(b) prohibit a corporation or association from providing dental services upon a wholly charitable basis to deserving recipients;

(c) prohibit a corporation or association from furnishing information or clerical services which can be furnished by persons not licensed to practice dentistry, to any dentist when such dentist assumes full responsibility for such information or services;

(d) prohibit dental corporations as authorized by the Professional Service Corporation Act, dental associations as authorized by the Professional Association Act, or dental limited liability companies as authorized by the Limited Liability Company Act;

(e) prohibit dental limited liability partnerships as authorized by the Uniform Partnership Act (1997);

(f) prohibit hospitals, public health clinics, federally qualified health centers, or other entities specified by rule of the Department from providing dental services; or

(g) prohibit dental management service organizations from providing non-clinical business services that do not violate the provisions of this Act.

Any corporation violating the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and each day that this Act is violated shall be considered a separate offense.

If a dental management service organization is responsible for enrolling the dentist as a provider in managed care plans provider networks, it shall provide verification to the managed care provider network regarding whether the provider is accepting new patients at each of the specific locations listing the provider.

Nothing in this Section shall void any contractual relationship between the provider and the organization.

(Source: P.A. 99-329, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 470. The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 37/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2019)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Board" means the Board of Environmental Health Practitioners Board as created in this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

"Environmental health inspector" means an individual who, in support of and under the general supervision of a licensed environmental health practitioner or licensed professional engineer, practices environmental health and meets the educational qualifications of an environmental health inspector.

"Environmental health practice" is the practice of environmental health by licensed environmental health practitioners within the meaning of this Act and includes, but is not limited to, the following areas of professional activities: milk and food sanitation; protection and regulation of private water supplies; private waste water management; domestic solid waste disposal practices; institutional health and safety; and consultation and education in these fields.

"Environmental health practitioner in training" means a person licensed under this Act who meets the educational qualifications of a licensed environmental health practitioner and practices environmental health in support of and under the general supervision of a licensed environmental health practitioner or licensed professional engineer, but has not passed the licensed environmental health practitioner examination administered by the Department.

"License" means the authorization issued by the Department permitting the person named on the authorization to practice environmental health as defined in this Act.

"Licensed environmental health practitioner" is a person who, by virtue of education and experience in the physical, chemical, biological, and environmental health sciences, is especially trained to organize, implement, and manage environmental health programs, trained to carry out education and enforcement activities for the promotion and protection of the public health and environment, and is licensed as an environmental health practitioner under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-837, eff. 8-22-02; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 475. The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code is amended by changing Section 15-75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 41/15-75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 15-75. Violations; grounds for discipline; penalties.

(a) Each of the following acts is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense, and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense. These penalties shall also apply to unlicensed owners of funeral homes.

(1) Practicing the profession of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing, or attempting to practice the profession of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing without a license as a funeral director and embalmer or funeral director.

(2) Serving or attempting to serve as an intern under a licensed funeral director and embalmer without a license as a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern.

(3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license, practice or business, or any other thing of value, by fraud or misrepresentation.

(4) Permitting any person in one's employ, under one's control or in or under one's service to serve as a funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral director and embalmer intern when the person does not have the appropriate license.

(5) Failing to display a license as required by this Code.

(6) Giving false information or making a false oath or affidavit required by this Code.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, revoke, suspend, place on probation or administrative supervision, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license under the Code for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Code or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Code.

(2) For licenses, conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession and, for initial applicants, convictions set forth in Section 15-72 of this Act.

(3) Violation of the laws of this State relating to the funeral, burial or disposition of deceased human bodies or of the rules and regulations of the Department, or the Department of Public Health.

(4) Directly or indirectly paying or causing to be paid any sum of money or other valuable consideration for the securing of business or for obtaining authority to dispose of any deceased human body.

(5) Professional incompetence, gross negligence, malpractice, or untrustworthiness in the practice of funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing.

(6) (Blank).

(7) Engaging in, promoting, selling, or issuing burial contracts, burial certificates, or burial insurance policies in connection with the profession as a funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral director and embalmer intern in violation of any laws of the State of Illinois.

(8) Refusing, without cause, to surrender the custody of a deceased human body upon the proper request of the person or persons lawfully entitled to the custody of the body.

(9) Taking undue advantage of a client or clients as to amount to the perpetration of fraud.

(10) Engaging in funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing without a license.

(11) Encouraging, requesting, or suggesting by a licensee or some person working on his behalf and with his consent for compensation that a person utilize the services of a certain funeral director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral establishment unless that information has been expressly requested by the person. This does not prohibit general advertising or pre-need solicitation.

(12) Making or causing to be made any false or misleading statements about the laws concerning the disposition of human remains, including, but not limited to, the need to embalm, the need for a casket for cremation or the need for an outer burial container.

(13) (Blank).

(14) Embalming or attempting to embalm a deceased human body without express prior authorization of the person responsible for making the funeral arrangements for the body. This does not apply to cases where embalming is directed by local authorities who have jurisdiction or when embalming is required by State or local law. A licensee may embalm without express prior authorization if a good faith effort has been made to contact family members and has been unsuccessful and the licensee has no reason to believe the family opposes embalming.

(15) Making a false statement on a Certificate of Death where the person making the statement knew or should have known that the statement was false.

(16) Soliciting human bodies after death or while death is imminent.

(17) Performing any act or practice that is a violation of this Code, the rules for the administration of this Code, or any federal, State or local laws, rules, or regulations governing the practice of funeral directing or embalming.

(18) Performing any act or practice that is a violation of Section 2 of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(19) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(20) Taking possession of a dead human body without having first obtained express permission from the person holding the right to control the disposition in accordance with Section 5 of the Disposition of Remains Act or a public agency legally authorized to direct, control or permit the removal of deceased human bodies.

(21) Advertising in a false or misleading manner or advertising using the name of an unlicensed person in connection with any service being rendered in the practice of funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming. The use of any name of an unlicensed or unregistered person in an advertisement so as to imply that the person will perform services is considered misleading advertising. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent including the name of any owner, officer or corporate director of a funeral home, who is not a licensee, in any advertisement used by a funeral home with which the individual is affiliated, if the advertisement specifies the individual's affiliation with the funeral home.

(22) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(23) Failing to account for or remit any monies, documents, or personal property that belongs to others that comes into a licensee's possession.

(24) Treating any person differently to his detriment because of race, color, creed, gender, religion, or national origin.

(25) Knowingly making any false statements, oral or otherwise, of a character likely to influence, persuade or induce others in the course of performing professional services or activities.

(26) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of funeral directing and embalming, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(27) Failing to acquire continuing education required under this Code.

(28) (Blank).

(29) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Code or rules adopted pursuant to this Code.

(30) Failing within 10 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(31) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(32) (Blank).

(33) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(34) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(35) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill which results in a licensee's inability to practice under this Code with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(36) Failing to comply with any of the following required activities:

(A) When reasonably possible, a funeral director licensee or funeral director and embalmer licensee or anyone acting on his or her behalf shall obtain the express authorization of the person or persons responsible for making the funeral arrangements for a deceased human body prior to removing a body from the place of death or any place it may be or embalming or attempting to embalm a deceased human body, unless required by State or local law. This requirement is waived whenever removal or embalming is directed by local authorities who have jurisdiction. If the responsibility for the handling of the remains lawfully falls under the jurisdiction of a public agency, then the regulations of the public agency shall prevail.

(B) A licensee shall clearly mark the price of any casket offered for sale or the price of any service using the casket on or in the casket if the casket is displayed at the funeral establishment. If the casket is displayed at any other location, regardless of whether the licensee is in control of that location, the casket shall be clearly marked and the registrant shall use books, catalogues, brochures, or other printed display aids to show the price of each casket or service.

(C) At the time funeral arrangements are made and prior to rendering the funeral services, a licensee shall furnish a written statement of services to be retained by the person or persons making the funeral arrangements, signed by both parties, that shall contain: (i) the name, address and telephone number of the funeral establishment and the date on which the arrangements were made; (ii) the price of the service selected and the services and merchandise included for that price; (iii) a clear disclosure that the person or persons making the arrangement may decline and receive credit for any service or merchandise not desired and not required by law or the funeral director or the funeral director and embalmer; (iv) the supplemental items of service and merchandise requested and the price of each item; (v) the terms or method of payment agreed upon; and (vi) a statement as to any monetary advances made by the registrant on behalf of the family. The licensee shall maintain a copy of the written statement of services in its permanent records. All written statements of services are subject to inspection by the Department.

(D) In all instances where the place of final disposition of a deceased human body or the cremated remains of a deceased human body is a cemetery, the licensed funeral director and embalmer, or licensed funeral director, who has been engaged to provide funeral or embalming services shall remain at the cemetery and personally witness the placement of the human remains in their designated grave or the sealing of the above ground depository, crypt, or urn. The licensed funeral director or licensed funeral director and embalmer may designate a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern or representative of the funeral home to be his or her witness to the placement of the remains. If the cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or any other agent of the cemetery takes any action that prevents compliance with this paragraph (D), then the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director shall provide written notice to the Department within 5 business days after failing to comply. If the Department receives this notice, then the Department shall not take any disciplinary action against the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director for a violation of this paragraph (D) unless the Department finds that the cemetery authority, manager, or any other agent of the cemetery did not prevent the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director from complying with this paragraph (D) as claimed in the written notice.

(E) A funeral director or funeral director and embalmer shall fully complete the portion of the Certificate of Death under the responsibility of the funeral director or funeral director and embalmer and provide all required information. In the event that any reported information subsequently changes or proves incorrect, a funeral director or funeral director and embalmer shall immediately upon learning the correct information correct the Certificate of Death.

(37) A finding by the Department that the licensee license, after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions, violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(38) (Blank).

(39) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and, upon proof by clear and convincing evidence, being found to have caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(40) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(41) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(42) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Code.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without a hearing, as provided for in the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) No action may be taken under this Code against a person licensed under this Code unless the action is commenced within 5 years after the occurrence of the alleged violations. A continuing violation shall be deemed to have occurred on the date when the circumstances last existed that give rise to the alleged violation.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed or enforced to give a funeral director and embalmer, or his or her designees, authority over the operation of a cemetery or over cemetery employees. Nothing in this Section shall be construed or enforced to impose duties or penalties on cemeteries with respect to the timing of the placement of human remains in their designated grave or the sealing of the above ground depository, crypt, or urn due to patron safety, the allocation of cemetery staffing, liability insurance, a collective bargaining agreement, or other such reasons.

(f) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(g) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Code to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(h) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(i) A person not licensed under this Code who is an owner of a funeral establishment or funeral business shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or contract with any unlicensed person to offer funeral services or aid, abet, assist, or direct any licensed person contrary to or in violation of any rules or provisions of this Code. A person violating this subsection shall be treated as a licensee for the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in this Code, the imposition of a fine up to $10,000 for each violation and any other penalty provided by law.

(j) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension may end only upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to the involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the licensee, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(k) In enforcing this Code, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Code, or who has applied for licensure under this Code, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Code or who has applied for a license under this Code who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Code and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-876, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 480. The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(225 ILCS 50/18) (from Ch. 111, par. 7418)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 18. Discipline by the Department. The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license or it may revoke, suspend, place on probation, censure, fine, or reprimand a licensee for any of the following:

(a) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State or federal agency.

(b) Violations of this Act, or the rules promulgated hereunder.

(c) Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof which is a felony or misdemeanor, an essential element of dishonesty, or of any crime which is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(d) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license or renewing a license, including falsification of the continuing education requirement.

(e) Professional incompetence.

(f) Malpractice.

(g) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated hereunder.

(h) Failing, within 30 days, to provide in writing information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(i) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct which is likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(j) Knowingly employing, directly or indirectly, any suspended or unlicensed person to perform any services covered by this Act.

(k) Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs.

(l) Discipline by another state, the District of Columbia, territory, or a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(m) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (m) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (m) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(n) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of or probation.

(o) Willfully making or filing false records or reports.

(p) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(q) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgement, skill or safety.

(r) Solicitation of services or products by advertising that is false or misleading. An advertisement is false or misleading if it:

(1) contains an intentional misrepresentation of fact;

(2) contains a false statement as to the licensee's professional achievements, education, skills, or qualifications in the hearing instrument dispensing profession;

(3) makes a partial disclosure of a relevant fact, including:

(i) the advertisement of a discounted price of an item without identifying in the advertisement or at the location of the item either the specific product being offered at the discounted price or the usual price of the item; and

(ii) the advertisement of the price of a specifically identified hearing instrument if more than one hearing instrument appears in the same advertisement without an accompanying price;

(4) contains a representation that a product innovation is new when, in fact, the product was first offered by the manufacturer to the general public in this State not less than 12 months before the date of the advertisement;

(5) contains any other representation, statement, or claim that is inherently misleading or deceptive; or

(6) contains information that the licensee manufactures hearing instruments at the licensee's office location unless the following statement includes a statement disclosing that the instruments are manufactured by a specified manufacturer and assembled by the licensee.

(s) Participating in subterfuge or misrepresentation in the fitting or servicing of a hearing instrument.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Representing that the service of a licensed physician or other health professional will be used or made available in the fitting, adjustment, maintenance, or repair of hearing instruments when that is not true, or using the words "doctor", "audiologist", "clinic", "Clinical Audiologist", "Certified Hearing Aid Audiologist", "State Licensed", "State Certified", "Hearing Care Professional", "Licensed Hearing Instrument Dispenser", "Licensed Hearing Aid Dispenser", "Board Certified Hearing Instrument Specialist", "Hearing Instrument Specialist", "Licensed Audiologist", or any other term, abbreviation, or symbol which would give the impression that service is being provided by persons who are licensed or awarded a degree or title, or that the person's service who is holding the license has been recommended by a governmental agency or health provider, when such is not the case.

(v) Advertising a manufacturer's product or using a manufacturer's name or trademark implying a relationship which does not exist.

(w) Directly or indirectly giving or offering anything of value to any person who advises another in a professional capacity, as an inducement to influence the purchase of a product sold or offered for sale by a hearing instrument dispenser or influencing persons to refrain from dealing in the products of competitors.

(x) Conducting business while suffering from a contagious disease.

(y) Engaging in the fitting or sale of hearing instruments under a name with fraudulent intent.

(z) Dispensing a hearing instrument to a person who has not been given tests utilizing appropriate established procedures and instrumentation in the fitting of hearing instruments, except where there is the replacement of a hearing instrument, of the same make and model within one year of the dispensing of the original hearing instrument.

(aa) Unavailability or unwillingness to adequately provide for service or repair of hearing instruments fitted and sold by the dispenser.

(bb) Violating the regulations of the Federal Food and Drug Administration or the Federal Trade Commission as they affect hearing instruments.

(cc) Violating any provision of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(dd) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

The Department, with the approval of the Board, may impose a fine not to exceed $1,000 plus costs for the first violation and not to exceed $5,000 plus costs for each subsequent violation of this Act, and the rules promulgated hereunder, on any person or entity described in this Act. Such fine may be imposed as an alternative to any other disciplinary measure, except for probation. The imposition by the Department of a fine for any violation does not bar the violation from being alleged in subsequent disciplinary proceedings. Such fines shall be deposited in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 485. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

"Physical therapy" includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is either prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist or used following the physician's orders or written instructions, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, other physical therapist, or other health care provider any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed.

(11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 490. The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 30 and 80 as follows:

(225 ILCS 107/30) (from Ch. 111, par. 8451-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 30. Professional Counselor Licensing Examining and Disciplinary Board.

(a) The Secretary shall appoint a Board which shall serve in an advisory capacity to the Secretary. The Board shall consist of 7 persons, 2 of whom are licensed solely as professional counselors, 3 of whom are licensed solely as clinical professional counselors, one full-time faculty member of an accredited college or university that is engaged in training professional counselors or clinical professional counselors who possesses the qualifications substantially equivalent to the education and experience requirements for a professional counselor or clinical professional counselor, and one member of the public who is not a licensed health care provider. In appointing members of the Board, the Secretary shall give due consideration to the adequate representation of the various fields of counseling. In appointing members of the Board, the Secretary shall give due consideration to recommendations by members of the professions of professional counseling and clinical professional counseling, the Statewide organizations representing the interests of professional counselors and clinical professional counselors, organizations representing the interests of academic programs, rehabilitation counseling programs, and approved counseling programs in the State of Illinois.

(b) Members shall be appointed for and shall serve 4 year terms and until their successors are appointed and qualified. No member of the Board shall serve more than 2 full consecutive terms. Any appointment to fill a vacancy shall be for the unexpired portion of the term.

(c) The membership of the Board should reasonably reflect representation from different geographic areas of Illinois.

(d) (Blank).

(e) The Secretary shall have the authority to remove or suspend any member for cause at any time prior to the expiration of his or her term. The Secretary shall be the sole arbiter of cause.

(f) The Board shall annually elect one of its members as chairperson.

(g) The members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses incurred in attending the meetings of the Board.

(h) The Board may make recommendations on matters relating to approving graduate counseling, rehabilitation counseling, psychology, and related programs.

(i) The Board may make recommendations on matters relating to continuing education including the number of hours necessary for license renewal, waivers for those unable to meet such requirements, and acceptable course content. These recommendations shall not impose an undue burden on the Department or an unreasonable restriction on those seeking license renewal.

(j) The Secretary shall give due consideration to all recommendations of the Board.

(k) Four members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. A quorum is required for all Board decisions.

(l) Members of the Board shall have no criminal, civil, or professional liability in an action based upon a disciplinary proceeding or other activity performed in good faith as a member of the Board, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 107/80)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 80. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(5) Professional incompetence or gross negligence in the rendering of professional counseling or clinical professional counseling services.

(6) Malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs as defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another jurisdiction, the District of Columbia, territory, county, or governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a client.

(15) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and in matters pertaining to suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults as set forth in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(20) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(21) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(22) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(23) Gross and willful overcharging for professional services including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(24) Rendering professional counseling or clinical professional counseling services without a license or practicing outside the scope of a license.

(25) Clinical supervisors failing to adequately and responsibly monitor supervisees.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any application or renewal for a license under this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois Student State Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-5) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-10) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(c-5) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 495. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(225 ILCS 109/35)

Sec. 35. Qualifications for licensure.

(a)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex offender evaluator if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the licensure and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued a sex offender evaluator license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) and provides evidence to the Department that the person:

(A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced practice nurse with psychiatric specialty licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state;

(B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the treatment or evaluation of sex offenders in the last 4 years, at least 200 of which are face-to-face therapy or evaluation with sex offenders;

(C) has completed at least 10 sex offender evaluations under supervision in the past 4 years; and

(D) has at least 40 hours of documented training in the specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or management.

Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) are satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 years before application for licensure. Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) are satisfied if the applicant has completed at least 10 sex offender evaluations within the 4 years before application for licensure.

(b)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex offender treatment provider if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the licensure and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued a sex offender treatment provider license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b) and provides evidence to the Department that the person:

(A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced practice nurse with psychiatric specialty licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state;

(B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the treatment of sex offenders in the last 4 years, at least 200 of which are face-to-face therapy with sex offenders; and

(C) has at least 40 hours documented training in the specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or management.

Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs (B) and (C) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) are satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 years before application.

(c)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as an associate sex offender provider if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the education and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (c).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued an associate sex offender provider license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c) and provides evidence to the Department that the person holds a master's degree or higher in social work, psychology, marriage and family therapy, counseling or closely related behavioral science degree, or psychiatry.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; 98-612, eff. 12-27-13; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 500. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 19.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/19.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 19.2. Patient requests for prescriptions. A veterinarian Veterinarians shall honor a client's request for a prescription in lieu of dispensing a drug when a veterinarian-client-patient relationship exists and the veterinarian has determined that the drug is medically necessary.

(Source: P.A. 99-223, eff. 7-31-15; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 505. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling.

"ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics.

"Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their respective certification examinations.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced condition.

"Genetic counseling" means the provision of services, which may include the ordering of genetic tests, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals to address the physical and psychological issues associated with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual or a family. "Genetic counseling" consists of the following:

(A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially inherited or genetically influenced condition. This assessment may involve:

(i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health history of the person and his or her family;

(ii) reviewing pertinent medical records;

(iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to possible mutagens or teratogens;

(iv) recommending genetic testing or other evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the carrier status of one or more family members;

(B) Helping the individual, family, health care provider, or health care professional (i) appreciate the medical, psychological and social implications of a disorder, including its features, variability, usual course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance for recurrence of the condition in other family members, and (iii) understand available options for coping with, preventing, or reducing the chance of occurrence or recurrence of a condition.

(C) Facilitating an individual's or family's (i) exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for psychological, social, and medical support.

"Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.

"Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and "genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements; chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes, mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved.

"Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or corporation.

"Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with the Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the person under supervision.

(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-633, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 135/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of genetic counseling.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling services.

(6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any requested information to a referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue Service or any successor agency.

(23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(25) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(26) (Blank).

(27) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any application or renewal for a license under this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois Student State Assistance Commission; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in default has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-633, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 510. The Private Sewage Disposal Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 225/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 116.305)

Sec. 5. (a) The Director shall issue a private sewage system installation contractor license or a private sewage disposal system pumping contractor license to persons applying for such license who successfully pass a written examination prepared by the Department and who pay the required annual license fee in an amount determined by the Department. Each person who holds a currently valid plumbing license issued under the "Illinois Plumbing License Law", as now or hereafter amended, shall not be required to pay the annual license fee required by this Section, but such licensed person shall comply with all other provisions of this Act, including the requirement for examination for licensure.

(b) A license issued under this Act shall expire on December 31 of the year issued, except that an original license issued after October 1 and before December 31 shall expire on December 31 of the following year.

The Department shall reinstate a license which expires while a licensee is in the active military service of the United States upon application to the Department by the former licensee within 2 years after termination of such military service, payment of the annual license fee, and submission of evidence of such military service. Such license shall be reinstated without examination and without payment of the reinstatement fee.

(c) A private sewage disposal system pumping contractor or a private sewage system installation contractor whose license has expired for a period of less than 3 years may apply to the Department for reinstatement of his license. The Department shall issue such renewed license provided the applicant pays to the Department all lapsed license fees, plus a reinstatement fee determined by the Department. A license which has expired for more than 3 years may be restored only by reapplying to take the examination and by successfully passing the written examination.

(Source: P.A. 85-1261; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 515. The Structural Pest Control Act is amended by changing Section 3.14 as follows:

(225 ILCS 235/3.14) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2203.14)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3.14. "Restricted Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest, the use of which has been categorized as restricted under subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 3 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act as amended or under the Illinois Pesticide Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-177; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 520. The Interior Design Title Act is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(225 ILCS 310/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 8221)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 21. Administrative Review Law. All final administrative decisions decision of the Department are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for review resides, but if the party is not a resident of this State, the venue shall be in Sangamon County.

The Department shall not be required to certify any record to the court or file any answer in court or otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding, unless there is filed in the court with the complaint a receipt from the Department acknowledging payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying the record. Exhibits shall be certified without cost. Failure on the part of the plaintiff to file a receipt in court shall be grounds for dismissal of the action. During the pendency and hearing of any and all judicial proceedings incident to a disciplinary action, any sanctions imposed upon the registrant by the Department shall remain in full force and effect.

(Source: P.A. 86-1404; 87-1031; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 525. The Illinois Plumbing License Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 320/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 1103)

Sec. 3. (1) All planning and designing of plumbing systems and all plumbing shall be performed only by plumbers licensed under the provisions of this Act hereinafter called "licensed plumbers" and "licensed apprentice plumbers". The inspection of plumbing and plumbing systems shall be done only by the sponsor or his or her agent who shall be an Illinois licensed plumber. Nothing herein contained shall prohibit licensed plumbers or licensed apprentice plumbers under supervision from planning, designing, inspecting, installing, repairing, maintaining, altering or extending building sewers in accordance with this Act. No person who holds a license or certificate of registration under the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989, or the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989, or the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 shall be prevented from planning and designing plumbing systems. Each licensed plumber shall, as a condition of each annual license renewal after the first license, provide proof of completion of 4 hours of continuing education. Sponsors of continuing education shall meet the criteria provided by the Board of Plumbing Examiners and Plumbing Code advisory council. Continuing education courses shall provide instruction in plumbing, which is supervised directly by an Illinois licensed plumber only.

(2) Nothing herein contained shall prohibit the owner occupant or lessee occupant of a single family residence, or the owner of a single family residence under construction for his or her occupancy, from planning, installing, altering or repairing the plumbing system of such residence, provided that (i) such plumbing shall comply with the minimum standards for plumbing contained in the Illinois State Plumbing Code, and shall be subject to inspection by the Department or the local governmental unit if it retains a licensed plumber as an inspector; and (ii) such owner, owner occupant or lessee occupant shall not employ other than a plumber licensed pursuant to this Act to assist him or her.

For purposes of this subsection, a person shall be considered an "occupant" if and only if he or she has taken possession of and is living in the premises as his or her bona fide sole and exclusive residence, or, in the case of an owner of a single family residence under construction for his or her occupancy, he or she expects to take possession of and live in the premises as his or her bona fide sole and exclusive residence, and he or she has a current intention to live in such premises as his or her bona fide sole and exclusive residence for a period of not less than 6 months after the completion of the plumbing work performed pursuant to the authorization of this subsection, or, in the case of an owner of a single family residence under construction for his or her occupancy, for a period of not less than 6 months after the completion of construction of the residence. Failure to possess and live in the premises as a sole and exclusive residence for a period of 6 months or more shall create a rebuttable presumption of a lack of such intention.

(3) The employees of a firm, association, partnership or corporation who engage in plumbing shall be licensed plumbers or licensed apprentice plumbers. At least one member of every firm, association or partnership engaged in plumbing work, and at least one corporate officer of every corporation engaged in plumbing work, as the case may be, shall be a licensed plumber. A retired plumber cannot fulfill the requirements of this subsection (3). Plumbing contractors are also required to be registered pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (3), it shall be lawful for an irrigation contractor registered under Section 2.5 of this Act to employ or contract with one or more licensed plumbers in connection with work on lawn sprinkler systems pursuant to Section 2.5 of this Act.

(4)(a) A licensed apprentice plumber shall plan, design and install plumbing only under the supervision of the sponsor or his or her agent who is also an Illinois licensed plumber.

(b) An applicant for licensing as an apprentice plumber shall be at least 16 years of age and apply on the application form provided by the Department. Such application shall verify that the applicant is sponsored by an Illinois licensed plumber or an approved apprenticeship program and shall contain the name and license number of the licensed plumber or program sponsor.

(c) No licensed plumber shall sponsor more than 2 licensed apprentice plumbers at the same time. If 2 licensed apprentice plumbers are sponsored by a plumber at the same time, one of the apprentices must have, at a minimum, 2 years experience as a licensed apprentice. No licensed plumber sponsor or his or her agent may supervise 2 licensed apprentices with less than 2 years experience at the same time. The sponsor or agent shall supervise and be responsible for the plumbing performed by a licensed apprentice.

(d) No agent shall supervise more than 2 licensed apprentices at the same time.

(e) No licensed plumber may, in any capacity, supervise more than 2 licensed apprentice plumbers at the same time.

(f) No approved apprenticeship program may sponsor more licensed apprentices than 2 times the number of licensed plumbers available to supervise those licensed apprentices.

(g) No approved apprenticeship program may sponsor more licensed apprentices with less than 2 years experience than it has licensed plumbers available to supervise those licensed apprentices.

(h) No individual shall work as an apprentice plumber unless he or she is properly licensed under this Act. The Department shall issue an apprentice plumber's license to each approved applicant.

(i) No licensed apprentice plumber shall serve more than a 6 year licensed apprenticeship period. If, upon completion of a 6 year licensed apprenticeship period, such licensed apprentice plumber does not apply for the examination for a plumber's license and successfully pass the examination for a plumber's license, his or her apprentice plumber's license shall not be renewed.

Nothing contained in Public Act P.A. 83-878, entitled "An Act in relation to professions", approved September 26, 1983, was intended by the General Assembly nor should it be construed to require the employees of a governmental unit or privately owned municipal water supplier who operate, maintain or repair a water or sewer plant facility which is owned or operated by such governmental unit or privately owned municipal water supplier to be licensed plumbers under this Act. In addition, nothing contained in Public Act P.A. 83-878 was intended by the General Assembly nor should it be construed to permit persons other than licensed plumbers to perform the installation, repair, maintenance or replacement of plumbing fixtures, such as toilet facilities, floor drains, showers and lavatories, and the piping attendant to those fixtures, within such facility or in the construction of a new facility.

Nothing contained in Public Act P.A. 83-878, entitled "An Act in relation to professions", approved September 26, 1983, was intended by the General Assembly nor should it be construed to require the employees of a governmental unit or privately owned municipal water supplier who install, repair or maintain water service lines from water mains in the street, alley or curb line to private property lines and who install, repair or maintain water meters to be licensed plumbers under this Act if such work was customarily performed prior to the effective date of such Act by employees of such governmental unit or privately owned municipal water supplier who were not licensed plumbers. Any such work which was customarily performed prior to the effective date of such Act by persons who were licensed plumbers or subcontracted to persons who were licensed plumbers must continue to be performed by persons who are licensed plumbers or subcontracted to persons who are licensed plumbers. When necessary under this Act, the Department shall make the determination whether or not persons who are licensed plumbers customarily performed such work.

(Source: P.A. 99-504, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 530. The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 427/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Advertise" means, but is not limited to, issuing or causing to be distributed any card, sign or device to any person; or causing, permitting or allowing any sign or marking on or in any building, structure, newspaper, magazine or directory, or on radio or television; or advertising by any other means designed to secure public attention.

"Board" means the Illinois Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Board.

"Community association" means an association in which membership is a condition of ownership or shareholder interest of a unit in a condominium, cooperative, townhouse, villa, or other residential unit which is part of a residential development plan and that is authorized to impose an assessment, rents, or other costs that may become a lien on the unit or lot.

"Community association funds" means any assessments, fees, fines, or other funds collected by the community association manager from the community association, or its members, other than the compensation paid to the community association manager for performance of community association management services.

"Community association management firm" means a company, corporation, limited liability company, or other entity that engages in community association management services.

"Community association management services" means those services listed in the definition of community association manager in this Section.

"Community association manager" means an individual who administers for remuneration the financial, administrative, maintenance, or other duties for the community association, including the following services: (A) collecting, controlling or disbursing funds of the community association or having the authority to do so; (B) preparing budgets or other financial documents for the community association; (C) assisting in the conduct of community association meetings; (D) maintaining association records; and (E) administrating association contracts, as stated in the declaration, bylaws, proprietary lease, declaration of covenants, or other governing document of the community association. "Community association manager" does not mean support staff, including, but not limited to bookkeepers, administrative assistants, secretaries, property inspectors, or customer service representatives.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"License" means the license issued to a person, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or other legal entity under this Act to provide community association management services.

"Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or other legal entity.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Supervising community association manager" means an individual licensed as a community association manager who manages and supervises a firm.

(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 535. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is amended by changing Section 7.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 430/7.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2408)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 7.1. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, continuation, or renewal of the license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act, the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed to the last known address of a party.

(Source: P.A. 88-45; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 540. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 5-15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/5-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 5-15. Application for State certified residential real estate appraiser. (a) Every person who desires to obtain a State certified residential real estate appraiser license shall:

(1) apply to the Department on forms provided by the Department accompanied by the required fee;

(2) be at least 18 years of age;

(3) (blank);

(4) personally take and pass an examination authorized by the Department and endorsed by the AQB;

(5) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence to the Department, in Modular Course format, with each module conforming to the Required Core Curriculum established and adopted by the AQB, that he or she has successfully completed the prerequisite classroom hours of instruction in appraising as established by the AQB and by rule; and

(6) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence to the Department that he or she has successfully completed the prerequisite experience and educational requirements as established by AQB and by rule.

(Source: P.A. 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 545. The Solicitation for Charity Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 460/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5104)

Sec. 4. (a) Every charitable organization registered pursuant to Section 2 of this Act which shall receive in any 12-month 12 month period ending upon its established fiscal or calendar year contributions in excess of $300,000 and every charitable organization whose fund raising functions are not carried on solely by staff employees or persons who are unpaid for such services, if the organization shall receive in any 12-month 12 month period ending upon its established fiscal or calendar year contributions in excess of $25,000, shall file a written report with the Attorney General upon forms prescribed by him, on or before June 30 of each year if its books are kept on a calendar basis, or within 6 months after the close of its fiscal year if its books are kept on a fiscal year basis, which written report shall include a financial statement covering the immediately preceding 12-month 12 month period of operation. Such financial statement shall include a balance sheet and statement of income and expense, and shall be consistent with forms furnished by the Attorney General clearly setting forth the following: gross receipts and gross income from all sources, broken down into total receipts and income from each separate solicitation project or source; cost of administration; cost of solicitation; cost of programs designed to inform or educate the public; funds or properties transferred out of this State, with explanation as to recipient and purpose; cost of fundraising; compensation paid to trustees; and total net amount disbursed or dedicated for each major purpose, charitable or otherwise. Such report shall also include a statement of any changes in the information required to be contained in the registration form filed on behalf of such organization. The report shall be signed by the president or other authorized officer and the chief fiscal officer of the organization who shall certify that the statements therein are true and correct to the best of their knowledge, and shall be accompanied by an opinion signed by an independent certified public accountant that the financial statement therein fairly represents the financial operations of the organization in sufficient detail to permit public evaluation of its operations. Said opinion may be relied upon by the Attorney General.

(b) Every organization registered pursuant to Section 2 of this Act which shall receive in any 12-month 12 month period ending upon its established fiscal or calendar year of any year contributions:

(1) in excess of $15,000, but not in excess of $25,000, during a fiscal year shall file only a simplified summary financial statement disclosing only the gross receipts, total disbursements, and assets on hand at the end of the year on forms prescribed by the Attorney General; or

(2) in excess of $25,000, but not in excess of $300,000, if it is not required to submit a report under subsection (a) of this Section, shall file a written report with the Attorney General upon forms prescribed by him, on or before June 30 of each year if its books are kept on a calendar basis, or within 6 months after the close of its fiscal year if its books are kept on a fiscal year basis, which shall include a financial statement covering the immediately preceding 12-month period of operation limited to a statement of such organization's gross receipts from contributions, the gross amount expended for charitable educational programs, other charitable programs, management expense, and fund raising expenses including a separate statement of the cost of any goods, services or admissions supplied as part of its solicitations, and the disposition of the net proceeds from contributions, including compensation paid to trustees, consistent with forms furnished by the Attorney General. Such report shall also include a statement of any changes in the information required to be contained in the registration form filed on behalf of such organization. The report shall be signed by the president or other authorized officer and the chief fiscal officer of the organization who shall certify that the statements therein are true and correct to the best of their knowledge.

(c) For any fiscal or calendar year of any organization registered pursuant to Section 2 of this Act in which such organization would have been exempt from registration pursuant to Section 3 of this Act if it had not been so registered, or in which it did not solicit or receive contributions, such organization shall file, on or before June 30 of each year if its books are kept on a calendar basis, or within 6 months after the close of its fiscal year if its books are kept on a fiscal year basis, instead of the reports required by subdivisions (a) or (b) of this Section, a statement certified under penalty of perjury by its president and chief fiscal officer stating the exemption and the facts upon which it is based or that such organization did not solicit or receive contributions in such fiscal year. The statement shall also include a statement of any changes in the information required to be contained in the registration form filed on behalf of such organization.

(d) As an alternative means of satisfying the duties and obligations otherwise imposed by this Section, any veterans organization chartered or incorporated under federal law and any veterans organization which is affiliated with, and recognized in the bylaws of, a congressionally chartered or incorporated organization may, at its option, annually file with the Attorney General the following documents:

(1) A copy of its Form 990, as filed with the Internal Revenue Service.

(2) Copies of any reports required to be filed by the affiliate with the congressionally chartered or incorporated veterans organization, as well as copies of any reports filed by the congressionally chartered or incorporated veterans organization with the government of the United States pursuant to federal law.

(3) Copies of all contracts entered into by the congressionally chartered or incorporated veterans organization or its affiliate for purposes of raising funds in this State, such copies to be filed with the Attorney General no more than 30 days after execution of the contracts.

(e) As an alternative means of satisfying all of the duties and obligations otherwise imposed by this Section, any person, pursuant to a contract with a charitable organization, a veterans organization or an affiliate described or referred to in subsection (d), who receives, collects, holds or transports as the agent of the organization or affiliate for purposes of resale any used or second hand personal property, including but not limited to household goods, furniture or clothing donated to the organization or affiliate may, at its option, annually file with the Attorney General the following documents, accompanied by an annual filing fee of $15:

(1) A notarized report including the number of donations of personal property it has received on behalf of the charitable organization, veterans organization or affiliate during the preceding proceeding year. For purposes of this report, the number of donations of personal property shall refer to the number of stops or pickups made regardless of the number of items received at each stop or pickup. The report may cover the person's fiscal year, in which case it shall be filed with the Attorney General no later than 90 days after the close of that fiscal year.

(2) All contracts with the charitable organization, veterans organization or affiliate under which the person has acted as an agent for the purposes listed above.

(3) All contracts by which the person agreed to pay the charitable organization, veterans organization or affiliate a fixed amount for, or a fixed percentage of the value of, each donation of used or second hand personal property. Copies of all such contracts shall be filed no later than 30 days after they are executed.

(f) The Attorney General may seek appropriate equitable relief from a court or, in his discretion, cancel the registration of any organization which fails to comply with subdivision (a), (b), or (c) of this Section within the time therein prescribed, or fails to furnish such additional information as is requested by the Attorney General within the required time; except that the time may be extended by the Attorney General for a period not to exceed 60 days upon a timely written request and for good cause stated. Unless otherwise stated herein, the Attorney General shall, by rule, set forth the standards used to determine whether a registration shall be cancelled as authorized by this subsection. Such standards shall be stated as precisely and clearly as practicable, to inform fully those persons affected. Notice of such cancellation shall be mailed to the registrant at least 15 days before the effective date thereof.

(g) The Attorney General in his discretion may, pursuant to rule, accept executed copies of federal Internal Revenue returns and reports as a portion of the foregoing annual reporting in the interest of minimizing paperwork, except there shall be no substitute for the independent certified public accountant audit opinion required by this Act.

(h) The Attorney General after canceling the registration of any trust or organization which fails to comply with this Section within the time therein prescribed may by court proceedings, in addition to all other relief, seek to collect the assets and distribute such under court supervision to other charitable purposes.

(i) Every trustee, person, and organization required to file an annual report shall pay a filing fee of $15 with each annual financial report filed pursuant to this Section. If a proper and complete annual report is not timely filed, a late filing fee of an additional $100 is imposed and shall be paid as a condition of filing a late report. Reports submitted without the proper fee shall not be accepted for filing. Payment of the late filing fee and acceptance by the Attorney General shall both be conditions of filing a late report. All late filing fees shall be used to provide charitable trust enforcement and dissemination of charitable trust information to the public and shall be maintained in a separate fund for such purpose known as the Illinois Charity Bureau Fund.

(j) There is created hereby a separate special fund in the State Treasury to be known as the Illinois Charity Bureau Fund. That Fund shall be under the control of the Attorney General, and the funds, fees, and penalties deposited therein shall be used by the Attorney General to enforce the provisions of this Act and to gather and disseminate information about charitable trustees and organizations to the public.

(Source: P.A. 96-488, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 550. The Coal Mining Act is amended by changing Section 25.05 as follows:

(225 ILCS 705/25.05) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 2505)

Sec. 25.05. The person to whom multi-gas detectors are given shall be responsible for the condition and proper use of the multi-gas detectors while in their possession.

(Source: P.A. 99-538, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 555. The Surface-Mined Land Conservation and Reclamation Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(225 ILCS 715/8) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 4509)

Sec. 8. Bond of operator; amount; sufficiency of surety; violations; compliance. Any bond herein provided to be filed with the Department by the operator shall be in such form as the Director prescribes, payable to the People of the State of Illinois, conditioned that the operator shall faithfully perform all requirements of this Act and comply with all rules of the Department made in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Such bond shall be signed by the operator as principal, and by a good and sufficient corporate surety, licensed to do business in Illinois, as surety. The penalty of such bond shall be an amount between $600 and $10,000 per acre as determined by the Director for lands to be affected by surface mining, including slurry and gob disposal areas. Under circumstances where a written agreement between the operator and a third party requires require overburden to be removed, replaced, graded, and seeded in a manner that the necessary bond penalty exceeds $10,000 per acre, the Department shall require a bond amount sufficient to ensure the completion of the reclamation plan specified in the approved permit in the event of forfeiture. In no case shall the bond for the entire area under one permit be less than $600 per acre or $3,000, whichever is greater. Areas used for the disposal of slurry and gob shall continue under bond so long as they are in active use. In lieu of such bonds, the operator may deposit any combination of cash, certificates of deposits, government securities, or irrevocable letters of credit with the Department in an amount equal to that of the required surety bond on conditions as prescribed in this Section. The penalty of the bond or amount of other security shall be increased or reduced from time to time as provided in this Act. Such bond or security shall remain in effect until the affected lands have been reclaimed, approved, and released by the Department except that when the Department determines that grading and covering with materials capable of supporting vegetation in accordance with the plan has been satisfactorily completed, the Department shall release the bond or security except the amount of $100 per acre which shall be retained by the Department until the reclamation according to Section 6 of this Act has been completed. Where an anticipated water impoundment has been approved by the Department in the reclamation plan, and the Department determines the impoundment will be satisfactorily completed upon completion of the operation, the bond covering such anticipated water impoundment area shall be released.

A bond filed as above prescribed shall not be cancelled by the surety except after not less than 90 days' notice to the Department.

If the license to do business in Illinois of any surety upon a bond filed with the Department pursuant to this Act shall be suspended or revoked, the operator, within 30 days after receiving notice thereof from the Department, shall substitute for such surety a good and sufficient corporate surety licensed to do business in Illinois. Upon failure of the operator to make substitution of surety as herein provided, the Department shall have the right to suspend the permit of the operator until such substitution has been made.

The Department shall give written notice to the operator of any violation of this Act or non-compliance with any of the rules and regulations promulgated by the Department hereunder and if corrective measures, approved by the Department, are not commenced within 45 days, the Department may proceed as provided in Section 11 of this Act to request forfeiture of the bond or security. The forfeiture shall be the amount of bond or security in effect at the time of default for each acre or portion thereof with respect to which the operator has defaulted. Such forfeiture shall fully satisfy all obligations of the operator to reclaim the affected land under the provisions of this Act.

The Department shall have the power to reclaim, in keeping with the provisions of this Act, any affected land with respect to which a bond has been forfeited.

Whenever an operator shall have completed all requirements under the provisions of this Act as to any affected land, he shall notify the Department thereof. If the Department determines that the operator has completed reclamation requirements and refuse disposal requirements and has achieved results appropriate to the use for which the area was reclaimed, the Department shall release the operator from further obligations regarding such affected land and the penalty of the bond shall be reduced proportionately.

Bonding aggregate mining operations under permit by the State is an exclusive power and function of the State. A home rule unit may not require bonding of aggregate mining operations under permit by the State. This provision is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution of 1970.

(Source: P.A. 99-224, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 560. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 26, 26.2, 32.1, and 40 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/26) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-26)

Sec. 26. Wagering.

(a) Any licensee may conduct and supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering, as defined in Section 3.12 of this Act, on horse races conducted by an Illinois organization licensee or conducted at a racetrack located in another state or country and televised in Illinois in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 26 of this Act. Subject to the prior consent of the Board, licensees may supplement any pari-mutuel pool in order to guarantee a minimum distribution. Such pari-mutuel method of wagering shall not, under any circumstances if conducted under the provisions of this Act, be held or construed to be unlawful, other statutes of this State to the contrary notwithstanding. Subject to rules for advance wagering promulgated by the Board, any licensee may accept wagers in advance of the day of the race wagered upon occurs.

(b) No other method of betting, pool making, wagering or gambling shall be used or permitted by the licensee. Each licensee may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered under subsection (a) of this Section, except as may otherwise be permitted under this Act.

(b-5) An individual may place a wager under the pari-mutuel system from any licensed location authorized under this Act provided that wager is electronically recorded in the manner described in Section 3.12 of this Act. Any wager made electronically by an individual while physically on the premises of a licensee shall be deemed to have been made at the premises of that licensee.

(c) Until January 1, 2000, the sum held by any licensee for payment of outstanding pari-mutuel tickets, if unclaimed prior to December 31 of the next year, shall be retained by the licensee for payment of such tickets until that date. Within 10 days thereafter, the balance of such sum remaining unclaimed, less any uncashed supplements contributed by such licensee for the purpose of guaranteeing minimum distributions of any pari-mutuel pool, shall be paid to the Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund of the State treasury, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act.

(c-5) Beginning January 1, 2000, the sum held by any licensee for payment of outstanding pari-mutuel tickets, if unclaimed prior to December 31 of the next year, shall be retained by the licensee for payment of such tickets until that date. Within 10 days thereafter, the balance of such sum remaining unclaimed, less any uncashed supplements contributed by such licensee for the purpose of guaranteeing minimum distributions of any pari-mutuel pool, shall be evenly distributed to the purse account of the organization licensee and the organization licensee.

(d) A pari-mutuel ticket shall be honored until December 31 of the next calendar year, and the licensee shall pay the same and may charge the amount thereof against unpaid money similarly accumulated on account of pari-mutuel tickets not presented for payment.

(e) No licensee shall knowingly permit any minor, other than an employee of such licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof, to be admitted during a racing program unless accompanied by a parent or guardian, or any minor to be a patron of the pari-mutuel system of wagering conducted or supervised by it. The admission of any unaccompanied minor, other than an employee of the licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof at a race track is a Class C misdemeanor.

(f) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, an organization licensee may contract with an entity in another state or country to permit any legal wagering entity in another state or country to accept wagers solely within such other state or country on races conducted by the organization licensee in this State. Beginning January 1, 2000, these wagers shall not be subject to State taxation. Until January 1, 2000, when the out-of-State entity conducts a pari-mutuel pool separate from the organization licensee, a privilege tax equal to 7 1/2% of all monies received by the organization licensee from entities in other states or countries pursuant to such contracts is imposed on the organization licensee, and such privilege tax shall be remitted to the Department of Revenue within 48 hours of receipt of the moneys from the simulcast. When the out-of-State entity conducts a combined pari-mutuel pool with the organization licensee, the tax shall be 10% of all monies received by the organization licensee with 25% of the receipts from this 10% tax to be distributed to the county in which the race was conducted.

An organization licensee may permit one or more of its races to be utilized for pari-mutuel wagering at one or more locations in other states and may transmit audio and visual signals of races the organization licensee conducts to one or more locations outside the State or country and may also permit pari-mutuel pools in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or with wagering pools established by other states.

(g) A host track may accept interstate simulcast wagers on horse races conducted in other states or countries and shall control the number of signals and types of breeds of racing in its simulcast program, subject to the disapproval of the Board. The Board may prohibit a simulcast program only if it finds that the simulcast program is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. The host track simulcast program shall include the signal of live racing of all organization licensees. All non-host licensees and advance deposit wagering licensees shall carry the signal of and accept wagers on live racing of all organization licensees. Advance deposit wagering licensees shall not be permitted to accept out-of-state wagers on any Illinois signal provided pursuant to this Section without the approval and consent of the organization licensee providing the signal. For one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program of horse races conducted at race tracks located within North America upon which wagering is permitted. For a period of one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, on horse races conducted at race tracks located outside of North America, non-host licensees may accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. Beginning August 15, 2015 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 98-968) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. All organization licensees shall provide their live signal to all advance deposit wagering licensees for a simulcast commission fee not to exceed 6% of the advance deposit wagering licensee's Illinois handle on the organization licensee's signal without prior approval by the Board. The Board may adopt rules under which it may permit simulcast commission fees in excess of 6%. The Board shall adopt rules limiting the interstate commission fees charged to an advance deposit wagering licensee. The Board shall adopt rules regarding advance deposit wagering on interstate simulcast races that shall reflect, among other things, the General Assembly's desire to maximize revenues to the State, horsemen purses, and organizational licensees. However, organization licensees providing live signals pursuant to the requirements of this subsection (g) may petition the Board to withhold their live signals from an advance deposit wagering licensee if the organization licensee discovers and the Board finds reputable or credible information that the advance deposit wagering licensee is under investigation by another state or federal governmental agency, the advance deposit wagering licensee's license has been suspended in another state, or the advance deposit wagering licensee's license is in revocation proceedings in another state. The organization licensee's provision of their live signal to an advance deposit wagering licensee under this subsection (g) pertains to wagers placed from within Illinois. Advance deposit wagering licensees may place advance deposit wagering terminals at wagering facilities as a convenience to customers. The advance deposit wagering licensee shall not charge or collect any fee from purses for the placement of the advance deposit wagering terminals. The costs and expenses of the host track and non-host licensees associated with interstate simulcast wagering, other than the interstate commission fee, shall be borne by the host track and all non-host licensees incurring these costs. The interstate commission fee shall not exceed 5% of Illinois handle on the interstate simulcast race or races without prior approval of the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under which it may permit interstate commission fees in excess of 5%. The interstate commission fee and other fees charged by the sending racetrack, including, but not limited to, satellite decoder fees, shall be uniformly applied to the host track and all non-host licensees.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, through December 31, 2018, an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may maintain a system whereby advance deposit wagering may take place or an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may contract with another person to carry out a system of advance deposit wagering. Such consent may not be unreasonably withheld. Only with respect to an appeal to the Board that consent for an organization licensee that maintains its own advance deposit wagering system is being unreasonably withheld, the Board shall issue a final order within 30 days after initiation of the appeal, and the organization licensee's advance deposit wagering system may remain operational during that 30-day period. The actions of any organization licensee who conducts advance deposit wagering or any person who has a contract with an organization licensee to conduct advance deposit wagering who conducts advance deposit wagering on or after January 1, 2013 and prior to June 7, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-18) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly taken in reliance on the changes made to this subsection (g) by Public Act 98-18 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are hereby validated, provided payment of all applicable pari-mutuel taxes are remitted to the Board. All advance deposit wagers placed from within Illinois must be placed through a Board-approved advance deposit wagering licensee; no other entity may accept an advance deposit wager from a person within Illinois. All advance deposit wagering is subject to any rules adopted by the Board. The Board may adopt rules necessary to regulate advance deposit wagering through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate advance deposit wagering is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. An advance deposit wagering licensee may retain all moneys as agreed to by contract with an organization licensee. Any moneys retained by the organization licensee from advance deposit wagering, not including moneys retained by the advance deposit wagering licensee, shall be paid 50% to the organization licensee's purse account and 50% to the organization licensee. With the exception of any organization licensee that is owned by a publicly traded company that is incorporated in a state other than Illinois and advance deposit wagering licensees under contract with such organization licensees, organization licensees that maintain advance deposit wagering systems and advance deposit wagering licensees that contract with organization licensees shall provide sufficiently detailed monthly accountings to the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting so that the horsemen association, as an interested party, can confirm the accuracy of the amounts paid to the purse account at the horsemen association's affiliated organization licensee from advance deposit wagering. If more than one breed races at the same race track facility, then the 50% of the moneys to be paid to an organization licensee's purse account shall be allocated among all organization licensees' purse accounts operating at that race track facility proportionately based on the actual number of host days that the Board grants to that breed at that race track facility in the current calendar year. To the extent any fees from advance deposit wagering conducted in Illinois for wagers in Illinois or other states have been placed in escrow or otherwise withheld from wagers pending a determination of the legality of advance deposit wagering, no action shall be brought to declare such wagers or the disbursement of any fees previously escrowed illegal.

(1) Between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee other than the host track may supplement the host track simulcast program with additional simulcast races or race programs, provided that between January 1 and the third Friday in February of any year, inclusive, if no live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois during this period, only thoroughbred races may be used for supplemental interstate simulcast purposes. The Board shall withhold approval for a supplemental interstate simulcast only if it finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. A supplemental interstate simulcast may be transmitted from an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee to its affiliated non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for a supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by the non-host licensee and its affiliated non-host licensees receiving the simulcast.

(2) Between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee other than the host track may receive supplemental interstate simulcasts only with the consent of the host track, except when the Board finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. Consent granted under this paragraph (2) to any inter-track intertrack wagering licensee shall be deemed consent to all non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for the supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by all participating non-host licensees.

(3) Each licensee conducting interstate simulcast wagering may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. If any licensee conducts the pari-mutuel system wagering on races conducted at racetracks in another state or country, each such race or race program shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax of that daily handle as provided in subsection (a) of Section 27. Until January 1, 2000, from the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this subsection, each inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on simulcast wagering to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, subject to the provisions of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (11) of subsection (h) of Section 26 of this Act.

(4) A licensee who receives an interstate simulcast may combine its gross or net pools with pools at the sending racetracks pursuant to rules established by the Board. All licensees combining their gross pools at a sending racetrack shall adopt the take-out percentages of the sending racetrack. A licensee may also establish a separate pool and takeout structure for wagering purposes on races conducted at race tracks outside of the State of Illinois. The licensee may permit pari-mutuel wagers placed in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or other wagering pools.

(5) After the payment of the interstate commission fee (except for the interstate commission fee on a supplemental interstate simulcast, which shall be paid by the host track and by each non-host licensee through the host-track) and all applicable State and local taxes, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, the remainder of moneys retained from simulcast wagering pursuant to this subsection (g), and Section 26.2 shall be divided as follows:

(A) For interstate simulcast wagers made at a host track, 50% to the host track and 50% to purses at the host track.

(B) For wagers placed on interstate simulcast races, supplemental simulcasts as defined in subparagraphs (1) and (2), and separately pooled races conducted outside of the State of Illinois made at a non-host licensee, 25% to the host track, 25% to the non-host licensee, and 50% to the purses at the host track.

(6) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River may receive supplemental interstate simulcast races at all times subject to Board approval, which shall be withheld only upon a finding that a supplemental interstate simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing.

(7) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain 50% of the retention from interstate simulcast wagers and shall pay 50% to purses at the track from which the non-host licensee derives its license as follows:

(A) Between January 1 and the third Friday in February, inclusive, if no live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois during this period, when the interstate simulcast is a standardbred race, the purse share to its standardbred purse account;

(B) Between January 1 and the third Friday in February, inclusive, if no live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois during this period, and the interstate simulcast is a thoroughbred race, the purse share to its interstate simulcast purse pool to be distributed under paragraph (10) of this subsection (g);

(C) Between January 1 and the third Friday in February, inclusive, if live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois, between 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. the purse share from wagers made during this time period to its thoroughbred purse account and between 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. the purse share from wagers made during this time period to its standardbred purse accounts;

(D) Between the third Saturday in February and December 31, when the interstate simulcast occurs between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m., the purse share to its thoroughbred purse account;

(E) Between the third Saturday in February and December 31, when the interstate simulcast occurs between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m., the purse share to its standardbred purse account.

(7.1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no standardbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. during that calendar year shall be paid as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be paid to its thoroughbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund and shall be paid to purses for standardbred races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses conducted at any county fairgrounds. The moneys deposited into the Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to standardbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys paid into that Fund. The moneys deposited pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be allocated as provided by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board.

(7.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no thoroughbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. during that calendar year shall be deposited as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be deposited into its standardbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund. Moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be paid to Illinois conceived and foaled thoroughbred breeders' programs and to thoroughbred purses for races conducted at any county fairgrounds for Illinois conceived and foaled horses at the discretion of the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board. The moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to thoroughbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys deposited into that Fund.

(7.3) If no live standardbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County in calendar year 2000 or 2001, an organization licensee who is licensed to conduct horse racing at that racetrack shall, before January 1, 2002, pay all moneys derived from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering in calendar years 2000 and 2001 and paid into the licensee's standardbred purse account as follows:

(A) Eighty percent to that licensee's thoroughbred purse account to be used for thoroughbred purses; and

(B) Twenty percent to the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund.

Failure to make the payment to the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund before January 1, 2002 shall result in the immediate revocation of the licensee's organization license, inter-track wagering license, and inter-track wagering location license.

Moneys paid into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this paragraph (7.3) shall be paid to purses for standardbred races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses conducted at any county fairgrounds. Moneys paid into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this paragraph (7.3) shall be used as determined by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to standardbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with any other moneys paid into that Fund.

(7.4) If live standardbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County at any time in calendar year 2001 before the payment required under paragraph (7.3) has been made, the organization licensee who is licensed to conduct racing at that racetrack shall pay all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering during calendar years 2000 and 2001 that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. during 2000 or 2001 to the standardbred purse account at that racetrack to be used for standardbred purses.

(8) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, an organization licensee from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River and its affiliated non-host licensees shall not be entitled to share in any retention generated on racing, inter-track wagering, or simulcast wagering at any other Illinois wagering facility.

(8.1) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, if 2 organization licensees are conducting standardbred race meetings concurrently between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m., after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, the remainder of the amount retained from simulcast wagering otherwise attributable to the host track and to host track purses shall be split daily between the 2 organization licensees and the purses at the tracks of the 2 organization licensees, respectively, based on each organization licensee's share of the total live handle for that day, provided that this provision shall not apply to any non-host licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) The Board shall have authority to compel all host tracks to receive the simulcast of any or all races conducted at the Springfield or DuQuoin State fairgrounds and include all such races as part of their simulcast programs.

(13) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in the event that the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all wagering facilities in any calendar year is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all such wagering facilities for calendar year 1994, then each wagering facility that has an annual total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races that is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at such wagering facility for calendar year 1994, shall be permitted to receive, from any amount otherwise payable to the purse account at the race track with which the wagering facility is affiliated in the succeeding calendar year, an amount equal to 2% of the differential in total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at the wagering facility between that calendar year in question and 1994 provided, however, that a wagering facility shall not be entitled to any such payment until the Board certifies in writing to the wagering facility the amount to which the wagering facility is entitled and a schedule for payment of the amount to the wagering facility, based on: (i) the racing dates awarded to the race track affiliated with the wagering facility during the succeeding year; (ii) the sums available or anticipated to be available in the purse account of the race track affiliated with the wagering facility for purses during the succeeding year; and (iii) the need to ensure reasonable purse levels during the payment period. The Board's certification shall be provided no later than January 31 of the succeeding year. In the event a wagering facility entitled to a payment under this paragraph (13) is affiliated with a race track that maintains purse accounts for both standardbred and thoroughbred racing, the amount to be paid to the wagering facility shall be divided between each purse account pro rata, based on the amount of Illinois handle on Illinois standardbred and thoroughbred racing respectively at the wagering facility during the previous calendar year. Annually, the General Assembly shall appropriate sufficient funds from the General Revenue Fund to the Department of Agriculture for payment into the thoroughbred and standardbred horse racing purse accounts at Illinois pari-mutuel tracks. The amount paid to each purse account shall be the amount certified by the Illinois Racing Board in January to be transferred from each account to each eligible racing facility in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(h) The Board may approve and license the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees subject to the following terms and conditions:

(1) Any person licensed to conduct a race meeting (i) at a track where 60 or more days of racing were conducted during the immediately preceding calendar year or where over the 5 immediately preceding calendar years an average of 30 or more days of racing were conducted annually may be issued an inter-track wagering license; (ii) at a track located in a county that is bounded by the Mississippi River, which has a population of less than 150,000 according to the 1990 decennial census, and an average of at least 60 days of racing per year between 1985 and 1993 may be issued an inter-track wagering license; or (iii) at a track located in Madison County that conducted at least 100 days of live racing during the immediately preceding calendar year may be issued an inter-track wagering license, unless a lesser schedule of live racing is the result of (A) weather, unsafe track conditions, or other acts of God; (B) an agreement between the organization licensee and the associations representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting; or (C) a finding by the Board of extraordinary circumstances and that it was in the best interest of the public and the sport to conduct fewer than 100 days of live racing. Any such person having operating control of the racing facility may receive inter-track wagering location licenses. An eligible race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River may establish up to 9 inter-track wagering locations, and an eligible race track located in Stickney Township in Cook County may establish up to 16 inter-track wagering locations, and an eligible race track located in Palatine Township in Cook County may establish up to 18 inter-track wagering locations. An application for said license shall be filed with the Board prior to such dates as may be fixed by the Board. With an application for an inter-track wagering location license there shall be delivered to the Board a certified check or bank draft payable to the order of the Board for an amount equal to $500. The application shall be on forms prescribed and furnished by the Board. The application shall comply with all other rules, regulations and conditions imposed by the Board in connection therewith.

(2) The Board shall examine the applications with respect to their conformity with this Act and the rules and regulations imposed by the Board. If found to be in compliance with the Act and rules and regulations of the Board, the Board may then issue a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering to such applicant. All such applications shall be acted upon by the Board at a meeting to be held on such date as may be fixed by the Board.

(3) In granting licenses to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public, of horse racing, and of maximizing revenue to the State.

(4) Prior to the issuance of a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the applicant shall file with the Board a bond payable to the State of Illinois in the sum of $50,000, executed by the applicant and a surety company or companies authorized to do business in this State, and conditioned upon (i) the payment by the licensee of all taxes due under Section 27 or 27.1 and any other monies due and payable under this Act, and (ii) distribution by the licensee, upon presentation of the winning ticket or tickets, of all sums payable to the patrons of pari-mutuel pools.

(5) Each license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall specify the person to whom it is issued, the dates on which such wagering is permitted, and the track or location where the wagering is to be conducted.

(6) All wagering under such license is subject to this Act and to the rules and regulations from time to time prescribed by the Board, and every such license issued by the Board shall contain a recital to that effect.

(7) An inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee may accept wagers at the track or location where it is licensed, or as otherwise provided under this Act.

(8) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted at any track less than 5 miles from a track at which a racing meeting is in progress.

(8.1) Inter-track wagering location licensees who derive their licenses from a particular organization licensee shall conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only at locations that are within 160 miles of that race track where the particular organization licensee is licensed to conduct racing. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those licensees at any location within 5 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made. In the case of any inter-track wagering location licensee initially licensed after December 31, 2013, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those inter-track wagering location licensees that are located outside the City of Chicago at any location within 8 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made.

(8.2) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee at any location within 500 feet of an existing church or existing school, nor within 500 feet of the residences of more than 50 registered voters without receiving written permission from a majority of the registered voters at such residences. Such written permission statements shall be filed with the Board. The distance of 500 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services, education programs, residential purposes, or conducting inter-track wagering by an inter-track wagering location licensee, and not to property boundaries. However, inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site within 500 feet of a church, school or residences of 50 or more registered voters if such church, school or residences have been erected or established, or such voters have been registered, after the Board issues the original inter-track wagering location license at the site in question. Inter-track wagering location licensees may conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only in areas that are zoned for commercial or manufacturing purposes or in areas for which a special use has been approved by the local zoning authority. However, no license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall be granted by the Board with respect to any inter-track wagering location within the jurisdiction of any local zoning authority which has, by ordinance or by resolution, prohibited the establishment of an inter-track wagering location within its jurisdiction. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site if such ordinance or resolution is enacted after the Board licenses the original inter-track wagering location licensee for the site in question.

(9) (Blank).

(10) An inter-track wagering licensee or an inter-track wagering location licensee may retain, subject to the payment of the privilege taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. Each program of racing conducted by each inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax or pari-mutuel tax on such daily handle as provided in Section 27.

(10.1) Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, inter-track wagering location licensees shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the municipality in which such location is situated and 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the county in which such location is situated. In the event that an inter-track wagering location licensee is situated in an unincorporated area of a county, such licensee shall pay 2% of the pari-mutuel handle from such location to such county.

(10.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, with respect to inter-track intertrack wagering at a race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River ("the first race track"), or at a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, on races conducted at the first race track or on races conducted at another Illinois race track and simultaneously televised to the first race track or to a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, those moneys shall be allocated as follows:

(A) That portion of all moneys wagered on standardbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for standardbred races.

(B) That portion of all moneys wagered on thoroughbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for thoroughbred races.

(11) (A) After payment of the privilege or pari-mutuel tax, any other applicable taxes, and the costs and expenses in connection with the gathering, transmission, and dissemination of all data necessary to the conduct of inter-track wagering, the remainder of the monies retained under either Section 26 or Section 26.2 of this Act by the inter-track wagering licensee on inter-track wagering shall be allocated with 50% to be split between the 2 participating licensees and 50% to purses, except that an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the Illinois organization licensee that provides the race or races, and an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with that organization licensee.

(B) From the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this Act each inter-track wagering location licensee shall pay (i) the privilege or pari-mutuel tax to the State; (ii) 4.75% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track intertrack wagering at such location on races as purses, except that an inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain all purse moneys for its own purse account consistent with distribution set forth in this subsection (h), and inter-track intertrack wagering location licensees that accept wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall distribute all purse moneys to purses at the operating host track; (iii) until January 1, 2000, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering at each inter-track wagering location licensee facility to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, provided that, to the extent the total amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund under this subsection (h) during any calendar year exceeds the amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund during calendar year 1994, that excess amount shall be redistributed (I) to all inter-track wagering location licensees, based on each licensee's pro-rata share of the total handle from inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering for all inter-track wagering location licensees during the calendar year in which this provision is applicable; then (II) the amounts redistributed to each inter-track wagering location licensee as described in subpart (I) shall be further redistributed as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 provided first, that the shares of those amounts, which are to be redistributed to the host track or to purses at the host track under subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 shall be redistributed based on each host track's pro rata share of the total inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering handle at all host tracks during the calendar year in question, and second, that any amounts redistributed as described in part (I) to an inter-track wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall be further redistributed as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E) of paragraph (7) of subsection (g) of this Section 26, with the portion of that further redistribution allocated to purses at that organization licensee to be divided between standardbred purses and thoroughbred purses based on the amounts otherwise allocated to purses at that organization licensee during the calendar year in question; and (iv) 8% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track wagering wagered at such location to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering. The remainder of the monies retained by the inter-track wagering location licensee shall be allocated 40% to the location licensee and 60% to the organization licensee which provides the Illinois races to the location, except that an inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee that provides the race or races and an inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee. Notwithstanding the provisions of clauses (ii) and (iv) of this paragraph, in the case of the additional inter-track wagering location licenses authorized under paragraph (1) of this subsection (h) by Public Act 87-110 this amendatory Act of 1991, those licensees shall pay the following amounts as purses: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 5.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location on races; during the second 12 months, 5.25%; during the third 12 months, 5.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 6.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. The following amounts shall be retained by the licensee to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 8.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location; during the second 12 months, 8.25%; during the third 12 months, 7.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 7.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. For additional inter-track intertrack wagering location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16 this amendatory Act of 1995, purses for the first 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 5.75% of the pari-mutuel wagered at the location, purses for the second 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 6.25%, and purses thereafter shall be 6.75%. For additional inter-track intertrack location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16 this amendatory Act of 1995, the licensee shall be allowed to retain to satisfy all costs and expenses: 7.75% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location during its first 12 months of operation, 7.25% during its second 12 months of operation, and 6.75% thereafter.

(C) There is hereby created the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund which shall remain in existence until December 31, 1999. Moneys remaining in the Fund after December 31, 1999 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund. Until January 1, 2000, all monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) by inter-track wagering location licensees located in park districts of 500,000 population or less, or in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, and operating on May 1, 1994 shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to park districts or municipalities that do not have a park district of 500,000 population or less for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in such a park district) or to conservation districts for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, except that if the conservation district does not maintain a museum, the monies shall be allocated equally between the county and the municipality in which the inter-track wagering location licensee is located for general purposes) or to a municipal recreation board for park purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district and park maintenance is the function of the municipal recreation board and the municipality has a 1990 population of 9,302 according to the United States Bureau of the Census); provided that the monies are distributed to each park district or conservation district or municipality that does not have a park district in an amount equal to four-sevenths of the amount collected by each inter-track wagering location licensee within the park district or conservation district or municipality for the Fund. Monies that were paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund before August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110) this amendatory Act of 1991 by an inter-track wagering location licensee located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district as provided in this paragraph shall, as soon as practicable after August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110) this amendatory Act of 1991, be allocated and paid to that conservation district as provided in this paragraph. Any park district or municipality not maintaining a museum may deposit the monies in the corporate fund of the park district or municipality where the inter-track wagering location is located, to be used for general purposes; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967.

Until January 1, 2000, all other monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to museums and aquariums located in park districts of over 500,000 population; provided that the monies are distributed in accordance with the previous year's distribution of the maintenance tax for such museums and aquariums as provided in Section 2 of the Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967. This subparagraph (C) shall be inoperative and of no force and effect on and after January 1, 2000.

(D) Except as provided in paragraph (11) of this subsection (h), with respect to purse allocation from inter-track intertrack wagering, the monies so retained shall be divided as follows:

(i) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is not conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the entire purse allocation shall be to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted.

(ii) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track intertrack wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is also conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the purse allocation shall be as follows: 50% to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted; 50% to purses at the track where the inter-track wagering licensee is accepting such wagers.

(iii) If the inter-track wagering is being conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee, except an inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, the entire purse allocation for Illinois races shall be to purses at the track where the race meeting being wagered on is being held.

(12) The Board shall have all powers necessary and proper to fully supervise and control the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees, including, but not limited to the following:

(A) The Board is vested with power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations for the purpose of administering the conduct of this wagering and to prescribe reasonable rules, regulations and conditions under which such wagering shall be held and conducted. Such rules and regulations are to provide for the prevention of practices detrimental to the public interest and for the best interests of said wagering and to impose penalties for violations thereof.

(B) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, is vested with the power to enter the facilities of any licensee to determine whether there has been compliance with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations relating to the conduct of such wagering.

(C) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, may eject or exclude from any licensee's facilities, any person whose conduct or reputation is such that his presence on such premises may, in the opinion of the Board, call into the question the honesty and integrity of, or interfere with the orderly conduct of such wagering; provided, however, that no person shall be excluded or ejected from such premises solely on the grounds of race, color, creed, national origin, ancestry, or sex.

(D) (Blank).

(E) The Board is vested with the power to appoint delegates to execute any of the powers granted to it under this Section for the purpose of administering this wagering and any rules and regulations promulgated in accordance with this Act.

(F) The Board shall name and appoint a State director of this wagering who shall be a representative of the Board and whose duty it shall be to supervise the conduct of inter-track wagering as may be provided for by the rules and regulations of the Board; such rules and regulation shall specify the method of appointment and the Director's powers, authority and duties.

(G) The Board is vested with the power to impose civil penalties of up to $5,000 against individuals and up to $10,000 against licensees for each violation of any provision of this Act relating to the conduct of this wagering, any rules adopted by the Board, any order of the Board or any other action which in the Board's discretion, is a detriment or impediment to such wagering.

(13) The Department of Agriculture may enter into agreements with licensees authorizing such licensees to conduct inter-track wagering on races to be held at the licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture. Such agreement shall specify the races of the Department of Agriculture's licensed race meeting upon which the licensees will conduct wagering. In the event that a licensee conducts inter-track pari-mutuel wagering on races from the Illinois State Fair or DuQuoin State Fair which are in addition to the licensee's previously approved racing program, those races shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege or pari-mutuel tax on that daily handle as provided in Sections 27 and 27.1. Such agreements shall be approved by the Board before such wagering may be conducted. In determining whether to grant approval, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public and of horse racing. The provisions of paragraphs (1), (8), (8.1), and (8.2) of subsection (h) of this Section which are not specified in this paragraph (13) shall not apply to licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture at the Illinois State Fair in Sangamon County or the DuQuoin State Fair in Perry County, or to any wagering conducted on those race meetings.

(14) An inter-track wagering location license authorized by the Board in 2016 that is owned and operated by a race track in Rock Island County shall be transferred to a commonly owned race track in Cook County on August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-757) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. The licensee shall retain its status in relation to purse distribution under paragraph (11) of this subsection (h) following the transfer to the new entity. The pari-mutuel tax credit under Section 32.1 shall not be applied toward any pari-mutuel tax obligation of the inter-track wagering location licensee of the license that is transferred under this paragraph (14).

(i) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, the conduct of wagering at wagering facilities is authorized on all days, except as limited by subsection (b) of Section 19 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-18, eff. 6-7-13; 98-624, eff. 1-29-14; 98-968, eff. 8-15-14; 99-756, eff. 8-12-16; 99-757, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-14-16.)

(230 ILCS 5/26.2) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-26.2)

Sec. 26.2. In addition to the amount retained by licensees pursuant to Section 26, each licensee may retain an additional amount up to 3 1/2% of the amount wagered on all multiple wagers plus an additional amount up to 8% of the amount wagered on any other multiple wager that involves a single betting interest on 3 or more horses. Amounts retained by organization licensees and inter-track wagering licensees on all forms of wagering shall be allocated, after payment of applicable State and local taxes among organization licensees, inter-track wagering licensees, and purses as set forth in paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of Section 26, subparagraph (A) of paragraph (11) of subsection (h) of Section 26, and subsection (a) of Section 29 of this Act. Amounts retained by inter-track intertrack wagering location licensees under this Section on all forms of wagering shall be allocated, after payment of applicable State and local taxes, among organization licensees, inter-track intertrack wagering location licensees, and purses as set forth in paragraph 5 of subsection (g) of Section 26 and subparagraph (B) of paragraph (11) of subsection (h) of Section 26.

(Source: P.A. 89-16, eff. 5-30-95; revised 9-2-16.)

(230 ILCS 5/32.1)

Sec. 32.1. Pari-mutuel tax credit; statewide racetrack real estate equalization. In order to encourage new investment in Illinois racetrack facilities and mitigate differing real estate tax burdens among all racetracks, the licensees affiliated or associated with each racetrack that has been awarded live racing dates in the current year shall receive an immediate pari-mutuel tax credit in an amount equal to the greater of (i) 50% of the amount of the real estate taxes paid in the prior year attributable to that racetrack, or (ii) the amount by which the real estate taxes paid in the prior year attributable to that racetrack exceeds 60% of the average real estate taxes paid in the prior year for all racetracks awarded live horse racing meets in the current year.

Each year, regardless of whether the organization licensee conducted live racing in the year of certification, the Board shall certify in writing, prior to December 31, the real estate taxes paid in that year for each racetrack and the amount of the pari-mutuel tax credit that each organization licensee, inter-track intertrack wagering licensee, and inter-track intertrack wagering location licensee that derives its license from such racetrack is entitled in the succeeding calendar year. The real estate taxes considered under this Section for any racetrack shall be those taxes on the real estate parcels and related facilities used to conduct a horse race meeting and inter-track wagering at such racetrack under this Act. In no event shall the amount of the tax credit under this Section exceed the amount of pari-mutuel taxes otherwise calculated under this Act. The amount of the tax credit under this Section shall be retained by each licensee and shall not be subject to any reallocation or further distribution under this Act. The Board may promulgate emergency rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-40, eff. 6-25-99; revised 9-2-16.)

(230 ILCS 5/40) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-40)

Sec. 40. (a) The imposition of any fine or penalty provided in this Act shall not preclude the Board in its rules and regulations from imposing a fine or penalty for any other action which, in the Board's discretion, is a detriment or impediment to horse racing.

(b) The Director of Agriculture or his or her authorized representative shall impose the following monetary penalties and hold administrative hearings as required for failure to submit the following applications, lists, or reports within the time period, date or manner required by statute or rule or for removing a foal from Illinois prior to inspection:

(1) late filing of a renewal application for offering or standing stallion for service:

(A) if an application is submitted no more than 30 days late, $50;

(B) if an application is submitted no more than 45 days late, $150; or

(C) if an application is submitted more than 45 days late, if filing of the application is allowed under an administrative hearing, $250;

(2) late filing of list or report of mares bred:

(A) if a list or report is submitted no more than 30 days late, $50;

(B) if a list or report is submitted no more than 60 days late, $150; or

(C) if a list or report is submitted more than 60 days late, if filing of the list or report is allowed under an administrative hearing, $250;

(3) filing an Illinois foaled thoroughbred mare status report after December 31:

(A) if a report is submitted no more than 30 days late, $50;

(B) if a report is submitted no more than 90 days late, $150;

(C) if a report is submitted no more than 150 days late, $250; or

(D) if a report is submitted more than 150 days late, if filing of the report is allowed under an administrative hearing, $500;

(4) late filing of application for foal eligibility certificate:

(A) if an application is submitted no more than 30 days late, $50;

(B) if an application is submitted no more than 90 days late, $150;

(C) if an application is submitted no more than 150 days late, $250; or

(D) if an application is submitted more than 150 days late, if filing of the application is allowed under an administrative hearing, $500;

(5) failure to report the intent to remove a foal from Illinois prior to inspection, identification and certification by a Department of Agriculture investigator, $50; and

(6) if a list or report of mares bred is incomplete, $50 per mare not included on the list or report.

Any person upon whom monetary penalties are imposed under this Section 3 times within a 5-year 5 year period shall have any further monetary penalties imposed at double the amounts set forth above. All monies assessed and collected for violations relating to thoroughbreds shall be paid into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund. All monies assessed and collected for violations relating to standardbreds shall be paid into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

(Source: P.A. 87-397; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 565. The Raffles and Poker Runs Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(230 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 2302)

Sec. 2. Licensing.

(a) The governing body of any county or municipality within this State may establish a system for the licensing of organizations to operate raffles. The governing bodies of a county and one or more municipalities may, pursuant to a written contract, jointly establish a system for the licensing of organizations to operate raffles within any area of contiguous territory not contained within the corporate limits of a municipality which is not a party to such contract. The governing bodies of two or more adjacent counties or two or more adjacent municipalities located within a county may, pursuant to a written contract, jointly establish a system for the licensing of organizations to operate raffles within the corporate limits of such counties or municipalities. The licensing authority may establish special categories of licenses and promulgate rules relating to the various categories. The licensing system shall provide for limitations upon (1) the aggregate retail value of all prizes or merchandise awarded by a licensee in a single raffle, (2) the maximum retail value of each prize awarded by a licensee in a single raffle, (3) the maximum price which may be charged for each raffle chance issued or sold and (4) the maximum number of days during which chances may be issued or sold. The licensing system may include a fee for each license in an amount to be determined by the local governing body. Licenses issued pursuant to this Act shall be valid for one raffle or for a specified number of raffles to be conducted during a specified period not to exceed one year and may be suspended or revoked for any violation of this Act. A local governing body shall act on a license application within 30 days from the date of application. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a county or municipality from adopting rules or ordinances for the operation of raffles that are more restrictive than provided for in this Act. Except for raffles organized by law enforcement agencies and statewide associations that represent law enforcement officials as provided in Section 9 of this Act, the governing body of a municipality may authorize the sale of raffle chances only within the borders of the municipality. Except for raffles organized by law enforcement agencies and statewide associations that represent law enforcement officials as provided in Section 9, the governing body of the county may authorize the sale of raffle chances only in those areas which are both within the borders of the county and outside the borders of any municipality.

(a-5) The governing body of Cook County may and any other county within this State shall establish a system for the licensing of organizations to operate poker runs. The governing bodies of 2 or more adjacent counties may, pursuant to a written contract, jointly establish a system for the licensing of organizations to operate poker runs within the corporate limits of such counties. The licensing authority may establish special categories of licenses and adopt rules relating to the various categories. The licensing system may include a fee not to exceed $25 for each license. Licenses issued pursuant to this Act shall be valid for one poker run or for a specified number of poker runs to be conducted during a specified period not to exceed one year and may be suspended or revoked for any violation of this Act. A local governing body shall act on a license application within 30 days after the date of application.

(b) Raffle licenses shall be issued only to bona fide religious, charitable, labor, business, fraternal, educational or veterans' organizations that operate without profit to their members and which have been in existence continuously for a period of 5 years immediately before making application for a raffle license and which have had during that entire 5-year period a bona fide membership engaged in carrying out their objects, or to a non-profit fundraising organization that the licensing authority determines is organized for the sole purpose of providing financial assistance to an identified individual or group of individuals suffering extreme financial hardship as the result of an illness, disability, accident or disaster, as well as law enforcement agencies and statewide associations that represent law enforcement officials as provided for in Section 9 of this Act. Poker run licenses shall be issued only to bona fide religious, charitable, labor, business, fraternal, educational, veterans', or other bona fide not-for-profit organizations that operate without profit to their members and which have been in existence continuously for a period of 5 years immediately before making application for a poker run license and which have had during that entire 5-year period a bona fide membership engaged in carrying out their objects. Licenses for poker runs shall be issued for the following purposes: (i) providing financial assistance to an identified individual or group of individuals suffering extreme financial hardship as the result of an illness, disability, accident, or disaster or (ii) to maintain the financial stability of the organization. A licensing authority may waive the 5-year requirement under this subsection (b) for a bona fide religious, charitable, labor, business, fraternal, educational, or veterans' organization that applies for a license to conduct a poker run if the organization is a local organization that is affiliated with and chartered by a national or State organization that meets the 5-year requirement.

For purposes of this Act, the following definitions apply. Non-profit: An organization or institution organized and conducted on a not-for-profit basis with no personal profit inuring to any one as a result of the operation. Charitable: An organization or institution organized and operated to benefit an indefinite number of the public. The service rendered to those eligible for benefits must also confer some benefit on the public. Educational: An organization or institution organized and operated to provide systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to schools and institutions of learning which compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools. Religious: Any church, congregation, society, or organization founded for the purpose of religious worship. Fraternal: An organization of persons having a common interest, the primary interest of which is to both promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to lessen the burdens of government by caring for those that otherwise would be cared for by the government. Veterans: An organization or association comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit. Labor: An organization composed of workers organized with the objective of betterment of the conditions of those engaged in such pursuit and the development of a higher degree of efficiency in their respective occupations. Business: A voluntary organization composed of individuals and businesses who have joined together to advance the commercial, financial, industrial and civic interests of a community.

(c) Poker runs shall be licensed by the county with jurisdiction over the key location. The license granted by the key location shall cover the entire poker run, including locations other than the key location. Each license issued shall include the name and address of each predetermined location.

(Source: P.A. 98-644, eff. 6-10-14; 99-405, eff. 8-19-15; 99-757, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 570. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 3-12, 5-1, 5-3, 6-4, 6-11, 6-15, and 6-28.5 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/3-12)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State commission shall have the following powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation.

For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 was committed.

The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed desks.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred, or initiate an investigation with the appropriate law enforcement officials.

(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers for mandatory and non-mandatory training under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission shall issue a written report to the Governor and General Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of Section 1926 of the federal Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of 1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the extent to which Illinois currently complies with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated pursuant thereto.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following essential information:

(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco products, by type and geographic area, in the State;

(ii) the number of reported citations and successful convictions, categorized by type and location of retail distributor, for violation of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless Tobacco Limitation Act;

(iii) the extent and nature of organized educational and governmental activities that are intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and

(iv) the level of access and availability of tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.

To obtain the data necessary to comply with the provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced inspections of a geographically and scientifically representative sample of the State's retail tobacco distributors.

The Commission shall consult with the Department of Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the Illinois State Police and any other executive branch agency, and private organizations that may have information relevant to this report.

The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 95-634 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or Public Act 95-634 amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or its agents, the Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(18) (A) A class 1 brewer licensee, who must also be either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer, may make application to the State Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the class 1 brewer licensee shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the State Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the State Commission. The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the class 1 brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufactures manufacturers more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer; (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500 gallons of its beer to retail licensees; and (5) has relinquished any brew pub license held by the licensee, including any ownership interest it held in the licensed brew pub.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any other alcoholic beverage.

(E) The State Commission shall issue rules and regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 90-739 this amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of Public Act 90-739 this amendatory Act of 1998;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of Public Act 90-739 this amendatory Act of 1998;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-939, eff. 7-1-15; 98-941, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; revised 9-13-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class 10. Class 1 Brewer, Class 11. Class 2 Brewer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license,

(r) Winery shipper's license,

(s) Craft distiller tasting permit.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634), is a holder of a first-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634), is a holder of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the manufacture of up to 100,000 March 1, 2013 (Public Act 97-1166) gallons of spirits by distillation per year and the storage of such spirits. If a craft distiller licensee, including a craft distiller licensee who holds more than one craft distiller license, is not affiliated with any other manufacturer of spirits, then the craft distiller licensee may sell such spirits to distributors in this State and up to 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees to the extent permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act. A craft distiller license holder may store such spirits at a non-contiguous licensed location, but at no time shall a craft distiller license holder directly or indirectly produce in the aggregate more than 100,000 gallons of spirits per year.

A craft distiller licensee may hold more than one craft distiller's license. However, a craft distiller that holds more than one craft distiller license shall not manufacture, in the aggregate, more than 100,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year and shall not sell, in the aggregate, more than 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees in accordance with an exemption approved by the State Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act.

Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on July 28, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1367) was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to pay the initial licensing fee.

Class 10. A class 1 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 930,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 1 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 930,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 930,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 1 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors and to retail licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act.

Class 11. A class 2 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 2 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 2 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors, but shall not make sales or deliveries to any other licensee. If the State Commission provides prior approval, a class 2 brewer licensee may annually transfer up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer manufactured by that class 2 brewer licensee to the premises of a licensed class 2 brewer wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor to licensed distributors or importing distributors and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration. The State Commission shall post a list of registered agents on the Commission's website.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. No person licensed as a distributor shall be granted a non-resident dealer's license.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only. No person licensed as an importing distributor shall be granted a non-resident dealer's license.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. Nothing in Public Act 95-634 shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer, deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance. Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows: Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i) the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers. No person licensed as a non-resident dealer shall be granted a distributor's or importing distributor's license.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee to only (i) manufacture up to 155,000 gallons of beer per year only on the premises specified in the license, (ii) make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or, with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on another brew pub licensed premises that is wholly owned and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, (iii) store the beer upon the premises, (iv) sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises for off-premises consumption no more than 155,000 gallons per year so long as such sales are only made in-person, (v) sell and offer for sale at retail for use and consumption on the premises specified in the license any form of alcoholic liquor purchased from a licensed distributor or importing distributor, and (vi) with the prior approval of the Commission, annually transfer no more than 155,000 gallons of beer manufactured on the premises to a licensed brew pub wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

A brew pub licensee shall not under any circumstance sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the brew pub licensee to retail licensees.

A person who holds a class 2 brewer license may simultaneously hold a brew pub license if the class 2 brewer (i) does not, under any circumstance, sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the class 2 brewer to retail licensees; (ii) does not hold more than 3 brew pub licenses in this State; (iii) does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year, including the beer manufactured at the brew pub; and (iv) is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a licensed brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer who before July 1, 2015 manufactured less than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and held a brew pub license on or before July 1, 2015 may (i) continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license for the licensed premises and (ii) manufacture more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license if that brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer does not simultaneously hold a class 1 brewer license and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or that produces any other alcoholic liquor.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12-month 12 month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a true copy of its current license in any state in which it is licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery shipper's license must also complete an application form that provides any other information the Commission deems necessary. The application form shall include all addresses from which the applicant for a winery shipper's license intends to ship wine, including the name and address of any third party, except for a common carrier, authorized to ship wine on behalf of the manufacturer. The application form shall include an acknowledgement consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of ensuring compliance with Public Act 95-634, and an acknowledgement that the wine manufacturer is in compliance with Section 6-2 of this Act. Any third party, except for a common carrier, authorized to ship wine on behalf of a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's licensee, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's licensee, a limited wine manufacturer's licensee, or a person who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state shall also be disclosed by the winery shipper's licensee, and a copy of the written appointment of the third-party wine provider, except for a common carrier, to the wine manufacturer shall be filed with the State Commission as a supplement to the winery shipper's license application or any renewal thereof. The winery shipper's license holder shall affirm under penalty of perjury, as part of the winery shipper's license application or renewal, that he or she only ships wine, either directly or indirectly through a third-party provider, from the licensee's own production.

Except for a common carrier, a third-party provider shipping wine on behalf of a winery shipper's license holder is the agent of the winery shipper's license holder and, as such, a winery shipper's license holder is responsible for the acts and omissions of the third-party provider acting on behalf of the license holder. A third-party provider, except for a common carrier, that engages in shipping wine into Illinois on behalf of a winery shipper's license holder shall consent to the jurisdiction of the State Commission and the State. Any third-party, except for a common carrier, holding such an appointment shall, by February 1 of each calendar year, file with the State Commission a statement detailing each shipment made to an Illinois resident. The State Commission shall adopt rules as soon as practicable to implement the requirements of Public Act 99-904 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly and shall adopt rules prohibiting any such third-party appointment of a third-party provider, except for a common carrier, that has been deemed by the State Commission to have violated the provisions of this Act with regard to any winery shipper licensee.

A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act.

A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r) must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this Act.

Pursuant to paragraph (5.1) or (5.3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, the State Commission may receive, respond to, and investigate any complaint and impose any of the remedies specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12.

(s) A craft distiller tasting permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed craft distiller to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its craft distiller licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created and to conduct a sampling, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, of the transferred alcoholic liquor in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 6-31 of this Act. The transferred alcoholic liquor may not be sold or resold in any form. An applicant for the craft distiller tasting permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(Source: P.A. 98-394, eff. 8-16-13; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-800, eff. 8-12-16; 99-902, eff. 8-26-16; 99-904, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-15-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/5-3) (from Ch. 43, par. 118)

Sec. 5-3. License fees. Except as otherwise provided herein, at the time application is made to the State Commission for a license of any class, the applicant shall pay to the State Commission the fee hereinafter provided for the kind of license applied for.

The fee for licenses issued by the State Commission shall be as follows:

For a manufacturer's license:

Fees collected under this Section shall be paid into the Dram Shop Fund. On and after July 1, 2003 and until June 30, 2016, of the funds received for a retailer's license, in addition to the first $175, an additional $75 shall be paid into the Dram Shop Fund, and $250 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund. On and after June 30, 2016, one-half of the funds received for a retailer's license shall be paid into the Dram Shop Fund and one-half of the funds received for a retailer's license shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund. Beginning June 30, 1990 and on June 30 of each subsequent year through June 29, 2003, any balance over $5,000,000 remaining in the Dram Shop Fund shall be credited to State liquor licensees and applied against their fees for State liquor licenses for the following year. The amount credited to each licensee shall be a proportion of the balance in the Dram Fund that is the same as the proportion of the license fee paid by the licensee under this Section for the period in which the balance was accumulated to the aggregate fees paid by all licensees during that period.

No fee shall be paid for licenses issued by the State Commission to the following non-beverage users:

(a) Hospitals, sanitariums, or clinics when their use of alcoholic liquor is exclusively medicinal, mechanical or scientific.

(b) Universities, colleges of learning or schools when their use of alcoholic liquor is exclusively medicinal, mechanical or scientific.

(c) Laboratories when their use is exclusively for the purpose of scientific research.

(Source: P.A. 98-55, eff. 7-5-13; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 99-902, eff. 8-26-16; 99-904, eff. 8-26-16; revised 9-13-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-4) (from Ch. 43, par. 121)

Sec. 6-4. (a) No person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller, or a wine manufacturer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person shall be issued an importing distributor's or distributor's license, nor shall any person licensed by any licensing authority as an importing distributor, distributor or retailer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer or associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person be issued a distiller's license, a craft distiller's license, or a wine manufacturer's license; and no person or persons licensed as a distiller or craft distiller by any licensing authority shall have any interest, directly or indirectly, with such distributor or importing distributor.

However, an importing distributor or distributor, which on January 1, 1985 is owned by a brewer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of the importing distributor or distributor referred to in this paragraph, may own or acquire an ownership interest of more than 5% of the outstanding shares of a wine manufacturer and be issued a wine manufacturer's license by any licensing authority.

(b) The foregoing provisions shall not apply to any person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller or wine manufacturer, or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who shall have been heretofore licensed by the State Commission as either an importing distributor or distributor during the annual licensing period expiring June 30, 1947, and shall actually have made sales regularly to retailers.

(c) Provided, however, that in such instances where a distributor's or importing distributor's license has been issued to any distiller or wine manufacturer or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who has, during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, sold or distributed as such licensed distributor or importing distributor alcoholic liquors and wines to retailers, such distiller or wine manufacturer or any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer holding such distributor's or importing distributor's license may continue to sell or distribute to retailers such alcoholic liquors and wines which are manufactured, distilled, processed or marketed by distillers and wine manufacturers whose products it sold or distributed to retailers during the whole or any part of its licensing periods; and such additional brands and additional products may be added to the line of such distributor or importing distributor, provided, that such brands and such products were not sold or distributed by any distributor or importing distributor licensed by the State Commission during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, but can not sell or distribute to retailers any other alcoholic liquors or wines.

(d) It shall be unlawful for any distiller licensed anywhere to have any stock ownership or interest in any distributor's or importing distributor's license wherein any other person has an interest therein who is not a distiller and does not own more than 5% of any stock in any distillery. Nothing herein contained shall apply to such distillers or their subsidiaries or affiliates, who had a distributor's or importing distributor's license during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, which license was owned in whole by such distiller, or subsidiaries or affiliates of such distiller.

(e) Any person licensed as a brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer shall be permitted to sell on the licensed premises to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts such business beer manufactured by the brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises. Such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the brewer license and, other than a manufacturer of beer as stated above, no manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee or agent, or shareholder shall be issued a retailer's license, nor shall any person having a retailer's license, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative or agent, or shareholder be issued a manufacturer's license or importing distributor's license.

A person who holds a class 1 or class 2 brewer license and is authorized by this Section to sell beer to non-licensees shall not sell beer to non-licensees from more than 3 total brewer or commonly owned brew pub licensed locations in this State. The class 1 or class 2 brewer shall designate to the State Commission the brewer or brew pub locations from which it will sell beer to non-licensees.

A person licensed as a craft distiller, including a person who holds more than one craft distiller license, not affiliated with any other person manufacturing spirits may be authorized by the Commission to sell up to 2,500 gallons of spirits produced by the person to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts business permitting only the retail sale of spirits manufactured at such premises. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises, and such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the craft distiller license. A craft distiller licensed for retail sale shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

A craft distiller license holder shall not deliver any alcoholic liquor to any non-licensee off the licensed premises. A craft distiller shall affirm in its annual craft distiller's license application that it does not produce more than 100,000 gallons of distilled spirits annually and that the craft distiller does not sell more than 2,500 gallons of spirits to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption. In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the craft distiller shall state the volume of production and sales for each year since the craft distiller's establishment.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any of the foregoing prohibitions, a limited wine manufacturer may sell at retail at its manufacturing site for on or off premises consumption and may sell to distributors. A limited wine manufacturer licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(h) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-47 shall not diminish or impair the rights of any person, whether a distiller, wine manufacturer, agent, or affiliate thereof, who requested in writing and submitted documentation to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015 to be approved for a retail license pursuant to what has heretofore been subsection (f); provided that, on or before that date, the State Commission considered the intent of that person to apply for the retail license under that subsection and, by recorded vote, the State Commission approved a resolution indicating that such a license application could be lawfully approved upon that person duly filing a formal application for a retail license and if that person, within 90 days of the State Commission appearance and recorded vote, first filed an application with the appropriate local commission, which application was subsequently approved by the appropriate local commission prior to consideration by the State Commission of that person's application for a retail license. It is further provided that the State Commission may approve the person's application for a retail license or renewals of such license if such person continues to diligently adhere to all representations made in writing to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015, or thereafter, or in the affidavit filed by that person with the State Commission to support the issuance of a retail license and to abide by all applicable laws and duly adopted rules.

(Source: P.A. 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-902, eff. 8-26-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-11)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of July 10, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-617).

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are parallel, on different streets, and separated by an alley;

(2) the southeast corner of the premises are at least 350 feet from the southwest corner of the school;

(3) the school was built in 1978;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and has held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises at a different location for more than 7 years; and

(7) the premises is at least 2,300 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 6,100 and 6,150 square feet.

(l) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 80 feet apart and no greater than 85 feet apart;

(3) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and on November 15, 2006 held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises for at least 14 different locations;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the premises is at least 3,200 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 7,150 and 7,200 square feet; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(m) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises and the church are perpendicular, and the primary entrance of the premises faces South while the primary entrance of the church faces West and the distance between the two entrances is more than 100 feet;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises lot line and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(3) the church was established at the current location in 1916 and the present structure was erected in 1925;

(4) the premises is a single story, single use building with at least 1,750 square feet and no more than 2,000 square feet;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(6) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(n) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(2) the school is located within subarea E of City of Chicago Residential Business Planned Development Number 70;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food; and

(5) the administration of City of Chicago School District 299 has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of the license.

(o) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises is located on a street that runs perpendicular to the street on which the church is located;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 60 feet;

(6) the premises is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet; and

(7) the premises was built in the year 1909.

For purposes of this subsection (o), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(p) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the backdoor of the premises, which is used as an emergency exit, and the church is at least 80 feet;

(2) the church was established at the current location in 1889; and

(3) liquor has been sold on the premises since at least 1985.

(q) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church-owned property if:

(1) the premises is located within a larger building operated as a grocery store;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 720 square feet and the area of the larger building exceeds 18,000 square feet;

(3) the larger building containing the premises is within 100 feet of the nearest property line of a church-owned property on which a church-affiliated school is located;

(4) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on within the larger building;

(5) the primary entrance of the larger building and the premises and the primary entrance of the church-affiliated school are on different, parallel streets, and the distance between the 2 primary entrances is more than 100 feet;

(6) the larger building is separated from the church-owned property and church-affiliated school by an alley;

(7) the larger building containing the premises and the church building front are on perpendicular streets and are separated by a street; and

(8) (Blank).

(r) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance, renewal, or maintenance of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the primary entrance of the church and the primary entrance of the restaurant are at least 100 feet apart;

(2) the restaurant has operated on the ground floor and lower level of a multi-story, multi-use building for more than 40 years;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is conducted primarily in the below-grade level of the restaurant to which the only public access is by a staircase located inside the restaurant; and

(5) the restaurant has held a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises for more than 40 years.

(s) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population more than 5,000 and less than 10,000 and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the church was established at the location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued;

(2) a license for sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued before January 1, 2007; and

(3) a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 2007, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days.

(t) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant that is established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and a church if:

(1) the restaurant is located inside a five-story building with over 16,800 square feet of commercial space;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 31,050 square feet;

(3) the area of the restaurant does not exceed 5,800 square feet;

(4) the building has no less than 78 condominium units;

(5) the construction of the building in which the restaurant is located was completed in 2006;

(6) the building has 10 storefront properties, 3 of which are used for the restaurant;

(7) the restaurant will open for business in 2010;

(8) the building is north of the school and separated by an alley; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church and either the alderman of the ward in which the school is located or the principal of the school have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (t).

(u) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises operates as a restaurant and has been in operation since February 2008;

(2) the applicant is the owner of the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(5) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(6) the rear lot of the school and the rear corner of the building that the premises occupy are separated by an alley;

(7) the distance from the southwest corner of the property line of the school and the northeast corner of the building that the premises occupy is at least 16 feet, 5 inches;

(8) the distance from the rear door of the premises to the southwest corner of the property line of the school is at least 93 feet;

(9) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(10) the school's main structure was erected in 1902 and an addition was built to the main structure in 1959; and

(11) the principal of the school and the alderman in whose district the premises are located have expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(v) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the total land area of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is more than 600,000 square feet;

(2) the premises for which the license or renewal is sought has more than 600 parking stalls;

(3) the total area of all buildings on the premises for which the license or renewal is sought exceeds 140,000 square feet;

(4) the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is separated from the property line of the school by a street;

(5) the distance from the school's property line to the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is at least 60 feet;

(6) as of June 14, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-9), the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is located in the Illinois Medical District.

(w) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises occupy the first floor and basement of a 2-story building that is 106 years old;

(4) the premises is at least 7,000 square feet and located on a lot that is at least 11,000 square feet;

(5) the premises is located directly west of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(6) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(7) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 130 feet; and

(8) the church has been at its location for at least 40 years.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the church has been operating in its current location since 1973;

(3) the premises has been operating in its current location since 1988;

(4) the church and the premises are owned by the same parish;

(5) the premises is used for cultural and educational purposes;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his support of the issuance of the license;

(8) the premises is a 2-story building of approximately 23,000 square feet; and

(9) the premises houses a ballroom on its ground floor of approximately 5,000 square feet.

(y) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) according to the municipality, the distance between the east property line of the premises and the west property line of the school is 97.8 feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the school has been operating since 1959;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the school are located on the same street;

(7) the street on which the entrances of the premises and the school are located is a major diagonal thoroughfare;

(8) the premises is a single-story building of approximately 2,900 square feet; and

(9) the premises is used for commercial purposes only.

(z) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is a free-standing building that has "drive-through" pharmacy service;

(8) the premises has approximately 14,490 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 799 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs east-west and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is located across the street from a national grocery chain outlet;

(8) the premises has approximately 16,148 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 992 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs north-south and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(4) the premises is across the street from the church;

(5) the street on which the premises and the church are located is a major arterial street that runs east-west;

(6) the church is an elder-led and Bible-based Assyrian church;

(7) the premises and the church are both single-story buildings;

(8) the storefront directly west of the church is being used as a restaurant; and

(9) the distance between the northern-most property line of the premises and the southern-most property line of the church is 65 feet.

(cc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of October 25, 2011, the licensee has 1,767 stores operating nationwide, 87 stores operating in the State, and 10 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 124,000 square feet of space in the basement and first and second floors of a building located across the street from a school;

(6) the school opened in August of 2009 and occupies approximately 67,000 square feet of space; and

(7) the building in which the premises shall be located has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places since April 17, 1970.

(dd) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that was purchased from the municipality at a fair market price;

(2) the premises is constructed on land that was previously used as a parking facility for public safety employees;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(4) the main entrance to the store is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the school;

(5) the premises is to be new construction;

(6) the school is a private school;

(7) the principal of the school has given written approval for the license;

(8) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license;

(9) the grocery store level of the premises is between 60,000 and 70,000 square feet; and

(10) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates 2 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality.

(ee) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that once contained an industrial steel facility;

(2) the premises is located on land that has undergone environmental remediation;

(3) the premises is located within a retail complex containing retail stores where some of the stores sell alcoholic beverages;

(4) the principal activity of any restaurant in the retail complex is the sale of food, and the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the grocery store;

(6) the entrance to any business that sells alcoholic liquor is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(7) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license; and

(8) the principal of the school has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(ff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises is a one and one-half-story building of approximately 10,000 square feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are at least 300 feet apart and no more than 400 feet apart;

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his support for the issuance of the license; and

(7) the principal of the school has expressed, in writing, that there is no objection to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ff).

(gg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the property on which the church is located and the property on which the premises are located are both within a district originally listed on the National Register of Historic Places on February 14, 1979;

(3) the property on which the premises are located contains one or more multi-story buildings that are at least 95 years old and have no more than three stories;

(4) the building in which the church is located is at least 120 years old;

(5) the property on which the church is located is immediately adjacent to and west of the property on which the premises are located;

(6) the western boundary of the property on which the premises are located is no less than 118 feet in length and no more than 122 feet in length;

(7) as of December 31, 2012, both the church property and the property on which the premises are located are within 250 feet of City of Chicago Business-Residential Planned Development Number 38;

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For the purposes of this subsection, "banquet facility" means the part of the building that is located on the floor above a restaurant and caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(hh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a hotel and at an outdoor patio area attached to the hotel that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the hotel;

(2) the hotel is located within the City of Chicago Business Planned Development Number 468; and

(3) the hospital is located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(ii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant and at an outdoor patio area attached to the restaurant that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is not the principal business carried on by the licensee and is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the restaurant has been operated on the street level of a 2-story building located on a corner lot since 2008;

(3) the restaurant is between 3,700 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is no more than 6,200 square feet;

(4) the primary entrance to the restaurant and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(5) the street on which the restaurant and the church are located is a major east-west street;

(6) the restaurant and the church are separated by a one-way northbound street;

(7) the church is located to the west of and no more than 65 feet from the restaurant; and

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing.

(jj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located east of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(4) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 175 feet;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 40 feet;

(6) the licensee has been operating at the premises since 2012;

(7) the church was constructed in 1904;

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (jj).

(kk) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 169,048 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from a tuition-based preschool; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 191,535 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from an elementary school; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(mm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio or sidewalk cafe, or both, attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) as a restaurant, the premises may or may not offer catering as an incidental part of food service;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant is conducted in space owned by a hospital or an entity owned or controlled by, under common control with, or that controls a hospital, and the chief hospital administrator has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(4) the hospital is an adult acute care facility primarily located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(nn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises are a building that was constructed in 1913 and opened on May 24, 1915 as a vaudeville theater, and the premises were converted to a motion picture theater in 1935;

(4) the church was constructed in 1889 with a stone exterior;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(oo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque, church, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the mosque, church, or other place of worship are perpendicular and are on different streets;

(2) the primary entrance to the premises faces West and the primary entrance to the mosque, church, or other place of worship faces South;

(3) the distance between the 2 primary entrances is at least 100 feet;

(4) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established in a location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued;

(5) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established on or around January 1, 2011;

(6) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued on or before January 1, 1985;

(7) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 1985, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days; and

(8) the premises are a single-story, single-use building of at least 3,000 square feet and no more than 3,380 square feet.

(pp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established on premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of at least one church if:

(1) the sale of liquor shall not be the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the premises are at least 2,000 square feet and no more than 10,000 square feet and is located in a single-story building;

(3) the property on which the premises are located is within an area that, as of 2009, was designated as a Renewal Community by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development;

(4) the property on which the premises are located and the properties on which the churches are located are on the same street;

(5) the property on which the premises are located is immediately adjacent to and east of the property on which at least one of the churches is located;

(6) the property on which the premises are located is across the street and southwest of the property on which another church is located;

(7) the principal religious leaders of the churches have indicated their support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For purposes of this subsection (pp), "banquet facility" means the part of the building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(qq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on premises that are located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school are at least 200 feet apart and no greater than 300 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 66 feet apart and no greater than 81 feet apart;

(3) the premises are a single-story, steel-framed commercial building with at least 18,042 square feet, and was constructed in 1925 and 1997;

(4) the owner of the business operated within the premises has been the general manager of a similar supermarket within one mile from the premises, which has had a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor since 2002, and is in good standing with the City of Chicago;

(5) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(6) the alderman of the ward has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the principal of the school has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(rr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a club that leases space to a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a building of approximately 1,750 square feet and is rented by the owners of the grocery store from a family member;

(4) the property line of the premises is approximately 68 feet from the property line of the club;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the club where the school leases space are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the director of the club renting space to the school has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(ss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are located within a 15 unit building with 13 residential apartments and 2 commercial spaces, and the licensee will occupy both commercial spaces;

(2) a restaurant has been operated on the premises since June 2011;

(3) the restaurant currently occupies 1,075 square feet, but will be expanding to include 975 additional square feet;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(5) the premises are located south of the church and on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 93 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(7) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 72 feet;

(8) the building in which the restaurant is located was built in 1910;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ss).

(tt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was previously authorized by a package goods liquor license;

(4) the premises are at least 40,000 square feet with 25 parking spaces in the contiguous surface lot to the north of the store and 93 parking spaces on the roof;

(5) the shortest distance between the lot line of the parking lot of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(6) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 180 feet;

(7) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 257 feet from the main entrance of the premises; and

(8) the applicant is the owner of 10 similar grocery stores within the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 30 years.

(uu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are located in a building that is approximately 68,000 square feet with 157 parking spaces on property that was previously vacant land;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 500 feet from the entrance of the premises, which faces north;

(5) the church and the premises are separated by an alley;

(6) the applicant is the owner of 9 similar grocery stores in the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 40 years; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is primary to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located south of the church and on perpendicular streets and are separated by a driveway;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 15 feet;

(6) the premises are less than 100 feet from the church center, but greater than 100 feet from the area within the building where church services are held;

(7) the premises are 25,830 square feet and sit on a lot that is 0.48 acres;

(8) the premises were once designated as a Korean American Presbyterian Church and were once used as a Masonic Temple;

(9) the premises were built in 1910;

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(11) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (vv).

For the purposes of this subsection (vv), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(ww) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is located within Sub Area III of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended; and

(2) the premises are located within Sub Area I, Sub Area II, or Sub Area IV of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended.

(xx) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of wine or wine-related products is the exclusive business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart and are located on different streets;

(3) the building in which the premises are located and the building in which the church is located are separated by an alley;

(4) the premises consists of less than 2,000 square feet of floor area dedicated to the sale of wine or wine-related products;

(5) the premises are located on the first floor of a 2-story building that is at least 99 years old and has a residential unit on the second floor; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(yy) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 27-story hotel containing 191 guest rooms;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises and is limited to a restaurant located on the first floor of the hotel;

(3) the hotel is adjacent to the church;

(4) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(5) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (yy); and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(zz) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 15-story hotel containing 143 guest rooms;

(2) the premises are approximately 85,691 square feet;

(3) a restaurant is operated on the premises;

(4) the restaurant is located in the first floor lobby of the hotel;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the hotel is located approximately 50 feet from the church and is separated from the church by a public street on the ground level and by air space on the upper level, which is where the public entrances are located;

(7) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (zz); and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aaa) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the grocery store;

(2) the premises are newly constructed on land that was formerly used by the Young Men's Christian Association;

(3) the grocery store is located within a planned development that was approved by the municipality in 2007;

(4) the premises are located in a multi-building, mixed-use complex;

(5) the entrance to the grocery store is located more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(6) the entrance to the grocery store is located across the street from the back of the school building, which is not used for student or public access;

(7) the grocery store executed a binding lease for the property in 2008;

(8) the premises consist of 2 levels and occupy more than 80,000 square feet;

(9) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality; and

(10) the director of the school has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bbb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are located in a single-story building of primarily brick construction containing at least 6 commercial units constructed before 1940;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are less than 4,000 square feet;

(5) the church established its congregation in 1891 and completed construction of the church building in 1990;

(6) the premises are located south of the church;

(7) the premises and church are located on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street; and

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(ccc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) as of March 14, 2007, the premises are located in a City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development No. 1052;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store and comprises no more than 10% of the total in-store sales;

(4) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality;

(5) the premises are new construction when the license is first issued;

(6) the constructed premises are to be no less than 50,000 square feet;

(7) the school is a private church-affiliated school;

(8) the premises and the property containing the church and church-affiliated school are located on perpendicular streets and the school and church are adjacent to one another;

(9) the pastor of the church and school has expressed, in writing, support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ddd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the business has been issued a license from the municipality to allow the business to operate a theater on the premises;

(2) the theater has less than 200 seats;

(3) the premises are approximately 2,700 to 3,100 square feet of space;

(4) the premises are located to the north of the church;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any church within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any school within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(7) the premises are located in a building that is at least 100 years old; and

(8) any church or school located within 100 feet of the premises has indicated its support for the issuance or renewal of the license to the premises in writing.

(eee) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the applicant on the premises;

(3) a family-owned restaurant has operated on the premises since 1957;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(6) the church was established at its current location and the present structure was erected before 1900;

(7) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 75 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(8) the school is affiliated with the church;

(9) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing;

(10) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her lack of an objection to the issuance of the license.

(fff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a one-story building containing approximately 10,000 square feet and are rented by the owners of the grocery store;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises occurs in a retail area of the grocery store that is approximately 3,500 square feet;

(5) the grocery store has operated at the location since 1984;

(6) the grocery store is closed on Sundays;

(7) the property on which the premises are located is a corner lot that is bound by 3 streets and an alley, where one street is a one-way street that runs north-south, one street runs east-west, and one street runs northwest-southeast;

(8) the property line of the premises is approximately 16 feet from the property line of the building where the church is located;

(9) the premises are separated from the building containing the church by a public alley;

(10) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(11) representatives of the church have delivered a written statement that the church does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (fff); and

(12) the alderman of the ward in which the grocery store is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ggg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) a residential retirement home formerly operated on the premises and the premises are being converted into a new apartment living complex containing studio and one-bedroom apartments with ground floor retail space;

(2) the restaurant and lobby coffee house are located within a Community Shopping District within the municipality;

(3) the premises are located in a single-building, mixed-use complex that, in addition to the restaurant and lobby coffee house, contains apartment residences, a fitness center for the residents of the apartment building, a lobby designed as a social center for the residents, a rooftop deck, and a patio with a dog run for the exclusive use of the residents;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the apartment complex, restaurant, or lobby coffee house;

(5) the entrance to the apartment residence is more than 310 feet from the entrance to the school and church;

(6) the entrance to the apartment residence is located at the end of the block around the corner from the south side of the school building;

(7) the school is affiliated with the church;

(8) the pastor of the parish, principal of the school, and the titleholder to the church and school have given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has given written consent to the issuance of the license; and

(10) the neighborhood block club has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(hhh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for indigent persons or a church if:

(1) a restaurant operates on the premises and has been in operation since January of 2014;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 100 years old;

(5) the primary entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons, which opened in 1989 and is operated to address homelessness and provide shelter;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons are located on different streets;

(7) the executive director of the home for indigent persons has given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(8) the entrance to the premises is located within 100 feet of a Buddhist temple;

(9) the entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from where any worship or educational programming is conducted by the Buddhist temple and is located in an area used only for other purposes; and

(10) the president and the board of directors of the Buddhist temple have given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(iii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a restaurant;

(3) the premises are on the ground floor of a multi-floor, university-affiliated housing facility;

(4) the premises occupy 1,916 square feet of space, with the total square footage from which liquor will be sold, served, and consumed to be 900 square feet;

(5) the premises are separated from the home for the aged by an alley;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for the aged are at least 500 feet apart and located on different streets;

(7) representatives of the home for the aged have expressed, in writing, that the home does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the restaurant is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(jjj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) as of January 1, 2016, the premises were used for the sale of alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises and were authorized to do so pursuant to a retail tavern license held by an individual as the sole proprietor of the premises;

(2) the primary entrance to the school and the primary entrance to the premises are on the same street;

(3) the school was founded in 1949;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1930;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated is immediately across the street from the school; and

(6) the school has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(kkk) (Blank).

(lll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a synagogue or school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises are located on the same street on which the synagogue or school is located;

(4) the primary entrance to the premises and the closest entrance to the synagogue or school is at least 100 feet apart;

(5) the shortest distance between the premises and the synagogue or school is at least 65 feet apart and no greater than 70 feet apart;

(6) the premises are between 1,800 and 2,000 square feet;

(7) the synagogue was founded in 1861; and

(8) the leader of the synagogue has indicated, in writing, the synagogue's support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(mmm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the restaurant has been run by the same family for at least 19 consecutive years;

(4) the premises are located in a 3-story building in the most easterly part of the first floor;

(5) the building in which the premises are located has residential housing on the second and third floors;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises is on a north-south street around the corner and across an alley from the primary entrance to the church, which is on an east-west street;

(7) the primary entrance to the church and the primary entrance to the premises are more than 160 feet apart; and

(8) the church has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of a license under this subsection.

(nnn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and church or synagogue if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the front door of the synagogue faces east on the next north-south street east of and parallel to the north-south street on which the restaurant is located where the restaurant's front door faces west;

(4) the closest exterior pedestrian entrance that leads to the school or the synagogue is across an east-west street and at least 300 feet from the primary entrance to the restaurant;

(5) the nearest church-related or school-related building is a community center building;

(6) the restaurant is on the ground floor of a 3-story building constructed in 1896 with a brick façade;

(7) the restaurant shares the ground floor with a theater, and the second and third floors of the building in which the restaurant is located consists of residential housing;

(8) the leader of the synagogue and school has expressed, in writing, that the synagogue does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ooo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 2,000 but less than 5,000 inhabitants in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) as of March 1, 2016, the premises were used to sell alcohol pursuant to a retail tavern and packaged goods license issued by the municipality and held by a limited liability company as the proprietor of the premises;

(2) the home for the aged was completed in 2015;

(3) the home for the aged is a 5-story structure;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated is directly adjacent to the home for the aged;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1950;

(6) the home for the aged has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license; and

(7) the president of the municipality has expressed in writing that he or she does not object to the issuance or renewal of the license.

(ppp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or churches if:

(1) the shortest distance between the premises and a church is at least 78 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the premises are a single-story, brick commercial building and at least 5,067 square feet and were constructed in 1922;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are separated from the buildings containing the churches by a street;

(5) the previous owners of the business located on the premises held a liquor license for at least 10 years;

(6) the new owner of the business located on the premises has managed 2 other food and liquor stores since 1997;

(7) the principal religious leaders at the places of worship have indicated their support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(Source: P.A. 98-274, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-571, eff. 8-27-13; 98-592, eff. 11-15-13; 98-1092, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1158, eff. 1-9-15; 99-46, eff. 7-15-15; 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-477, eff. 8-27-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; 99-558, eff. 7-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)

Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered in any building belonging to or under the control of the State or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village, incorporated town, township, or county may provide by ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to or under the control of the municipality, township, or county, or in any building located on land under the control of the municipality, township, or county; provided that such township or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special use permit on any property owned by a conservation district organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that (i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the property is located, and (iii) the special use permit authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a park district organized under the Park District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500 feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500 feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park, or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners, or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District if approved by the District's governing board, or at any airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which conference and convention type activities take place belonging to or under control of any State university or public community college district, provided that with respect to a facility for conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference participants or participants in cultural, political or educational activities held in such facilities, and provided further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district, or members of an organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State university or a public community college district are active participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears professional football team is playing in that stadium during the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented facilities from a board of trustees of a public community college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana, Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board, on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years. Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates the University's acquisition of the premises; but the University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer, or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street, Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport, golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and convention type activities take place, park district, Forest Preserve District, public community college district, aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss, damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois State University in connection with the operation of an established food serving facility during times when food is dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer being utilized for fire protection purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public events and not related student activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of August 15, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-847) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall require the prior written approval of the Office of the Chancellor for the University campus where the event is located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event, or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after March 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1166) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University for events that the Board may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-795) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a public university for events that the Board of Trustees of that public university may determine are public events and not student-related activities. If the Board of Trustees of a public university has not issued a written policy pursuant to an exemption under this Section on or before July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, then that Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. As used in this paragraph, "public university" means the University of Illinois, Illinois State University, Chicago State University, Governors State University, Southern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Eastern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, and Northeastern Illinois University.

Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees of a community college district for events that the Board of Trustees of that community college district may determine are public events and not student-related activities. The Board of Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after July 15, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-550) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers relevant and important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in accordance with State law and community college district policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the venue. This paragraph does not apply to any community college district authorized to sell or serve alcoholic liquor under any other provision of this Section.

Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:

(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such building is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:

(i) the written consent of the Public Building Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is filed with the Commission;

(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions held on special occasions;

(iii) the organized function is one for which the planned attendance is 25 or more persons;

(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss, damage or harm; and

(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building belonging to or under the control of any city, village or incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical properties of the building is used for commercial or recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under the control of the Department of Natural Resources during events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval, including but not limited to requirements for insurance and hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX. Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm. Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.

Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional sporting events and at professional concerts and other entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial loss, damage and harm.

Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful manner.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in State parks under the control of the Department of Natural Resources, provided:

a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. (blank), and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on properties under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:

a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,

b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, and

c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.

The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or park districts.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield Administration Building of the Department of Transportation and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that the controlling government authority may consent to such sales only if

a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;

b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the departments involved;

c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;

d. no such sale shall be made during normal working hours of the State of Illinois; and

e. the consent is in writing.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts. Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors on Sundays or Holidays.

Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in State housing assigned to employees of the Department of Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail, reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.

The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois State Museum. The controlling government authority for the State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed at any facility, property or building under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an individual or organization provided that such individual or organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the controlling government authority;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal workings of State offices or operations located at the facility, property or building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity of the individual or organization in the facility, property or building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

The controlling government authority for the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at 160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal business hours of any day care or child care facility located in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building; and

d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority reasonably determines is necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:

a. Obtains written consent from the Department of Central Management Services;

b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal operations of State offices located in the building;

c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in connection with an official activity in the building;

d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors.

Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit organization or agency of the State from employing the services of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of Central Management Services.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality to regulate that sale and delivery.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building situated on land held in trust for any school district organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is approved by the board of education.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by a public library district, provided that the delivery and sale is approved by the board of trustees of that public library district and is limited to library fundraising events or programs of a cultural or educational nature. Before the board of trustees of a public library district may approve the delivery and sale of alcoholic liquors, the board of trustees of the public library district must have a written policy that has been approved by the board of trustees of the public library district governing when and under what circumstances alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail on property owned by that public library district. The written policy must (i) provide that no alcoholic liquor may be sold, distributed, or consumed in any area of the library accessible to the general public during the event or program, (ii) prohibit the removal of alcoholic liquor from the venue during the event, and (iii) require that steps be taken to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic liquor to persons under the age of 21. Any public library district that has alcoholic liquor delivered to or sold at retail on property owned by the public library district shall provide dram shop liability insurance in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save harmless the public library districts from all financial loss, damage, or harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the Committee reasonably determines are necessary.

Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214 N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold on any property owned, operated, or controlled by Lewis and Clark Community College, Illinois Community College District No. 536.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River, Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District, and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with organized functions approved by the Apple River Community Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple River Community Association from all financial loss, damage, and harm.

Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago, owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago, Illinois Community College District No. 508.

(Source: P.A. 98-132, eff. 8-2-13; 98-201, eff. 8-9-13; 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1092, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; 99-550, eff. 7-15-16; 99-559, eff. 7-15-16; 99-795, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-16-16.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-28.5)

Sec. 6-28.5. Permitted happy hours and meal packages, party packages, and entertainment packages.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Dedicated event space" means a room or rooms or other clearly delineated space within a retail licensee's premises that is reserved for the exclusive use of party package invitees during the entirety of a party package. Furniture, stanchions and ropes, or other room dividers may be used to clearly delineate a dedicated event space.

"Meal package" means a food and beverage package, which may or may not include entertainment, where the service of alcoholic liquor is an accompaniment to the food, including, but not limited to, a meal, tour, tasting, or any combination thereof for a fixed price by a retail licensee or any other licensee operating within a sports facility, restaurant, winery, brewery, or distillery.

"Party package" means a private party, function, or event for a specific social or business occasion, either arranged by invitation or reservation for a defined number of individuals, that is not open to the general public and where attendees are served both food and alcohol for a fixed price in a dedicated event space.

(b) A retail licensee may:

(1) offer free food or entertainment at any time;

(2) include drinks of alcoholic liquor as part of a meal package;

(3) sell or offer for sale a party package only if the retail licensee:

(A) offers food in the dedicated event space;

(B) limits the party package to no more than 3 hours;

(C) distributes wristbands, lanyards, shirts, or any other such wearable items to identify party package attendees so the attendees may be granted access to the dedicated event space; and

(D) excludes individuals not participating in the party package from the dedicated event space;

(4) include drinks of alcoholic liquor as part of a hotel package;

(5) negotiate drinks of alcoholic liquor as part of a hotel package;

(6) provide room service to persons renting rooms at a hotel;

(7) sell pitchers (or the equivalent, including, but not limited to, buckets of bottled beer), carafes, or bottles of alcoholic liquor which are customarily sold in such manner, or sell bottles of spirits;

(8) advertise events permitted under this Section;

(9) include drinks of alcoholic liquor as part of an entertainment package where the licensee is separately licensed by a municipal ordinance that (A) restricts dates of operation to dates during which there is an event at an adjacent stadium, (B) restricts hours of serving alcoholic liquor to 2 hours before the event and one hour after the event, (C) restricts alcoholic liquor sales to beer and wine, (D) requires tickets for admission to the establishment, and (E) prohibits sale of admission tickets on the day of an event and permits the sale of admission tickets for single events only; and

(10) discount any drink of alcoholic liquor during a specified time period only if:

(A) the price of the drink of alcoholic liquor is not changed during the time that it is discounted;

(B) the period of time during which any drink of alcoholic liquor is discounted does not exceed 4 hours per day and 15 hours per week; however, this period of time is not required to be consecutive and may be divided by the licensee in any manner;

(C) the drink of alcoholic liquor is not discounted between the hours of 10:00 p.m. and the licensed premises' closing hour; and

(D) notice of the discount of the drink of alcoholic liquor during a specified time is posted on the licensed premises or on the licensee's publicly available website at least 7 days prior to the specified time.

(c) (b) A violation of this Section shall be grounds for suspension or revocation of the retailer's license as provided by this Act. The State Commission may not enforce any trade practice policy or other rule that was not adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(d) (c) All licensees affected by this Section must also comply with Sections 6-16, 6-21, and 6-27.1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-46, eff. 7-15-15; revised 9-13-16.)

Section 575. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 4-1.7, 5-5, 5-30.1, 10-15.1, 10-17.3, 10-17.14, 10-24.50, 11-9, 12-4.42, 16-2, and 16-5 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-30.3 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/4-1.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1.7)

Sec. 4-1.7. Enforcement of Parental Child Support Obligation. If the parent or parents of the child are failing to meet or are delinquent in their legal obligation to support the child, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may request the law enforcement officer authorized or directed by law to so act to file an action for the enforcement of such remedies as the law provides for the fulfillment of the child support obligation.

If a parent has a judicial remedy against the other parent to compel child support, or if, as the result of an action initiated by or in behalf of one parent against the other, a child support order has been entered in respect to which there is noncompliance or delinquency, or where the order so entered may be changed upon petition to the court to provide additional support, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may request the appropriate law enforcement officer to seek enforcement of the remedy, or of the support order, or a change therein to provide additional support. If the law enforcement officer is not authorized by law to so act in these instances, the parent, or if so authorized by law the other person having custody of the child, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may initiate an action to enforce these remedies.

A parent or other person having custody of the child must comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, and the regulations duly promulgated thereunder, and any rules promulgated by the Illinois Department regarding enforcement of the child support obligation. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services may provide by rule for the grant or continuation of aid to the person for a temporary period if he or she accepts counseling or other services designed to increase his or her motivation to seek enforcement of the child support obligation.

In addition to any other definition of failure or refusal to comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, or Illinois Department rule, in the case of failure to attend court hearings, the parent or other person can show cooperation by attending a court hearing or, if a court hearing cannot be scheduled within 14 days following the court hearing that was missed, by signing a statement that the parent or other person is now willing to cooperate in the child support enforcement process and will appear at any later scheduled court date. The parent or other person can show cooperation by signing such a statement only once. If failure to attend the court hearing or other failure to cooperate results in the case being dismissed, such a statement may be signed after 2 months.

No denial or termination of medical assistance pursuant to this Section shall commence during pregnancy of the parent or other person having custody of the child or for 30 days after the termination of such pregnancy. The termination of medical assistance may commence thereafter if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services determines that the failure or refusal to comply with this Section persists. Postponement of denial or termination of medical assistance during pregnancy under this paragraph shall be effective only to the extent it does not conflict with federal law or regulation.

Any evidence a parent or other person having custody of the child gives in order to comply with the requirements of this Section shall not render him or her liable to prosecution under Section 11-35 or 11-40 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

When so requested, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall provide such services and assistance as the law enforcement officer may require in connection with the filing of any action hereunder.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services, as an expense of administration, may also provide applicants for and recipients of aid with such services and assistance, including assumption of the reasonable costs of prosecuting any action or proceeding, as may be necessary to enable them to enforce the child support liability required hereunder.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as a requirement that an applicant or recipient file an action for dissolution of marriage against his or her spouse.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 9-12-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis. As used in this Section, the term "breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast. If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall require that a written statement including the required opinion of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing such medical services.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, admission documents shall be submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-236, eff. 8-3-15; 99-407 (see Section 20 of P.A. 99-588 for the effective date of P.A. 99-407); 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-588, eff. 7-20-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-772, eff. 1-1-17; 99-895, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-20-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.1)

Sec. 5-30.1. Managed care protections.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Managed care organization" or "MCO" means any entity which contracts with the Department to provide services where payment for medical services is made on a capitated basis.

"Emergency services" include:

(1) emergency services, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act;

(2) emergency medical screening examinations, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act;

(3) post-stabilization medical services, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act; and

(4) emergency medical conditions, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(b) As provided by Section 5-16.12, managed care organizations are subject to the provisions of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(c) An MCO shall pay any provider of emergency services that does not have in effect a contract with the contracted Medicaid MCO. The default rate of reimbursement shall be the rate paid under Illinois Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including but not limited to Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments, and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(d) An MCO shall pay for all post-stabilization services as a covered service in any of the following situations:

(1) the MCO authorized such services;

(2) such services were administered to maintain the enrollee's stabilized condition within one hour after a request to the MCO for authorization of further post-stabilization services;

(3) the MCO did not respond to a request to authorize such services within one hour;

(4) the MCO could not be contacted; or

(5) the MCO and the treating provider, if the treating provider is a non-affiliated provider, could not reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care and an affiliated provider was unavailable for a consultation, in which case the MCO must pay for such services rendered by the treating non-affiliated provider until an affiliated provider was reached and either concurred with the treating non-affiliated provider's plan of care or assumed responsibility for the enrollee's care. Such payment shall be made at the default rate of reimbursement paid under Illinois Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including but not limited to Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent that such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(e) The following requirements apply to MCOs in determining payment for all emergency services:

(1) MCOs shall not impose any requirements for prior approval of emergency services.

(2) The MCO shall cover emergency services provided to enrollees who are temporarily away from their residence and outside the contracting area to the extent that the enrollees would be entitled to the emergency services if they still were within the contracting area.

(3) The MCO shall have no obligation to cover medical services provided on an emergency basis that are not covered services under the contract.

(4) The MCO shall not condition coverage for emergency services on the treating provider notifying the MCO of the enrollee's screening and treatment within 10 days after presentation for emergency services.

(5) The determination of the attending emergency physician, or the provider actually treating the enrollee, of whether an enrollee is sufficiently stabilized for discharge or transfer to another facility, shall be binding on the MCO. The MCO shall cover emergency services for all enrollees whether the emergency services are provided by an affiliated or non-affiliated provider.

(6) The MCO's financial responsibility for post-stabilization care services it has not pre-approved ends when:

(A) a plan physician with privileges at the treating hospital assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care;

(B) a plan physician assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care through transfer;

(C) a contracting entity representative and the treating physician reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care; or

(D) the enrollee is discharged.

(f) Network adequacy and transparency.

(1) The Department shall:

(A) ensure that an adequate provider network is in place, taking into consideration health professional shortage areas and medically underserved areas;

(B) publicly release an explanation of its process for analyzing network adequacy;

(C) periodically ensure that an MCO continues to have an adequate network in place; and

(D) require MCOs, including Medicaid Managed Care Entities as defined in Section 5-30.2, to meet provider directory requirements under Section 5-30.3.

(2) Each MCO shall confirm its receipt of information submitted specific to physician additions or physician deletions from the MCO's provider network within 3 days after receiving all required information from contracted physicians, and electronic physician directories must be updated consistent with current rules as published by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or its successor agency.

(g) Timely payment of claims.

(1) The MCO shall pay a claim within 30 days of receiving a claim that contains all the essential information needed to adjudicate the claim.

(2) The MCO shall notify the billing party of its inability to adjudicate a claim within 30 days of receiving that claim.

(3) The MCO shall pay a penalty that is at least equal to the penalty imposed under the Illinois Insurance Code for any claims not timely paid.

(4) The Department may establish a process for MCOs to expedite payments to providers based on criteria established by the Department.

(g-5) Recognizing that the rapid transformation of the Illinois Medicaid program may have unintended operational challenges for both payers and providers:

(1) in no instance shall a medically necessary covered service rendered in good faith, based upon eligibility information documented by the provider, be denied coverage or diminished in payment amount if the eligibility or coverage information available at the time the service was rendered is later found to be inaccurate; and

(2) the Department shall, by December 31, 2016, adopt rules establishing policies that shall be included in the Medicaid managed care policy and procedures manual addressing payment resolutions in situations in which a provider renders services based upon information obtained after verifying a patient's eligibility and coverage plan through either the Department's current enrollment system or a system operated by the coverage plan identified by the patient presenting for services:

(A) such medically necessary covered services shall be considered rendered in good faith;

(B) such policies and procedures shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of provider associations representing the majority of providers within the identified provider industry; and

(C) such rules shall be published for a review and comment period of no less than 30 days on the Department's website with final rules remaining available on the Department's website.

(3) The rules on payment resolutions shall include, but not be limited to:

(A) the extension of the timely filing period;

(B) retroactive prior authorizations; and

(C) guaranteed minimum payment rate of no less than the current, as of the date of service, fee-for-service rate, plus all applicable add-ons, when the resulting service relationship is out of network.

(4) The rules shall be applicable for both MCO coverage and fee-for-service coverage.

(g-6) MCO Performance Metrics Report.

(1) The Department shall publish, on at least a quarterly basis, each MCO's operational performance, including, but not limited to, the following categories of metrics:

(A) claims payment, including timeliness and accuracy;

(B) prior authorizations;

(C) grievance and appeals;

(D) utilization statistics;

(E) provider disputes;

(F) provider credentialing; and

(G) member and provider customer service.

(2) The Department shall ensure that the metrics report is accessible to providers online by January 1, 2017.

(3) The metrics shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of associations representing the majority of providers within the identified industry.

(4) Metrics shall be defined and incorporated into the applicable Managed Care Policy Manual issued by the Department.

(h) The Department shall not expand mandatory MCO enrollment into new counties beyond those counties already designated by the Department as of June 1, 2014 for the individuals whose eligibility for medical assistance is not the seniors or people with disabilities population until the Department provides an opportunity for accountable care entities and MCOs to participate in such newly designated counties.

(i) The requirements of this Section apply to contracts with accountable care entities and MCOs entered into, amended, or renewed after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-725, eff. 8-5-16; 99-751, eff. 8-5-16; revised 9-13-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.3)

Sec. 5-30.3. Empowering meaningful patient choice in Medicaid Managed Care.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Client enrollment services broker" means a vendor the Department contracts with to carry out activities related to Medicaid recipients' enrollment, disenrollment, and renewal with Medicaid Managed Care Entities.

"Composite domains" means the synthesized categories reflecting the standardized quality performance measures included in the consumer quality comparison tool. At a minimum, these composite domains shall display Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance on standardized quality, timeliness, and access measures.

"Consumer quality comparison tool" means an online and paper tool developed by the Department with input from interested stakeholders reflecting the performance of Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plans on standardized quality performance measures. This tool shall be designed in a consumer-friendly and easily understandable format.

"Covered services" means those health care services to which a covered person is entitled to under the terms of the Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan.

"Facilities" includes, but is not limited to, federally qualified health centers, skilled nursing facilities, and rehabilitation centers.

"Hospitals" includes, but is not limited to, acute care, rehabilitation, children's, and cancer hospitals.

"Integrated provider directory" means a searchable database bringing together network data from multiple Medicaid Managed Care Entities that is available through client enrollment services.

"Medicaid eligibility redetermination" means the process by which the eligibility of a Medicaid recipient is reviewed by the Department to determine if the recipient's medical benefits will continue, be modified, or terminated.

"Medicaid Managed Care Entity" has the same meaning as defined in Section 5-30.2 of this Code.

(b) Provider directory transparency.

(1) Each Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall:

(A) Make available on the entity's website a provider directory in a machine readable file and format.

(B) Make provider directories publicly accessible without the necessity of providing a password, a username, or personally identifiable information.

(C) Comply with all federal and State statutes and regulations, including 42 CFR 438.10, pertaining to provider directories within Medicaid Managed Care.

(D) Request, at least annually, provider office hours for each of the following provider types:

(i) Health care professionals, including dental and vision providers.

(ii) Hospitals.

(iii) Facilities, other than hospitals.

(iv) Pharmacies, other than hospitals.

(v) Durable medical equipment suppliers, other than hospitals.

Medicaid Managed Care Entities shall publish the provider office hours in the provider directory upon receipt.

(E) Confirm with the Medicaid Managed Care Entity's contracted providers who have not submitted claims within the past 6 months that the contracted providers intend to remain in the network and correct any incorrect provider directory information as necessary.

(F) Ensure that in situations in which a Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan enrollee receives covered services from a non-participating provider due to a material misrepresentation in a Medicaid Managed Care Entity's online electronic provider directory, the Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan enrollee shall not be held responsible for any costs resulting from that material misrepresentation.

(G) Conspicuously display an e-mail address and a toll-free telephone number to which any individual may report any inaccuracy in the provider directory. If the Medicaid Managed Care Entity receives a report from any person who specifically identifies provider directory information as inaccurate, the Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall investigate the report and correct any inaccurate information displayed in the electronic directory.

(2) The Department shall:

(A) Regularly monitor Medicaid Managed Care Entities to ensure that they are compliant with the requirements under paragraph (1) of subsection (b).

(B) Require that the client enrollment services broker use the Medicaid provider number for all providers with a Medicaid Provider number to populate the provider information in the integrated provider directory.

(C) Ensure that each Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall, at minimum, make the information in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) available to the client enrollment services broker.

(D) Ensure that the client enrollment services broker shall, at minimum, have the information in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) available and searchable through the integrated provider directory on its website as soon as possible but no later than January 1, 2017.

(E) Require the client enrollment services broker to conspicuously display near the integrated provider directory an email address and a toll-free telephone number provided by the Department to which any individual may report inaccuracies in the integrated provider directory. If the Department receives a report that identifies an inaccuracy in the integrated provider directory, the Department shall provide the information about the reported inaccuracy to the appropriate Medicaid Managed Care Entity within 3 business days after the reported inaccuracy is received.

(c) Formulary transparency.

(1) Medicaid Managed Care Entities shall publish on their respective websites a formulary for each Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan offered and make the formularies easily understandable and publicly accessible without the necessity of providing a password, a username, or personally identifiable information.

(2) Medicaid Managed Care Entities shall provide printed formularies upon request.

(3) Electronic and print formularies shall display:

(A) the medications covered (both generic and name brand);

(B) if the medication is preferred or not preferred, and what each term means;

(C) what tier each medication is in and the meaning of each tier;

(D) any utilization controls including, but not limited to, step therapy, prior approval, dosage limits, gender or age restrictions, quantity limits, or other policies that affect access to medications;

(E) any required cost-sharing;

(F) a glossary of key terms and explanation of utilization controls and cost-sharing requirements;

(G) a key or legend for all utilization controls visible on every page in which specific medication coverage information is displayed; and

(H) directions explaining the process or processes a consumer may follow to obtain more information if a medication the consumer requires is not covered or listed in the formulary.

(4) Each Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall display conspicuously with each electronic and printed medication formulary an e-mail address and a toll-free telephone number to which any individual may report any inaccuracy in the formulary. If the Medicaid Managed Care Entity receives a report that the formulary information is inaccurate, the Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall investigate the report and correct any inaccurate information displayed in the electronic formulary.

(5) Each Medicaid Managed Care Entity shall include a disclosure in the electronic and requested print formularies that provides the date of publication, a statement that the formulary is up to date as of publication, and contact information for questions and requests to receive updated information.

(6) The client enrollment services broker's website shall display prominently a website URL link to each Medicaid Managed Care Entity's Plan formulary. If a Medicaid enrollee calls the client enrollment services broker with questions regarding formularies, the client enrollment services broker shall offer a brief description of what a formulary is and shall refer the Medicaid enrollee to the appropriate Medicaid Managed Care Entity regarding his or her questions about a specific entity's formulary.

(d) Grievances and appeals. The Department shall display prominently on its website consumer-oriented information describing how a Medicaid enrollee can file a complaint or grievance, request a fair hearing for any adverse action taken by the Department or a Medicaid Managed Care Entity, and access free legal assistance or other assistance made available by the State for Medicaid enrollees to pursue an action.

(e) Medicaid redetermination information. The Department shall require the client enrollment services broker to display prominently on the client enrollment services broker's website a description of where a Medicaid enrollee can access information regarding the Medicaid redetermination process.

(f) Medicaid care coordination information. The client enrollment services broker shall display prominently on its website, in an easily understandable format, consumer-oriented information regarding the role of care coordination services within Medicaid Managed Care. Such information shall include, but shall not be limited to:

(1) a basic description of the role of care coordination services and examples of specific care coordination activities; and

(2) how a Medicaid enrollee may request care coordination services from a Medicaid Managed Care Entity.

(g) Consumer quality comparison tool.

(1) The Department shall create a consumer quality comparison tool to assist Medicaid enrollees with Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan selection. This tool shall provide Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance on a set of standardized quality performance measures. The Department shall ensure that this tool shall be accessible in both a print and online format, with the online format allowing for individuals to access additional detailed Plan performance information.

(2) At a minimum, a printed version of the consumer quality comparison tool shall be provided by the Department on an annual basis to Medicaid enrollees who are required by the Department to enroll in a Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan during an enrollee's open enrollment period. The consumer quality comparison tool shall also meet all of the following criteria:

(A) Display Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance on at least 4 composite domains that reflect Plan quality, timeliness, and access. The composite domains shall draw from the most current available performance data sets including, but not limited to:

(i) Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures.

(ii) Core Set of Children's Health Care Quality measures as required under the Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act (CHIPRA).

(iii) Adult Core Set measures.

(iv) Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) survey results.

(v) Additional performance measures the Department deems appropriate to populate the composite domains.

(B) Use a quality rating system developed by the Department to reflect Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance. The quality rating system for each composite domain shall reflect the Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance and, when possible, plan performance relative to national Medicaid percentiles.

(C) Be customized to reflect the specific Medicaid Managed Care Entities' Plans available to the Medicaid enrollee based on his or her geographic location and Medicaid eligibility category.

(D) Include contact information for the client enrollment services broker and contact information for Medicaid Managed Care Entities available to the Medicaid enrollee based on his or her geographic location and Medicaid eligibility category.

(E) Include guiding questions designed to assist individuals selecting a Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan.

(3) At a minimum, the online version of the consumer quality comparison tool shall meet all of the following criteria:

(A) Display Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance for the same composite domains selected by the Department in the printed version of the consumer quality comparison tool. The Department may display additional composite domains in the online version of the consumer quality comparison tool as appropriate.

(B) Display Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance on each of the standardized performance measures that contribute to each composite domain displayed on the online version of the consumer quality comparison tool.

(C) Use a quality rating system developed by the Department to reflect Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance. The quality rating system for each composite domain shall reflect the Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance and, when possible, plan performance relative to national Medicaid percentiles.

(D) Include the specific Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plans available to the Medicaid enrollee based on his or her geographic location and Medicaid eligibility category.

(E) Include a sort function to view Medicaid Managed Care Entities' individual Plan performance by quality rating and by standardized quality performance measures.

(F) Include contact information for the client enrollment services broker and for each Medicaid Managed Care Entity.

(G) Include guiding questions designed to assist individuals in selecting a Medicaid Managed Care Entity Plan.

(H) Prominently display current notice of quality performance sanctions against Medicaid Managed Care Entities. Notice of the sanctions shall remain present on the online version of the consumer quality comparison tool until the sanctions are lifted.

(4) The online version of the consumer quality comparison tool shall be displayed prominently on the client enrollment services broker's website.

(5) In the development of the consumer quality comparison tool, the Department shall establish and publicize a formal process to collect and consider written and oral feedback from consumers, advocates, and stakeholders on aspects of the consumer quality comparison tool, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) The standardized data sets and surveys, specific performance measures, and composite domains represented in the consumer quality comparison tool.

(B) The format and presentation of the consumer quality comparison tool.

(C) The methods undertaken by the Department to notify Medicaid enrollees of the availability of the consumer quality comparison tool.

(6) The Department shall review and update as appropriate the composite domains and performance measures represented in the print and online versions of the consumer quality comparison tool at least once every 3 years. During the Department's review process, the Department shall solicit engagement in the public feedback process described in paragraph (5).

(7) The Department shall ensure that the consumer quality comparison tool is available for consumer use as soon as possible but no later than January 1, 2018.

(h) The Department may adopt rules and take any other appropriate action necessary to implement its responsibilities under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-725, eff. 8-5-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.4)

Sec. 5-30.4 5-30.3. Provider inquiry portal. The Department shall establish, no later than January 1, 2018, a web-based portal to accept inquiries and requests for assistance from managed care organizations under contract with the State and providers under contract with managed care organizations to provide direct care.

(Source: P.A. 99-719, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-18-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.5)

Sec. 5-30.5 5-30.3. Managed care; automatic assignment. The Department shall, within a reasonable period of time after relevant data from managed care entities has been collected and analyzed, but no earlier than January 1, 2017, seek input from the managed care entities and other stakeholders and develop and implement within each enrollment region an algorithm preserving existing provider-beneficiary relationships that takes into account quality scores and other operational proficiency criteria developed, defined, and adopted by the Department, to automatically assign Medicaid enrollees served under the Family Health Plan and the Integrated Care Program and those Medicaid enrollees eligible for medical assistance pursuant to the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148) into managed care entities, including Accountable Care Entities, Managed Care Community Networks, and Managed Care Organizations. The quality metrics used shall be measurable for all entities. The algorithm shall not use the quality and proficiency metrics to reassign enrollees out of any plan in which they are enrolled at the time and shall only be used if the client has not voluntarily selected a primary care physician and a managed care entity or care coordination entity. Clients shall have one opportunity within 90 calendar days after auto-assignment by algorithm to select a different managed care entity. The algorithm developed and implemented shall favor assignment into managed care entities with the highest quality scores and levels of compliance with the operational proficiency criteria established, taking into consideration existing provider-beneficiary relationship as defined by 42 CFR 438.50(f)(3) if one exists.

(Source: P.A. 99-898, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-18-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-15.1)

Sec. 10-15.1. Judicial registration of administrative support orders and administrative paternity orders.

(a) A final administrative support order or a final administrative paternity order, excluding a voluntary acknowledgement or denial of paternity that is governed by other provisions of this Code, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 1984, and the Vital Records Act, established by the Illinois Department under this Article X may be registered in the appropriate circuit court of this State by the Department or by a party to the order by filing:

(1) Two copies, including one certified copy of the order to be registered, any modification of the administrative support order, any voluntary acknowledgment of paternity pertaining to the child covered by the order, and the documents showing service of the notice of support obligation or the notice of paternity and support obligation that commenced the procedure for establishment of the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order pursuant to Section 10-4 of this Code.

(2) A sworn statement by the person requesting registration or a certified copy of the Department payment record showing the amount of any past due support accrued under the administrative support order.

(3) The name of the obligor and, if known, the obligor's address and social security number.

(4) The name of the obligee and the obligee's address, unless the obligee alleges in an affidavit or pleading under oath that the health, safety, or liberty of the obligee or child would be jeopardized by disclosure of specific identifying information, in which case that information must be sealed and may not be disclosed to the other party or public. After a hearing in which the court takes into consideration the health, safety, or liberty of the party or child, the court may order disclosure of information that the court determines to be in the interest of justice.

(b) The filing of an administrative support order or an administrative paternity order under subsection (a) constitutes registration with the circuit court.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) Every notice of registration must be accompanied by a copy of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order and the documents and relevant information accompanying the order pursuant to subsection (a).

(d) (Blank).

(d-5) The registering party shall serve notice of the registration on the other party by first class mail, unless the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order was entered by default or the registering party is also seeking an affirmative remedy. The registering party shall serve notice on the Department in all cases by first class mail.

(1) If the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order was entered by default against the obligor, the obligor must be served with the registration by any method provided by law for service of summons.

(2) If a petition or comparable pleading seeking an affirmative remedy is filed with the registration, the non-moving party must be served with the registration and the affirmative pleading by any method provided by law for service of summons.

(e) A notice of registration of an administrative support order or an administrative paternity order must provide the following information:

(1) That a registered administrative order is enforceable in the same manner as an order for support or an order for paternity issued by the circuit court.

(2) That a hearing to contest enforcement of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order must be requested within 30 days after the date of service of the notice.

(3) That failure to contest, in a timely manner, the enforcement of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order shall result in confirmation of the order and enforcement of the order and the alleged arrearages and precludes further contest of that order with respect to any matter that could have been asserted.

(4) The amount of any alleged arrearages.

(f) A nonregistering party seeking to contest enforcement of a registered administrative support order or a registered administrative paternity order shall request a hearing within 30 days after the date of service of notice of the registration. The nonregistering party may seek to vacate the registration, to assert any defense to an allegation of noncompliance with the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order, or to contest the remedies being sought or the amount of any alleged arrearages.

(g) If the nonregistering party fails to contest the enforcement of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order in a timely manner, the order shall be confirmed by operation of law.

(h) If a nonregistering party requests a hearing to contest the enforcement of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order, the circuit court shall schedule the matter for hearing and give notice to the parties and the Illinois Department of the date, time, and place of the hearing.

(i) A party contesting the enforcement of a registered administrative support order or a registered administrative paternity order or seeking to vacate the registration has the burden of proving one or more of the following defenses:

(1) The Illinois Department lacked personal jurisdiction over the contesting party.

(2) The administrative support order or the administrative paternity order was obtained by fraud.

(3) The administrative support order or the administrative paternity order has been vacated, suspended, or modified by a later order.

(4) The Illinois Department has stayed the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order pending appeal.

(5) There is a defense under the law to the remedy sought.

(6) Full or partial payment has been made.

(j) If a party presents evidence establishing a full or partial payment defense under subsection (i), the court may stay enforcement of the registered order, continue the proceeding to permit production of additional relevant evidence, and issue other appropriate orders. An uncontested portion of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order may be enforced by all remedies available under State law.

(k) If a contesting party does not establish a defense under subsection (i) to the enforcement of the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order, the court shall issue an order confirming the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order. Confirmation of the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the order with respect to any matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration. Upon confirmation, the registered administrative support order or the registered administrative paternity order shall be treated in the same manner as a support order or a paternity order entered by the circuit court, including the ability of the court to entertain a petition to modify the administrative support order due to a substantial change in circumstances or a petition to modify the administrative paternity order due to clear and convincing evidence regarding paternity, or petitions for visitation or custody of the child or children covered by the administrative support order or the administrative paternity order. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to alter the effect of a final administrative support order or a final administrative paternity order, or the restriction of judicial review of such a final order to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as provided in Sections 10-11 and 10-17.7 of this Code.

(l) Notwithstanding the limitations of relief provided for under this Section regarding an administrative paternity order and the administrative relief available from an administrative paternity order under Sections 10-12 through 10-14.1 of this Code, a party may petition for relief from a registered final administrative paternity order entered by consent of the parties, excluding a voluntary acknowledgement or denial of paternity as well as an administrative paternity order entered pursuant to genetic testing. The petition shall be filed pursuant to Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure based upon a showing of due diligence and a meritorious defense. The court, after reviewing the evidence regarding this specific type of administrative paternity order entered by consent of the parties, shall issue an order regarding the petition. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to alter the effect of a final administrative paternity order, or the restriction of judicial review of such a final order to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as provided in Section 10-17.7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-563, eff. 8-27-13; 99-471, eff. 8-27-15; revised 10-26-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-17.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-17.3)

Sec. 10-17.3. Federal Income Tax Refund Intercept. The Illinois Department may provide by rule for certification to the United States Department of Health and Human Services of past due support owed by responsible relatives under a support order entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State on behalf of resident or non-resident persons. The purpose of certification shall be to intercept Federal Income Tax refunds due such relatives in order to satisfy such past due support in whole or in part.

The rule shall provide for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by the responsible relative affected and any final administrative decision rendered by the Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law. Certification shall be accomplished in accordance with Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act and rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 84-758; revised 9-13-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-17.14)

Sec. 10-17.14. Denial of passports. The Illinois Department may provide by rule for certification to the United States Department of Health and Human Services of past due support owed by responsible relatives under a support order entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State on behalf of resident or non-resident persons. The purpose of certification shall be to effect denial, revocation, restriction, or limitation of passports of responsible relatives owing past due support.

The rule shall provide for notice to and an opportunity to be heard by the responsible relative affected and any final administrative decision rendered by the Department shall be reviewed only under and in accordance with the Administrative Review Law. Certification shall be accomplished in accordance with Title IV, Part D of the federal Social Security Act and rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 97-186, eff. 7-22-11; revised 9-13-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-24.50)

Sec. 10-24.50. Financial institution's freedom from liability. A financial institution that provides information under Sections 10-24 through 10-24.50 shall not be liable to any account holder, owner, or other person in any civil, criminal, or administrative action for any of the following:

(1) Disclosing the required information to the Illinois Department, any other provisions of the law notwithstanding not withstanding.

(2) Holding, encumbering, or surrendering any of an individual's accounts as defined in Section 10-24 in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by:

(A) the Illinois Department under Sections 10-25 and 10-25.5; or

(B) a person or entity acting on behalf of the Illinois Department.

(3) Any other action taken or omission made in good faith to comply with Sections 10-24 through 10-24.50, including individual or mechanical errors, provided that the action or omission does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-13-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-9) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-9)

Sec. 11-9. Protection of records; exceptions records - Exceptions. For the protection of applicants and recipients, the Illinois Department, the county departments and local governmental units and their respective officers and employees are prohibited, except as hereinafter provided, from disclosing the contents of any records, files, papers and communications, except for purposes directly connected with the administration of public aid under this Code.

In any judicial proceeding, except a proceeding directly concerned with the administration of programs provided for in this Code, such records, files, papers and communications, and their contents shall be deemed privileged communications and shall be disclosed only upon the order of the court, where the court finds such to be necessary in the interest of justice.

The Illinois Department shall establish and enforce reasonable rules and regulations governing the custody, use and preservation of the records, papers, files, and communications of the Illinois Department, the county departments and local governmental units receiving State or Federal funds or aid. The governing body of other local governmental units shall in like manner establish and enforce rules and regulations governing the same matters.

The contents of case files pertaining to recipients under Articles IV, V, and VI shall be made available without subpoena or formal notice to the officers of any court, to all law enforcement enforcing agencies, and to such other persons or agencies as from time to time may be authorized by any court. In particular, the contents of those case files shall be made available upon request to a law enforcement agency for the purpose of determining the current address of a recipient with respect to whom an arrest warrant is outstanding, and the current address of a recipient who was a victim of a felony or a witness to a felony shall be made available upon request to a State's Attorney of this State or a State's Attorney's investigator. Information shall also be disclosed to the Illinois State Scholarship Commission pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award.

This Section does not prevent the Illinois Department and local governmental units from reporting to appropriate law enforcement officials the desertion or abandonment by a parent of a child, as a result of which financial aid has been necessitated under Articles IV, V, or VI, or reporting to appropriate law enforcement officials instances in which a mother under age 18 has a child out of wedlock and is an applicant for or recipient of aid under any Article of this Code. The Illinois Department may provide by rule for the county departments and local governmental units to initiate proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to have children declared to be neglected when they deem such action necessary to protect the children from immoral influences present in their home or surroundings.

This Section does not preclude the full exercise of the powers of the Board of Public Aid Commissioners to inspect records and documents, as provided for all advisory boards pursuant to Section 5-505 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-505).

This Section does not preclude exchanges of information among the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid), the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Illinois Department of Revenue for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The provisions of this Section and of Section 11-11 as they apply to applicants and recipients of public aid under Article V shall be operative only to the extent that they do not conflict with any Federal law or regulation governing Federal grants to this State for such programs.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid) shall enter into an inter-agency agreement with the Department of Children and Family Services to establish a procedure by which employees of the Department of Children and Family Services may have immediate access to records, files, papers, and communications (except medical, alcohol or drug assessment or treatment, mental health, or any other medical records) of the Illinois Department, county departments, and local governmental units receiving State or federal funds or aid, if the Department of Children and Family Services determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 9-13-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.42)

Sec. 12-4.42. Medicaid Revenue Maximization.

(a) Purpose. The General Assembly finds that there is a need to make changes to the administration of services provided by State and local governments in order to maximize federal financial participation.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Community Medicaid mental health services" means all mental health services outlined in Part Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code that are funded through DHS, eligible for federal financial participation, and provided by a community-based provider.

"Community-based provider" means an entity enrolled as a provider pursuant to Sections 140.11 and 140.12 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code and certified to provide community Medicaid mental health services in accordance with Part Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code.

"DCFS" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

"Care facility for persons with a developmental disability" means an intermediate care facility for persons with an intellectual disability within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any facility operated by the State.

"Care provider for persons with a developmental disability" means a person conducting, operating, or maintaining a care facility for persons with a developmental disability. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"DHS" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.

"Hospital" means an institution, place, building, or agency located in this State that is licensed as a general acute hospital by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Hospital Licensing Act, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit.

"Long term care facility" means (i) a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility, whether public or private and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, including a county nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided; except that the term "long term care facility" does not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

"Long term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility or (ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this definition, "person" means any political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited liability company, association, joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"State-operated facility for persons with a developmental disability" means an intermediate care facility for persons with an intellectual disability within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act operated by the State.

(c) Administration and deposit of Revenues. The Department shall coordinate the implementation of changes required by Public Act 96-1405 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly amongst the various State and local government bodies that administer programs referred to in this Section.

Revenues generated by program changes mandated by any provision in this Section, less reasonable administrative costs associated with the implementation of these program changes, which would otherwise be deposited into the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited into the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.

The Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly detailing the implementation progress of Public Act 96-1405 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly as a part of the Department's Medical Programs annual report for fiscal years 2010 and 2011.

(d) Acceleration of payment vouchers. To the extent practicable and permissible under federal law, the Department shall create all vouchers for long term care facilities and facilities for persons with a developmental disability for dates of service in the month in which the enhanced federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP) originally set forth in the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) expires and for dates of service in the month prior to that month and shall, no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires, submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

The Department of Human Services shall create the necessary documentation for State-operated facilities for persons with a developmental disability so that the necessary data for all dates of service before the expiration of the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA can be adjudicated by the Department no later than the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires.

(e) Billing of DHS community Medicaid mental health services. No later than July 1, 2011, community Medicaid mental health services provided by a community-based provider must be billed directly to the Department.

(f) DCFS Medicaid services. The Department shall work with DCFS to identify existing programs, pending qualifying services, that can be converted in an economically feasible manner to Medicaid in order to secure federal financial revenue.

(g) Third Party Liability recoveries. The Department shall contract with a vendor to support the Department in coordinating benefits for Medicaid enrollees. The scope of work shall include, at a minimum, the identification of other insurance for Medicaid enrollees and the recovery of funds paid by the Department when another payer was liable. The vendor may be paid a percentage of actual cash recovered when practical and subject to federal law.

(h) Public health departments. The Department shall identify unreimbursed costs for persons covered by Medicaid who are served by the Chicago Department of Public Health.

The Department shall assist the Chicago Department of Public Health in determining total unreimbursed costs associated with the provision of healthcare services to Medicaid enrollees.

The Department shall determine and draw the maximum allowable federal matching dollars associated with the cost of Chicago Department of Public Health services provided to Medicaid enrollees.

(i) Acceleration of hospital-based payments. The Department shall, by the 10th day of the month in which the enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA expires, create vouchers for all State fiscal year 2011 hospital payments exempt from the prompt payment requirements of the ARRA. The Department shall submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 9-15-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/16-2)

Sec. 16-2. Eligibility. A foreign-born victim of trafficking, torture, or other serious crimes and his or her derivative family members are eligible for cash assistance or SNAP benefits under this Article if:

(a) he or she:

(1) has filed or is preparing to file an application for T Nonimmigrant status with the appropriate federal agency pursuant to Section 1101(a)(15)(T) of Title 8 of the United States Code, or is otherwise taking steps to meet the conditions for federal benefits eligibility under Section 7105 of Title 22 of the United States Code;

(2) has filed or is preparing to file a formal application with the appropriate federal agency for status pursuant to Section 1101(a)(15)(U) of Title 8 of the United States Code; or

(3) has filed or is preparing to file a formal application with the appropriate federal agency for status under Section 1158 of Title 8 of the United States Code; and

(b) he or she is otherwise eligible for cash assistance or SNAP benefits, as applicable.

(Source: P.A. 99-870, eff. 8-22-16; revised 10-26-16.)

(305 ILCS 5/16-5)

Sec. 16-5. Termination of benefits.

(a) Any cash assistance or SNAP benefits provided under this Article to a person who is a foreign-born victim of trafficking, torture, or other serious crimes and his or her derivative family members shall be terminated if there is a final denial of that person's visa or asylum application under Section Sections 1101(a)(15)(T), 1101(a)(15)(U), or 1158 of Title 8 of the United States Code.

(b) A person who is a foreign-born victim of trafficking, torture, or other serious crimes and his or her derivative family members shall be ineligible for continued State-funded cash assistance or SNAP benefits provided under this Article if that person has not filed a formal application for status pursuant to Section Sections 1101(a)(15)(T), 1101(a)(15)(U), or 1158 of Title 8 of the United States Code within one year after the date of his or her application for cash assistance or SNAP benefits provided under this Article. The Department of Human Services may extend the person's and his or her derivative family members' eligibility for medical assistance, cash assistance, or SNAP benefits beyond one year if the Department determines that the person, during the year of initial eligibility (i) experienced a health crisis, (ii) has been unable, after reasonable attempts, to obtain necessary information from a third party, or (iii) has other extenuating circumstances that prevented the person from completing his or her application for status.

(Source: P.A. 99-870, eff. 8-22-16; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 580. The Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act is amended by changing Section 8a as follows:

(320 ILCS 25/8a) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 408.1)

Sec. 8a. Confidentiality.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, all information received by the Department of Revenue or its successors, the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, from claims filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within those Departments or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director of one of those Departments or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director of Aging from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the grant programs contained in this Act wherein the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(c) The Department on Aging shall furnish to the Secretary of State such information as is reasonably necessary for the administration of reduced vehicle registration fees pursuant to Section 3-806.3 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code".

(d) The Director of the Department on Aging shall make information available to the State Board of Elections as may be required by an agreement the State Board of Elections has entered into with a multi-state voter registration list maintenance system.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 585. The Housing for Veterans with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 2.1, and 3 as follows:

(330 ILCS 65/1) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 58)

Sec. 1. Any veteran of the military or naval service of the United States who was a resident of this State at the time he entered such service and who has been approved by the Administrator of Veterans Veterans' Affairs for assistance under Chapter 21 of Title 38, United States Code, as now or hereafter amended, shall be entitled to receive assistance under this Act for the purpose of acquiring within this State or without this State, where due to service-connected disabilities and upon the advice or recommendation of a duly recognized physician of the Veterans Administration in order to protect the health of the veteran, such veteran cannot reside in this State, a suitable dwelling unit with special fixtures or movable facilities made necessary by the veteran's permanent and total service-connected disability.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 650; revised 9-13-16.)

(330 ILCS 65/2.1) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 59.1)

Sec. 2.1. (a) The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall provide assistance to a veteran who is eligible for and has been approved by the Administrator of Veterans Veterans' Affairs for the grant authorized under Section 801(b) of Title 38 of The United States Code for remodeling a dwelling, which is not adapted to the requirements of the veteran's disability, and which was acquired by him prior to his application for federal assistance.

(b) The amount of State assistance provided to a veteran under subsection (a) of this Section shall be equal to the lesser of (1) the difference between the total cost of remodeling and the amount of assistance provided by the federal government under Title 38, Section 801(b) of the United States Code or (2) $3,000. However, if the amount of the federal assistance is at least equal to the total cost of remodeling the dwelling, then no State assistance shall be granted under this Section.

(c) A veteran eligible for assistance under subsection (a) of this Section shall not by reason of such eligibility be denied benefits for which such veteran becomes eligible under Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-216, eff. 1-1-00; revised 9-13-16.)

(330 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 60)

Sec. 3. Application for assistance under this Act shall be made by the veteran to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and shall be accompanied by satisfactory evidence that the veteran has been approved by the Administrator of Veterans Veterans' Affairs for assistance in acquiring a suitable dwelling unit or in remodeling a dwelling not adapted to the requirements of his disability. The application shall contain such information as will enable the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs to determine the amount of assistance to which the veteran is entitled. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall adopt general rules for determining the question of whether an applicant was a resident of this State at the time he entered the service, and shall prescribe by rule the nature of the proof to be submitted to establish the fact of residence. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall adopt guidelines for determining types of remodeling and adaptations which are reasonably necessary because of a veteran's disability, for a veteran eligible for assistance under Section 2.1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 82-894; revised 9-13-16.)

Section 590. The Coal Mine Medical Emergencies Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 15/2) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 3952)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly otherwise requires:

(a) "Emergency medical technician" means a person who has successfully completed the course on emergency first-aid care and transportation of the sick and injured recommended by the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, or the equivalent thereof, and has been licensed by the Department of Public Health to provide emergency care.

(b) "Mine" means any surface coal mine or underground coal mine, as defined in Section 1.03 of the "The Coal Mining Act of 1953".

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 595. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 6.6 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/6.6)

Sec. 6.6. Submission of sexual assault evidence.

(a) As soon as practicable, but in no event more than 4 hours after the completion of hospital emergency services and forensic services, the hospital shall make reasonable efforts to determine the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction where the sexual assault occurred. The hospital may obtain the name of the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction from the local law enforcement agency.

(b) Within 4 hours after the completion of hospital emergency services and forensic services, the hospital shall notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction that the hospital is in possession of sexual assault evidence and the date and time the collection of evidence was completed. The hospital shall document the notification in the patient's medical records and shall include the agency notified, the date and time of the notification and the name of the person who received the notification. This notification to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction satisfies the hospital's requirement to contact its local law enforcement agency under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(c) If the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction has not taken physical custody of sexual assault evidence within 5 days of the first contact by the hospital, the hospital shall renotify re-notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction that the hospital is in possession of sexual assault evidence and the date the sexual assault evidence was collected. The hospital shall document the renotification re-notification in the patient's medical records and shall include the agency notified, the date and time of the notification and the name of the person who received the notification.

(d) If the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction has not taken physical custody of the sexual assault evidence within 10 days of the first contact by the hospital and the hospital has provided renotification under subsection (c) of this Section, the hospital shall contact the State's Attorney of the county where the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction is located. The hospital shall inform the State's Attorney that the hospital is in possession of sexual assault evidence, the date the sexual assault evidence was collected, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, the dates, times and names of persons notified under subsections (b) and (c) of this Section. The notification shall be made within 14 days of the collection of the sexual assault evidence.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 600. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 45. Addition of debilitating medical conditions.

(a) Any resident may petition the Department of Public Health to add debilitating conditions or treatments to the list of debilitating medical conditions listed in subsection (h) of Section 10. The Department shall approve or deny a petition within 180 days of its submission, and, upon approval, shall proceed to add that condition by rule in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The approval or denial of any petition is a final decision of the Department, subject to judicial review. Jurisdiction and venue are vested in the Circuit Court.

(b) The Department shall accept petitions once annually for a one-month period determined by the Department. During the open period, the Department shall accept petitions from any resident requesting the addition of a new debilitating medical condition or disease to the list of approved debilitating medical conditions for which the use of cannabis has been shown to have a therapeutic or palliative effect. The Department shall provide public notice 30 days before the open period for accepting petitions, which shall describe the time period for submission, the required format of the submission, and the submission address.

(c) Each petition shall be limited to one proposed debilitating medical condition or disease.

(d) A petitioner shall file one original petition in the format provided by the Department and in the manner specified by the Department. For a petition to be processed and reviewed, the following information shall be included:

(1) The petition, prepared on forms provided by the Department, in the manner specified by the Department.

(2) A specific description of the medical condition or disease that is the subject of the petition. Each petition shall be limited to a single condition or disease. Information about the proposed condition or disease shall include:

(A) the extent to which the condition or disease itself or the treatments cause severe suffering, such as severe or chronic pain, severe nausea or vomiting, or otherwise severely impair a person's ability to conduct activities of daily living;

(B) information about why conventional medical therapies are not sufficient to alleviate the suffering caused by the disease or condition and its treatment;

(C) the proposed benefits from the medical use of cannabis specific to the medical condition or disease;

(D) evidence from the medical community and other experts supporting the use of medical cannabis to alleviate suffering caused by the condition, disease, or treatment;

(E) letters of support from physicians or other licensed health care providers knowledgeable about the condition or disease, including, if feasible, a letter from a physician with whom the petitioner has a bona fide physician-patient relationship;

(F) any additional medical, testimonial, or scientific documentation; and

(G) an electronic copy of all materials submitted.

(3) Upon receipt of a petition, the Department shall:

(A) determine whether the petition meets the standards for submission and, if so, shall accept the petition for further review; or

(B) determine whether the petition does not meet the standards for submission and, if so, shall deny the petition without further review.

(4) If the petition does not fulfill the standards for submission, the petition shall be considered deficient. The Department shall notify the petitioner, who may correct any deficiencies and resubmit the petition during the next open period.

(e) The petitioner may withdraw his or her petition by submitting a written statement to the Department indicating withdrawal.

(f) Upon review of accepted petitions, the Director shall render a final decision regarding the acceptance or denial of the proposed debilitating medical conditions or diseases.

(g) The Department shall convene a Medical Cannabis Advisory Board (Advisory Board) composed of 16 members, which shall include:

(1) one medical cannabis patient advocate or designated caregiver;

(2) one parent or designated caregiver of a person under the age of 18 who is a qualified medical cannabis patient;

(3) two registered nurses or nurse practitioners;

(4) three registered qualifying patients, including one veteran; and

(5) nine health care practitioners with current professional licensure in their field. The Advisory Board shall be composed of health care practitioners representing the following areas:

(A) neurology;

(B) pain management;

(C) medical oncology;

(D) psychiatry or mental health;

(E) infectious disease;

(F) family medicine;

(G) general primary care;

(H) medical ethics;

(I) pharmacy;

(J) pediatrics; or

(K) psychiatry or mental health for children or adolescents.

At least one appointed health care practitioner shall have direct experience related to the health care needs of veterans and at least one individual shall have pediatric experience.

(h) Members of the Advisory Board shall be appointed by the Governor.

(1) Members shall serve a term of 4 years or until a successor is appointed and qualified. If a vacancy occurs, the Governor shall appoint a replacement to complete the original term created by the vacancy.

(2) The Governor shall select a chairperson.

(3) Members may serve multiple terms.

(4) Members shall not have an affiliation with, serve on the board of, or have a business relationship with a registered cultivation center or a registered medical cannabis dispensary.

(5) Members shall disclose any real or apparent conflicts of interest that may have a direct bearing of the subject matter, such as relationships with pharmaceutical companies, biomedical device manufacturers, or corporations whose products or services are related to the medical condition or disease to be reviewed.

(6) Members shall not be paid but shall be reimbursed for travel expenses incurred while fulfilling the responsibilities of the Advisory Board.

(i) On June 30, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-519) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the terms of office of the members of the Advisory Board serving on that effective date shall terminate and the Board shall be reconstituted.

(j) The Advisory Board shall convene at the call of the Chair:

(1) to examine debilitating conditions or diseases that would benefit from the medical use of cannabis; and

(2) to review new medical and scientific evidence pertaining to currently approved conditions.

(k) The Advisory Board shall issue an annual report of its activities each year.

(l) The Advisory Board shall receive administrative support from the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 99-519, eff. 6-30-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-20-16.)

Section 605. The Illinois Egg and Egg Products Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(410 ILCS 615/15) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 55-15)

Sec. 15. Samples; packing methods.

(a) The Department shall prescribe methods in conformity with the United States Department of Agriculture specifications for selecting samples of lots, cases or containers of eggs or egg products which shall be reasonably calculated to produce fair representations of the entire lots or cases and containers sampled. Any sample taken shall be prima facie evidence in any court in this State of the true condition of the entire lot, case or container of eggs or egg products in the examination of which the sample was taken.

It shall be unlawful for any handler or retailer to pack eggs into consumer-size containers other than during the original candling and grading operations unless the retailer performs a lot consolidation.

(b) A retailer that wishes to consolidate eggs shall implement and administer a training program for employees that will perform the consolidation as part of their duties. The program shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) laws Laws governing egg lot consolidation:

(A) same lot code;

(B) same source;

(C) same sell-by date;

(D) same grade;

(E) same size;

(F) same brand;

(2) temperature requirements;

(3) egg is a hazardous food (FDA Guidelines);

(4) sanitation;

(5) egg quality (USDA guidelines);

(6) original packaging requirements (replacement cartons shall not be utilized); and

(7) record keeping requirements.

(c) Training shall be conducted annually and may be conducted by any means available, including, but not limited to, online, computer, classroom, live trainers, and remote trainers.

(d) A copy of the training material must be made available upon request from the Department. A copy of the training material may be kept electronically.

(e) Eggs shall be consolidated in a manner consistent with training materials required by subsection (b).

(f) Each store shall maintain a record of each egg carton consolidated. The records shall be maintained by the store at the physical location the eggs were consolidated at for a period not less than one year past the last sell-by date on the cartons consolidated. The records must be available for inspection upon request from the Department. The records may be kept electronically.

Each lot consolidation shall be documented. The information documented shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) date of consolidation;

(2) brand;

(3) egg size;

(4) distributor;

(5) USDA plant number;

(6) grade; and

(7) best-by (sell-by/use-by) date.

(g) An Illinois-based egg producer or Illinois-based egg producer-dealer may prohibit its brands from being included in an egg lot consolidation program. Any Illinois-based egg producer or Illinois-based egg producer-dealer that chooses to prohibit its brands from being included in an egg lot consolidation program shall notify a retailer in writing before entering into an agreement to distribute its eggs to the retailer. Producers or producer-dealers with agreements entered into prior to January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-732) this Act shall have 90 days after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-732) this Act to notify retailers in writing of their choice to prohibit consolidation of their egg brands.

Upon notification from an Illinois-based producer or Illinois-based producer dealer, a retailer shall not consolidate those brands.

(Source: P.A. 99-732, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 610. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 22.28 and 40 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/22.28) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.28)

Sec. 22.28. White goods.

(a) Beginning July 1, 1994, no person shall knowingly offer for collection or collect white goods for the purpose of disposal by landfilling unless the white good components have been removed.

(b) Beginning July 1, 1994, no owner or operator of a landfill shall accept any white goods for final disposal, except that white goods may be accepted if:

(1) the landfill participates in the Industrial Materials Exchange Service by communicating the availability of white goods;

(2) prior to final disposal, any white good components have been removed from the white goods; and

(3) if white good components are removed from the white goods at the landfill, a site operating plan satisfying this Act has been approved under the site operating permit and the conditions of such operating plan are met.

(c) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "White goods" shall include all discarded refrigerators, ranges, water heaters, freezers, air conditioners, humidifiers and other similar domestic and commercial large appliances.

(2) "White good components" shall include:

(i) any chlorofluorocarbon refrigerant gas;

(ii) any electrical switch containing mercury;

(iii) any device that contains or may contain PCBs in a closed system, such as a dielectric fluid for a capacitor, ballast or other component; and

(iv) any fluorescent lamp that contains mercury.

(d) The Agency is authorized to provide financial assistance to units of local government from the Solid Waste Management Fund to plan for and implement programs to collect, transport and manage white goods. Units of local government may apply jointly for financial assistance under this Section.

Applications for such financial assistance shall be submitted to the Agency and must provide a description of:

(A) the area to be served by the program;

(B) the white goods intended to be included in the program;

(C) the methods intended to be used for collecting and receiving materials;

(D) the property, buildings, equipment and personnel included in the program;

(E) the public education systems to be used as part of the program;

(F) the safety and security systems that will be used;

(G) the intended processing methods for each white goods type;

(H) the intended destination for final material handling location; and

(I) any staging sites used to handle collected materials, the activities to be performed at such sites and the procedures for assuring removal of collected materials from such sites.

The application may be amended to reflect changes in operating procedures, destinations for collected materials, or other factors.

Financial assistance shall be awarded for a State fiscal year, and may be renewed, upon application, if the Agency approves the operation of the program.

(e) All materials collected or received under a program operated with financial assistance under this Section shall be recycled whenever possible. Treatment or disposal of collected materials are not eligible for financial assistance unless the applicant shows and the Agency approves which materials may be treated or disposed of under various conditions.

Any revenue from the sale of materials collected under such a program shall be retained by the unit of local government and may be used only for the same purposes as the financial assistance under this Section.

(f) The Agency is authorized to adopt rules necessary or appropriate to the administration of this Section.

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 91-798, eff. 7-9-00; revised 10-6-16.)

(415 ILCS 5/40) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1040)

Sec. 40. Appeal of permit denial.

(a)(1) If the Agency refuses to grant or grants with conditions a permit under Section 39 of this Act, the applicant may, within 35 days after the date on which the Agency served its decision on the applicant, petition for a hearing before the Board to contest the decision of the Agency. However, the 35-day period for petitioning for a hearing may be extended for an additional period of time not to exceed 90 days by written notice provided to the Board from the applicant and the Agency within the initial appeal period. The Board shall give 21 days' day notice to any person in the county where is located the facility in issue who has requested notice of enforcement proceedings and to each member of the General Assembly in whose legislative district that installation or property is located; and shall publish that 21-day 21 day notice in a newspaper of general circulation in that county. The Agency shall appear as respondent in such hearing. At such hearing the rules prescribed in Section 32 and subsection (a) of Section 33 of this Act shall apply, and the burden of proof shall be on the petitioner. If, however, the Agency issues an NPDES permit that imposes limits which are based upon a criterion or denies a permit based upon application of a criterion, then the Agency shall have the burden of going forward with the basis for the derivation of those limits or criterion which were derived under the Board's rules.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3), if there is no final action by the Board within 120 days after the date on which it received the petition, the petitioner may deem the permit issued under this Act, provided, however, that that period of 120 days shall not run for any period of time, not to exceed 30 days, during which the Board is without sufficient membership to constitute the quorum required by subsection (a) of Section 5 of this Act, and provided further that such 120 day period shall not be stayed for lack of quorum beyond 30 days regardless of whether the lack of quorum exists at the beginning of such 120-day 120 day period or occurs during the running of such 120-day 120 day period.

(3) Paragraph (a)(2) shall not apply to any permit which is subject to subsection (b), (d) or (e) of Section 39. If there is no final action by the Board within 120 days after the date on which it received the petition, the petitioner shall be entitled to an Appellate Court order pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 41 of this Act.

(b) If the Agency grants a RCRA permit for a hazardous waste disposal site, a third party, other than the permit applicant or Agency, may, within 35 days after the date on which the Agency issued its decision, petition the Board for a hearing to contest the issuance of the permit. Unless the Board determines that such petition is duplicative or frivolous, or that the petitioner is so located as to not be affected by the permitted facility, the Board shall hear the petition in accordance with the terms of subsection (a) of this Section and its procedural rules governing denial appeals, such hearing to be based exclusively on the record before the Agency. The burden of proof shall be on the petitioner. The Agency and the permit applicant shall be named co-respondents.

The provisions of this subsection do not apply to the granting of permits issued for the disposal or utilization of sludge from publicly-owned sewage works.

(c) Any party to an Agency proceeding conducted pursuant to Section 39.3 of this Act may petition as of right to the Board for review of the Agency's decision within 35 days from the date of issuance of the Agency's decision, provided that such appeal is not duplicative or frivolous. However, the 35-day period for petitioning for a hearing may be extended by the applicant for a period of time not to exceed 90 days by written notice provided to the Board from the applicant and the Agency within the initial appeal period. If another person with standing to appeal wishes to obtain an extension, there must be a written notice provided to the Board by that person, the Agency, and the applicant, within the initial appeal period. The decision of the Board shall be based exclusively on the record compiled in the Agency proceeding. In other respects the Board's review shall be conducted in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section and the Board's procedural rules governing permit denial appeals.

(d) In reviewing the denial or any condition of a NA NSR permit issued by the Agency pursuant to rules and regulations adopted under subsection (c) of Section 9.1 of this Act, the decision of the Board shall be based exclusively on the record before the Agency including the record of the hearing, if any, unless the parties agree to supplement the record. The Board shall, if it finds the Agency is in error, make a final determination as to the substantive limitations of the permit including a final determination of Lowest Achievable Emission Rate.

(e)(1) If the Agency grants or denies a permit under subsection (b) of Section 39 of this Act, a third party, other than the permit applicant or Agency, may petition the Board within 35 days from the date of issuance of the Agency's decision, for a hearing to contest the decision of the Agency.

(2) A petitioner shall include the following within a petition submitted under subdivision (1) of this subsection:

(A) a demonstration that the petitioner raised the issues contained within the petition during the public notice period or during the public hearing on the NPDES permit application, if a public hearing was held; and

(B) a demonstration that the petitioner is so situated as to be affected by the permitted facility.

(3) If the Board determines that the petition is not duplicative or frivolous and contains a satisfactory demonstration under subdivision (2) of this subsection, the Board shall hear the petition (i) in accordance with the terms of subsection (a) of this Section and its procedural rules governing permit denial appeals and (ii) exclusively on the basis of the record before the Agency. The burden of proof shall be on the petitioner. The Agency and permit applicant shall be named co-respondents.

(f) Any person who files a petition to contest the issuance of a permit by the Agency shall pay a filing fee.

(Source: P.A. 99-463, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-6-16.)

Section 615. The Wastewater Land Treatment Site Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(415 ILCS 50/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 582)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.07 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.

(Source: P.A. 78-350; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 620. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 9 as follows:

(415 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 804)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

1. "Director" means Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture or his authorized representative.

2. "Active Ingredient" means any ingredient which will prevent, destroy, repel, control or mitigate a pest or which will act as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.

3. "Adulterated" shall apply to any pesticide if the strength or purity is not within the standard of quality expressed on the labeling under which it is sold, distributed or used, including any substance which has been substituted wholly or in part for the pesticide as specified on the labeling under which it is sold, distributed or used, or if any valuable constituent of the pesticide has been wholly or in part abstracted.

4. "Agricultural Commodity" means produce of the land including but not limited to plants and plant parts, livestock and poultry and livestock or poultry products, seeds, sod, shrubs and other products of agricultural origin including the premises necessary to and used directly in agricultural production. Agricultural commodity also includes aquatic products as defined in the Aquaculture Development Act.

5. "Animal" means all vertebrate and invertebrate species including, but not limited to, man and other mammals, bird, fish, and shellfish.

6. "Beneficial Insects" means those insects which during their life cycle are effective pollinators of plants, predators of pests or are otherwise beneficial.

7. "Certified applicator".

A. "Certified applicator" means any individual who is certified under this Act to purchase, use, or supervise the use of pesticides which are classified for restricted use.

B. "Private applicator" means a certified applicator who purchases, uses, or supervises the use of any pesticide classified for restricted use, for the purpose of producing any agricultural commodity on property owned, rented, or otherwise controlled by him or his employer, or applied to other property if done without compensation other than trading of personal services between no more than 2 producers of agricultural commodities.

C. "Licensed Commercial Applicator" means a certified applicator, whether or not he is a private applicator with respect to some uses, who owns or manages a business that is engaged in applying pesticides, whether classified for general or restricted use, for hire. The term also applies to a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides, whether classified for general or restricted use, for any purpose or on property of others excluding those specified by subparagraphs 7 (B), (D), (E) of Section 4 of this Act.

D. "Commercial Not For Hire Applicator" means a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides classified for general or restricted use for any purpose on property of an employer when such activity is a requirement of the terms of employment and such application of pesticides under this certification is limited to property under the control of the employer only and includes, but is not limited to, the use or supervision of the use of pesticides in a greenhouse setting. "Commercial Not For Hire Applicator" also includes a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides classified for general or restricted use as an employee of a state agency, municipality, or other duly constituted governmental agency or unit.

8. "Defoliant" means any substance or combination of substances which cause leaves or foliage to drop from a plant with or without causing abscission.

9. "Desiccant" means any substance or combination of substances intended for artificially accelerating the drying of plant tissue.

10. "Device" means any instrument or contrivance, other than a firearm or equipment for application of pesticides when sold separately from pesticides, which is intended for trapping, repelling, destroying, or mitigating any pest, other than bacteria, virus, or other microorganisms on or living in man or other living animals.

11. "Distribute" means offer or hold for sale, sell, barter, ship, deliver for shipment, receive and then deliver, or offer to deliver pesticides, within the State.

12. "Environment" includes water, air, land, and all plants and animals including man, living therein and the interrelationships which exist among these.

13. "Equipment" means any type of instruments and contrivances using motorized, mechanical or pressure power which is used to apply any pesticide, excluding pressurized hand-size household apparatus containing dilute ready to apply pesticide or used to apply household pesticides.

14. "FIFRA" means the "Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act", as amended.

15. "Fungi" means any non-chlorophyll bearing thallophytes, any non-chlorophyll bearing plant of a lower order than mosses or liverworts, as for example rust, smut, mildew, mold, yeast and bacteria, except those on or in living animals including man and those on or in processed foods, beverages or pharmaceuticals.

16. "Household Substance" means any pesticide customarily produced and distributed for use by individuals in or about the household.

17. "Imminent Hazard" means a situation which exists when continued use of a pesticide would likely result in unreasonable adverse effect on the environment or will involve unreasonable hazard to the survival of a species declared endangered by the U.S. Secretary of the Interior or to species declared to be protected by the Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

18. "Inert Ingredient" means an ingredient which is not an active ingredient.

19. "Ingredient Statement" means a statement of the name and percentage of each active ingredient together with the total percentage of inert ingredients in a pesticide and for pesticides containing arsenic in any form, the ingredient statement shall include percentage of total and water soluble arsenic, each calculated as elemental arsenic. In the case of spray adjuvants the ingredient statement need contain only the names of the functioning agents and the total percent of those constituents ineffective as spray adjuvants.

20. "Insect" means any of the numerous small invertebrate animals generally having the body more or less obviously segmented for the most part belonging to the class Insects, comprised of six-legged, usually winged forms, as for example beetles, caterpillars, and flies. This definition encompasses other allied classes of arthropods whose members are wingless and usually have more than 6 legs as for example spiders, mites, ticks, centipedes, and millipedes.

21. "Label" means the written, printed or graphic matter on or attached to the pesticide or device or any of its containers or wrappings.

22. "Labeling" means the label and all other written, printed or graphic matter: (a) on the pesticide or device or any of its containers or wrappings, (b) accompanying the pesticide or device or referring to it in any other media used to disseminate information to the public, (c) to which reference is made to the pesticide or device except when references are made to current official publications of the U. S. Environmental Protection Agency, Departments of Agriculture, Health, Education and Welfare or other Federal Government institutions, the state experiment station or colleges of agriculture or other similar state institution authorized to conduct research in the field of pesticides.

23. "Land" means all land and water area including airspace, and all plants, animals, structures, buildings, contrivances, and machinery appurtenant thereto or situated thereon, fixed or mobile, including any used for transportation.

24. "Licensed Operator" means a person employed to apply pesticides to the lands of others under the direction of a "licensed commercial applicator" or a "licensed commercial not-for-hire applicator".

25. "Nematode" means invertebrate animals of the phylum nemathelminthes and class nematoda, also referred to as nemas or eelworms, which are unsegmented roundworms with elongated fusiform or sac-like bodies covered with cuticle and inhabiting soil, water, plants or plant parts.

26. "Permit" means a written statement issued by the Director or his authorized agent, authorizing certain acts of pesticide purchase or of pesticide use or application on an interim basis prior to normal certification, registration, or licensing.

27. "Person" means any individual, partnership, association, fiduciary, corporation, or any organized group of persons whether incorporated or not.

28. "Pest" means (a) any insect, rodent, nematode, fungus, weed, or (b) any other form of terrestrial or aquatic plant or animal life or virus, bacteria, or other microorganism, excluding virus, bacteria, or other microorganism on or in living animals including man, which the Director declares to be a pest.

29. "Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest or any substance or mixture of substances intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.

30. "Pesticide Dealer" means any person who distributes registered pesticides to the user.

31. "Plant Regulator" means any substance or mixture of substances intended through physiological action to affect the rate of growth or maturation or otherwise alter the behavior of ornamental or crop plants or the produce thereof. This does not include substances which are not intended as plant nutrient trace elements, nutritional chemicals, plant or seed inoculants or soil conditioners or amendments.

32. "Protect Health and Environment" means to guard against any unreasonable adverse effects on the environment.

33. "Registrant" means person who has registered any pesticide pursuant to the provision of FIFRA and this Act.

34. "Restricted Use Pesticide" means any pesticide with one or more of its uses classified as restricted by order of the Administrator of USEPA.

35. "SLN Registration" means registration of a pesticide for use under conditions of special local need as defined by FIFRA.

36. "State Restricted Pesticide Use" means any pesticide use which the Director determines, subsequent to public hearing, that an additional restriction for that use is needed to prevent unreasonable adverse effects.

37. "Structural Pest" means any pests which attack and destroy buildings and other structures or which attack clothing, stored food, commodities stored at food manufacturing and processing facilities or manufactured and processed goods.

38. "Unreasonable Adverse Effects on the Environment" means the unreasonable risk to the environment, including man, from the use of any pesticide, when taking into account accrued benefits of as well as the economic, social, and environmental costs of its use.

39. "USEPA" means United States Environmental Protection Agency.

40. "Use inconsistent with the label" means to use a pesticide in a manner not consistent with the label instruction, the definition adopted in FIFRA as interpreted by USEPA shall apply in Illinois.

41. "Weed" means any plant growing in a place where it is not wanted.

42. "Wildlife" means all living things, not human, domestic, or pests.

43. "Bulk pesticide" means any registered pesticide which is transported or held in an individual container in undivided quantities of greater than 55 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight.

44. "Bulk repackaging" means the transfer of a registered pesticide from one bulk container (containing undivided quantities of greater than 100 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight) to another bulk container (containing undivided quantities of greater than 100 U.S. gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight) in an unaltered state in preparation for sale or distribution to another person.

45. "Business" means any individual, partnership, corporation or association engaged in a business operation for the purpose of selling or distributing pesticides or providing the service of application of pesticides in this State.

46. "Facility" means any building or structure and all real property contiguous thereto, including all equipment fixed thereon used for the operation of the business.

47. "Chemigation" means the application of a pesticide through the systems or equipment employed for the primary purpose of irrigation of land and crops.

48. "Use" means any activity covered by the pesticide label including but not limited to application of pesticide, mixing and loading, storage of pesticides or pesticide containers, disposal of pesticides and pesticide containers and reentry into treated sites or areas.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-540, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-6-16.)

(415 ILCS 60/9) (from Ch. 5, par. 809)

Sec. 9. Licenses and pesticide dealer registrations requirements; certification.

(a) Licenses and pesticide dealer registrations issued pursuant to this Act as a result of certification attained in calendar year 2017 or earlier shall be valid for the calendar year in which they were issued, except that private applicator licenses shall be valid for the calendar year in which they were issued plus 2 additional calendar years. All licenses and pesticide dealer registrations shall expire on December 31 of the year in which they are it is to expire. A license or pesticide dealer registration in effect on the 31st of December, for which renewal has been made within 60 days following the date of expiration, shall continue in full force and effect until the Director notifies the applicant that renewal has been approved and accepted or is to be denied in accordance with this Act. The Director shall not issue a license or pesticide dealer registration to a first time applicant or to a person who has not made application for renewal on or before March 1 following the expiration date of the license or pesticide dealer registration until such applicant or person has been certified by the Director as having successfully demonstrated competence and knowledge regarding pesticide use. The Director shall issue a license or pesticide dealer registration to a person that made application after March 1 and before April 15 if that application is accompanied by a late application fee. A licensee or pesticide dealer shall be required to be recertified for competence and knowledge regarding pesticide use at least once every 3 years and at such other times as deemed necessary by the Director to assure a continued level of competence and ability. The Director shall by regulation specify the standard of qualification for certification and the manner of establishing an applicant's competence and knowledge. A certification shall remain valid only if an applicant attains licensure or pesticide dealer registration during the calendar year in which certification was granted and the licensure is maintained throughout the 3-year certification period.

(b) Multi-year licenses and pesticide dealer registrations issued pursuant to this Act as a result of certification attained in calendar year 2018 or thereafter shall be valid for the calendar year in which they were issued plus 2 additional calendar years. All licenses and pesticide dealer registrations shall expire on December 31 of the year in which they are to expire. A license or pesticide dealer registration in effect on the 31st of December, for which recertification and licensure has been made within 60 days following the date of expiration, shall continue in full force and effect until the Director notifies the applicant that recertification and licensure has been approved and accepted or is to be denied in accordance with this Act. A licensee or pesticide dealer shall be required to be recertified for competence and knowledge regarding pesticide use at least once every 3 years and at such other times as deemed necessary by the Director to assure a continued level of competence and ability. The Director shall by rule specify the standard of qualification for certification and the manner of establishing the applicant's competence and knowledge. A certification shall remain valid only if an applicant attains licensure or pesticide dealer registration during the calendar year in which certification was granted and the licensure is maintained throughout the 3-year certification period. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this subsection (b), the employer of a pesticide applicator or operator licensee may notify the Director that the licensee's employment has been terminated. If the employer submits that notification, the employer shall return to the Director the licensee's pesticide applicator or operator license card and may request that the unused portion of the terminated licensee's pesticide applicator or operator license term be transferred to a newly certified or re-certified individual, and the Director may issue the appropriate pesticide applicator or operator license to the newly certified or re-certified individual with an expiration date equal to the original license after payment of a $10 transfer fee.

(c) The Director may refuse to issue a license or pesticide dealer registration based upon the violation history of the applicant.

(Source: P.A. 98-923, eff. 1-1-15; 99-540, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-6-16.)

Section 625. The Mercury Thermostat Collection Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(415 ILCS 98/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 25. Collection goals. The collection programs established by thermostat manufacturers under this Act shall be designed to collectively achieve the following statewide goals:

(a) For calendar year 2011, the collection of least 5,000 mercury thermostats taken out of service in the State during the calendar year.

(b) For calendar years 2012, 2013, and 2014, the collection of at least 15,000 mercury thermostats taken out of service in the State during each calendar year.

(c) For calendar years 2015 through 2020, the collection goals shall be established by the Agency. The Agency shall establish collection goals no later than November 1, 2014. The collection goals established by the Agency shall maximize the annual collection of out-of-service mercury thermostats in the State. In developing the collection goals, the Agency shall take into account, at a minimum, (i) the effectiveness of collection programs for out-of-service mercury thermostats in the State and other states, including education and outreach efforts, (ii) collection requirements in other states, (iii) any reports or studies on the number of out-of-service mercury thermostats that are available for collection in this State, other states, and nationally, and (iv) other factors. Prior to establishing the collection goals, the Agency shall consult with stakeholder groups that include, at a minimum, representatives of thermostat manufacturers, environmental groups, thermostat wholesalers, contractors, and thermostat retailers.

(d) The collection goals established by the Agency under subsection (c) of this Section are statements of general applicability under Section 1-70 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and shall be adopted in accordance with the procedures of that Act. Any person adversely affected by a goal established by the Agency under subsection (c) of this Section may obtain a determination of the validity or application of the goal by filing a petition for review within 35 days after the date the adopted goal is published in the Illinois Register pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 5-40 40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the District in which the cause of action arose and not the Circuit Court. During the pendency of the review, the goal under review shall remain in effect.

(e) For the purposes of determining compliance with the collection goals established under this Section, for calendar year 2015 and for each calendar year thereafter, the number of out-of-service mercury thermostats represented by loose ampoules shall be calculated:

(1) using a conversion factor such that each loose mercury ampoule collected shall be deemed the equivalent of 0.85 mercury thermostats; or

(2) using an alternative conversion factor determined by the manufacturer or group of manufacturers.

A manufacturer or group of manufacturers shall include data and calculations to support its use of an alternative conversion factor.

(Source: P.A. 99-122, eff. 7-23-15; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 635. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-9)

Sec. 9. Every person whose application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, and every holder of such a Card whose Card is revoked or seized, shall receive a written notice from the Department of State Police stating specifically the grounds upon which his application has been denied or upon which his Identification Card has been revoked. The written notice shall include the requirements of Section 9.5 of this Act and the person's persons's right to administrative or judicial review under Section 10 and 11 of this Act. A copy of the written notice shall be provided to the sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 640. The Livestock Management Facilities Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(510 ILCS 77/30)

Sec. 30. Certified Livestock Manager. The Department shall establish a Certified Livestock Manager program in conjunction with the livestock industry that will enhance management skills in critical areas, such as environmental awareness, safety concerns, odor control techniques and technology, neighbor awareness, current best management practices, and the developing and implementing of manure management plans.

(a) Applicability. A livestock waste handling facility serving 300 or greater animal units shall be operated only under the supervision of a certified livestock manager. Notwithstanding Not withstanding the before-stated provision, a livestock waste handling facility may be operated on an interim basis, but not to exceed 6 months, to allow for the owner or operator of the facility to become certified.

(b) A certification program shall include the following:

(1) A general working knowledge of best management practices.

(2) A general working knowledge of livestock waste handling practices and procedures.

(3) A general working knowledge of livestock management operations and related safety issues.

(4) An awareness and understanding of the responsibility of the owner or operator for all employees who may be involved with waste handling.

(c) Any certification issued shall be valid for 3 years and thereafter be subject to renewal. A renewal shall be valid for a 3 year period and the procedures set forth in this Section shall be followed. The Department may require anyone who is certified to be recertified in less than 3 years for just cause including but not limited to repeated complaints where investigations reveal the need to improve management practices.

(d) Methods for obtaining certified livestock manager status.

(1) The owner or operator of a livestock waste handling facility serving 300 or greater animal units but less than 1,000 animal units shall become a certified livestock manager by:

(A) attending a training session conducted by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperative Extension Service, or any agriculture association, which has been approved by or is in cooperation with the Department; or

(B) in lieu of attendance at a training session, successfully completing a written competency examination.

(2) The owner or operator of a livestock waste handling facility serving 1,000 or greater animal units shall become a certified livestock manager by attending a training session conducted by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperative Extension Service, or any agriculture association, which has been approved by or is in cooperation with the Department and successfully completing a written competency examination.

(e) The certified livestock manager certificate shall be issued by the Department and shall indicate that the person named on the certificate is certified as a livestock management facility manager, the dates of certification, and when renewal is due.

(f) For the years prior to 2011, the Department shall charge $10 for the issuance or renewal of a certified livestock manager certificate. For the years 2011 and thereafter, the Department shall charge $30 for the issuance or renewal of a certified livestock manager certificate. The Department may, by rule, establish fees to cover the costs of materials and training for training sessions given by the Department.

(g) The owner or operator of a livestock waste handling facility operating in violation of the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section shall be issued a warning letter for the first violation and shall be required to have a certified manager for the livestock waste handling facility within 30 working days. For failure to comply with the warning letter within the 30 day period, the person shall be fined an administrative penalty of up to $1,000 by the Department and shall be required to enter into an agreement to have a certified manager for the livestock waste handling facility within 30 working days. For continued failure to comply, the Department may issue an operational cease and desist order until compliance is attained.

(Source: P.A. 96-1310, eff. 7-27-10; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 645. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 2.33a as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.33a) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33a)

Sec. 2.33a. Trapping.

(a) It is unlawful to fail to visit and remove all animals from traps staked out, set, used, tended, placed or maintained at least once each calendar day.

(b) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use, or maintain a leghold trap or one of similar construction on land, that has a jaw spread of larger than 6 1/2 inches (16.6 CM), or a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread larger than 7 inches (17.8 CM) on a side if square and 8 inches (20.4 CM) if round.

(c) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use, or maintain a leghold trap or one of similar construction in water, that has a jaw spread of larger than 7 1/2 inches (19.1 CM), or a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread larger than 10 inches (25.4 CM) on a side if square and 12 inches (30.5 CM) if round.

(d) It is unlawful to use any trap with saw-toothed, spiked, or toothed jaws.

(e) It is unlawful to destroy, disturb or in any manner interfere with dams, lodges, burrows or feed beds of beaver while trapping for beaver or to set a trap inside a muskrat house or beaver lodge, except that this shall not apply to Drainage Districts that who are acting pursuant to the provisions of Section 2.37.

(f) It is unlawful to trap beaver or river otter with: (1) a leghold trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread of less than 5 1/2 inches (13.9 CM) or more than 7 1/2 inches (19.1 CM), or (2) a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction having a jaw spread of less than 7 inches (17.7 CM) or more than 10 inches (25.4 CM) on a side if square and 12 inches (30.5 CM) if round, except that these restrictions shall not apply during the open season for trapping raccoons.

(g) It is unlawful to set traps closer than 10 feet (3.05 M) from any hole or den which may be occupied by a game mammal or fur-bearing mammal except that this restriction shall not apply to water sets.

(h) It is unlawful to trap or attempt to trap any fur-bearing mammal with any colony, cage, box, or stove-pipe trap designed to take more than one mammal at a single setting.

(i) It is unlawful for any person to set or place any trap designed to take any fur-bearing mammal protected by this Act during the closed trapping season. Proof that any trap was placed during the closed trapping season shall be deemed prima facie evidence of a violation of this provision.

(j) It is unlawful to place, set, or maintain any leghold trap or one of similar construction within thirty (30) feet (9.14 m) of bait placed in such a manner or position that it is not completely covered and concealed from sight, except that this shall not apply to underwater sets. Bait shall mean and include any bait composed of mammal, bird, or fish flesh, fur, hide, entrails or feathers.

(k) (Blank).

(l) It is unlawful for any person to place, set, use or maintain a snare trap or one of similar construction in water, that has a loop diameter exceeding 15 inches (38.1 CM) or a cable or wire diameter of more than 1/8 inch (3.2 MM) or less than 5/64 inch (2.0 MM), that is constructed of stainless steel metal cable or wire, and that does not have a mechanical lock, anchor swivel and stop device to prevent the mechanical lock from closing the noose loop to a diameter of less than 2 1/2 inches (6.4 CM).

(m) It is unlawful to trap muskrat or mink with (1) a leghold trap or one of similar construction or (2) a body-gripping trap or one of similar construction unless the body-gripping trap or similar trap is completely submerged underwater when set. These restrictions shall not apply during the open season for trapping raccoons.

(Source: P.A. 99-33, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 650. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-132, 2-115, 3-114.1, 3-414, 3-506, 3-699.14, 3-704.1, 3-809, 6-106, 7-311, 11-905, 11-907, 11-908, 11-1431, 15-107, and 18c-7402 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-132) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-132)

Sec. 1-132. Intersection.

(a) The area embraced within the prolongation or connection of the lateral curb lines, or, if none, then the lateral boundary lines of the roadways of two highways which join one another at, or approximately at, right angles or the area within which vehicles traveling upon different roadways joining at any other angle may come in conflict.

(b) Where a highway includes two roadways 40 feet or more apart, then every crossing of each roadway of such divided highway by an intersecting highway shall be regarded as a separate intersection.

(c) The junction of an alley with a street or highway does not constitute an intersection.

(Source: P.A. 77-321; revised 9-14-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/2-115) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-115)

Sec. 2-115. Investigators.

(a) The Secretary of State, for the purpose of more effectively carrying out the provisions of the laws in relation to motor vehicles, shall have power to appoint such number of investigators as he may deem necessary. It shall be the duty of such investigators to investigate and enforce violations of the provisions of this Act administered by the Secretary of State and provisions of Chapters 11, 12, 13, 14, and 15 and to investigate and report any violation by any person who operates as a motor carrier of property as defined in Section 18-100 of this Act and does not hold a valid certificate or permit. Such investigators shall have and may exercise throughout the State all of the powers of peace officers.

No person may be retained in service as an investigator under this Section after he or she has reached 60 years of age, except for a person employed in the title of Capitol Police Investigator and who began employment on or after January 1, 2011, in which case, that person they may not be retained in service after that person has reached 65 years of age.

The Secretary of State must authorize to each investigator employed under this Section and to any other employee of the Office of the Secretary of State exercising the powers of a peace officer a distinct badge that, on its face, (i) clearly states that the badge is authorized by the Office of the Secretary of State and (ii) contains a unique identifying number. No other badge shall be authorized by the Office of the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary may expend such sums as he deems necessary from Contractual Services appropriations for the Department of Police for the purchase of evidence, for the employment of persons to obtain evidence, and for the payment for any goods or services related to obtaining evidence. Such sums shall be advanced to investigators authorized by the Secretary to expend funds, on vouchers signed by the Secretary. In addition, the Secretary of State is authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used solely for the purchase of evidence and for the employment of persons to obtain evidence, or for the payment for any goods or services related to obtaining evidence; provided that no check may be written on nor any withdrawal made from any such account except on the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Secretary to write such checks and make such withdrawals, and provided further that the balance of moneys on deposit in any such account shall not exceed $5,000 at any time, nor shall any one check written on or single withdrawal made from any such account exceed $5,000.

All fines or moneys collected or received by the Department of Police under any State or federal forfeiture statute; including, but not limited to moneys forfeited under Section 12 of the Cannabis Control Act, moneys forfeited under Section 85 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and moneys distributed under Section 413 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund.

In all convictions for offenses in violation of this Act, the Court may order restitution to the Secretary of any or all sums expended for the purchase of evidence, for the employment of persons to obtain evidence, and for the payment for any goods or services related to obtaining evidence. All such restitution received by the Secretary shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund. Moneys deposited into the fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Secretary of State for the purposes provided for under the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-896, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-25-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-114.1)

Sec. 3-114.1. Transfers to and from charitable organizations. When a charitable not-for-profit organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code becomes the recipient of a motor vehicle by means of a donation from an individual, the organization need not send the certificate of title to the Secretary of State. Upon transferring the motor vehicle, the organization shall promptly and within 20 days execute the reassignment to reflect the transfer from the organization to the purchaser. The organization is specifically authorized to complete and execute the space reserved in the certificate of title for a dealer reassignment, notwithstanding not withstanding that the organization is not a licensed dealer. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require the organization to become a licensed vehicle dealer.

(Source: P.A. 92-495, eff. 1-1-02; revised 9-14-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-414)

Sec. 3-414. Expiration of registration.

(a) Every vehicle registration under this Chapter and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued hereunder to a vehicle shall be for the periods specified in this Chapter and shall expire at midnight on the day and date specified in this Section as follows:

1. When registered on a calendar year basis commencing January 1, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State; however, through December 31, 2004, registrations of apportionable vehicles, motorcycles, motor driven cycles and pedalcycles shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31st of the following calendar year;

1.1. Beginning January 1, 2005, registrations of motorcycles and motor driven cycles shall commence on January 1 and shall expire on December 31 or on another date that may be selected by the Secretary; registrations of apportionable vehicles and pedalcycles, however, shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31 of the following calendar year;

2. When registered on a 2 calendar year basis commencing January 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December of the ensuing odd-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond March 1 next;

3. When registered on a fiscal year basis commencing July 1, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

4. When registered on a 2 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

5. When registered on a 4 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the second ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next. ;

(a-5) The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, require an owner of a motor vehicle of the first division or a motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds to select the owner's birthday as the date of registration expiration under this Section. If the motor vehicle has more than one registered owner, the owners may select one registered owner's birthday as the date of registration expiration. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection.

(b) Vehicle registrations of vehicles of the first division shall be for a calendar year, 2 calendar year, 3 calendar year, or 5 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations of vehicles under Sections 3-807, 3-808 and 3-809 shall be on an indefinite term basis or a 2 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations for vehicles of the second division shall be for a fiscal year, 2 fiscal year or calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued annually upon payment of the appropriate fees. Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-405.3 shall be issued multi-year registration plates with a new multi-year registration card issued pursuant to subsections (j), (k), and (l) of this Section upon payment of the appropriate fees. Apportionable trailers and apportionable semitrailers registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates and cards that will be subject to revocation for failure to pay annual fees required by Section 3-814.1. The Secretary shall determine when these vehicles shall be issued new registration plates.

(c) Every vehicle registration specified in Section 3-810 and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued thereunder shall expire on the 31st day of December of each year or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(d) Every vehicle registration for a vehicle of the second division weighing over 8,000 pounds, except as provided in paragraph (g) of this Section, and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued hereunder to such vehicles shall be issued for a fiscal year commencing on July 1st of each registration year. However, the Secretary of State may, pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or declaration providing for apportionment of a fleet of vehicles with other jurisdictions, provide for registration of such vehicles under apportionment or for all of the vehicles registered in Illinois by an applicant who registers some of his vehicles under apportionment on a calendar year basis instead, and the fees or taxes to be paid on a calendar year basis shall be identical to those specified in this Act for a fiscal year registration. Provision for installment payment may also be made.

(e) Semitrailer registrations under apportionment may be on a calendar year under a reciprocal agreement or arrangement and all other semitrailer registrations shall be on fiscal year or 2 fiscal year or 4 fiscal year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

(f) The Secretary of State may convert annual registration plates or 2-year registration plates, whether registered on a calendar year or fiscal year basis, to multi-year plates. The determination of which plate categories and when to convert to multi-year plates is solely within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(g) After January 1, 1975, each registration, registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued for a recreational vehicle or recreational or camping trailer, except a house trailer, used exclusively by the owner for recreational purposes, and not used commercially nor as a truck or bus, nor for hire, shall be on a calendar year basis; except that the Secretary of State shall provide for registration and the issuance of registration cards and plates or registration stickers, where applicable, for one 6-month period in order to accomplish an orderly transition from a fiscal year to a calendar year basis. Fees and taxes due under this Act for a registration year shall be appropriately reduced for such 6-month transitional registration period.

(h) The Secretary of State may, in order to accomplish an orderly transition for vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 of this Code from a calendar year registration to a March 31st expiration, require applicants to pay fees and taxes due under this Code on a 15 month registration basis. However, if in the discretion of the Secretary of State this creates an undue hardship on any applicant the Secretary may allow the applicant to pay 3 month fees and taxes at the time of registration and the additional 12 month fees and taxes to be payable no later than March 31, 1992 31 of the year after this amendatory Act of 1991 takes effect.

(i) The Secretary of State may stagger registrations, or change the annual expiration date, as necessary for the convenience of the public and the efficiency of his Office. In order to appropriately and effectively accomplish any such staggering, the Secretary of State is authorized to prorate all required registration fees, rounded to the nearest dollar, but in no event for a period longer than 18 months, at a monthly rate for a 12 month registration fee.

(j) The Secretary of State may enter into an agreement with a rental owner, as defined in Section 3-400 of this Code, who registers a fleet of motor vehicles of the first division pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code to provide for the registration of the rental owner's vehicles on a 2 or 3 calendar year basis and the issuance of multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued up to every 3 years.

(k) The Secretary of State may provide multi-year registration cards for any registered fleet of motor vehicles of the first or second division that are registered pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code. Each motor vehicle of the registered fleet must carry an unique multi-year registration card that displays the vehicle identification number of the registered motor vehicle. The Secretary of State shall promulgate rules in order to implement multi-year registrations.

(l) Beginning with the 2018 registration year, the Secretary of State may enter into an agreement with a rental owner, as defined in Section 3-400 of this Code, who registers a fleet of motor vehicles of the first division under Section 3-405.3 of this Code to provide for the registration of the rental owner's vehicle on a 5 calendar year basis. Motor vehicles registered on a 5 calendar year basis shall be issued a distinct registration plate that expires on a 5-year cycle. The Secretary may prorate the registration of these registration plates to the length of time remaining in the 5-year cycle. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 99-80, eff. 1-1-16; 99-644, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-26-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-506)

Sec. 3-506. Transfer of plates to spouses of military service members. Upon the death of a military service member who has been issued a special plate plates under Section 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, or 3-699.12 of this Code, the surviving spouse of that service member may retain the plate so long as that spouse is a resident of Illinois and transfers the registration to his or her name within 180 days of the death of the service member.

For the purposes of this Section, "service member" means any individual who is serving or has served in any branch of the United States Armed Forces, including the National Guard or other reserve components of the Armed Forces, and has been issued a special plate listed in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-805, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.14)

Sec. 3-699.14. Universal special license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue Universal special license plates to residents of Illinois on behalf of organizations that have been authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. Authorized organizations shall be designated by amendment to this Section. When applying for a Universal special license plate the applicant shall inform the Secretary of the name of the authorized organization from which the applicant will obtain a decal to place on the plate. The Secretary shall make a record of that organization and that organization shall remain affiliated with that plate until the plate is surrendered, revoked, or otherwise cancelled. The authorized organization may charge a fee to offset the cost of producing and distributing the decal, but that fee shall be retained by the authorized organization and shall be separate and distinct from any registration fees charged by the Secretary. No decal, sticker, or other material may be affixed to a Universal special license plate other than a decal authorized by the General Assembly in this Section or a registration renewal sticker. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles and autocycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure under Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the Universal special license plate shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Universal special license plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The design shall allow for the application of a decal to the plate. Organizations authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates shall comply with rules adopted by the Secretary governing the requirements for and approval of Universal special license plate decals. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow Universal special license plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles and autocycles.

(c) When authorizing a Universal special license plate, the General Assembly shall set forth whether an additional fee is to be charged for the plate and, if a fee is to be charged, the amount of the fee and how the fee is to be distributed. When necessary, the authorizing language shall create a special fund in the State treasury into which fees may be deposited for an authorized Universal special license plate. Additional fees may only be charged if the fee is to be paid over to a State agency or to a charitable entity that is in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act. Any charitable entity receiving fees for the sale of Universal special license plates shall annually provide the Secretary of State a letter of compliance issued by the Attorney General verifying that the entity is in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(d) Upon original issuance and for each registration renewal period, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable, the Secretary shall collect any additional fees, if required, for issuance of Universal special license plates. The fees shall be collected on behalf of the organization designated by the applicant when applying for the plate. All fees collected shall be transferred to the State agency on whose behalf the fees were collected, or paid into the special fund designated in the law authorizing the organization to issue decals for Universal special license plates. All money in the designated fund shall be distributed by the Secretary subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(e) The following organizations may issue decals for Universal special license plates with the original and renewal fees and fee distribution as follows:

(1) The Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special Plate Fund.

(2) (1) Illinois Veterans' Homes.

(A) Original issuance: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(B) Renewal: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(f) The following funds are created as special funds in the State treasury:

(1) The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund. All moneys to be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Natural Resources to fund roadside monarch and other pollinator habitat development, enhancement, and restoration projects in this State.

(Source: P.A. 99-483, eff. 7-1-16; 99-723, eff. 8-5-16; 99-814, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-12-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-704.1)

Sec. 3-704.1. Municipal vehicle tax liability; suspension of registration.

(a) As used in this Section:

(1) "Municipality" means a city, village or incorporated town with a population over 1,000,000.

(2) "Vehicle tax" means a motor vehicle tax and any related late fees or charges imposed by a municipality under Section 8-11-4 of or the Illinois Municipal Code or under the municipality's home rule powers.

(3) "Vehicle owner" means the registered owner or owners of a vehicle who are residents of the municipality.

(b) A municipality that imposes a vehicle tax may, by ordinance adopted under this Section, establish a system whereby the municipality notifies the Secretary of State of vehicle tax liability and the Secretary of State suspends the registration of vehicles for which the tax has not been paid. An ordinance establishing a system must provide for the following:

(1) A first notice for failure to pay a vehicle tax shall be sent by first class mail to the vehicle owner at the owner's address recorded with the Secretary of State whenever the municipality has reasonable cause to believe that the vehicle owner has failed to pay a vehicle tax as required by ordinance. The notice shall include at least the following:

(A) The name and address of the vehicle owner.

(B) The registration plate number of the vehicle.

(C) The period for which the vehicle tax is due.

(D) The amount of vehicle tax that is due.

(E) A statement that the vehicle owner's registration for the vehicle will be subject to suspension proceedings unless the vehicle owner pays the vehicle tax or successfully contests the owner's alleged liability within 30 days of the date of the notice.

(F) An explanation of the vehicle owner's opportunity to be heard under subsection (c).

(2) If a vehicle owner fails to pay the vehicle tax or to contest successfully the owner's alleged liability within the period specified in the first notice, a second notice of impending registration suspension shall be sent by first class mail to the vehicle owner at the owner's address recorded with the Secretary of State. The notice shall contain the same information as the first notice, but shall also state that the failure to pay the amount owing, or to contest successfully the alleged liability within 45 days of the date of the second notice, will result in the municipality's notification of the Secretary of State that the vehicle owner is eligible for initiation of suspension proceedings under this Section.

(c) An ordinance adopted under this Section must also give the vehicle owner an opportunity to be heard upon the filing of a timely petition with the municipality. A vehicle owner may contest the alleged tax liability either through an adjudication by mail or at an administrative hearing, at the option of the vehicle owner. The grounds upon which the liability may be contested may be limited to the following:

(1) The alleged vehicle owner does not own the vehicle.

(2) The vehicle is not subject to the vehicle tax by law.

(3) The vehicle tax for the period in question has been paid.

At an administrative hearing, the formal or technical rules of evidence shall not apply. The hearing shall be recorded. The person conducting the hearing shall have the power to administer oaths and to secure by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant documents.

(d) If a vehicle owner who has been sent a first notice of failure to pay a vehicle tax and a second notice of impending registration suspension fails to pay the vehicle tax or to contest successfully the vehicle owner's liability within the periods specified in the notices, the appropriate official shall cause a certified report to be sent to the Secretary of State under subsection (e).

(e) A report of a municipality notifying the Secretary of State of a vehicle owner's failure to pay a vehicle tax or related fines or penalties under this Section shall be certified by the appropriate official and shall contain the following:

(1) The name, last known address, and registration plate number of the vehicle of the person who failed to pay the vehicle tax.

(2) The name of the municipality making the report.

(3) A statement that the municipality sent notices as required by subsection (b); the date on which the notices were sent; the address to which the notices were sent; and the date of the hearing, if any.

(f) Following receipt of the certified report under this Section, the Secretary of State shall notify the vehicle owner that the vehicle's registration will be suspended at the end of a reasonable specified period of time unless the Secretary of State is presented with a notice from the municipality certifying that the person has paid the necessary vehicle tax, or that inclusion of that person's name or registration number on the certified report was in error. The Secretary's notice shall state in substance the information contained in the certified report from the municipality to the Secretary, and shall be effective as specified by subsection (c) of Section 6-211 of this Code. The notice shall also inform the person of the person's right to a hearing under subsection (g).

(g) An administrative hearing with the Office of the Secretary of State to contest an impending suspension or a suspension made under this Section may be had upon filing a written request with the Secretary of State. The filing fee for this hearing shall be $20 to be paid at the time the request is made.

(1) The scope of any administrative hearing with the Secretary of State to contest an impending suspension under this Section shall be limited to the following issues:

(A) Whether the report of the appropriate official of the municipality was certified and contained the information required by this Section.

(B) Whether the municipality making the certified report to the Secretary of State established procedures by ordinance for persons to challenge the accuracy of the certified report.

(C) Whether the Secretary of State notified the vehicle owner that the vehicle's registration would be suspended at the end of the specified time period unless the Secretary of State was presented with a notice from the municipality certifying that the person has purchased the necessary vehicle tax sticker or that inclusion of that person's name or registration number on the certified report was in error.

A municipality that files a certified report with the Secretary of State under this Section shall reimburse the Secretary for all reasonable costs incurred by the Secretary as a result of the filing of the report, including but not limited to the costs of providing the notice required under subsection (f) and the costs incurred by the Secretary in any hearing conducted with respect to the report under this subsection and any appeal from that hearing.

(h) After the expiration of the time specified under subsection (g), the Secretary of State shall, unless the suspension is successfully contested, suspend the registration of the vehicle until the Secretary receives notice under subsection (i).

(i) Any municipality making a certified report to the Secretary of State under this subsection shall notify the Secretary of State, in a form prescribed by the Secretary, whenever a person named in the certified report has subsequently paid a vehicle tax or whenever the municipality determines that the original report was in error. A certified copy of the notification shall also be given upon request and at no additional charge to the person named in the report. Upon receipt of the notification or presentation of a certified copy of the notification by the municipality, the Secretary of State shall terminate the suspension.

(j) To facilitate enforcement of municipal vehicle tax liability, a municipality may provide by ordinance for a program of vehicle immobilization as provided by Section 11-1430.1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-937, eff. 8-10-12; revised 9-14-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-809) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-809)

Sec. 3-809. Farm machinery, exempt vehicles and fertilizer spreaders; registration spreaders - registration fee.

(a) Vehicles of the second division having a corn sheller, a well driller, hay press, clover huller, feed mixer and unloader, or other farm machinery permanently mounted thereon and used solely for transporting the same, farm wagon type trailers having a fertilizer spreader attachment permanently mounted thereon, having a gross weight of not to exceed 36,000 pounds and used only for the transportation of bulk fertilizer, and farm wagon type tank trailers of not to exceed 3,000 gallons capacity, used during the liquid fertilizer season as field-storage "nurse tanks" supplying the fertilizer to a field applicator and moved on highways only for bringing the fertilizer from a local source of supply to farm or field or from one farm or field to another, or used during the lime season and moved on the highways only for bringing from a local source of supply to farm or field or from one farm or field to another, shall be registered upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee of $13 per 2-year registration period. This registration fee of $13 shall be paid in full and shall not be reduced even though such registration is made after the beginning of the registration period.

(b) Vehicles exempt from registration under the provisions of Section 3-402.A of this Act, as amended, except those vehicles required to be registered under paragraph (c) of this Section, may, at the option of the owner, be identified as exempt vehicles by displaying registration plates issued by the Secretary of State. The owner thereof may apply for such permanent, non-transferable registration plates upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee of $13. The application for and display of such registration plates for identification purposes by vehicles exempt from registration shall not be deemed as a waiver or rescission recision of its exempt status, nor make such vehicle subject to registration. Nothing in this Section prohibits the towing of another vehicle by the exempt vehicle if the towed vehicle:

(i) does not exceed the registered weight of 8,000 pounds;

(ii) is used exclusively for transportation to and from the work site;

(iii) is not used for carrying counter weights or other material related to the operation of the exempt vehicle while under tow; and

(iv) displays proper and current registration plates.

(c) Any single unit self-propelled agricultural fertilizer implement, designed for both on and off road use, equipped with flotation tires and otherwise specially adapted for the application of plant food materials or agricultural chemicals, desiring to be operated upon the highways ladened with load shall be registered upon the filing of a proper application and payment of a registration fee of $250. The registration fee shall be paid in full and shall not be reduced even though such registration is made during the second half of the registration year. These vehicles shall, whether loaded or unloaded, be limited to a maximum gross weight of 36,000 pounds, restricted to a highway speed of not more than 30 miles per hour and a legal width of not more than 12 feet. Such vehicles shall be limited to the furthering of agricultural or horticultural pursuits and in furtherance of these pursuits, such vehicles may be operated upon the highway, within a 50 mile radius of their point of loading as indicated on the written or printed statement required by the "Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961", as amended, for the purpose of moving plant food materials or agricultural chemicals to the field, or from field to field, for the sole purpose of application.

No single unit self-propelled agricultural fertilizer implement, designed for both on and off road use, equipped with flotation tires and otherwise specially adapted for the application of plant food materials or agricultural chemicals, having a width of more than 12 feet or a gross weight in excess of 36,000 pounds, shall be permitted to operate upon the highways ladened with load.

Whenever any vehicle is operated in violation of subsection (c) of this Section 3-809 (c) of this Act, the owner or the driver of such vehicle shall be deemed guilty of a petty offense and either may be prosecuted for such violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-665, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-14-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106)

Sec. 6-106. Application for license or instruction permit.

(a) Every application for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Code shall be made upon a form furnished by the Secretary of State. Every application shall be accompanied by the proper fee and payment of such fee shall entitle the applicant to not more than 3 attempts to pass the examination within a period of one year after the date of application.

(b) Every application shall state the legal name, social security number, zip code, date of birth, sex, and residence address of the applicant; briefly describe the applicant; state whether the applicant has theretofore been licensed as a driver, and, if so, when and by what state or country, and whether any such license has ever been cancelled, suspended, revoked or refused, and, if so, the date and reason for such cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal; shall include an affirmation by the applicant that all information set forth is true and correct; and shall bear the applicant's signature. In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide a mailing address. In the case of an applicant who is a judicial officer or peace officer, the Secretary may allow the applicant to provide an office or work address in lieu of a residence or mailing address. The application form may also require the statement of such additional relevant information as the Secretary of State shall deem necessary to determine the applicant's competency and eligibility. The Secretary of State may, in his discretion, by rule or regulation, provide that an application for a drivers license or permit may include a suitable photograph of the applicant in the form prescribed by the Secretary, and he may further provide that each drivers license shall include a photograph of the driver. The Secretary of State may utilize a photograph process or system most suitable to deter alteration or improper reproduction of a drivers license and to prevent substitution of another photo thereon. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(b-5) Beginning July 1, 2017, every applicant for a driver's license or permit shall provide proof of lawful status in the United States as defined in 6 CFR 37.3, as amended. Applicants who are unable to provide the Secretary with proof of lawful status may apply for a driver's license or permit under Section 6-105.1 of this Code.

(c) The application form shall include a notice to the applicant of the registration obligations of sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The notice shall be provided in a form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. For purposes of this subsection (c), "sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(d) Any male United States citizen or immigrant who applies for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this Code or for a renewal of any permit or license, and who is at least 18 years of age but less than 26 years of age, must be registered in compliance with the requirements of the federal Military Selective Service Act. The Secretary of State must forward in an electronic format the necessary personal information regarding the applicants identified in this subsection (d) to the Selective Service System. The applicant's signature on the application serves as an indication that the applicant either has already registered with the Selective Service System or that he is authorizing the Secretary to forward to the Selective Service System the necessary information for registration. The Secretary must notify the applicant at the time of application that his signature constitutes consent to registration with the Selective Service System, if he is not already registered.

(e) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original or renewal driver's license application under this Code, the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a veteran for purposes of issuing a driver's license with a veteran designation under subsection (e-5) of Section 6-110 of this Code. The acceptable forms of proof shall include, but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall advise the Secretary as to what other forms of proof of a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.

The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran before the Secretary may issue the driver's license.

For purposes of this subsection (e):

"Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component or National Guard unit.

"Veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces and was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-511, eff. 1-1-17; 99-544, eff. 7-15-16; revised 9-13-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/7-311) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-311)

Sec. 7-311. Payments sufficient to satisfy requirements.

(a) Judgments herein referred to arising out of motor vehicle accidents occurring on or after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-519) shall for the purpose of this Chapter be deemed satisfied:

1. when When $25,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments rendered in excess of that amount for bodily injury to or the death of one person as the result of any one motor vehicle accident; or

2. when When, subject to said limit of $25,000 as to any one person, the sum of $50,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments rendered in excess of that amount for bodily injury to or the death of more than one person as the result of any one motor vehicle accident; or

3. when When $20,000 has been credited upon any judgment or judgments, rendered in excess of that amount for damages to property of others as a result of any one motor vehicle accident.

The changes to this subsection made by Public Act 98-519 apply only to policies issued or renewed on or after January 1, 2015.

(b) Credit for such amounts shall be deemed a satisfaction of any such judgment or judgments in excess of said amounts only for the purposes of this Chapter.

(c) Whenever payment has been made in settlement of any claim for bodily injury, death, or property damage arising from a motor vehicle accident resulting in injury, death, or property damage to two or more persons in such accident, any such payment shall be credited in reduction of the amounts provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-519, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-905) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-905)

Sec. 11-905. Merging traffic. Notwithstanding Not withstanding the right-of-way right of way provision in Section Sec. 11-901 of this Act, at an intersection where traffic lanes are provided for merging traffic the driver of each vehicle on the converging roadways is required to adjust his vehicular speed and lateral position so as to avoid a collision with another vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 81-860; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-907) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-907)

Sec. 11-907. Operation of vehicles and streetcars on approach of authorized emergency vehicles.

(a) Upon the immediate approach of an authorized emergency vehicle making use of audible and visual signals meeting the requirements of this Code or a police vehicle properly and lawfully making use of an audible or visual signal: ,

(1) the driver of every other vehicle shall yield the right-of-way and shall immediately drive to a position parallel to, and as close as possible to, the right-hand edge or curb of the highway clear of any intersection and shall, if necessary to permit the safe passage of the emergency vehicle, stop and remain in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer; and

(2) the operator of every streetcar shall immediately stop such car clear of any intersection and keep it in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer.

(b) This Section shall not operate to relieve the driver of an authorized emergency vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway.

(c) Upon approaching a stationary authorized emergency vehicle, when the authorized emergency vehicle is giving a signal by displaying alternately flashing red, red and white, blue, or red and blue lights or amber or yellow warning lights, a person who drives an approaching vehicle shall:

(1) proceeding with due caution, yield the right-of-way by making a lane change into a lane not adjacent to that of the authorized emergency vehicle, if possible with due regard to safety and traffic conditions, if on a highway having at least 4 lanes with not less than 2 lanes proceeding in the same direction as the approaching vehicle; or

(2) proceeding with due caution, reduce the speed of the vehicle, maintaining a safe speed for road conditions, if changing lanes would be impossible or unsafe.

As used in this subsection (c), "authorized emergency vehicle" includes any vehicle authorized by law to be equipped with oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights under Section 12-215 of this Code, while the owner or operator of the vehicle is engaged in his or her official duties.

(d) A person who violates subsection (c) of this Section commits a business offense punishable by a fine of not less than $100 or more than $10,000. It is a factor in aggravation if the person committed the offense while in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code. Imposition of the penalties authorized by this subsection (d) for a violation of subsection (c) of this Section that results in the death of another person does not preclude imposition of appropriate additional civil or criminal penalties.

(e) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in damage to the property of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 90 days and not more than one year.

(f) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in injury to another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 180 days and not more than 2 years.

(g) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in the death of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 2 years.

(h) The Secretary of State shall, upon receiving a record of a judgment entered against a person under subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) suspend the person's driving privileges for the mandatory period; or

(2) extend the period of an existing suspension by the appropriate mandatory period.

(Source: P.A. 95-884, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-908) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-908)

Sec. 11-908. Vehicle approaching or entering a highway construction or maintenance area or zone.

(a) The driver of a vehicle shall yield the right-of-way right of way to any authorized vehicle or pedestrian actually engaged in work upon a highway within any highway construction or maintenance area indicated by official traffic-control devices.

(a-1) Upon entering a construction or maintenance zone when workers are present, a person who drives a vehicle shall:

(1) proceeding with due caution, make a lane change into a lane not adjacent to that of the workers present, if possible with due regard to safety and traffic conditions, if on a highway having at least 4 lanes with not less than 2 lanes proceeding in the same direction as the approaching vehicle; or

(2) proceeding with due caution, reduce the speed of the vehicle, maintaining a safe speed for road conditions, if changing lanes would be impossible or unsafe.

(a-2) A person who violates subsection (a-1) of this Section commits a business offense punishable by a fine of not less than $100 and not more than $10,000. It is a factor in aggravation if the person committed the offense while in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code.

(a-3) If a violation of subsection (a-1) of this Section results in damage to the property of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 90 days and not more than one year.

(a-4) If a violation of subsection (a-1) of this Section results in injury to another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 180 days and not more than 2 years.

(a-5) If a violation of subsection (a-1) of this Section results in the death of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 2 years.

(a-6) The Secretary of State shall, upon receiving a record of a judgment entered against a person under subsection (a-1) of this Section:

(1) suspend the person's driving privileges for the mandatory period; or

(2) extend the period of an existing suspension by the appropriate mandatory period.

(b) The driver of a vehicle shall yield the right-of-way right of way to any authorized vehicle obviously and actually engaged in work upon a highway whenever the vehicle engaged in construction or maintenance work displays flashing lights as provided in Section 12-215 of this Act.

(c) The driver of a vehicle shall stop if signaled to do so by a flagger or a traffic control signal and remain in such position until signaled to proceed. If a driver of a vehicle fails to stop when signaled to do so by a flagger, the flagger is authorized to report such offense to the State's Attorney or authorized prosecutor. The penalties imposed for a violation of this subsection (c) shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for a violation of subsection (a-1).

(Source: P.A. 92-872, eff. 6-1-03; 93-705, eff. 7-9-04; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1431)

Sec. 11-1431. Solicitations at accident or disablement scene prohibited.

(a) A tower, as defined by Section 1-205.2 of this Code, or an employee or agent of a tower may not: (i) stop at the scene of a motor vehicle accident or at or near a damaged or disabled vehicle for the purpose of soliciting the owner or operator of the damaged or disabled vehicle to enter into a towing service transaction; or (ii) stop at the scene of an accident or at or near a damaged or disabled vehicle unless called to the location by a law enforcement officer, the Illinois Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, a local agency having jurisdiction over the highway, the owner or operator of the damaged or disabled vehicle, or the owner or operator's authorized agent, including his or her insurer or motor club of which the owner or operator is a member. This Section shall not apply to employees of the Department, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, or local agencies when engaged in their official duties. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a tower from stopping at the scene of a motor vehicle accident or at or near a damaged or disabled vehicle if the owner or operator signals the tower for assistance from the location of the motor vehicle accident or damaged or disabled vehicle.

(b) A person or company who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of violating this Section shall also have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months. After the expiration of the 3-month 3 month suspension, the person's driver's license, permit, or privileges shall not be reinstated until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100. If a person violates this Section while his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges are suspended under this subsection (b), his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges shall be suspended for an additional 6 months, and shall not be reinstated after the expiration of the 6-month 6 month suspension until he or she pays a reinstatement fee of $100. A vehicle owner, or his or her authorized agent or automobile insurer, may bring a claim against a company or person who willfully and materially violates this Section. A court may award the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees, costs, and expenses relating to that action.

(Source: P.A. 99-438, eff. 1-1-16; 99-848, eff. 8-19-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-107) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-107)

Sec. 15-107. Length of vehicles.

(a) The maximum length of a single vehicle on any highway of this State may not exceed 42 feet except the following:

(1) Semitrailers.

(2) Charter or regulated route buses may be up to 45 feet in length, not including energy absorbing bumpers.

(a-1) A motor home as defined in Section 1-145.01 may be up to 45 feet in length, not including energy absorbing bumpers. The length limitations described in this subsection (a-1) shall be exclusive of energy-absorbing bumpers and rear view mirrors.

(b) On all non-State highways, the maximum length of vehicles in combinations is as follows:

(1) A truck tractor in combination with a semitrailer may not exceed 55 feet overall dimension.

(2) A truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer or truck tractor semitrailer-semitrailer may not exceed 60 feet overall dimension.

(3) Combinations specially designed to transport motor vehicles or boats may not exceed 60 feet overall dimension.

Vehicles operating during daylight hours when transporting poles, pipes, machinery, or other objects of a structural nature that cannot readily be dismembered are exempt from length limitations, provided that no object may exceed 80 feet in length and the overall dimension of the vehicle including the load may not exceed 100 feet. This exemption does not apply to operation on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. Legal holidays referred to in this Section are the days on which the following traditional holidays are celebrated: New Year's Day; Memorial Day; Independence Day; Labor Day; Thanksgiving Day; and Christmas Day.

Vehicles and loads operated by a public utility while en route to make emergency repairs to public service facilities or properties are exempt from length limitations, provided that during night operations every vehicle and its load must be equipped with a sufficient number of clearance lamps on both sides and marker lamps on the extreme ends of any projecting load to clearly mark the dimensions of the load.

A tow truck in combination with a disabled vehicle or combination of disabled vehicles, as provided in paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of this Section, is exempt from length limitations.

All other combinations not listed in this subsection (b) may not exceed 60 feet overall dimension.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (c-1) and (c-2), combinations of vehicles may not exceed a total of 2 vehicles except the following:

(1) A truck tractor semitrailer may draw one trailer.

(2) A truck tractor semitrailer may draw one converter dolly or one semitrailer.

(3) A truck tractor semitrailer may draw one vehicle that is defined in Chapter 1 as special mobile equipment, provided the overall dimension does not exceed 60 feet.

(4) A truck in transit may draw 3 trucks in transit coupled together by the triple saddlemount method.

(5) Recreational vehicles consisting of 3 vehicles, provided the following:

(A) The total overall dimension does not exceed 60 feet.

(B) The towing vehicle is a properly registered vehicle capable of towing another vehicle using a fifth-wheel type assembly.

(C) The second vehicle in the combination of vehicles is a recreational vehicle that is towed by a fifth-wheel assembly. This vehicle must be properly registered and must be equipped with brakes, regardless of weight.

(D) The third vehicle must be the lightest of the 3 vehicles and be a trailer or semitrailer designed or used for transporting a boat, all-terrain vehicle, personal watercraft, or motorcycle.

(E) The towed vehicles may be only for the use of the operator of the towing vehicle.

(F) All vehicles must be properly equipped with operating brakes and safety equipment required by this Code, except the additional brake requirement in subdivision (C) of this subparagraph (5).

(6) A tow truck in combination with a disabled vehicle or combination of disabled vehicles, provided the towing vehicle:

(A) Is specifically designed as a tow truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds and equipped with air brakes, provided that air brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer combination that is equipped with air brakes. For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, means the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of the tow truck.

(B) Is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions.

(C) Is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles.

(D) Does not engage a tow exceeding 50 highway miles from the initial point of wreck or disablement to a place of repair. Any additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon issuance of authorization for that movement under the provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this Code.

The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe additional requirements regarding length limitations for a tow truck towing another vehicle.

For purposes of this Section, a tow-dolly that merely serves as substitute wheels for another legally licensed vehicle is considered part of the licensed vehicle and not a separate vehicle.

(7) Commercial vehicles consisting of 3 vehicles, provided the following:

(A) The total overall dimension does not exceed 65 feet.

(B) The towing vehicle is a properly registered vehicle capable of towing another vehicle using a fifth-wheel type assembly or a goose-neck hitch ball.

(C) The third vehicle must be the lightest of the 3 vehicles and be a trailer or semitrailer.

(D) All vehicles must be properly equipped with operating brakes and safety equipment required by this Code.

(E) The combination of vehicles must be operated by a person who holds a commercial driver's license (CDL).

(F) The combination of vehicles must be en route to a location where new or used trailers are sold by an Illinois or out-of-state licensed new or used trailer dealer.

(c-1) A combination of 3 vehicles is allowed access to any State designated highway if:

(1) the length of neither towed vehicle exceeds 28.5 feet;

(2) the overall wheel base of the combination of vehicles does not exceed 62 feet; and

(3) the combination of vehicles is en route to a location where new or used trailers are sold by an Illinois or out-of-state licensed new or used trailer dealer.

(c-2) A combination of 3 vehicles is allowed access from any State designated highway onto any county, township, or municipal highway for a distance of 5 highway miles for the purpose of delivery or collection of one or both of the towed vehicles if:

(1) the length of neither towed vehicle exceeds 28.5 feet;

(2) the combination of vehicles does not exceed 40,000 pounds in gross weight and 8 feet 6 inches in width;

(3) there is no sign prohibiting that access;

(4) the route is not being used as a thoroughfare between State designated highways; and

(5) the combination of vehicles is en route to a location where new or used trailers are sold by an Illinois or out-of-state licensed new or used trailer dealer.

(d) On Class I highways there are no overall length limitations on motor vehicles operating in combinations provided:

(1) The length of a semitrailer, unladen or with load, in combination with a truck tractor may not exceed 53 feet.

(2) The distance between the kingpin and the center of the rear axle of a semitrailer longer than 48 feet, in combination with a truck tractor, may not exceed 45 feet 6 inches. The limit contained in this paragraph (2) shall not apply to trailers or semi-trailers used for the transport of livestock as defined by Section 18b-101.

(3) The length of a semitrailer or trailer, unladen or with load, operated in a truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer or truck tractor semitrailer-semitrailer combination, may not exceed 28 feet 6 inches.

(4) Maxi-cube combinations, as defined in Chapter 1, may not exceed 65 feet overall dimension.

(5) Combinations of vehicles specifically designed to transport motor vehicles or boats may not exceed 65 feet overall dimension. The length limitation is inclusive of front and rear bumpers but exclusive of the overhang of the transported vehicles, as provided in paragraph (i) of this Section.

(6) Stinger-steered Stinger steered semitrailer vehicles specifically designed to transport motor vehicles or boats and automobile transporters, as defined in Chapter 1, may not exceed 80 feet overall dimension. The length limitation is inclusive of front and rear bumpers but exclusive of the overhang of the transported vehicles, as provided in paragraph (i) of this Section.

(7) A truck in transit transporting 3 trucks coupled together by the triple saddlemount method may not exceed 97 feet overall dimension.

(8) A towaway trailer transporter combination may not exceed 82 feet overall dimension.

Vehicles operating during daylight hours when transporting poles, pipes, machinery, or other objects of a structural nature that cannot readily be dismembered are exempt from length limitations, provided that no object may exceed 80 feet in length and the overall dimension of the vehicle including the load may not exceed 100 feet. This exemption does not apply to operation on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. Legal holidays referred to in this Section are the days on which the following traditional holidays are celebrated: New Year's Day; Memorial Day; Independence Day; Labor Day; Thanksgiving Day; and Christmas Day.

Vehicles and loads operated by a public utility while en route to make emergency repairs to public service facilities or properties are exempt from length limitations, provided that during night operations every vehicle and its load must be equipped with a sufficient number of clearance lamps on both sides and marker lamps on the extreme ends of any projecting load to clearly mark the dimensions of the load.

A tow truck in combination with a disabled vehicle or combination of disabled vehicles, as provided in paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of this Section, is exempt from length limitations.

The length limitations described in this paragraph (d) shall be exclusive of safety and energy conservation devices, such as bumpers, refrigeration units or air compressors and other devices, that the Department may interpret as necessary for safe and efficient operation; except that no device excluded under this paragraph shall have by its design or use the capability to carry cargo.

Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rulemaking shall not apply to the designation of highways under this paragraph (d).

(e) On Class II highways there are no overall length limitations on motor vehicles operating in combinations, provided:

(1) The length of a semitrailer, unladen or with load, in combination with a truck tractor, may not exceed 53 feet overall dimension.

(2) The distance between the kingpin and the center of the rear axle of a semitrailer longer than 48 feet, in combination with a truck tractor, may not exceed 45 feet 6 inches. The limit contained in this paragraph (2) shall not apply to trailers or semi-trailers used for the transport of livestock as defined by Section 18b-101.

(3) A truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer or truck tractor semitrailer-semitrailer combination may not exceed 65 feet in dimension from front axle to rear axle.

(4) The length of a semitrailer or trailer, unladen or with load, operated in a truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer or truck tractor semitrailer-semitrailer combination, may not exceed 28 feet 6 inches.

(5) Maxi-cube combinations, as defined in Chapter 1, may not exceed 65 feet overall dimension.

(6) A combination of vehicles, specifically designed to transport motor vehicles or boats, may not exceed 65 feet overall dimension. The length limitation is inclusive of front and rear bumpers but exclusive of the overhang of the transported vehicles, as provided in paragraph (i) of this Section.

(7) Stinger-steered Stinger steered semitrailer vehicles specifically designed to transport motor vehicles or boats, may not exceed 80 feet overall dimension. The length limitation is inclusive of front and rear bumpers but exclusive of the overhang of the transported vehicles, as provided in paragraph (i) of this Section.

(8) A truck in transit transporting 3 trucks coupled together by the triple saddlemount method may not exceed 97 feet overall dimension.

(9) A towaway trailer transporter combination may not exceed 82 feet overall dimension.

Vehicles operating during daylight hours when transporting poles, pipes, machinery, or other objects of a structural nature that cannot readily be dismembered are exempt from length limitations, provided that no object may exceed 80 feet in length and the overall dimension of the vehicle including the load may not exceed 100 feet. This exemption does not apply to operation on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. Legal holidays referred to in this Section are the days on which the following traditional holidays are celebrated: New Year's Day; Memorial Day; Independence Day; Labor Day; Thanksgiving Day; and Christmas Day.

Vehicles and loads operated by a public utility while en route to make emergency repairs to public service facilities or properties are exempt from length limitations, provided that during night operations every vehicle and its load must be equipped with a sufficient number of clearance lamps on both sides and marker lamps on the extreme ends of any projecting load to clearly mark the dimensions of the load.

A tow truck in combination with a disabled vehicle or combination of disabled vehicles, as provided in paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of this Section, is exempt from length limitations.

Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction, may also by ordinance or resolution allow length limitations of this subsection (e).

The length limitations described in this paragraph (e) shall be exclusive of safety and energy conservation devices, such as bumpers, refrigeration units or air compressors and other devices, that the Department may interpret as necessary for safe and efficient operation; except that no device excluded under this paragraph shall have by its design or use the capability to carry cargo.

Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rulemaking shall not apply to the designation of highways under this paragraph (e).

(e-1) Combinations of vehicles not exceeding 65 feet overall length are allowed access as follows:

(1) From any State designated highway onto any county, township, or municipal highway for a distance of 5 highway miles for the purpose of loading and unloading, provided:

(A) The vehicle does not exceed 80,000 pounds in gross weight and 8 feet 6 inches in width.

(B) There is no sign prohibiting that access.

(C) The route is not being used as a thoroughfare between State designated highways.

(2) From any State designated highway onto any county or township highway for a distance of 5 highway miles or onto any municipal highway for a distance of one highway mile for the purpose of food, fuel, repairs, and rest, provided:

(A) The vehicle does not exceed 80,000 pounds in gross weight and 8 feet 6 inches in width.

(B) There is no sign prohibiting that access.

(C) The route is not being used as a thoroughfare between State designated highways.

(e-2) Except as provided in subsection (e-3), combinations of vehicles over 65 feet in length, with no overall length limitation except as provided in subsections (d) and (e) of this Section, are allowed access as follows:

(1) From a Class I highway onto any street or highway for a distance of one highway mile for the purpose of loading, unloading, food, fuel, repairs, and rest, provided there is no sign prohibiting that access.

(2) From a Class I or Class II highway onto any State highway or any locally designated highway for a distance of 5 highway miles for the purpose of loading, unloading, food, fuel, repairs, and rest.

(e-3) Combinations of vehicles over 65 feet in length operated by household goods carriers or towaway trailer transporter combinations, with no overall length limitations except as provided in subsections (d) and (e) of this Section, have unlimited access to points of loading, unloading, or delivery to or from a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer.

(f) On Class III and other non-designated State highways, the length limitations for vehicles in combination are as follows:

(1) Truck tractor-semitrailer combinations, must comply with either a maximum 55 feet overall wheel base or a maximum 65 feet extreme overall dimension.

(2) Semitrailers, unladen or with load, may not exceed 53 feet overall dimension.

(3) No truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer or truck tractor semitrailer-semitrailer combination may exceed 60 feet extreme overall dimension.

(4) The distance between the kingpin and the center axle of a semitrailer longer than 48 feet, in combination with a truck tractor, may not exceed 42 feet 6 inches. The limit contained in this paragraph (4) shall not apply to trailers or semi-trailers used for the transport of livestock as defined by Section 18b-101.

(g) Length limitations in the preceding subsections of this Section 15-107 do not apply to the following:

(1) Vehicles operated in the daytime, except on Saturdays, Sundays, or legal holidays, when transporting poles, pipe, machinery, or other objects of a structural nature that cannot readily be dismembered, provided the overall length of vehicle and load may not exceed 100 feet and no object exceeding 80 feet in length may be transported unless a permit has been obtained as authorized in Section 15-301.

(2) Vehicles and loads operated by a public utility while en route to make emergency repairs to public service facilities or properties, but during night operation every vehicle and its load must be equipped with a sufficient number of clearance lamps on both sides and marker lamps upon the extreme ends of any projecting load to clearly mark the dimensions of the load.

(3) A tow truck in combination with a disabled vehicle or combination of disabled vehicles, provided the towing vehicle meets the following conditions:

(A) It is specifically designed as a tow truck having a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds and equipped with air brakes, provided that air brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer combination that is equipped with air brakes.

(B) It is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions.

(C) It is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles.

(D) It does not engage in a tow exceeding 50 miles from the initial point of wreck or disablement.

The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe additional requirements regarding length limitations for a tow truck towing another vehicle. The towing vehicle, however, may tow any disabled vehicle from the initial point of wreck or disablement to a point where repairs are actually to occur. This movement shall be valid only on State routes. The tower must abide by posted bridge weight limits.

For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight rating, or GVWR, shall mean the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of the tow truck. Legal holidays referred to in this Section shall be specified as the day on which the following traditional holidays are celebrated:

New Year's Day;

Memorial Day;

Independence Day;

Labor Day;

Thanksgiving Day; and

Christmas Day.

(h) The load upon any vehicle operated alone, or the load upon the front vehicle of a combination of vehicles, shall not extend more than 3 feet beyond the front wheels of the vehicle or the front bumper of the vehicle if it is equipped with a front bumper. The provisions of this subsection (h) shall not apply to any vehicle or combination of vehicles specifically designed for the collection and transportation of waste, garbage, or recyclable materials during the vehicle's operation in the course of collecting garbage, waste, or recyclable materials if the vehicle is traveling at a speed not in excess of 15 miles per hour during the vehicle's operation and in the course of collecting garbage, waste, or recyclable materials. However, in no instance shall the load extend more than 7 feet beyond the front wheels of the vehicle or the front bumper of the vehicle if it is equipped with a front bumper.

(i) The load upon the front vehicle of an automobile transporter or a stinger-steered vehicle specifically designed to transport motor vehicles shall not extend more than 4 feet beyond the foremost part of the transporting vehicle and the load upon the rear transporting vehicle shall not extend more than 6 feet beyond the rear of the bed or body of the vehicle. This paragraph shall only be applicable upon highways designated in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Section.

(j) Articulated vehicles comprised of 2 sections, neither of which exceeds a length of 42 feet, designed for the carrying of more than 10 persons, may be up to 60 feet in length, not including energy absorbing bumpers, provided that the vehicles are:

1. operated by or for any public body or motor carrier authorized by law to provide public transportation services; or

2. operated in local public transportation service by any other person and the municipality in which the service is to be provided approved the operation of the vehicle.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Any person who is convicted of violating this Section is subject to the penalty as provided in paragraph (b) of Section 15-113.

(l) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-717, eff. 8-5-16; revised 10-28-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/18c-7402) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18c-7402)

Sec. 18c-7402. Safety Requirements for Railroad Operations.

(1) Obstruction of crossings.

(a) Obstruction of Emergency Vehicles. Every railroad shall be operated in such a manner as to minimize obstruction of emergency vehicles at crossings. Where such obstruction occurs and the train crew is aware of the obstruction, the train crew shall immediately take any action, consistent with safe operating procedure, necessary to remove the obstruction. In the Chicago and St. Louis switching districts, every railroad dispatcher or other person responsible for the movement of railroad equipment in a specific area who receives notification that railroad equipment is obstructing the movement of an emergency vehicle at any crossing within such area shall immediately notify the train crew through use of existing communication facilities. Upon notification, the train crew shall take immediate action in accordance with this paragraph.

(b) Obstruction of Highway at Grade Crossing Prohibited. It is unlawful for a rail carrier to permit any train, railroad car or engine to obstruct public travel at a railroad-highway grade crossing for a period in excess of 10 minutes, except where such train or railroad car is continuously moving or cannot be moved by reason of circumstances over which the rail carrier has no reasonable control.

In a county with a population of greater than 1,000,000, as determined by the most recent federal census, during the hours of 7:00 a.m. through 9:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. through 6:00 p.m. it is unlawful for a rail carrier to permit any single train or railroad car to obstruct public travel at a railroad-highway grade crossing in excess of a total of 10 minutes during a 30 minute period, except where the train or railroad car cannot be moved by reason or circumstances over which the rail carrier has no reasonable control. Under no circumstances will a moving train be stopped for the purposes of issuing a citation related to this Section.

However, no employee acting under the rules or orders of the rail carrier or its supervisory personnel may be prosecuted for a violation of this subsection (b).

(c) Punishment for Obstruction of Grade Crossing. Any rail carrier violating paragraph (b) of this subsection shall be guilty of a petty offense and fined not less than $200 nor more than $500 if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 10 minutes but no longer than 15 minutes. If the duration of the obstruction exceeds 15 minutes the violation shall be a business offense and the following fines shall be imposed: if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 15 minutes but no longer than 20 minutes, the fine shall be $500; if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 20 minutes but no longer than 25 minutes, the fine shall be $700; if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 25 minutes, but no longer than 30 minutes, the fine shall be $900; if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 30 minutes but no longer than 35 minutes, the fine shall be $1,000; if the duration of the obstruction is in excess of 35 minutes, the fine shall be $1,000 plus an additional $500 for each 5 minutes of obstruction in excess of 25 minutes of obstruction.

(2) Other Operational Requirements.

(a) Bell and Whistle-Crossings. Every rail carrier shall cause a bell, and a whistle or horn to be placed and kept on each locomotive, and shall cause the same to be rung or sounded by the engineer or fireman, at the distance of at a least 1,320 feet, from the place where the railroad crosses or intersects any public highway, and shall be kept ringing or sounding until the highway is reached; provided that at crossings where the Commission shall by order direct, only after a hearing has been held to determine the public is reasonably and sufficiently protected, the rail carrier may be excused from giving warning provided by this paragraph.

(a-5) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection (2) regarding ringing a bell and sounding a whistle or horn do not apply at a railroad crossing that has a permanently installed automated audible warning device authorized by the Commission under Section 18c-7402.1 that sounds automatically when an approaching train is at least 1,320 feet from the crossing and that keeps sounding until the lead locomotive has crossed the highway. The engineer or fireman may ring the bell or sound the whistle or horn at a railroad crossing that has a permanently installed audible warning device.

(b) Speed Limits. Each rail carrier shall operate its trains in compliance with speed limits set by the Commission. The Commission may set train speed limits only where such limits are necessitated by extraordinary circumstances affecting effecting the public safety, and shall maintain such train speed limits in effect only for such time as the extraordinary circumstances prevail.

The Commission and the Department of Transportation shall conduct a study of the relation between train speeds and railroad-highway grade crossing safety. The Commission shall report the findings of the study to the General Assembly no later than January 5, 1997.

(c) Special Speed Limit; Pilot Project. The Commission and the Board of the Commuter Rail Division of the Regional Transportation Authority shall conduct a pilot project in the Village of Fox River Grove, the site of the fatal school bus accident at a railroad crossing on October 25, 1995, in order to improve railroad crossing safety. For this project, the Commission is directed to set the maximum train speed limit for Regional Transportation Authority trains at 50 miles per hour at intersections on that portion of the intrastate rail line located in the Village of Fox River Grove. If the Regional Transportation Authority deliberately fails to comply with this maximum speed limit, then any entity, governmental or otherwise, that provides capital or operational funds to the Regional Transportation Authority shall appropriately reduce or eliminate that funding. The Commission shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the results of this pilot project in January 1999, January 2000, and January 2001. The Commission shall also submit a final report on the pilot project to the Governor and the General Assembly in January 2001. The provisions of this subsection (c), other than this sentence, are inoperative after February 1, 2001.

(3) Report and Investigation of Rail Accidents.

(a) Reports. Every rail carrier shall report to the Commission, by the speediest means possible, whether telephone, telegraph, or otherwise, every accident involving its equipment, track, or other property which resulted in loss of life to any person. In addition, such carriers shall file a written report with the Commission. Reports submitted under this paragraph shall be strictly confidential, shall be specifically prohibited from disclosure, and shall not be admissible in any administrative or judicial proceeding relating to the accidents reported.

(b) Investigations. The Commission may investigate all railroad accidents reported to it or of which it acquires knowledge independent of reports made by rail carriers, and shall have the power, consistent with standards and procedures established under the Federal Railroad Safety Act, as amended, to enter such temporary orders as will minimize the risk of future accidents pending notice, hearing, and final action by the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 91-675, eff. 6-1-00; 92-284, eff. 8-9-01; revised 9-16-16.)

Section 655. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 1-2, 2-1, 5-7, and 5-7.4 as follows:

(625 ILCS 40/1-2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 601-2)

Sec. 1-2. Definitions. As used in this Act, the terms specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 1-3 Sections 1-2.01 through 1-2.20 have the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections unless the context clearly requires a different meaning.

(Source: P.A. 78-856; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 40/2-1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 602-1)

Sec. 2-1. Enforcement.) It is the duty of all Conservation Police Officers and all sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, and other police officers to arrest any person detected in violation of any of the provisions of this Act. It is further the duty of all such officers to make prompt investigation of any violation of the provisions of this Act reported by any other person, and to cause a complaint to be filed before the circuit court if there seems just ground for such complaint and evidence procurable to support the same.

(Source: P.A. 79-885; revised 9-16-16.)

(625 ILCS 40/5-7)

Sec. 5-7. Operating a snowmobile while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or a combination of them; criminal penalties; suspension of operating privileges.

(a) A person may not operate or be in actual physical control of a snowmobile within this State while:

1. The alcohol concentration in that person's blood, other bodily substance, or breath is a concentration at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

2. The person is under the influence of alcohol;

3. The person is under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

3.1. The person is under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4. The person is under the combined influence of alcohol and any other drug or drugs or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4.3. (4.3) The person who is not a CDL holder has a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

4.5. (4.5) The person who is a CDL holder has any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act; or

5. There is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in that person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or intoxicating compound listed in the use of Intoxicating Compounds Act.

(b) The fact that a person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, any intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them does not constitute a defense against a charge of violating this Section.

(c) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c-1) As used in this Section, "first time offender" means any person who has not had a previous conviction or been assigned supervision for violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or any person who has not had a suspension imposed under subsection (e) of Section 5-7.1.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, the following are equivalent to a conviction:

(1) a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure a defendant's appearance in court when forfeiture has not been vacated; or

(2) the failure of a defendant to appear for trial.

(d) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if:

1. The person has a previous conviction under this Section;

2. The offense results in personal injury where a person other than the operator suffers great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries. A person guilty of a Class 4 felony under this paragraph 2, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years; or

3. The offense occurred during a period in which the person's privileges to operate a snowmobile are revoked or suspended, and the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section or was imposed under Section 5-7.1.

(e) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony if the offense results in the death of a person. A person guilty of a Class 2 felony under this subsection (e), if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-1) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance who had a child under the age of 16 on board the snowmobile at the time of offense shall be subject to a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and shall be subject to a mandatory minimum of 5 days of community service in a program benefiting children. The assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the assignment.

(e-2) Every person found guilty of violating this Section, whose operation of a snowmobile while in violation of this Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e-3) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision, shall be fined $100, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the $100 shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (e-3) shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment or to provide law enforcement training that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State. Law enforcement equipment shall include, but is not limited to, in-car video cameras, radar and laser speed detection devices, and alcohol breath testers.

(f) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend the snowmobile operation privileges of a person convicted or found guilty of a misdemeanor under this Section for a period of one year, except that first-time offenders are exempt from this mandatory one year suspension.

(g) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend for a period of 5 years the snowmobile operation privileges of any person convicted or found guilty of a felony under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-697, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-28-16.)

(625 ILCS 40/5-7.4)

Sec. 5-7.4. Admissibility of chemical tests of blood, other bodily substance, or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood, other bodily substance, or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them in an individual's blood, other bodily substance, or urine conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room, are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for a violation of Section 5-7 of this Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The results of the tests are admissible only when each of the following criteria are met:

1. the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood, other bodily substance, or urine were ordered in the regular course of providing emergency treatment and not at the request of law enforcement authorities; and

2. the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood, other bodily substance, or urine were performed by the laboratory routinely used by the hospital.

3. (Blank).

Results of chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood, other bodily substance, or urine are admissible into evidence regardless of the time that the records were prepared.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment are not applicable with regard to chemical tests performed upon a person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine under the provisions of this Section in prosecutions as specified in subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages as a result of the evidentiary use of the results of chemical testing of the individual's blood, other bodily substance, or urine under this Section or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-697, eff. 7-29-16; revised 10-31-16.)

Section 660. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 4-9, 5-710, 5-745, 5-7A-115, and 5-915 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/4-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-9)

Sec. 4-9. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is addicted, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody and agrees to abide by a court order which requires the minor and his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian to complete an evaluation by an entity licensed by the Department of Human Services, as the successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and complete any treatment recommendations indicated by the assessment. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child.

The Court shall require documentation by representatives of the Department of Children and Family Services or the probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, and shall consider the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be or placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and further, finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for shelter and treatment services, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) If neither the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative nor counsel of the minor has had actual notice of or is present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file his or her affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 24 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(4) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 4-8, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(8) Any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-6-16.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) on and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and before January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 16 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. On and after January 1, 2017, placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 15 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 15 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to himself or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts. The limitation that the minor shall only be placed in a juvenile detention home does not apply as follows:

Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) the age of the person;

(B) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) any previous abuse or neglect history of the person;

(D) any mental health history of the person; and

(E) any educational history of the person;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law;

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body; or

(x) placed in electronic home detention under Part 7A of this Article.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 if the minor is at least 13 years and under 20 years of age, provided that the commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be made only if the minor was found guilty of a felony offense or first degree murder. The court shall include in the sentencing order any pre-custody credits the minor is entitled to under Section 5-4.5-100 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall also be considered as time spent in custody.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance abuse program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in instances in which educational services are to be provided to a minor in a residential facility where the minor has been placed by the court, costs incurred in the provision of those educational services must be allocated based on the requirements of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act. The court shall include in the sentencing order a limitation on the period of confinement not to exceed the maximum period of imprisonment the court could impose under Article V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7.5) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice or placed in detention when the act for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent would not be illegal if committed by an adult.

(7.6) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for an offense which is a Class 4 felony under Section 19-4 (criminal trespass to a residence), 21-1 (criminal damage to property), 21-1.01 (criminal damage to government supported property), 21-1.3 (criminal defacement of property), 26-1 (disorderly conduct), or 31-4 (obstructing justice), of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(7.75) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for an offense that is a Class 3 or Class 4 felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act unless the commitment occurs upon a third or subsequent judicial finding of a violation of probation for substantial noncompliance with court-ordered court ordered treatment or programming.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the minor.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(11) If the court determines that the offense was committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in subsection (10), and that the offense involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit, the court shall notify the Secretary of State of that determination and of the period for which the minor shall be denied driving privileges. If, at the time of the determination, the minor does not hold a driver's license or permit, the court shall provide that the minor shall not be issued a driver's license or permit until his or her 18th birthday. If the minor holds a driver's license or permit at the time of the determination, the court shall provide that the minor's driver's license or permit shall be revoked until his or her 21st birthday, or until a later date or occurrence determined by the court. If the minor holds a driver's license at the time of the determination, the court may direct the Secretary of State to issue the minor a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except that the court may direct that the JDP be effective immediately.

(12) If a minor is found to be guilty of a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program as defined in that Act if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose under this subsection (12):

(a) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may impose a sentence of 15 hours of community service or a fine of $25 for a first violation.

(b) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $50 and 25 hours of community service.

(c) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $100 fine and 30 hours of community service.

(d) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(Source: P.A. 98-536, eff. 8-23-13; 98-803, eff. 1-1-15; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 99-879, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-2-16.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-745)

Sec. 5-745. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act, including the Department of Juvenile Justice for youth committed under Section 5-750 of this Act, to report periodically to the court or may cite him or her into court and require him or her, or his or her agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or her or its doings in behalf of the minor, including efforts to secure post-release placement of the youth after release from the Department's facilities. The legal custodian or guardian, within 10 days after the citation, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the legal custodian or guardian and appoint another in his or her stead or restore the minor to the custody of his or her parents or former guardian or legal custodian.

(2) If the Department of Children and Family Services is appointed legal custodian or guardian of a minor under Section 5-740 of this Act, the Department of Children and Family Services Section 5-740 of shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months. Every agency which has guardianship of a child shall file a supplemental petition for court review, or review by an administrative body appointed or approved by the court and further order within 18 months of the sentencing order and each 18 months thereafter. The petition shall state facts relative to the child's present condition of physical, mental and emotional health as well as facts relative to his or her present custodial or foster care. The petition shall be set for hearing and the clerk shall mail 10 days notice of the hearing by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the person or agency having the physical custody of the child, the minor and other interested parties unless a written waiver of notice is filed with the petition.

If the minor is in the custody of the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, pursuant to an order entered under this Article, the court shall conduct permanency hearings as set out in subsections (1), (2), and (3) of Section 2-28 of Article II of this Act.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(3) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of his or her parents or former guardian or custodian. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating his or her guardianship or custody, guardianship or legal custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his or her consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

(4) If the minor is committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 of this Act, the Department shall notify the court in writing of the occurrence of any of the following:

(a) a critical incident involving a youth committed to the Department; as used in this paragraph (a), "critical incident" means any incident that involves a serious risk to the life, health, or well-being of the youth and includes, but is not limited to, an accident or suicide attempt resulting in serious bodily harm or hospitalization, psychiatric hospitalization, alleged or suspected abuse, or escape or attempted escape from custody, filed within 10 days of the occurrence;

(b) a youth who has been released by the Prisoner Review Board but remains in a Department facility solely because the youth does not have an approved aftercare release host site, filed within 10 days of the occurrence;

(c) a youth, except a youth who has been adjudicated a habitual or violent juvenile offender under Section 5-815 or 5-820 of this Act or committed for first degree murder, who has been held in a Department facility for over one consecutive year; or

(d) if a report has been filed under paragraph (c) of this subsection, a supplemental report shall be filed every 6 months thereafter. The notification required by this subsection (4) shall contain a brief description of the incident or situation and a summary of the youth's current physical, mental, and emotional health and the actions the Department took in response to the incident or to identify an aftercare release host site, as applicable. Upon receipt of the notification, the court may require the Department to make a full report under subsection (1) of this Section.

(5) With respect to any report required to be filed with the court under this Section, the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall provide a copy to the minor's court appointed guardian ad litem, if the Department has received written notice of the appointment, and to the minor's attorney, if the Department has received written notice of representation from the attorney. If the Department has a record that a guardian has been appointed for the minor and a record of the last known address of the minor's court appointed guardian, the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall send a notice to the guardian that the report is available and will be provided by the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman upon request. If the Department has no record regarding the appointment of a guardian for the minor, and the Department's records include the last known addresses of the minor's parents, the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall send a notice to the parents that the report is available and will be provided by the Independent Juvenile Ombudsman upon request.

(Source: P.A. 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 99-664, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-11-16.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-7A-115)

Sec. 5-7A-115. Program description. The supervising authority may promulgate rules that prescribe reasonable guidelines under which an electronic home detention program shall operate. These rules shall include, but not be limited, to, the following:

(A) The participant shall remain within the interior premises or within the property boundaries of his or her residence at all times during the hours designated by the supervising authority. Such instances of approved absences from the home may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) working or employment approved by the court or traveling to or from approved employment;

(2) unemployed and seeking employment approved for the participant by the court;

(3) undergoing medical, psychiatric, mental health treatment, counseling, or other treatment programs approved for the participant by the court;

(4) attending an educational institution or a program approved for the participant by the court;

(5) attending a regularly scheduled religious service at a place of worship;

(6) participating in community work release or community service programs approved for the participant by the supervising authority; or

(7) for another compelling reason consistent with the public interest, as approved by the supervising authority.

(B) The participant shall admit any person or agent designated by the supervising authority into his or her residence at any time for purposes of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(C) The participant shall make the necessary arrangements to allow for any person or agent designated by the supervising authority to visit the participant's place of education or employment at any time, based upon the approval of the educational institution or employer or both, for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(D) The participant shall acknowledge and participate with the approved electronic monitoring device as designated by the supervising authority at any time for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(E) The participant shall maintain the following:

(1) a working telephone in the participant's home;

(2) a monitoring device in the participant's home, or on the participant's person, or both; and

(3) a monitoring device in the participant's home and on the participant's person in the absence of a telephone.

(F) The participant shall obtain approval from the supervising authority before the participant changes residence or the schedule described in paragraph (A) of this Section.

(G) The participant shall not commit another act that if committed by an adult would constitute a crime during the period of home detention ordered by the court.

(H) Notice to the participant that violation of the order for home detention may subject the participant to an adjudicatory hearing for escape as described in Section 5-7A-120.

(I) The participant shall abide by other conditions as set by the supervising authority.

(Source: P.A. 96-293, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-25-16.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-915)

Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and court records.

(0.05) For purposes of this Section and Section 5-622:

"Expunge" means to physically destroy the records and to obliterate the minor's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the internal office records, files, or databases maintained by a State's Attorney's Office or other prosecutor.

"Law enforcement record" includes but is not limited to records of arrest, station adjustments, fingerprints, probation adjustments, the issuance of a notice to appear, or any other records maintained by a law enforcement agency relating to a minor suspected of committing an offense.

(1) Whenever a person has been arrested, charged, or adjudicated delinquent for an incident occurring before his or her 18th birthday that if committed by an adult would be an offense, the person may petition the court at any time for expungement of law enforcement records and juvenile court records relating to the incident and, upon termination of all juvenile court proceedings relating to that incident, the court shall order the expungement of all records in the possession of the Department of State Police, the clerk of the circuit court, and law enforcement agencies relating to the incident, but only in any of the following circumstances:

(a) the minor was arrested and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court;

(a-5) the minor was charged with an offense and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency;

(b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found not delinquent of that offense;

(c) the minor was placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been successfully terminated; or

(d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult.

(1.5) Commencing 180 days after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-637) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of State Police shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 of each year, a person's law enforcement records which are not subject to subsection (1) relating to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday in the Department's possession or control and which contains the final disposition which pertain to the person when arrested as a minor if:

(a) the minor was arrested for an eligible offense and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court; and

(b) the person attained the age of 18 years during the last calendar year; and

(c) since the date of the minor's most recent arrest, at least 6 months have elapsed without an additional arrest, filing of a petition for delinquency whether related or not to a previous arrest, or filing of charges not initiated by arrest.

The Department of State Police shall allow a person to use the Access and Review process, established in the Department of State Police, for verifying that his or her law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday eligible under this subsection have been expunged as provided in this subsection.

The Department of State Police shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and automatic expungement.

(1.6) Commencing on January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-637) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, a person whose law enforcement records are not subject to subsection (1) or (1.5) of this Section and who has attained the age of 18 years may use the Access and Review process, established in the Department of State Police, for verifying his or her law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday in the Department's possession or control which pertain to the person when arrested as a minor, if the incident occurred no earlier than 30 years before January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-637) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. If the person identifies a law enforcement record of an eligible offense that meets the requirements of this subsection, paragraphs (a) and (c) of subsection (1.5) of this Section, and all juvenile court proceedings related to the person have been terminated, the person may file a Request for Expungement of Juvenile Law Enforcement Records, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, with the Department and the Department shall consider expungement of the record as otherwise provided for automatic expungement under subsection (1.5) of this Section. The person shall provide notice and a copy of the Request for Expungement of Juvenile Law Enforcement Records to the arresting agency, prosecutor charged with the prosecution of the minor, or the State's Attorney of the county that prosecuted the minor. The Department of State Police shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and Request for Expungement of Juvenile Law Enforcement Records.

(1.7) Nothing in subsections (1.5) and (1.6) of this Section precludes a person from filing a petition under subsection (1) for expungement of records subject to automatic expungement under that subsection (1) or subsection (1.5) or (1.6) of this Section.

(1.8) For the purposes of subsections (1.5) and (1.6) of this Section, "eligible offense" means records relating to an arrest or incident occurring before the person's 18th birthday that if committed by an adult is not an offense classified as a Class 2 felony or higher offense, an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or an offense under Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) Any person may petition the court to expunge all law enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder and sex offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, if the person for whom expungement is sought has had no convictions for any crime since his or her 18th birthday and:

(a) has attained the age of 21 years; or

(b) 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to him or her have been terminated or his or her commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to this Act has been terminated;

whichever is later of (a) or (b). Nothing in this Section 5-915 precludes a minor from obtaining expungement under Section 5-622.

(2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) at the time the minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if applicable, or other designated person from the arresting agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or the minor's parents or guardians that the minor has a right to petition to have his or her arrest record expunged when all juvenile court proceedings relating to that minor have been terminated and that unless a petition to expunge is filed, the minor shall have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information packet, including a petition to expunge juvenile records obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.

(2.6) If a minor is charged with an offense and is found not delinquent of that offense; or if a minor is placed under supervision under Section 5-615, and the order of supervision is successfully terminated; or if a minor is adjudicated for an offense that would be a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a business or petty offense if committed by an adult; or if a minor has incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday that have not resulted in proceedings in criminal court, or resulted in proceedings in juvenile court, and the adjudications were not based upon first degree murder or sex offenses that would be felonies if committed by an adult; then at the time of sentencing or dismissal of the case, the judge shall inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for expungement as provided by law, and the clerk of the circuit court shall provide an expungement information packet to the delinquent minor, written in plain language, including a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed petition, expungement instructions that shall include information informing the minor that (i) once the case is expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) he or she may apply to have petition fees waived, (iii) once he or she obtains an expungement, he or she may not be required to disclose that he or she had a juvenile record, and (iv) he or she may file the petition on his or her own or with the assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an adjudication of delinquency, (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an appeal.

(2.7) For counties with a population over 3,000,000, the clerk of the circuit court shall send a "Notification of a Possible Right to Expungement" post card to the minor at the address last received by the clerk of the circuit court on the date that the minor attains the age of 18 based on the birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or her guardian in cases under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of subsection (1); and when the minor attains the age of 21 based on the birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or her guardian in cases under subsection (2).

(2.8) The petition for expungement for subsection (1) may include multiple offenses on the same petition and shall be substantially in the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ......, ILLINOIS

........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 1)) Now comes ............., petitioner, and respectfully requests that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all juvenile law enforcement and court records of petitioner and in support thereof states that: Petitioner has attained the age of ...., his/her birth date being ......, or all Juvenile Court proceedings terminated as of ......, whichever occurred later. Petitioner was arrested on ..... by the ....... Police Department for the offense or offenses of ......., and:

(Check All That Apply:)

( ) a. no petition or petitions were filed with the Clerk of the Circuit Court. ( ) b. was charged with ...... and was found not delinquent of the offense or offenses. ( ) c. a petition or petitions were filed and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency on ..... ( ) d. on ....... placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and such order of supervision successfully terminated on ........ ( ) e. was adjudicated for the offense or offenses, which would have been a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a petty offense or business offense if committed by an adult.

Petitioner .... has .... has not been arrested on charges in this or any county other than the charges listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list the charges below:

Charge(s): ...... Arresting Agency or Agencies: ........... Disposition/Result: (choose from a. through e., above): .....

WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all records of petitioner to this incident or incidents, and (2) to order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the petitioner regarding this incident or incidents.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

..........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the statements in this petition are true and correct, or on information and belief I believe the same to be true.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

The Petition for Expungement for subsection (2) shall be substantially in the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ........, ILLINOIS

........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 2))

(Please prepare a separate petition for each offense) Now comes ............, petitioner, and respectfully requests that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all Juvenile Law Enforcement and Court records of petitioner and in support thereof states that: The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and did not result in proceedings in criminal court and the Petitioner has not had any convictions for any crime since his/her 18th birthday; and

The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and the adjudication was not based upon first degree first-degree murder or sex offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, and the Petitioner has not had any convictions for any crime since his/her 18th birthday. Petitioner was arrested on ...... by the ....... Police Department for the offense of ........, and: (Check whichever one occurred the latest:) ( ) a. The Petitioner has attained the age of 21 years, his/her birthday being .......; or ( ) b. 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to the Petitioner have been terminated; or the Petitioner's commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to the expungement of juvenile law enforcement and court records provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 has been terminated. Petitioner ...has ...has not been arrested on charges in this or any other county other than the charge listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list the charges below: Charge(s): .......... Arresting Agency or Agencies: ....... Disposition/Result: (choose from a or b, above): .......... WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all records of petitioner related to this incident, and (2) to order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the petitioner regarding this incident.

.......................

Petitioner (Signature)

......................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the statements in this petition are true and correct, or on information and belief I believe the same to be true.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

(3) The chief judge of the circuit in which an arrest was made or a charge was brought or any judge of that circuit designated by the chief judge may, upon verified petition of a person who is the subject of an arrest or a juvenile court proceeding under subsection (1) or (2) of this Section, order the law enforcement records or official court file, or both, to be expunged from the official records of the arresting authority, the clerk of the circuit court and the Department of State Police. The person whose records are to be expunged shall petition the court using the appropriate form containing his or her current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the circuit court of any change of address. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, and the arresting agency or agencies by the clerk of the circuit court. If an objection is filed within 45 days of the notice of the petition, the clerk of the circuit court shall set a date for hearing after the 45-day 45 day objection period. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the expungement should or should not be granted. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, or an arresting agency objects to the expungement within 45 days of the notice, the court may enter an order granting expungement. The clerk shall forward a certified copy of the order to the Department of State Police and deliver a certified copy of the order to the arresting agency.

(3.1) The Notice of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE TO: State's Attorney TO: Arresting Agency

................ ................

................ ................

TO: Illinois State Police

.....................

.....................

ATTENTION: Expungement

You are hereby notified that on ....., at ....., in courtroom ..., located at ..., before the Honorable ..., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead, I shall then and there present a Petition to Expunge Juvenile records in the above-entitled matter, at which time and place you may appear.

......................

Petitioner's Signature

...........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

PROOF OF SERVICE On the ....... day of ......, 20..., I on oath state that I served this notice and true and correct copies of the above-checked documents by: (Check One:) delivering copies personally to each entity to whom they are directed; or by mailing copies to each entity to whom they are directed by depositing the same in the U.S. Mail, proper postage fully prepaid, before the hour of 5:00 p.m., at the United States Postal Depository located at .................

.........................................

Signature

Clerk of the Circuit Court or Deputy Clerk

Printed Name of Delinquent Minor/Petitioner: .... Address: ........................................ Telephone Number: ...............................

(3.2) The Order of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

DOB ................ Arresting Agency/Agencies ......

ORDER OF EXPUNGEMENT

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 3))

This matter having been heard on the petitioner's motion and the court being fully advised in the premises does find that the petitioner is indigent or has presented reasonable cause to waive all costs in this matter, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that:

( ) 1. Clerk of Court and Department of State Police costs are hereby waived in this matter.

( ) 2. The Illinois State Police Bureau of Identification and the following law enforcement agencies expunge all records of petitioner relating to an arrest dated ...... for the offense of ......

Law Enforcement Agencies:

.........................

.........................

( ) 3. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Clerk of the Circuit Court expunge all records regarding the above-captioned case.

ENTER: ......................

JUDGE DATED: ....... Name:

Attorney for:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Attorney Number:

(3.3) The Notice of Objection shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

....................... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE OF OBJECTION TO:(Attorney, Public Defender, Minor)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Illinois State Police)

.................................

................................. TO:(Clerk of the Court)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Judge)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Arresting Agency/Agencies)

.................................

................................. ATTENTION: You are hereby notified that an objection has been filed by the following entity regarding the above-named minor's petition for expungement of juvenile records: ( ) State's Attorney's Office;

( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged;

( ) Department of Illinois State Police; or

( ) Arresting Agency or Agencies.

The agency checked above respectfully requests that this case be continued and set for hearing on whether the expungement should or should not be granted.

DATED: ....... Name: Attorney For:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Telephone:

Attorney No.:

FOR USE BY CLERK OF THE COURT PERSONNEL ONLY

This matter has been set for hearing on the foregoing objection, on ...... in room ...., located at ....., before the Honorable ....., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead. (Only one hearing shall be set, regardless of the number of Notices of Objection received on the same case).

A copy of this completed Notice of Objection containing the court date, time, and location, has been sent via regular U.S. Mail to the following entities. (If more than one Notice of Objection is received on the same case, each one must be completed with the court date, time and location and mailed to the following entities):

( ) Attorney, Public Defender or Minor;

( ) State's Attorney's Office; ( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged; ( ) Department of Illinois State Police; and ( ) Arresting agency or agencies.

Date: ...... Initials of Clerk completing this section: .....

(4) Upon entry of an order expunging records or files, the offense, which the records or files concern shall be treated as if it never occurred. Law enforcement officers and other public offices and agencies shall properly reply on inquiry that no record or file exists with respect to the person.

(5) Records which have not been expunged are sealed, and may be obtained only under the provisions of Sections 5-901, 5-905, and 5-915.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the maintenance of information relating to an offense after records or files concerning the offense have been expunged if the information is kept in a manner that does not enable identification of the offender. This information may only be used for statistical and bona fide research purposes.

(6.5) The Department of State Police or any employee of the Department shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for failure to expunge any records of arrest that are subject to expungement under subsection (1.5) or (1.6) of this Section because of inability to verify a record. Nothing in subsection (1.5) or (1.6) of this Section shall create Department of State Police liability or responsibility for the expungement of law enforcement records it does not possess.

(7)(a) The State Appellate Defender shall establish, maintain, and carry out, by December 31, 2004, a juvenile expungement program to provide information and assistance to minors eligible to have their juvenile records expunged.

(b) The State Appellate Defender shall develop brochures, pamphlets, and other materials in printed form and through the agency's World Wide Web site. The pamphlets and other materials shall include at a minimum the following information:

(i) An explanation of the State's juvenile expungement process;

(ii) The circumstances under which juvenile expungement may occur;

(iii) The juvenile offenses that may be expunged;

(iv) The steps necessary to initiate and complete the juvenile expungement process; and

(v) Directions on how to contact the State Appellate Defender.

(c) The State Appellate Defender shall establish and maintain a statewide toll-free telephone number that a person may use to receive information or assistance concerning the expungement of juvenile records. The State Appellate Defender shall advertise the toll-free telephone number statewide. The State Appellate Defender shall develop an expungement information packet that may be sent to eligible persons seeking expungement of their juvenile records, which may include, but is not limited to, a pre-printed expungement petition with instructions on how to complete the petition and a pamphlet containing information that would assist individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(d) The State Appellate Defender shall compile a statewide list of volunteer attorneys willing to assist eligible individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(e) This Section shall be implemented from funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the State Appellate Defender for this purpose. The State Appellate Defender shall employ the necessary staff and adopt the necessary rules for implementation of this Section.

(8)(a) Except with respect to law enforcement agencies, the Department of Corrections, State's Attorneys, or other prosecutors, an expunged juvenile record may not be considered by any private or public entity in employment matters, certification, licensing, revocation of certification or licensure, or registration. Applications for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of conviction or arrest. Employers may not ask if an applicant has had a juvenile record expunged. Effective January 1, 2005, the Department of Labor shall develop a link on the Department's website to inform employers that employers may not ask if an applicant had a juvenile record expunged and that application for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of arrest or conviction.

(b) A person whose juvenile records have been expunged is not entitled to remission of any fines, costs, or other money paid as a consequence of expungement. Public Act 93-912 This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly does not affect the right of the victim of a crime to prosecute or defend a civil action for damages.

(c) The expungement of juvenile records under Section 5-622 shall be funded by the additional fine imposed under Section 5-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections and additional appropriations made by the General Assembly for such purpose.

(9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(10) The changes made in subsection (1.5) of this Section by Public Act 98-637 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2015. The changes made in subsection (1.6) of this Section by Public Act 98-637 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before January 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-835, eff. 1-1-17; 99-881, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 665. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 17-2, 24-1.6, 24-2, and 32-14 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) an active-duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard or a veteran of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard; and

(B) obtains money, property, or another tangible benefit through that false representation.

In this paragraph, "member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States" means a member of the United States Navy, Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard; and "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the National Guard.

(2.5) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) another actual person and does an act in such assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) a representative of an actual person or organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(7.5) The legal guardian, including any representative of a State or public guardian, of a person with a disability appointed under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:

(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform, badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (a)(2.1) or subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1), (a)(3), or (b)(7.5) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5), (a)(7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(g) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.

(Source: P.A. 98-1125, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-561, eff. 7-15-16; revised 9-2-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had an a order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-6-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a security guard for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department; provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have received weapons training according to requirements of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordnance ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-725, eff. 1-1-15; 99-174, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-6-16.)

(720 ILCS 5/32-14)

Sec. 32-14. Unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale when he or she knowingly and by any means makes any contract with or engages in any combination or conspiracy with any other person who is, or but for a prior agreement is, a competitor of such person for the purpose of or with the effect of fixing, controlling, limiting, or otherwise manipulating (1) the participation of any person in, or (2) the making of bids, at any judicial sale.

(b) Penalties. Unlawful manipulation of a judicial sale is a Class 3 felony. A mandatory fine shall be imposed for a violation, not to exceed $1,000,000 if the violator is a corporation, or, if the violator is any other person, $100,000. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 2 felony.

(c) Injunctive and other relief. The State's Attorney shall bring suit in the circuit court to prevent and restrain violations of subsection (a). In such a proceeding, the court shall determine whether a violation has been committed, and shall enter such judgment as it considers necessary to remove the effects of any violation which it finds, and to prevent such violation from continuing or from being renewed in the future. The court, in its discretion, may exercise all powers necessary for this purpose, including, but not limited to, injunction and divestiture of property.

(d) Private right of action. Any person who has been injured by a violation of subsection (a) may maintain an action in the Circuit Court for damages, or for an injunction, or both, against any person who has committed such violation. If, in an action for an injunction, the court issues an injunction, the plaintiff shall be awarded costs and reasonable attorney's fees. In an action for damages, the person injured shall be awarded 3 times the amount of actual damages. This State, counties, municipalities, townships, and any political subdivision organized under the authority of this State, and the United States, are considered a person having standing to bring an action under this subsection. Any action for damages under this subsection is forever barred unless commenced within 4 years after the cause of action accrued. In any action for damages under this subsection, the court may, in its discretion, award reasonable fees to the prevailing defendant upon a finding that the plaintiff acted in bad faith, vexatiously, wantonly, or for oppressive reasons.

(e) Exclusion from subsequent judicial sales. Any person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) or any similar offense of any state or the United States shall be barred for 5 years from the date of conviction from participating as a bidding entity in any judicial sale. No corporation shall be barred from participating in a judicial sale as a result of a conviction under subsection (a) of any employee or agent of such corporation if the employee so convicted is no longer employed by the corporation and: (1) it has been finally adjudicated not guilty or (2) it demonstrates to the circuit court conducting such judicial sale and the court so finds that the commission of the offense was neither authorized, requested, commanded, nor performed by a director, officer or a high managerial agent in behalf of the corporation as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of this Code.

(f) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Judicial sale" means any sale of real or personal property in accordance with a court order, including, but not limited to, judicial sales conducted pursuant to Section 15-1507 of the Code of Civil Procedure, sales ordered to satisfy judgments under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure, and enforcements of delinquent property taxes under Article 21 XXI of the Property Tax Code.

"Person" means any natural person, or any corporation, partnership, or association of persons.

(Source: P.A. 96-408, eff. 8-13-09; revised 10-5-16.)

Section 670. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Section 204 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)

Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetylmethadol;

(1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Allylprodine;

(3) Alphacetylmethadol, except

levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-

acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(4) Alphameprodine;

(5) Alphamethadol;

(6) Alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)

propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-

propanilido) piperidine;

(6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl

(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7.1) PEPAP

(1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);

(8) Benzethidine;

(9) Betacetylmethadol;

(9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl

(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(10) Betameprodine;

(11) Betamethadol;

(12) Betaprodine;

(13) Clonitazene;

(14) Dextromoramide;

(15) Diampromide;

(16) Diethylthiambutene;

(17) Difenoxin;

(18) Dimenoxadol;

(19) Dimepheptanol;

(20) Dimethylthiambutene;

(21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

(22) Dipipanone;

(23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(24) Etonitazene;

(25) Etoxeridine;

(26) Furethidine;

(27) Hydroxpethidine;

(28) Ketobemidone;

(29) Levomoramide;

(30) Levophenacylmorphan;

(31) 3-Methylfentanyl

(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-

4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl

(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(32) Morpheridine;

(33) Noracymethadol;

(34) Norlevorphanol;

(35) Normethadone;

(36) Norpipanone;

(36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl

(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]propanamide);

(37) Phenadoxone;

(38) Phenampromide;

(39) Phenomorphan;

(40) Phenoperidine;

(41) Piritramide;

(42) Proheptazine;

(43) Properidine;

(44) Propiram;

(45) Racemoramide;

(45.1) Thiofentanyl

(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);

(46) Tilidine;

(47) Trimeperidine;

(48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-

N-phenylpropanamide).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);

(9) Dihydromorphine;

(10) Drotebanol;

(11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(12) Heroin;

(13) Hydromorphinol;

(14) Methyldesorphine;

(15) Methyldihydromorphine;

(16) Morphine methylbromide;

(17) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(18) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(19) Myrophine;

(20) Nicocodeine;

(21) Nicomorphine;

(22) Normorphine;

(23) Pholcodine;

(24) Thebacon.

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):

(1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine, methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);

(1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);

(2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl- 3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA);

(2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(2.2-1) Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine (TFMPP);

(3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);

(4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);

(7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);

(7.1) 5-Methoxy-diallyltryptamine;

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);

(9) Ibogaine (some trade and other names:

7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-

6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]

indole; Tabernanthe iboga);

(10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(10.1) Salvinorin A;

(10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);

(12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);

(14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

(also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-

3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H- dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;

(16) Psilocybin;

(17) Psilocyn;

(18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

(19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo- 2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;

(21) 4-methoxyamphetamine

(4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(22) (Blank);

(23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;

(24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;

(25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine

(another name: DOET);

(27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine

(another name: TCPy);

(28) (Blank);

(29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:

3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;

3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;

5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;

N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);

(31) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-018;

(32) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-073;

(33) 1-[(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl]-

(2-iodophenyl)methanone

Some trade or other names: AM-694;

(34) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol

Some trade or other names: CP 47,497

and its C6, C8 and C9 homologs;

(34.5) 2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol), where side chain n=5;

and homologues where side chain n=4, 6, or 7; Some

trade or other names: CP 47,497;

(35) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,

10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-210;

(35.5) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-

dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-

tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,

salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other

names: HU-210, Dexanabinol;

(36) Dexanabinol, (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-

6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-

6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-211;

(37) (2-methyl-1-propyl-1H-indol-

3-yl)-1-naphthalenyl-methanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-015;

(38) 4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl-

(1-pentylindol-3-yl)methanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-081;

(39) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole

Some trade or other names: JWH-122;

(40) 2-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-

1H-indol-3-yl)-ethanone

Some trade or other names: JWH-251;

(41) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-

(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole

Some trade or other names: RCS-8, BTW-8 and SR-18;

(42) Any compound structurally derived from

3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-

(1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the

nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide,

alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl,

or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further

substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent.

Examples of this structural class include, but are

not limited to, JWH-018, AM-2201, JWH-175, JWH-184,

and JWH-185;

(43) Any compound structurally derived from

3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen

atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl

aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl,

or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent.

Examples of this structural class include, but are not

limited to, JWH-030, JWH-145, JWH-146, JWH-307, and

JWH-368;

(44) Any compound structurally derived from

1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution

at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl

halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-

2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-

morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in

the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted

in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of

this structural class include, but are not

limited to, JWH-176;

(45) Any compound structurally derived from

3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the

nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl

halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,

whether or not further substituted in the indole ring

to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl

ring to any extent. Examples of this structural

class include, but are not limited to, JWH-167,

JWH-250, JWH-251, and RCS-8;

(46) Any compound structurally derived from

2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution

at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl,

haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,

whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any

extent. Examples of this structural class

include, but are not limited to, CP 47,

497 and its C8 homologue (cannabicyclohexanol);

(46.1) Benzoylindoles: Any compound

containing a 3-(benzoyl) indole structure with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl,

or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group

whether or not further substituted

in the indole ring to any extent and

whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring

to any extent. Examples of this structural class

include, but are not limited, to, AM-630,

AM-2233, AM-694, Pravadoline (WIN 48,098), and RCS-4;

(47) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone

Some trade or other names: Methylone;

(48) 3,4-Methyenedioxypyrovalerone

Some trade or other names: MDPV;

(49) 4-Methylmethcathinone

Some trade or other names: Mephedrone;

(50) 4-methoxymethcathinone;

(51) 4-Fluoromethcathinone;

(52) 3-Fluoromethcathinone;

(53) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio-

phenethylamine;

(54) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine;

(55) Pentedrone;

(56) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-((2-methoxy

phenyl)methyl)-benzeneethanamine

(trade or other name: 25I-NBOMe);

(57) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)

methyl]-benzeneethanamine (trade or other name:

25C-NBOMe);

(58) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)

methyl]-benzeneethanamine (trade or other name:

25B-NBOMe);

(59) 3-cyclopropoylindole with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl

halide, alkyl aryl halide,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not

further substituted on the indole ring

to any extent, whether or not substituted

on the cyclopropyl ring to any extent:

including, but not limited to, XLR11,

UR144, FUB-144;

(60) 3-adamantoylindole with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not

further substituted on the indole ring to

any extent, whether or not substituted on

the adamantyl ring to any extent: including,

but not limited to, AB-001;

(61) N-(adamantyl)-indole-3-carboxamide

with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide,

alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl,

or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether

or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any

extent: including, but not limited to,

APICA/2NE-1, STS-135;

(62) N-(adamantyl)-indazole-3-carboxamide

with substitution at a nitrogen atom of the indazole

ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl,

cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the indazole ring to any extent,

whether or not substituted on the adamantyl

ring to any extent: including, but not limited

to, AKB48, 5F-AKB48;

(63) 1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid 8-quinolinyl

ester with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl

aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the indole ring to any extent,

whether or not substituted on the quinoline ring

to any extent: including, but not limited to, PB22,

5F-PB22, FUB-PB-22;

(64) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the

indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the indazole ring to any extent,

whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring

to any extent: including, but not limited to,

THJ-018, THJ-2201;

(65) 2-(1-naphthoyl)benzimidazole with

substitution at the nitrogen atom of the benzimidazole

ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl,

cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide,

1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the benzimidazole ring to any extent,

whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to

any extent: including, but not limited to, FUBIMINA;

(66) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)

-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the

nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl,

haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,

whether or not further substituted on the indazole

ring to any extent: including, but not limited to,

AB-PINACA, AB-FUBINACA, AB-CHMINACA;

(67) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-

2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution

on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl,

haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,

aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether

or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any

extent: including, but not limited to, ADB-PINACA, ADB-FUBINACA;

(68) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-

1H-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen

atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,

cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl

aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or

2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further

substituted on the indole ring to any extent:

including, but not limited to, ADBICA, 5F-ADBICA;

(69) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-

1H-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the

nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl

halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,

whether or not further substituted on the indole

ring to any extent: including, but not limited

to, ABICA, 5F-ABICA;

(70) Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-

3-methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen

atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl,

alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl

halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-

piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl,

whether or not further substituted on the indazole

ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AMB, 5F-AMB.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone; and

(3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Fenethylline;

(2) N-ethylamphetamine;

(3) Aminorex (some other names:

2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;

4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names:

2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;

Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;

alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;

methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:

2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;

2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:

N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;

N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex ((+ or -) cis-

4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

(8) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV).

(g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

(2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

(h) Synthetic cathinones. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical compound not including bupropion, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in one or more of the following ways:

(1) by substitution in the ring system to

any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy,

haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether

or not further substituted in the ring system

by one or more other univalent substituents.

Examples of this class include, but are not

limited to, 3,4-Methylenedioxycathinone

(bk-MDA);

(2) by substitution at the 3-position

with an acyclic alkyl substituent. Examples of

this class include, but are not limited to,

2-methylamino-1-phenylbutan-1-one

(buphedrone); or

(3) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen

atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl

groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom

in a cyclic structure. Examples of this class include,

but are not limited to, Dimethylcathinone, Ethcathinone,

and a-Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (a-PPP).

(Source: P.A. 98-987, eff. 1-1-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 675. The Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act is amended by changing Sections 1.5 and 2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 675/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Distribution of alternative nicotine products to persons under 18 years of age prohibited.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "alternative nicotine product" means a product or device not consisting of or containing tobacco that provides for the ingestion into the body of nicotine, whether by chewing, smoking, absorbing, dissolving, inhaling, snorting, sniffing, or by any other means. "Alternative nicotine product" excludes cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, or other tobacco products as these terms are defined in Section 1 of this Act and any product approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration as a non-tobacco product for sale as a tobacco cessation product, as a tobacco dependence product, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose.

(b) A person, either directly or indirectly by an agent or employee, or by a vending machine owned by the person or located in the person's establishment, may not sell, offer for sale, give, or furnish any alternative nicotine product, or any cartridge or component of an alternative nicotine product, to a person under 18 years of age.

(c) Before selling, offering for sale, giving, or furnishing an alternative nicotine product, or any cartridge or component of an alternative nicotine product, to another person, the person selling, offering for sale, giving, or furnishing the alternative nicotine product shall verify that the person is at least 18 years of age by:

(1) examining from any person that appears to be under 27 years of age a government-issued photographic identification that establishes the person is at least 18 years of age or

(2) for sales made through though the Internet or other remote sales methods, performing an age verification through an independent, third-party age verification service that compares information available from public records to the personal information entered by the person during the ordering process that establishes the person is 18 years of age or older.

(d) A person under 18 years of age shall not possess an alternative nicotine product.

(Source: P.A. 98-350, eff. 1-1-14; 99-496, eff. 6-1-16; revised 10-25-16.)

(720 ILCS 675/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2358)

Sec. 2. Penalties.

(a) Any person who violates subsection (a) or (a-5) of Section 1 or subsection (b) or (c) of Section 1.5 of this Act is guilty of a petty offense. For the first offense in a 24-month period, the person shall be fined $200 if his or her employer has a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the second offense in a 24-month period, the person shall be fined $400 if his or her employer has a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the third offense in a 24-month period, the person shall be fined $600 if his or her employer has a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the fourth or subsequent offense in a 24-month period, the person shall be fined $800 if his or her employer has a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the purposes of this subsection, the 24-month period shall begin with the person's first violation of the Act. The penalties in this subsection are in addition to any other penalties prescribed under the Cigarette Tax Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(a-5) Any retailer who violates subsection (a) or (a-5) of Section 1 or subsection (b) or (c) of Section 1.5 of this Act is guilty of a petty offense. For the first offense, the retailer shall be fined $200 if it does not have a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the second offense, the retailer shall be fined $400 if it does not have a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the third offense, the retailer shall be fined $600 if it does not have a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the fourth or subsequent offense in a 24-month period, the retailer shall be fined $800 if it does not have a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws. For the purposes of this subsection, the 24-month period shall begin with the person's first violation of the Act. The penalties in this subsection are in addition to any other penalties prescribed under the Cigarette Tax Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(a-6) For the purpose of this Act, a training program that facilitates compliance with minimum-age tobacco laws must include at least the following elements: (i) it must explain that only individuals displaying valid identification demonstrating that they are 18 years of age or older shall be eligible to purchase cigarettes or tobacco products and (ii) it must explain where a clerk can check identification for a date of birth. The training may be conducted electronically. Each retailer that has a training program shall require each employee who completes the training program to sign a form attesting that the employee has received and completed tobacco training. The form shall be kept in the employee's file and may be used to provide proof of training.

(b) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 or subsection (d) of Section 1.5, he or she is guilty of a petty offense and the court may impose a sentence of 25 hours of community service and a fine of $50 for a first violation. If a minor violates subsection (a-6) of Section 1, he or she is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 or subsection (d) of Section 1.5 that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $75 and 50 hours of community service.

(d) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 or subsection (d) of Section 1.5 that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $200 fine and 50 hours of community service.

(e) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(f) If a minor is convicted of or placed on supervision for a violation of subsection (a-6) or (a-7) of Section 1 or subsection (d) of Section 1.5, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 or subsection (d) of Section 1.5, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

(g) For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and alternative nicotine products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products and alternative nicotine products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

(h) All moneys collected as fines for violations of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-6), or (a-7) of Section 1 and subsection (b), (c), or (d) of Section 1.5 shall be distributed in the following manner:

(1) one-half of each fine shall be distributed to the unit of local government or other entity that successfully prosecuted the offender; and

(2) one-half shall be remitted to the State to be used for enforcing this Act.

Any violation of subsection (a) or (a-5) of Section 1 or subsection (b) or (c) of Section 1.5 shall be reported to the Department of Revenue within 7 business days.

(Source: P.A. 98-350, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; 99-192, eff. 1-1-16; 99-496, eff. 6-1-16; revised 9-14-16.)

Section 680. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 115-9.2 and 115-10 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/115-9.2)

Sec. 115-9.2. Currency used in undercover investigation.

(a) In a prosecution in which United States currency was used by a law enforcement officer or agency or by a person acting under the direction of a law enforcement officer or agency in an undercover investigation of an offense that has imprisonment as an available sentence for a violation of the offense, the court shall receive, as competent evidence, a photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy of the currency used in the undercover investigation, if the photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy:

(1) the photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy will serve the purpose of demonstrating the nature of the currency;

(2) the individual serial numbers of the currency are clearly visible or if the amount of currency exceeds $500 the individual serial numbers of a sample of 10% of the currency are clearly visible, and any identification marks placed on the currency by law enforcement as part of the investigation are clearly visible;

(3) the photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy complies with federal law, rule, or regulation requirements on photographs, photostatic copies, or photocopies of United States currency; and

(4) the photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy is otherwise admissible into evidence under all other rules of law governing the admissibility of photographs, photostatic copies, or photocopies into evidence.

(b) The fact that it is impractical to introduce into evidence the actual currency for any reason, including its size, weight, or unavailability, need not be established for the court to find a photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy of that currency to be competent evidence.

(c) If a photograph, photostatic copy, or photocopy is found to be competent evidence under this Section, it is admissible into evidence in place of the currency and to the same extent as the currency itself.

(Source: P.A. 99-685, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-10)

Sec. 115-10. Certain hearsay exceptions.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical or sexual act perpetrated upon or against a child under the age of 13, a person with an intellectual disability, a person with a cognitive impairment, or a person with a developmental disability, including, but not limited, to, prosecutions for violations of Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3 (unlawful restraint), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5 (child abduction), 10-6 (harboring a runaway), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction), 11-9 (public indecency), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-1 (assault), 12-2 (aggravated assault), 12-3 (battery), 12-3.2 (domestic battery), 12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery), 12-3.05 or 12-4 (aggravated battery), 12-4.1 (heinous battery), 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm), 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child), 12-4.7 (drug induced infliction of great bodily harm), 12-5 (reckless conduct), 12-6 (intimidation), 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.1 (hate crime), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-10 or 12C-35 (tattooing the body of a minor), 12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion), 12-21.5 or 12C-10 (child abandonment), 12-21.6 or 12C-5 (endangering the life or health of a child) or 12-32 (ritual mutilation) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or any sex offense as defined in subsection (B) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by the victim of an out of court statement made by the victim that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the victim describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a sexual or physical act against that victim.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The child or person with an intellectual disability, a cognitive impairment, or developmental disability either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement; and

(3) In a case involving an offense perpetrated against a child under the age of 13, the out of court statement was made before the victim attained 13 years of age or within 3 months after the commission of the offense, whichever occurs later, but the statement may be admitted regardless of the age of the victim at the time of the proceeding.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the age and maturity of the child, or the intellectual capabilities of the person with an intellectual disability, a cognitive impairment, or developmental disability, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(e) Statements described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) shall not be excluded on the basis that they were obtained as a result of interviews conducted pursuant to a protocol adopted by a Child Advocacy Advisory Board as set forth in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of Section 3 of the Children's Advocacy Center Act or that an interviewer or witness to the interview was or is an employee, agent, or investigator of a State's Attorney's office.

(f) For the purposes of this Section:

"Person with a cognitive impairment" means a person with a significant impairment of cognition or memory that represents a marked deterioration from a previous level of function. Cognitive impairment includes, but is not limited to, dementia, amnesia, delirium, or a traumatic brain injury.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability that is attributable to (1) an intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or autism, or (2) any other condition that results in an impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and requires services similar to those required by a person with an intellectual disability.

"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with an impairment in adaptive behavior.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-752, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 685. The Sexual Assault Incident Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 20 as follows:

(725 ILCS 203/15)

Sec. 15. Sexual assault incident policies.

(a) On or before January 1, 2018, every law enforcement agency shall develop, adopt, and implement written policies regarding procedures for incidents of sexual assault or sexual abuse consistent with the guidelines developed under subsection (b) of this Section. In developing these policies, each law enforcement agency is encouraged to consult with other law enforcement agencies, sexual assault advocates, and sexual assault nurse examiners with expertise in recognizing and handling sexual assault and sexual abuse incidents. These policies must include mandatory sexual assault and sexual abuse response training as required in Section 10.21 10.19 of the Illinois Police Training Act and Sections 2605-53 and 2605-98 of the Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b) On or before July 1, 2017, the Office of the Attorney General, in consultation with the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and the Department of State Police, shall develop and make available to each law enforcement agency, comprehensive guidelines for creation of a law enforcement agency policy on evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered sexual assault and sexual abuse response and investigation.

These guidelines shall include, but not be limited to the following:

(1) dispatcher or call taker response;

(2) responding officer duties;

(3) duties of officers investigating sexual assaults and sexual abuse;

(4) supervisor duties;

(5) report writing;

(6) reporting methods;

(7) victim interviews;

(8) evidence collection;

(9) sexual assault medical forensic examinations;

(10) suspect interviews;

(11) suspect forensic exams;

(12) witness interviews;

(13) sexual assault response and resource teams, if applicable;

(14) working with victim advocates;

(15) working with prosecutors;

(16) victims' rights;

(17) victim notification; and

(18) consideration for specific populations or communities.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-21-16.)

(725 ILCS 203/20)

Sec. 20. Reports by law enforcement officers.

(a) A law enforcement officer shall complete a written police report upon receiving the following, regardless of where the incident occurred:

(1) an allegation by a person that the person has been sexually assaulted or sexually abused regardless of jurisdiction;

(2) information from hospital or medical personnel provided under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; or

(3) information from a witness who personally observed what appeared to be a sexual assault or sexual abuse or attempted sexual assault or sexual abuse.

(b) The written report shall include the following, if known:

(1) the victim's name or other identifier;

(2) the victim's contact information;

(3) time, date, and location of offense;

(4) information provided by the victim;

(5) the suspect's description and name, if known;

(6) names of persons with information relevant to the time before, during, or after the sexual assault or sexual abuse, and their contact information;

(7) names of medical professionals who provided a medical forensic examination of the victim and any information they provided about the sexual assault or sexual abuse;

(8) whether an Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit was completed, the name and contact information for the hospital, and whether the victim consented to testing of the Evidence Collection Kit by law enforcement;

(9) whether a urine or blood sample was collected and whether the victim consented to testing of a toxicology screen by law enforcement;

(10) information the victim related to medical professionals during a medical forensic examination which the victim consented to disclosure to law enforcement; and

(11) other relevant information.

(c) If the sexual assault or sexual abuse occurred in another jurisdiction, the law enforcement officer taking the report must submit the report to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in person or via fax or email within 24 hours of receiving information about the sexual assault or sexual abuse.

(d) Within 24 hours of receiving a report from a law enforcement agency in another jurisdiction in accordance with subsection (c), the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall submit a written confirmation to the law enforcement agency that wrote the report. The written confirmation shall contain the name and identifier of the person and confirming receipt of the report and a name and contact phone number that will be given to the victim. The written confirmation shall be delivered in person or via fax or email.

(e) No law enforcement officer shall require a victim of sexual assault or sexual abuse to submit to an interview.

(f) No law enforcement agency may refuse to complete a written report as required by this Section on any ground.

(g) All law enforcement agencies shall ensure that all officers responding to or investigating a complaint of sexual assault or sexual abuse have successfully completed training under Section 10.21 10.19 of the Illinois Police Training Act and Section 2605-98 of the Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-21-16.)

Section 690. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-3-7, 5-6-3.1, 5-8-1.2, 5-8-8, 5-8A-3, 5-8A-5, and 5-8A-7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent, except when the association involves activities related to community programs, worship services, volunteering, and engaging families, and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act; and

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his or her supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 99-698, eff. 7-29-16; revised 9-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and conditions of supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(c-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution payments unpaid at least 90 days before the supervision expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the supervision period or in a revocation of supervision. If the court does not extend supervision, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or her last known address written notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-797, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1.2)

Sec. 5-8-1.2. County impact incarceration.

(a) Legislative intent. It is the finding of the General Assembly that certain non-violent offenders eligible for sentences of incarceration may benefit from the rehabilitative aspects of a county impact incarceration program. It is the intent of the General Assembly that such programs be implemented as provided by this Section. This Section shall not be construed to allow violent offenders to participate in a county impact incarceration program.

(b) Under the direction of the Sheriff and with the approval of the County Board of Commissioners, the Sheriff, in any county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, may establish and operate a county impact incarceration program for eligible offenders. If the court finds under Section 5-4-1 that an offender convicted of a felony meets the eligibility requirements of the Sheriff's county impact incarceration program, the court may sentence the offender to the county impact incarceration program. The Sheriff shall be responsible for monitoring all offenders who are sentenced to the county impact incarceration program, including the mandatory period of monitored release following the 120 to 180 days of impact incarceration. Offenders assigned to the county impact incarceration program under an intergovernmental agreement between the county and the Illinois Department of Corrections are exempt from the provisions of this mandatory period of monitored release. In the event the offender is not accepted for placement in the county impact incarceration program, the court shall proceed to sentence the offender to any other disposition authorized by this Code. If the offender does not successfully complete the program, the offender's failure to do so shall constitute a violation of the sentence to the county impact incarceration program.

(c) In order to be eligible to be sentenced to a county impact incarceration program by the court, the person shall meet all of the following requirements:

(1) The the person must be not less than 17 years of age nor more than 35 years of age. ;

(2) The person has not previously participated in the impact incarceration program and has not previously served more than one prior sentence of imprisonment for a felony in an adult correctional facility. ;

(3) The person has not been convicted of a Class X felony, first or second degree murder, armed violence, aggravated kidnapping, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, forcible detention, or arson and has not been convicted previously of any of those offenses.

(4) The person has been found in violation of probation for an offense that is a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony that is not a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act who otherwise could be sentenced to a term of incarceration; or the person is convicted of an offense that is a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony that is not a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act who has previously served a sentence of probation for any felony offense and who otherwise could be sentenced to a term of incarceration.

(5) The person must be physically able to participate in strenuous physical activities or labor.

(6) The person must not have any mental disorder or disability that would prevent participation in a county impact incarceration program.

(7) The person was recommended and approved for placement in the county impact incarceration program by the Sheriff and consented in writing to participation in the county impact incarceration program and to the terms and conditions of the program. The Sheriff may consider, among other matters, whether the person has any outstanding detainers or warrants, whether the person has a history of escaping or absconding, whether participation in the county impact incarceration program may pose a risk to the safety or security of any person and whether space is available.

(c-5) (c) The county impact incarceration program shall include, among other matters, mandatory physical training and labor, military formation and drills, regimented activities, uniformity of dress and appearance, education and counseling, including drug counseling where appropriate.

(d) Privileges including visitation, commissary, receipt and retention of property and publications and access to television, radio, and a library may be suspended or restricted, notwithstanding provisions to the contrary in this Code.

(e) The Sheriff shall issue written rules and requirements for the program. Persons shall be informed of rules of behavior and conduct. Persons participating in the county impact incarceration program shall adhere to all rules and all requirements of the program.

(f) Participation in the county impact incarceration program shall be for a period of 120 to 180 days followed by a mandatory term of monitored release for at least 8 months and no more than 12 months supervised by the Sheriff. The period of time a person shall serve in the impact incarceration program shall not be reduced by the accumulation of good time. The court may also sentence the person to a period of probation to commence at the successful completion of the county impact incarceration program.

(g) If the person successfully completes the county impact incarceration program, the Sheriff shall certify the person's successful completion of the program to the court and to the county's State's Attorney. Upon successful completion of the county impact incarceration program and mandatory term of monitored release and if there is an additional period of probation given, the person shall at that time begin his or her probationary sentence under the supervision of the Adult Probation Department.

(h) A person may be removed from the county impact incarceration program for a violation of the terms or conditions of the program or in the event he or she is for any reason unable to participate. The failure to complete the program for any reason, including the 8 to 12 month monitored release period, shall be deemed a violation of the county impact incarceration sentence. The Sheriff shall give notice to the State's Attorney of the person's failure to complete the program. The Sheriff shall file a petition for violation of the county impact incarceration sentence with the court and the State's Attorney may proceed on the petition under Section 5-6-4 of this Code. The Sheriff shall promulgate rules and regulations governing conduct which could result in removal from the program or in a determination that the person has not successfully completed the program.

The mandatory conditions of every county impact incarceration sentence shall include that the person either while in the program or during the period of monitored release:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report or appear in person before any such person or agency as directed by the court or the Sheriff;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the Sheriff; and

(5) permit representatives of the Sheriff to visit at the person's home or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the Sheriff to monitor compliance with the program. Persons shall have access to such rules, which shall provide that a person shall receive notice of any such violation.

(i) The Sheriff may terminate the county impact incarceration program at any time.

(j) The Sheriff shall report to the county board on or before September 30th of each year on the county impact incarceration program, including the composition of the program by the offenders, by county of commitment, sentence, age, offense, and race.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 10-5-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-8)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2020)

Sec. 5-8-8. Illinois Sentencing Policy Advisory Council.

(a) Creation. There is created under the jurisdiction of the Governor the Illinois Sentencing Policy Advisory Council, hereinafter referred to as the Council.

(b) Purposes and goals. The purpose of the Council is to review sentencing policies and practices and examine how these policies and practices impact the criminal justice system as a whole in the State of Illinois. In carrying out its duties, the Council shall be mindful of and aim to achieve the purposes of sentencing in Illinois, which are set out in Section 1-1-2 of this Code:

(1) prescribe sanctions proportionate to the seriousness of the offenses and permit the recognition of differences in rehabilitation possibilities among individual offenders;

(2) forbid and prevent the commission of offenses;

(3) prevent arbitrary or oppressive treatment of persons adjudicated offenders or delinquents; and

(4) restore offenders to useful citizenship.

(c) Council composition.

(1) The Council shall consist of the following members:

(A) the President of the Senate, or his or her designee;

(B) the Minority Leader of the Senate, or his or her designee;

(C) the Speaker of the House, or his or her designee;

(D) the Minority Leader of the House, or his or her designee;

(E) the Governor, or his or her designee;

(F) the Attorney General, or his or her designee;

(G) two retired judges, who may have been circuit, appellate, or supreme court judges; retired judges shall be selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(G-5) (blank);

(H) the Cook County State's Attorney, or his or her designee;

(I) the Cook County Public Defender, or his or her designee;

(J) a State's Attorney not from Cook County, appointed by the State's Attorney's Appellate Prosecutor;

(K) the State Appellate Defender, or his or her designee;

(L) the Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, or his or her designee;

(M) a victim of a violent felony or a representative of a crime victims' organization, selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(N) a representative of a community-based organization, selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(O) a criminal justice academic researcher, to be selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(P) a representative of law enforcement from a unit of local government to be selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L);

(Q) a sheriff selected by the members of the Council designated in clauses (c)(1)(A) through (L); and

(R) ex-officio members shall include:

(i) the Director of Corrections, or his or her designee;

(ii) the Chair of the Prisoner Review Board, or his or her designee;

(iii) the Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee; and

(iv) the Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, or his or her designee.

(1.5) The Chair and Vice Chair shall be elected from among its members by a majority of the members of the Council.

(2) Members of the Council who serve because of their public office or position, or those who are designated as members by such officials, shall serve only as long as they hold such office or position.

(3) Council members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for travel and per diem expenses incurred in their work for the Council.

(4) The Council may exercise any power, perform any function, take any action, or do anything in furtherance of its purposes and goals upon the appointment of a quorum of its members. The term of office of each member of the Council ends on the date of repeal of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(d) Duties. The Council shall perform, as resources permit, duties including:

(1) Collect and analyze information including sentencing data, crime trends, and existing correctional resources to support legislative and executive action affecting the use of correctional resources on the State and local levels.

(2) Prepare criminal justice population projections annually, including correctional and community-based supervision populations.

(3) Analyze data relevant to proposed sentencing legislation and its effect on current policies or practices, and provide information to support evidence-based sentencing.

(4) Ensure that adequate resources and facilities are available for carrying out sentences imposed on offenders and that rational priorities are established for the use of those resources. To do so, the Council shall prepare criminal justice resource statements, identifying the fiscal and practical effects of proposed criminal sentencing legislation, including, but not limited to, the correctional population, court processes, and county or local government resources.

(5) Perform such other studies or tasks pertaining to sentencing policies as may be requested by the Governor or the Illinois General Assembly.

(6) Perform such other functions as may be required by law or as are necessary to carry out the purposes and goals of the Council prescribed in subsection (b).

(7) Publish a report on the trends in sentencing for offenders described in subsection (b-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, the impact of the trends on the prison and probation populations, and any changes in the racial composition of the prison and probation populations that can be attributed to the changes made by adding subsection (b-1) of Section 5-4-1 to this Code by Public Act 99-861 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(e) Authority.

(1) The Council shall have the power to perform the functions necessary to carry out its duties, purposes and goals under this Act. In so doing, the Council shall utilize information and analysis developed by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, and the Illinois Department of Corrections.

(2) Upon request from the Council, each executive agency and department of State and local government shall provide information and records to the Council in the execution of its duties.

(f) Report. The Council shall report in writing annually to the General Assembly, the Illinois Supreme Court, and the Governor.

(g) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2020.

(Source: P.A. 98-65, eff. 7-15-13; 99-101, eff. 7-22-15; 99-533, eff. 7-8-16; 99-861, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-6-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-3)

Sec. 5-8A-3. Application.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d), a person charged with or convicted of an excluded offense may not be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program, except for bond pending trial or appeal or while on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class 1 felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration.

(c) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class X felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 90 days of incarceration, provided that the person was sentenced on or after August 11, 1993 (the effective date of Public Act 88-311) this amendatory Act of 1993 and provided that the court has not prohibited the program for the person in the sentencing order.

(d) A person serving a sentence for conviction of an offense other than for predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, may be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program for a period not to exceed the last 12 months of incarceration, provided that (i) the person is 55 years of age or older; (ii) the person is serving a determinate sentence; (iii) the person has served at least 25% of the sentenced prison term; and (iv) placement in an electronic home monitoring or detention program is approved by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(e) A person serving a sentence for conviction of a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony offense which is not an excluded offense may be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program pursuant to Department administrative directives.

(f) Applications for electronic monitoring or home detention may include the following:

(1) pretrial or pre-adjudicatory detention;

(2) probation;

(3) conditional discharge;

(4) periodic imprisonment;

(5) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(6) work release;

(7) furlough; or

(8) post-trial incarceration.

(g) A person convicted of an offense described in clause (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code shall be placed in an electronic monitoring or home detention program for at least the first 2 years of the person's mandatory supervised release term.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 99-797, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-1-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-5)

Sec. 5-8A-5. Consent of the participant. Before entering an order for commitment for electronic monitoring, the supervising authority shall inform the participant and other persons residing in the home of the nature and extent of the approved electronic monitoring devices by doing the following:

(A) Securing the written consent of the participant in the program to comply with the rules and regulations of the program as stipulated in subsections (A) through (I) of Section 5-8A-4.

(B) Where possible, securing the written consent of other persons residing in the home of the participant, including the person in whose name the telephone is registered, at the time of the order or commitment for electronic home detention is entered and acknowledge the nature and extent of approved electronic monitoring devices.

(C) Insure that the approved electronic devices be minimally intrusive upon the privacy of the participant and other persons residing in the home while remaining in compliance with subsections (B) through (D) of Section 5-8A-4.

(D) This Section does not apply to persons subject to Electronic Monitoring or home detention as a term or condition of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-797, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-7)

Sec. 5-8A-7. Domestic violence surveillance program. If the Prisoner Review Board, Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, or court (the supervising authority) orders electronic surveillance as a condition of parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, early release, probation, or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection or as a condition of bail for a person charged with a violation of an order of protection, the supervising authority shall use the best available global positioning technology to track domestic violence offenders. Best available technology must have real-time and interactive capabilities that facilitate the following objectives: (1) immediate notification to the supervising authority of a breach of a court ordered exclusion zone; (2) notification of the breach to the offender; and (3) communication between the supervising authority, law enforcement, and the victim, regarding the breach. The supervising authority may also require that the electronic surveillance ordered under this Section monitor the consumption of alcohol or drugs.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 99-797, eff. 8-12-16; revised 9-2-16.)

Section 695. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 13-214 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/13-214) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-214)

Sec. 13-214. Construction; design Construction - design management and supervision. As used in this Section, "person" means any individual, any business or legal entity, or any body politic.

(a) Actions based upon tort, contract or otherwise against any person for an act or omission of such person in the design, planning, supervision, observation or management of construction, or construction of an improvement to real property shall be commenced within 4 years from the time the person bringing an action, or his or her privity, knew or should reasonably have known of such act or omission. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contract actions against a surety on a payment or performance bond shall be commenced, if at all, within the same time limitation applicable to the bond principal.

(b) No action based upon tort, contract or otherwise may be brought against any person for an act or omission of such person in the design, planning, supervision, observation or management of construction, or construction of an improvement to real property after 10 years have elapsed from the time of such act or omission. However, any person who discovers such act or omission prior to expiration of 10 years from the time of such act or omission shall in no event have less than 4 years to bring an action as provided in subsection (a) of this Section. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contract actions against a surety on a payment or performance bond shall be commenced, if at all, within the same time limitation applicable to the bond principal.

(c) If a person otherwise entitled to bring an action could not have brought such action within the limitation periods herein solely because such person was under the age of 18 years, or a person with a developmental disability or a person with mental illness, then the limitation periods herein shall not begin to run until the person attains the age of 18 years, or the disability is removed.

(d) Subsection (b) shall not prohibit any action against a defendant who has expressly warranted or promised the improvement to real property for a longer period from being brought within that period.

(e) The limitations of this Section shall not apply to causes of action arising out of fraudulent misrepresentations or to fraudulent concealment of causes of action.

(f) Subsection (b) does not apply to an action that is based on personal injury, disability, disease, or death resulting from the discharge into the environment of asbestos.

(Source: P.A. 98-1131, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 700. The Real Estate Investment Trust Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(745 ILCS 60/2) (from Ch. 30, par. 252)

Sec. 2. The shareholders or beneficiaries of a real estate investment trust shall not, as such, be personally liable for any of its obligations arising after the effective date of this Act, nor shall persons who become shareholders or beneficiaries after the effective date of this Act be personally liable, as such, for obligations of the real estate trust. If an application for registration of the securities issued or issuable by such unincorporated trust or association has been registered by the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 5 of the "The Illinois Securities Law of 1953", as heretofore and hereafter amended, such registration shall be conclusive evidence that an unincorporated trust or association is a real estate investment trust as to all persons who become shareholders or beneficiaries after the registration date and prior to its suspension or revocation, if any, and as to all obligations of the unincorporated trust or association arising after the effective date of this Act whether they arose before or after the effective date of registration under Section 5 of the "The Illinois Securities Law of 1953", and prior to suspension or revocation of the registration.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 994; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 705. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 510 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/510) (from Ch. 40, par. 510)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-764)

Sec. 510. Modification and termination of provisions for maintenance, support, educational expenses, and property disposition.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of Section 502 and in subsection (b), clause (3) of Section 505.2, the provisions of any judgment respecting maintenance or support may be modified only as to installments accruing subsequent to due notice by the moving party of the filing of the motion for modification. An order for child support may be modified as follows:

(1) upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances; and

(2) without the necessity of showing a substantial change in circumstances, as follows:

(A) upon a showing of an inconsistency of at least 20%, but no less than $10 per month, between the amount of the existing order and the amount of child support that results from application of the guidelines specified in Section 505 of this Act unless the inconsistency is due to the fact that the amount of the existing order resulted from a deviation from the guideline amount and there has not been a change in the circumstances that resulted in that deviation; or

(B) upon a showing of a need to provide for the health care needs of the child under the order through health insurance or other means. In no event shall the eligibility for or receipt of medical assistance be considered to meet the need to provide for the child's health care needs.

The provisions of subparagraph (a)(2)(A) shall apply only in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and only when at least 36 months have elapsed since the order for child support was entered or last modified.

(a-5) An order for maintenance may be modified or terminated only upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances. In all such proceedings, as well as in proceedings in which maintenance is being reviewed, the court shall consider the applicable factors set forth in subsection (a) of Section 504 and the following factors:

(1) any change in the employment status of either party and whether the change has been made in good faith;

(2) the efforts, if any, made by the party receiving maintenance to become self-supporting, and the reasonableness of the efforts where they are appropriate;

(3) any impairment of the present and future earning capacity of either party;

(4) the tax consequences of the maintenance payments upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties;

(5) the duration of the maintenance payments previously paid (and remaining to be paid) relative to the length of the marriage;

(6) the property, including retirement benefits, awarded to each party under the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage and the present status of the property;

(7) the increase or decrease in each party's income since the prior judgment or order from which a review, modification, or termination is being sought;

(8) the property acquired and currently owned by each party after the entry of the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage; and

(9) any other factor that the court expressly finds to be just and equitable.

(a-6) In a review under subsection (b-4.5) of Section 504 of this Act, the court may enter a fixed-term maintenance award that bars future maintenance only if, at the time of the entry of the award, the marriage had lasted 10 years or less at the time the original action was commenced.

(b) The provisions as to property disposition may not be revoked or modified, unless the court finds the existence of conditions that justify the reopening of a judgment under the laws of this State.

(c) Unless otherwise agreed by the parties in a written agreement set forth in the judgment or otherwise approved by the court, the obligation to pay future maintenance is terminated upon the death of either party, or the remarriage of the party receiving maintenance, or if the party receiving maintenance cohabits with another person on a resident, continuing conjugal basis. A payor's obligation to pay maintenance or unallocated maintenance terminates by operation of law on the date the recipient remarries or the date the court finds cohabitation began. The payor is entitled to reimbursement for all maintenance paid from that date forward. Any termination of an obligation for maintenance as a result of the death of the payor party, however, shall be inapplicable to any right of the other party or such other party's designee to receive a death benefit under such insurance on the payor party's life. A party receiving maintenance must advise the payor of his or her intention to marry at least 30 days before the remarriage, unless the decision is made within this time period. In that event, he or she must notify the other party within 72 hours of getting married.

(c-5) In an adjudicated case, the court shall make specific factual findings as to the reason for the modification as well as the amount, nature, and duration of the modified maintenance award.

(d) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, or as agreed in writing or expressly provided in the judgment, provisions for the support of a child are terminated by emancipation of the child, or if the child has attained the age of 18 and is still attending high school, provisions for the support of the child are terminated upon the date that the child graduates from high school or the date the child attains the age of 19, whichever is earlier, but not by the death of a parent obligated to support or educate the child. An existing obligation to pay for support or educational expenses, or both, is not terminated by the death of a parent. When a parent obligated to pay support or educational expenses, or both, dies, the amount of support or educational expenses, or both, may be enforced, modified, revoked or commuted to a lump sum payment, as equity may require, and that determination may be provided for at the time of the dissolution of the marriage or thereafter.

(e) The right to petition for support or educational expenses, or both, under Sections 505 and 513 is not extinguished by the death of a parent. Upon a petition filed before or after a parent's death, the court may award sums of money out of the decedent's estate for the child's support or educational expenses, or both, as equity may require. The time within which a claim may be filed against the estate of a decedent under Sections 505 and 513 and subsection (d) and this subsection shall be governed by the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as a barrable, noncontingent claim.

(f) A petition to modify or terminate child support or allocation of parental responsibilities shall not delay any child support enforcement litigation or supplementary proceeding on behalf of the obligee, including, but not limited to, a petition for a rule to show cause, for non-wage garnishment, or for a restraining order.

(Source: P.A. 99-90, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-764)

Sec. 510. Modification and termination of provisions for maintenance, support, educational expenses, and property disposition.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of Section 502 and in subsection (b), clause (3) of Section 505.2, the provisions of any judgment respecting maintenance or support may be modified only as to installments accruing subsequent to due notice by the moving party of the filing of the motion for modification. An order for child support may be modified as follows:

(1) upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances; and

(2) without the necessity of showing a substantial change in circumstances, as follows:

(A) upon a showing of an inconsistency of at least 20%, but no less than $10 per month, between the amount of the existing order and the amount of child support that results from application of the guidelines specified in Section 505 of this Act unless the inconsistency is due to the fact that the amount of the existing order resulted from a deviation from the guideline amount and there has not been a change in the circumstances that resulted in that deviation; or

(B) upon a showing of a need to provide for the health care needs of the child under the order through health insurance or other means. In no event shall the eligibility for or receipt of medical assistance be considered to meet the need to provide for the child's health care needs.

The provisions of subparagraph (a)(2)(A) shall apply only in cases in which a party is receiving child support enforcement services from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and only when at least 36 months have elapsed since the order for child support was entered or last modified.

The court may grant a petition for modification that seeks to apply the changes made to subsection (a) of Section 505 by Public Act 99-764 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to an order entered before the effective date of Public Act 99-764 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly only upon a finding of a substantial change in circumstances that warrants application of the changes. The enactment of Public Act 99-764 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly itself does not constitute a substantial change in circumstances warranting a modification.

(a-5) An order for maintenance may be modified or terminated only upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances. In all such proceedings, as well as in proceedings in which maintenance is being reviewed, the court shall consider the applicable factors set forth in subsection (a) of Section 504 and the following factors:

(1) any change in the employment status of either party and whether the change has been made in good faith;

(2) the efforts, if any, made by the party receiving maintenance to become self-supporting, and the reasonableness of the efforts where they are appropriate;

(3) any impairment of the present and future earning capacity of either party;

(4) the tax consequences of the maintenance payments upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties;

(5) the duration of the maintenance payments previously paid (and remaining to be paid) relative to the length of the marriage;

(6) the property, including retirement benefits, awarded to each party under the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage and the present status of the property;

(7) the increase or decrease in each party's income since the prior judgment or order from which a review, modification, or termination is being sought;

(8) the property acquired and currently owned by each party after the entry of the judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of declaration of invalidity of marriage; and

(9) any other factor that the court expressly finds to be just and equitable.

(a-6) In a review under subsection (b-4.5) of Section 504 of this Act, the court may enter a fixed-term maintenance award that bars future maintenance only if, at the time of the entry of the award, the marriage had lasted 10 years or less at the time the original action was commenced.

(b) The provisions as to property disposition may not be revoked or modified, unless the court finds the existence of conditions that justify the reopening of a judgment under the laws of this State.

(c) Unless otherwise agreed by the parties in a written agreement set forth in the judgment or otherwise approved by the court, the obligation to pay future maintenance is terminated upon the death of either party, or the remarriage of the party receiving maintenance, or if the party receiving maintenance cohabits with another person on a resident, continuing conjugal basis. A payor's obligation to pay maintenance or unallocated maintenance terminates by operation of law on the date the recipient remarries or the date the court finds cohabitation began. The payor is entitled to reimbursement for all maintenance paid from that date forward. Any termination of an obligation for maintenance as a result of the death of the payor party, however, shall be inapplicable to any right of the other party or such other party's designee to receive a death benefit under such insurance on the payor party's life. A party receiving maintenance must advise the payor of his or her intention to marry at least 30 days before the remarriage, unless the decision is made within this time period. In that event, he or she must notify the other party within 72 hours of getting married.

(c-5) In an adjudicated case, the court shall make specific factual findings as to the reason for the modification as well as the amount, nature, and duration of the modified maintenance award.

(d) Unless otherwise provided in this Act, or as agreed in writing or expressly provided in the judgment, provisions for the support of a child are terminated by emancipation of the child, or if the child has attained the age of 18 and is still attending high school, provisions for the support of the child are terminated upon the date that the child graduates from high school or the date the child attains the age of 19, whichever is earlier, but not by the death of a parent obligated to support or educate the child. An existing obligation to pay for support or educational expenses, or both, is not terminated by the death of a parent. When a parent obligated to pay support or educational expenses, or both, dies, the amount of support or educational expenses, or both, may be enforced, modified, revoked or commuted to a lump sum payment, as equity may require, and that determination may be provided for at the time of the dissolution of the marriage or thereafter.

(e) The right to petition for support or educational expenses, or both, under Sections 505 and 513 is not extinguished by the death of a parent. Upon a petition filed before or after a parent's death, the court may award sums of money out of the decedent's estate for the child's support or educational expenses, or both, as equity may require. The time within which a claim may be filed against the estate of a decedent under Sections 505 and 513 and subsection (d) and this subsection shall be governed by the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975, as a barrable, noncontingent claim.

(f) A petition to modify or terminate child support or allocation of parental responsibilities shall not delay any child support enforcement litigation or supplementary proceeding on behalf of the obligee, including, but not limited to, a petition for a rule to show cause, for non-wage garnishment, or for a restraining order.

(Source: P.A. 99-90, eff. 1-1-16; 99-764, eff. 7-1-17; revised 9-8-16.)

Section 710. The Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 is amended by changing Section 103 as follows:

(750 ILCS 46/103)

Sec. 103. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Acknowledged father" means a man who has established a father-child relationship under Article 3.

(b) "Adjudicated father" means a man who has been adjudicated by a court of competent jurisdiction, or as authorized under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, to be the father of a child.

(c) "Alleged father" means a man who alleges himself to be, or is alleged to be, the biological father or a possible biological father of a child, but whose paternity has not been established. The term does not include:

(1) a presumed parent or acknowledged father; or

(2) a man whose parental rights have been terminated or declared not to exist.

(d) "Assisted reproduction" means a method of achieving a pregnancy through though an artificial insemination or an embryo transfer and includes gamete and embryo donation. "Assisted reproduction" does not include any pregnancy achieved through sexual intercourse.

(e) "Child" means an individual of any age whose parentage may be established under this Act.

(f) "Combined paternity index" means the likelihood of paternity calculated by computing the ratio between:

(1) the likelihood that the tested man is the father, based on the genetic markers of the tested man, mother, and child, conditioned on the hypothesis that the tested man is the father of the child; and

(2) the likelihood that the tested man is not the father, based on the genetic markers of the tested man, mother, and child, conditioned on the hypothesis that the tested man is not the father of the child and that the father is of the same ethnic or racial group as the tested man.

(g) "Commence" means to file the initial pleading seeking an adjudication of parentage in the circuit court of this State.

(h) "Determination of parentage" means the establishment of the parent-child relationship by the signing of a voluntary acknowledgment under Article 3 of this Act or adjudication by the court or as authorized under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) "Donor" means an individual who participates in an assisted reproductive technology arrangement by providing gametes and relinquishes all rights and responsibilities to the gametes so that another individual or individuals may become the legal parent or parents of any resulting child. "Donor" does not include a spouse in any assisted reproductive technology arrangement in which his or her spouse will parent any resulting child.

(j) "Ethnic or racial group" means, for purposes of genetic testing, a recognized group that an individual identifies as all or part of the individual's ancestry or that is so identified by other information.

(k) "Gamete" means either a sperm or an egg.

(l) "Genetic testing" means an analysis of genetic markers to exclude or identify a man as the father or a woman as the mother of a child as provided in Article 4 of this Act.

(l-5) "Gestational surrogacy" means the process by which a woman attempts to carry and give birth to a child created through in vitro fertilization in which the gestational surrogate has made no genetic contribution to any resulting child.

(m) "Gestational surrogate" means a woman who is not an intended parent and agrees to engage in a gestational surrogacy arrangement pursuant to the terms of a valid gestational surrogacy arrangement under the Gestational Surrogacy Act.

(m-5) "Intended parent" means a person who enters into an assisted reproductive technology arrangement, including a gestational surrogacy arrangement, under which he or she will be the legal parent of the resulting child.

(n) "Parent" means an individual who has established a parent-child relationship under Section 201 of this Act.

(o) "Parent-child relationship" means the legal relationship between a child and a parent of the child.

(p) "Presumed parent" means an individual who, by operation of law under Section 204 of this Act, is recognized as the parent of a child until that status is rebutted or confirmed in a judicial or administrative proceeding.

(q) "Probability of paternity" means the measure, for the ethnic or racial group to which the alleged father belongs, of the probability that the man in question is the father of the child, compared with a random, unrelated man of the same ethnic or racial group, expressed as a percentage incorporating the combined paternity index and a prior probability.

(r) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(s) "Signatory" means an individual who authenticates a record and is bound by its terms.

(t) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(u) "Substantially similar legal relationship" means a relationship recognized in this State under Section 60 of the Illinois Religious Freedom Protection and Civil Union Act.

(v) "Support-enforcement agency" means a public official or agency authorized to seek:

(1) enforcement of support orders or laws relating to the duty of support;

(2) establishment or modification of child support;

(3) determination of parentage; or

(4) location of child-support obligors and their income and assets.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-763, eff. 1-1-17; 99-769, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-12-16.)

Section 715. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 202 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/202) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-2)

Sec. 202. Commencement of action; filing fees; dismissal.

(a) How to commence action. Actions for orders of protection are commenced:

(1) Independently: By filing a petition for an order of protection in any civil court, unless specific courts are designated by local rule or order.

(2) In conjunction with another civil proceeding: By filing a petition for an order of protection under the same case number as another civil proceeding involving the parties, including but not limited to: (i) any proceeding under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, Nonsupport of Spouse and Children Act, Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act or an action for nonsupport brought under Article X 10 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that a petitioner and the respondent are a party to or the subject of that proceeding or (ii) a guardianship proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975, or a proceeding for involuntary commitment under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or any proceeding, other than a delinquency petition, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, provided that a petitioner or the respondent is a party to or the subject of such proceeding.

(3) In conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution: By filing a petition for an order of protection, under the same case number as the delinquency petition or criminal prosecution, to be granted during pre-trial release of a defendant, with any dispositional order issued under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or as a condition of release, supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, or in conjunction with imprisonment or a bond forfeiture warrant; provided that:

(i) the violation is alleged in an information, complaint, indictment or delinquency petition on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members or persons protected by this Act; and

(ii) the petition, which is filed by the State's Attorney, names a victim of the alleged crime as a petitioner.

(b) Filing, certification, and service fees. No fee shall be charged by the clerk for filing, amending, vacating, certifying, or photocopying petitions or orders; or for issuing alias summons; or for any related filing service. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(c) Dismissal and consolidation. Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for an order of protection prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the State shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice. No action for an order of protection shall be dismissed because the respondent is being prosecuted for a crime against the petitioner. An independent action may be consolidated with another civil proceeding, as provided by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. For any action commenced under paragraph (2) or (3) of subsection (a) of this Section, dismissal of the conjoined case (or a finding of not guilty) shall not require dismissal of the action for the order of protection; instead, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division. Dismissal of any conjoined case shall not affect the validity of any previously issued order of protection, and thereafter subsections (b)(1) and (b)(2) of Section 220 shall be inapplicable to such order.

(d) Pro se petitions. The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms and clerical assistance to help with the writing and filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel. In addition, that assistance may be provided by the state's attorney.

(e) As provided in this subsection, the administrative director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, with the approval of the administrative board of the courts, may adopt rules to establish and implement a pilot program to allow the electronic filing of petitions for temporary orders of protection and the issuance of such orders by audio-visual means to accommodate litigants for whom attendance in court to file for and obtain emergency relief would constitute an undue hardship or would constitute a risk of harm to the litigant.

(1) As used in this subsection:

(A) "Electronic means" means any method of transmission of information between computers or other machines designed for the purpose of sending or receiving electronic transmission and that allows for the recipient of information to reproduce the information received in a tangible medium of expression.

(B) "Independent audio-visual system" means an electronic system for the transmission and receiving of audio and visual signals, including those with the means to preclude the unauthorized reception and decoding of the signals by commercially available television receivers, channel converters, or other available receiving devices.

(C) "Electronic appearance" means an appearance in which one or more of the parties are not present in the court, but in which, by means of an independent audio-visual system, all of the participants are simultaneously able to see and hear reproductions of the voices and images of the judge, counsel, parties, witnesses, and any other participants.

(2) Any pilot program under this subsection (e) shall be developed by the administrative director or his or her delegate in consultation with at least one local organization providing assistance to domestic violence victims. The program plan shall include but not be limited to:

(A) identification of agencies equipped with or that have access to an independent audio-visual system and electronic means for filing documents; and

(B) identification of one or more organizations who are trained and available to assist petitioners in preparing and filing petitions for temporary orders of protection and in their electronic appearances before the court to obtain such orders; and

(C) identification of the existing resources available in local family courts for the implementation and oversight of the pilot program; and

(D) procedures for filing petitions and documents by electronic means, swearing in the petitioners and witnesses, preparation of a transcript of testimony and evidence presented, and a prompt transmission of any orders issued to the parties; and

(E) a timeline for implementation and a plan for informing the public about the availability of the program; and

(F) a description of the data to be collected in order to evaluate and make recommendations for improvements to the pilot program.

(3) In conjunction with an electronic appearance, any petitioner for an ex parte temporary order of protection may, using the assistance of a trained advocate if necessary, commence the proceedings by filing a petition by electronic means.

(A) A petitioner who is seeking an ex parte temporary order of protection using an electronic appearance must file a petition in advance of the appearance and may do so electronically.

(B) The petitioner must show that traveling to or appearing in court would constitute an undue hardship or create a risk of harm to the petitioner. In granting or denying any relief sought by the petitioner, the court shall state the names of all participants and whether it is granting or denying an appearance by electronic means and the basis for such a determination. A party is not required to file a petition or other document by electronic means or to testify by means of an electronic appearance.

(C) Nothing in this subsection (e) affects or changes any existing laws governing the service of process, including requirements for personal service or the sealing and confidentiality of court records in court proceedings or access to court records by the parties to the proceedings.

(4) Appearances.

(A) All electronic appearances by a petitioner seeking an ex parte temporary order of protection under this subsection (e) are strictly voluntary and the court shall obtain the consent of the petitioner on the record at the commencement of each appearance.

(B) Electronic appearances under this subsection (e) shall be recorded and preserved for transcription. Documentary evidence, if any, referred to by a party or witness or the court may be transmitted and submitted and introduced by electronic means.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-718, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 720. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 11a-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)

Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section 11a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best interests consistent with the provisions of this Section, except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be required when the court determines that such appointment is not necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by training or experience, to work with or advocate for persons with developmental disabilities, the mentally ill, persons with physical disabilities, the elderly, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may consult with a person who by training or experience is qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability, persons with mental illness, persons with physical disabilities, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of the petition and of his rights under Section 11a-11. The guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's position concerning the adjudication of disability, the proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement, changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court. Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem shall file a written report detailing his or her observations of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of the inquiries detailed in this Section, the opinion of the guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her report.

(b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent, if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel upon respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.

(c) If the respondent is unable to pay the fee of the guardian ad litem or appointed counsel, or both, the court may enter an order for the petitioner to pay all such fees or such amounts as the respondent or the respondent's estate may be unable to pay. However, in cases where the Office of State Guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 30 of the Guardianship and Advocacy Act, where the public guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 13-5 of this Act, where an adult protective services agency is the petitioner, pursuant to Section 9 of the Adult Protective Services Act, or where the Department of Children and Family Services is the petitioner under subparagraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 2-27 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, no guardian ad litem or legal fees shall be assessed against the Office of State Guardian, the public guardian, the adult protective services agency, or the Department of Children and Family Services.

(d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent resides.

(e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be printed in large, bold type and shall include the following notice:

NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT

You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship petition asking that you be declared a person with a disability. If the court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your convenience.

The date and time of the hearing are: The place where the hearing will occur is: The Judge's name and phone number is:

If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be given the right to make all important personal decisions for you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your money and other property, including your home, if you own one. You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.

You have the following legal rights:

(1) You have the right to be present at the court hearing.

(2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer, either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.

(3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons to hear your case.

(4) You have the right to present evidence to the court and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

(5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about your need for a guardian.

(6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be closed to the public.

(7) You have the right to tell the court whom you prefer to have for your guardian.

You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do not attend.

IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN. IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR OF IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND TELL THE JUDGE.

Service of summons and the petition may be made by a private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the action.

(f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons, including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-89, eff. 7-15-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 725. The Uniform Real Property Electronic Recording Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(765 ILCS 33/5)

Sec. 5. Administration and standards.

(a) To adopt standards to implement this Act, there is established, within the Office of the Secretary of State, the Illinois Electronic Recording Commission consisting of 17 commissioners as follows:

(1) The Secretary of State or the Secretary's designee shall be a permanent commissioner.

(2) The Secretary of State shall appoint the following additional 16 commissioners:

(A) Three who are from the land title profession.

(B) Three who are from lending institutions.

(C) One who is an attorney.

(D) Seven who are county recorders, no more than 4 of whom are from one political party, representative of counties of varying size, geography, population, and resources.

(E) Two who are licensed real estate brokers or managing brokers under the Real Estate License Act of 2000.

(3) On August 27, 2007 (the effective date of this Act), the Secretary of State or the Secretary's designee shall become the Acting Chairperson of the Commission. The Secretary shall appoint the initial commissioners within 60 days and hold the first meeting of the Commission within 120 days, notifying commissioners of the time and place of the first meeting with at least 14 days' notice. At its first meeting the Commission shall adopt, by a majority vote, such rules and structure that it deems necessary to govern its operations, including the title, responsibilities, and election of officers. Once adopted, the rules and structure may be altered or amended by the Commission by majority vote. Upon the election of officers and adoption of rules or bylaws, the duties of the Acting Chairperson shall cease.

(4) The Commission shall meet at least once every year within the State of Illinois. The time and place of meetings to be determined by the Chairperson and approved by a majority of the Commission.

(5) Nine commissioners shall constitute a quorum.

(6) Commissioners shall receive no compensation for their services but may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses at current rates in effect at the Office of the Secretary of State, directly related to their duties as commissioners and participation at Commission meetings or while on business or at meetings which have been authorized by the Commission.

(7) Appointed commissioners shall serve terms of 3 years, which shall expire on December 1st. Five of the initially appointed commissioners, including at least 2 county recorders, shall serve terms of one year, 5 of the initially appointed commissioners, including at least 2 county recorders, shall serve terms of 2 years, and 4 of the initially appointed commissioners shall serve terms of 3 years, to be determined by lot. Of the commissioners appointed under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection, one of the initially appointed commissioners shall serve a term of 2 years and one of the initially appointed commissioners shall serve a term of 3 years, to be determined by lot. The calculation of the terms in office of the initially appointed commissioners shall begin on the first December 1st after the commissioners have served at least 6 months in office.

(8) The Chairperson shall declare a commissioner's office vacant immediately after receipt of a written resignation, death, a recorder commissioner no longer holding the public office, or under other circumstances specified within the rules adopted by the Commission, which shall also by rule specify how and by what deadlines a replacement is to be appointed.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The Commission shall adopt and transmit to the Secretary of State standards to implement this Act and shall be the exclusive entity to set standards for counties to engage in electronic recording in the State of Illinois.

(d) To keep the standards and practices of county recorders in this State in harmony with the standards and practices of recording offices in other jurisdictions that enact substantially this Act and to keep the technology used by county recorders in this State compatible with technology used by recording offices in other jurisdictions that enact substantially this Act, the Commission, so far as is consistent with the purposes, policies, and provisions of this Act, in adopting, amending, and repealing standards shall consider:

(1) standards and practices of other jurisdictions;

(2) the most recent standards promulgated by national standard-setting bodies, such as the Property Records Industry Association;

(3) the views of interested persons and governmental officials and entities;

(4) the needs of counties of varying size, population, and resources; and

(5) standards requiring adequate information security protection to ensure that electronic documents are accurate, authentic, adequately preserved, and resistant to tampering.

(e) The Commission shall review the statutes related to real property and the statutes related to recording real property documents and shall recommend to the General Assembly any changes in the statutes that the Commission deems necessary or advisable.

(f) Funding. The Secretary of State may accept for the Commission, for any of its purposes and functions, donations, gifts, grants, and appropriations of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services from the federal government, the State or any of its departments or agencies, a county or municipality, or from any institution, person, firm, or corporation. The Commission may authorize a fee payable by counties engaged in electronic recording to fund its expenses. Any fee shall be proportional based on county population or number of documents recorded annually. On approval by a county recorder of the form and amount, a county board may authorize payment of any fee out of the special fund it has created to fund document storage and electronic retrieval, as authorized in Section 3-5018 of the Counties Code. Any funds received by the Office of the Secretary of State for the Commission shall be used entirely for expenses approved by and for the use of the Commission.

(g) The Secretary of State shall provide administrative support to the Commission, including the preparation of the agenda and minutes for Commission meetings, distribution of notices and proposed rules to commissioners, payment of bills and reimbursement for expenses of commissioners.

(h) Standards and rules adopted by the Commission shall be delivered to the Secretary of State. Within 60 days, the Secretary shall either promulgate by rule the standards adopted, amended, or repealed or return them to the Commission, with findings, for changes. The Commission may override the Secretary by a three-fifths vote, in which case the Secretary shall publish the Commission's standards.

(Source: P.A. 99-662, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 730. The Common Interest Community Association Act is amended by changing Section 1-90 as follows:

(765 ILCS 160/1-90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2022)

Sec. 1-90. Compliance with the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act. Every common interest community association, except for those exempt from this Act under Section 1-75, must comply with the Condominium and Common Community Interest Community Ombudsperson Act and is subject to all provisions of the Condominium and Common Community Interest Community Ombudsperson Act. This Section is repealed July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 98-1135, eff. 1-1-17 (See Section 20 of P.A. 99-776 for effective date of P.A. 98-1135); 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 735. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 27 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/27) (from Ch. 30, par. 327)

Sec. 27. Amendments.

(a) If there is any unit owner other than the developer, and unless otherwise provided in this Act, the condominium instruments shall be amended only as follows:

(i) upon the affirmative vote of 2/3 of those voting or upon the majority specified by the condominium instruments, provided that in no event shall the condominium instruments require more than a three-quarters vote of all unit owners; and

(ii) with the approval of, or notice to, any mortgagees or other lienholders of record, if required under the provisions of the condominium instruments.

(b)(1) If there is an omission, error, or inconsistency in a condominium instrument, such that a provision of a condominium instrument does not conform to this Act or to another applicable statute, the association may correct the omission, error, or inconsistency to conform the condominium instrument to this Act or to another applicable statute by an amendment adopted by vote of two-thirds of the Board of Managers, without a unit owner vote. A provision in a condominium instrument requiring or allowing unit owners, mortgagees, or other lienholders of record to vote to approve an amendment to a condominium instrument, or for the mortgagees or other lienholders of record to be given notice of an amendment to a condominium instrument, is not applicable to an amendment to the extent that the amendment corrects an omission, error, or inconsistency to conform the condominium instrument to this Act or to another applicable statute.

(2) If through a scrivener's error, a unit has not been designated as owning an appropriate undivided share of the common elements or does not bear an appropriate share of the common expenses or that all the common expenses or all of the common elements in the condominium have not been distributed in the declaration, so that the sum total of the shares of common elements which have been distributed or the sum total of the shares of the common expenses fail to equal 100%, or if it appears that more than 100% of the common elements or common expenses have been distributed, the error may be corrected by operation of law by filing an amendment to the declaration approved by vote of two-thirds of the members of the Board of Managers or a majority vote of the unit owners at a meeting called for this purpose which proportionately adjusts all percentage interests so that the total is equal to 100% unless the condominium instruments specifically provide for a different procedure or different percentage vote by the owners of the units and the owners of mortgages thereon affected by modification being made in the undivided interest in the common elements, the number of votes in the unit owners association or the liability for common expenses appertaining to the unit.

(3) If an omission or error or a scrivener's error in the declaration, bylaws or other condominium instrument is corrected by vote of two-thirds of the members of the Board of Managers pursuant to the authority established in subsections (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this Section 27 of this Act, the Board upon written petition by unit owners with 20 percent of the votes of the association filed within 30 days of the Board action shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the filing of the petition to consider the Board action. Unless a majority of the votes of the unit owners of the association are cast at the meeting to reject the action, it is ratified whether or not a quorum is present.

(4) The procedures for amendments set forth in this subsection (b) cannot be used if such an amendment would materially or adversely affect property rights of the unit owners unless the affected unit owners consent in writing. This Section does not restrict the powers of the association to otherwise amend the declaration, bylaws, or other condominium instruments, but authorizes a simple process of amendment requiring a lesser vote for the purpose of correcting defects, errors, or omissions when the property rights of the unit owners are not materially or adversely affected.

(5) If there is an omission or error in the declaration, bylaws, or other condominium instruments, which may not be corrected by an amendment procedure set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (b) of Section 27 in the declaration then the Circuit Court in the County in which the condominium is located shall have jurisdiction to hear a petition of one or more of the unit owners thereon or of the association, to correct the error or omission, and the action may be a class action. The court may require that one or more methods of correcting the error or omission be submitted to the unit owners to determine the most acceptable correction. All unit owners in the association must be joined as parties to the action. Service of process on owners may be by publication, but the plaintiff shall furnish all unit owners not personally served with process with copies of the petition and final judgment of the court by certified mail return receipt requested, at their last known address.

(6) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to invalidate any provision of a condominium instrument authorizing the developer to amend a condominium instrument prior to the latest date on which the initial membership meeting of the unit owners must be held, whether or not nor it has actually been held, to bring the instrument into compliance with the legal requirements of the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal Housing Administration, the United States Veterans Administration or their respective successors and assigns.

(Source: P.A. 98-282, eff. 1-1-14; 99-472, eff. 6-1-16; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 740. The Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(765 ILCS 615/50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2022)

Sec. 50. Reports. (a) The Department shall submit an annual written report on the activities of the Office to the General Assembly. The Department shall submit the first report no later than July 1, 2018. Beginning in 2019, the Department shall submit the report no later than October 1 of each year. The report shall include all of the following:

(1) annual workload and performance data, including (i) the number of requests for information; (ii) training, education, or other information provided; (iii) the manner in which education and training was conducted; and (iv) the staff time required to provide the training, education, or other information. For each category of data, the report shall provide subtotals based on the type of question or dispute involved in the request; and

(2) where relevant information is available, analysis of the most common and serious types of concerns within condominiums and common interest communities, along with any recommendations for statutory reform to reduce the frequency or severity of those disputes.

(Source: P.A. 98-1135, eff. 1-1-17 (See Section 20 of P.A. 99-776 for effective date of P.A. 98-1135); 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; revised 10-25-16.)

Section 745. The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 8.1 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1025/8.1) (from Ch. 141, par. 108.1)

Sec. 8.1. Property held by governments.

(a) All tangible personal property or intangible personal property and all debts owed or entrusted funds or other property held by any federal, state or local government or governmental subdivision, agency, entity, officer or appointee thereof, shall be presumed abandoned if the property has remained unclaimed for 5 years, except as provided in subsection (c).

(b) This Section applies to all abandoned property held by any federal, state or local government or governmental subdivision, agency, entity, officer or appointee thereof, on September 3, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-206) this amendatory Act of 1991 or at any time thereafter, regardless of when the property became or becomes presumptively abandoned.

(c) United States savings bonds.

(1) As used in this subsection, "United States savings bond" means property, tangible or intangible, in the form of a savings bond issued by the United States Treasury, whether in paper, electronic, or paperless form, along with all proceeds thereof in the possession of the State Treasurer.

(2) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, a United States savings bond subject to this Section or held or owing in this State by any person shall be presumed abandoned when such bond has remained unclaimed and unredeemed for 5 years after its date of final extended maturity.

(3) United States savings bonds that are presumed abandoned and unclaimed under paragraph (2) shall escheat to the State of Illinois and all property rights and legal title to and ownership of the United States savings bonds, or proceeds from the bonds, including all rights, powers, and privileges of survivorship of any owner, co-owner, or beneficiary, shall vest solely in the State according to the procedure set forth in paragraphs (4) through (6).

(4) Within 180 days after a United States savings bond has been presumed abandoned, in the absence of a claim having been filed with the State Treasurer for the savings bond, the State Treasurer shall commence a civil action in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County for a determination that the United States savings bond bonds has escheated to the State. The State Treasurer may postpone the bringing of the action until sufficient United States savings bonds have accumulated in the State Treasurer's custody to justify the expense of the proceedings.

(5) The State Treasurer shall make service by publication in the civil action in accordance with Sections 2-206 and 2-207 of the Code of Civil Procedure, which shall include the filing with the Circuit Court of Sangamon County of the affidavit required in Section 2-206 of that Code by an employee of the State Treasurer with personal knowledge of the efforts made to contact the owners of United States savings bonds presumed abandoned under this Section. In addition to the diligent inquiries made pursuant to Section 2-206 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the State Treasurer may also utilize additional discretionary means to attempt to provide notice to persons who may own a United States savings bond registered to a person with a last known address in the State of Illinois subject to a civil action pursuant to paragraph (4).

(6) The owner of a United States savings bond registered to a person with a last known address in the State of Illinois subject to a civil action pursuant to paragraph (4) may file a claim for such United States savings bond with either the State Treasurer or by filing a claim in the civil action in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County in which the savings bond registered to that person is at issue prior to the entry of a final judgment by the Circuit Court pursuant to this subsection, and unless the Circuit Court determines that such United States savings bond is not owned by the claimant, then such United States savings bond shall no longer be presumed abandoned. If no person files a claim or appears at the hearing to substantiate a disputed claim or if the court determines that a claimant is not entitled to the property claimed by the claimant, then the court, if satisfied by evidence that the State Treasurer has substantially complied with the laws of this State, shall enter a judgment that the United States savings bonds have escheated to this State, and all property rights and legal title to and ownership of such United States savings bonds or proceeds from such bonds, including all rights, powers, and privileges of survivorship of any owner, co-owner, or beneficiary, shall vest in this State.

(7) The State Treasurer shall redeem from the Bureau of the Fiscal Service of the United States Treasury the United States savings bonds escheated to the State and deposit the proceeds from the redemption of United States savings bonds into the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund.

(8) Any person making a claim for the United States savings bonds escheated to the State under this subsection, or for the proceeds from such bonds, may file a claim with the State Treasurer. Upon providing sufficient proof of the validity of such person's claim, the State Treasurer may, in his or her sole discretion, pay such claim. If payment has been made to any claimant, no action thereafter shall be maintained by any other claimant against the State or any officer thereof for or on account of such funds.

(Source: P.A. 99-556, eff. 1-1-17; 99-577, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 750. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 4-104 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/4-104) (from Ch. 68, par. 4-104)

Sec. 4-104. Exemptions. ) Nothing contained in this Article shall prohibit:

(A) Sound Underwriting Practices. A financial institution from considering sound underwriting practices in contemplation of any loan to any person. Such practices shall include:

(1) The willingness and the financial ability of the borrower to repay the loan.

(2) The market value of any real estate or other item of property proposed as security for any loan.

(3) Diversification of the financial institution's investment portfolio.

(B) Credit-worthiness Information; Credit Systems. A financial institution or a person who offers credit cards from:

(1) making an inquiry of the applicant's age, permanent residence, immigration status, or any additional information if such inquiry is for the purpose of determining the amount and probable continuance of income levels, credit history, or other pertinent element of credit-worthiness as provided in regulations of the Department;

(2) using any empirically derived credit system which considers age if such system is demonstrably and statistically sound in accordance with regulations of the Department, except that in the operation of such system the age of an applicant over the age of 62 years may not be assigned a negative factor or value.

(C) Special Credit Programs. A financial institution from refusing to extend credit when required to by or pursuant to any:

(1) credit assistance program expressly authorized by law for an economically disadvantaged class of persons;

(2) credit assistance program administered by a nonprofit organization for its members of an economically disadvantaged class of persons;

(3) special purpose credit program offered by a profit-making organization to meet special social needs which meets standards prescribed by the Department in its regulations.

(Source: P.A. 81-1267; revised 9-1-16.)

Section 755. The Professional Service Corporation Act is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:

(805 ILCS 10/3.1) (from Ch. 32, par. 415-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. "Ancillary personnel" means such persons person acting in their customary capacities, employed by those rendering a professional service who:

(1) are Are not licensed to engage in the category of professional service for which a professional corporation was formed; and

(2) work Work at the direction or under the supervision of those who are so licensed; and

(3) do Do not hold themselves out to the public generally as being authorized to engage in the practice of the profession for which the corporation is licensed; and

(4) are Are not prohibited by the regulating authority, regulating the category of professional service rendered by the corporation from being so employed and includes clerks, secretaries, technicians and other assistants who are not usually and ordinarily considered by custom and practice to be rendering the professional services for which the corporation was formed.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 760. The Medical Corporation Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:

(805 ILCS 15/18) (from Ch. 32, par. 648)

Sec. 18. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is expressly adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, or continuation or renewal of the license, is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed to the last known address of a party.

(Source: P.A. 88-45; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 765. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Section 2-323 as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/2-323) (from Ch. 26, par. 2-323)

Sec. 2-323. Form of bill of lading required in overseas shipment; "overseas"."

(1) Where the contract contemplates overseas shipment and contains a term C.I.F. or C. & F. or F.O.B. vessel, the seller unless otherwise agreed must obtain a negotiable bill of lading stating that the goods have been loaded on board or, in the case of a term C.I.F. or C. & F., received for shipment.

(2) Where in a case within subsection (1) a tangible bill of lading has been issued in a set of parts, unless otherwise agreed if the documents are not to be sent from abroad the buyer may demand tender of the full set; otherwise only one part of the bill of lading need be tendered. Even if the agreement expressly requires a full set:

(a) due tender of a single part is acceptable within the provisions of this Article on cure of improper delivery (subsection (1) of Section 2-508); and

(b) even though the full set is demanded, if the documents are sent from abroad the person tendering an incomplete set may nevertheless require payment upon furnishing an indemnity which the buyer in good faith deems adequate.

(3) A shipment by water or by air or a contract contemplating such shipment is "overseas" insofar as by usage of trade or agreement it is subject to the commercial, financing or shipping practices characteristic of international deep water commerce.

(Source: P.A. 95-895, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 770. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(815 ILCS 5/16) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 137.16)

Sec. 16. Saving clauses. Notwithstanding any repeal provisions of this Act, the provisions of the Act entitled "An Act relating to the sale or other disposition of securities and providing penalties for the violation thereof and to repeal Acts in conflict therewith," approved June 10, 1919, as amended, shall remain in force (1) for the prosecution and punishment of any person who, before the effective date of this Act, shall have violated any provision of said Act approved June 10, 1919, as amended; (2) for carrying out the terms of escrow agreements made pursuant to the provisions of said Act approved June 10, 1919, as amended, and (3) for the retention, enforcement and liquidation of deposits made with the Secretary of State pursuant to the provisions of Section 6a of said Act approved June 10, 1919, as amended, or of subsection E of Section 6 of the "The Illinois Securities Law of 1953", approved July 13, 1953, as amended and in effect prior to January 1, 1986, which deposits, from and after January 1, 1986, shall be subject to the provisions of subsections G, H, and I of Section 6 as if such deposits were made in respect of face amount certificate contracts which were registered under subsection B of Section 6 on or after January 1, 1986.

(Source: P.A. 84-1308; revised 10-26-16.)

Section 775. The Payday Loan Reform Act is amended by changing Section 2-5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 122/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Loan terms.

(a) Without affecting the right of a consumer to prepay at any time without cost or penalty, no payday loan may have a minimum term of less than 13 days.

(b) Except for an installment payday loan as defined in this Section, no payday loan may be made to a consumer if the loan would result in the consumer being indebted to one or more payday lenders for a period in excess of 45 consecutive days. Except as provided under subsection (c) of this Section and Section 2-40, if a consumer has or has had loans outstanding for a period in excess of 45 consecutive days, no payday lender may offer or make a loan to the consumer for at least 7 calendar days after the date on which the outstanding balance of all payday loans made during the 45 consecutive day period is paid in full. For purposes of this subsection, the term "consecutive days" means a series of continuous calendar days in which the consumer has an outstanding balance on one or more payday loans; however, if a payday loan is made to a consumer within 6 days or less after the outstanding balance of all loans is paid in full, those days are counted as "consecutive days" for purposes of this subsection.

(c) Notwithstanding anything in this Act to the contrary, a payday loan shall also include any installment loan otherwise meeting the definition of payday loan contained in Section 1-10, but that has a term agreed by the parties of not less than 112 days and not exceeding 180 days; hereinafter an "installment payday loan". The following provisions shall apply:

(i) Any installment payday loan must be fully amortizing, with a finance charge calculated on the principal balances scheduled to be outstanding and be repayable in substantially equal and consecutive installments, according to a payment schedule agreed by the parties with not less than 13 days and not more than one month between payments; except that the first installment period may be longer than the remaining installment periods by not more than 15 days, and the first installment payment may be larger than the remaining installment payments by the amount of finance charges applicable to the extra days. In calculating finance charges under this subsection, when the first installment period is longer than the remaining installment periods, the amount of the finance charges applicable to the extra days shall not be greater than $15.50 per $100 of the original principal balance divided by the number of days in a regularly scheduled installment period and multiplied by the number of extra days determined by subtracting the number of days in a regularly scheduled installment period from the number of days in the first installment period.

(ii) An installment payday loan may be refinanced by a new installment payday loan one time during the term of the initial loan; provided that the total duration of indebtedness on the initial installment payday loan combined with the total term of indebtedness of the new loan refinancing that initial loan, shall not exceed 180 days. For purposes of this Act, a refinancing occurs when an existing installment payday loan is paid from the proceeds of a new installment payday loan.

(iii) In the event an installment payday loan is paid in full prior to the date on which the last scheduled installment payment before maturity is due, other than through a refinancing, no licensee may offer or make a payday loan to the consumer for at least 2 calendar days thereafter.

(iv) No installment payday loan may be made to a consumer if the loan would result in the consumer being indebted to one or more payday lenders for a period in excess of 180 consecutive days. The term "consecutive days" does not include the date on which a consumer makes the final installment payment.

(d) (Blank).

(e) No lender may make a payday loan to a consumer if the total of all payday loan payments coming due within the first calendar month of the loan, when combined with the payment amount of all of the consumer's other outstanding payday loans coming due within the same month, exceeds the lesser of:

(1) $1,000; or

(2) in the case of one or more payday loans, 25% of the consumer's gross monthly income; or

(3) in the case of one or more installment payday loans, 22.5% of the consumer's gross monthly income; or

(4) in the case of a payday loan and an installment payday loan, 22.5% of the consumer's gross monthly income.

No loan shall be made to a consumer who has an outstanding balance on 2 payday loans, except that, for a period of 12 months after March 21, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-936) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, consumers with an existing CILA loan may be issued an installment loan issued under this Act from the company from which their CILA loan was issued.

(e-5) Except as provided in subsection (c)(i), no lender may charge more than $15.50 per $100 loaned on any payday loan, or more than $15.50 per $100 on the initial principal balance and on the principal balances scheduled to be outstanding during any installment period on any installment payday loan. Except for installment payday loans and except as provided in Section 2-25, this charge is considered fully earned as of the date on which the loan is made. For purposes of determining the finance charge earned on an installment payday loan, the disclosed annual percentage rate shall be applied to the principal balances outstanding from time to time until the loan is paid in full, or until the maturity date, whichever which ever occurs first. No finance charge may be imposed after the final scheduled maturity date.

When any loan contract is paid in full, the licensee shall refund any unearned finance charge. The unearned finance charge that is refunded shall be calculated based on a method that is at least as favorable to the consumer as the actuarial method, as defined by the federal Truth in Lending Act. The sum of the digits or rule of 78ths method of calculating prepaid interest refunds is prohibited.

(f) A lender may not take or attempt to take an interest in any of the consumer's personal property to secure a payday loan.

(g) A consumer has the right to redeem a check or any other item described in the definition of payday loan under Section 1-10 issued in connection with a payday loan from the lender holding the check or other item at any time before the payday loan becomes payable by paying the full amount of the check or other item.

(Source: P.A. 96-936, eff. 3-21-11; 97-421, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 780. The High Risk Home Loan Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(815 ILCS 137/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Approved credit counselor" means a credit counselor approved by the Director of Financial Institutions.

"Bona fide discount points" means loan discount points that are knowingly paid by the consumer for the purpose of reducing, and that in fact result in a bona fide reduction of, the interest rate or time price differential applicable to the mortgage.

"Borrower" means a natural person who seeks or obtains a high risk home loan.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and Real Estate.

"Department" means the Department of Financial Institutions.

"Director" means the Director of Financial Institutions.

"Good faith" means honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction concerned.

"High risk home loan" means a consumer credit transaction, other than a reverse mortgage, that is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling if: (i) at the time of origination, the annual percentage rate exceeds by more than 6 percentage points in the case of a first lien mortgage, or by more than 8 percentage points in the case of a junior mortgage, the average prime offer rate, as defined in Section 129C(b)(2)(B) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, for a comparable transaction as of the date on which the interest rate for the transaction is set, or if the dwelling is personal property, then as provided under 15 U.S.C. 1602(bb), as amended, and any corresponding regulation, as amended, (ii) the loan documents permit the creditor to charge or collect prepayment fees or penalties more than 36 months after the transaction closing or such fees exceed, in the aggregate, more than 2% of the amount prepaid, or (iii) the total points and fees payable in connection with the transaction, other than bona fide third-party charges not retained by the mortgage originator, creditor, or an affiliate of the mortgage originator or creditor, will exceed (1) 5% of the total loan amount in the case of a transaction for $20,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act) or more or (2) the lesser of 8% of the total loan amount or $1,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act) in the case of a transaction for less than $20,000 (or such other dollar amount as prescribed by federal regulation pursuant to the federal Dodd-Frank Act), except that, with respect to all transactions, bona fide loan discount points may be excluded as provided for in Section 35 of this Act. "High risk home loan" does not include a loan that is made primarily for a business purpose unrelated to the residential real property securing the loan or a consumer credit transaction made by a natural person who provides seller financing secured by a principal residence no more than 3 times in a 12-month period, provided such consumer credit transaction is not made by a person that has constructed or acted as a contractor for the construction of the residence in the ordinary course of business of such person.

"Lender" means a natural or artificial person who transfers, deals in, offers, or makes a high risk home loan. "Lender" includes, but is not limited to, creditors and brokers who transfer, deal in, offer, or make high risk home loans. "Lender" does not include purchasers, assignees, or subsequent holders of high risk home loans.

"Office" means the Office of Banks and Real Estate.

"Points and fees" means all items considered to be points and fees under 12 CFR 226.32 (2000, or as initially amended pursuant to Section 1431 of the federal Dodd-Frank Act with no subsequent amendments or editions included, whichever is later); compensation paid directly or indirectly by a consumer or creditor to a mortgage broker from any source, including a broker that originates a loan in its own name in a table-funded transaction, not otherwise included in 12 CFR 226.4; the maximum prepayment fees and penalties that may be charged or collected under the terms of the credit transaction; all prepayment fees or penalties that are incurred by the consumer if the loan refinances a previous loan made or currently held by the same creditor or an affiliate of the creditor; and premiums or other charges payable at or before closing or financed directly or indirectly into the loan for any credit life, credit disability, credit unemployment, credit property, other accident, loss of income, life, or health insurance or payments directly or indirectly for any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract, except that insurance premiums or debt cancellation or suspension fees calculated and paid in full on a monthly basis shall not be considered financed by the creditor. "Points and fees" does not include any insurance premium provided by an agency of the federal government or an agency of a state; any insurance premium paid by the consumer after closing; and any amount of a premium, charge, or fee that is not in excess of the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under Section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)), provided that the premium, charge, or fee is required to be refundable on a pro-rated basis and the refund is automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan.

"Prepayment penalty" and "prepayment fees or penalties" mean: (i) for a closed-end credit transaction, a charge imposed for paying all or part of the transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer prepays all of the transaction's transactions's principal sooner than 36 months after consummation and (ii) for an open-end credit plan, a charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan prior to the end of its term, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan sooner than 36 months after account opening.

"Reasonable" means fair, proper, just, or prudent under the circumstances.

"Servicer" means any entity chartered under the Illinois Banking Act, the Savings Bank Act, the Illinois Credit Union Act, or the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 and any person or entity licensed under the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987, the Consumer Installment Loan Act, or the Sales Finance Agency Act who is responsible for the collection or remittance for, or has the right or obligation to collect or remit for, any lender, note owner, or note holder or for a licensee's own account, of payments, interest, principal, and trust items (such as hazard insurance and taxes on a residential mortgage loan) in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan, including loan payment follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis, and any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good standing.

"Total loan amount" has the same meaning as that term is given in 12 CFR 226.32 and shall be calculated in accordance with the Federal Reserve Board's Official Staff Commentary to that regulation.

(Source: P.A. 99-150, eff. 7-28-15; 99-288, eff. 8-5-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 785. The Illinois Loan Brokers Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 15-80 as follows:

(815 ILCS 175/15-80)

Sec. 15-80. Persons exempt from registration and other duties; burden of proof thereof.

(a) The following persons are exempt from the requirements of Sections 15-10, 15-15, 15-20, 15-25, 15-30, 15-35, 15-40, and 15-75 of this Act:

(1) Any attorney while engaging in the practice of law.

(2) Any certified public accountant licensed to practice in Illinois, while engaged in practice as a certified public accountant and whose service in relation to procurement of a loan is incidental to his or her practice.

(3) Any person licensed to engage in business as a real estate broker or salesperson in Illinois while rendering services in the ordinary course of a transaction in which a license as a real estate broker or salesperson is required.

(4) Any dealer, salesperson or investment adviser registered under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, or an investment advisor, representative, or any person who is regularly engaged in the business of offering or selling securities in a transaction exempted under subsection C, H, M, R, Q, or S of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or subsection G of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 provided that such person is registered under the federal securities law.

(4.1) An associated person described in subdivision (h)(2) of Section 15 of the Federal 1934 Act.

(4.2) An investment adviser registered pursuant to Section 203 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act.

(4.3) A person described in subdivision (a)(11) of Section 202 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act.

(5) Any person whose fee is wholly contingent on the successful procurement of a loan from a third party and to whom no fee, other than a bona fide third party fee, is paid before the procurement.

(6) Any person who is a creditor, or proposed to be a creditor, for any loan.

(7) (Blank).

(8) Any person regulated by the Department of Financial Institutions or the Office of Banks and Real Estate, or any insurance producer or company authorized to do business in this State.

(b) As used in this Section, "bona fide third party fee" includes fees for:

(1) Credit reports, appraisals and investigations.

(2) If the loan is to be secured by real property, title examinations, an abstract of title, title insurance, a property survey and similar purposes.

(c) As used in this Section, "successful procurement of a loan" means that a binding commitment from a creditor to advance money has been received and accepted by the borrower.

(d) The burden of proof of any exemption provided in this Act shall be on the party claiming the exemption.

(Source: P.A. 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; 91-435, eff. 8-6-99; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 790. The Illinois Business Brokers Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-80 as follows:

(815 ILCS 307/10-80)

Sec. 10-80. Persons exempt from registration and other duties under law; burden of proof thereof.

(a) The following persons are exempt from the requirements of this Act:

(1) Any attorney who is licensed to practice in this State, while engaged in the practice of law and whose service in relation to the business broker transaction is incidental to the attorney's practice.

(2) Any person licensed as a real estate broker or salesperson under the Illinois Real Estate License Act of 2000 who is primarily engaged in business activities for which a license is required under that Act and who, on an incidental basis, acts as a business broker.

(3) Any dealer, salesperson, or investment adviser registered pursuant to the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or any investment adviser representative, or any person who is regularly engaged in the business of offering or selling securities in a transaction exempted under subsection C, H, M, R, Q, or S of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or subsection G of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 provided that such person is registered pursuant to federal securities law.

(4) An associated person described in subdivision (h)(2) of Section 15 of the Federal 1934 Act.

(5) An investment adviser registered pursuant to Section 203 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act.

(6) A person described in subdivision (a)(11) of Section 202 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act.

(7) Any person who is selling a business owned or operated (in whole or in part) by that person in a one time transaction.

(b) This Act shall not be deemed to apply in any manner, directly or indirectly, to: (i) a State bank or national bank, as those terms are defined in the Illinois Banking Act, or any subsidiary of a State bank or national bank; (ii) a bank holding company, as that term is defined in the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957, or any subsidiary of a bank holding company; (iii) a foreign banking corporation, as that term is defined in the Foreign Banking Office Act, or any subsidiary of a foreign banking corporation; (iv) a representative office, as that term is defined in the Foreign Bank Representative Office Act; (v) a corporate fiduciary, as that term is defined in the Corporate Fiduciary Act, or any subsidiary of a corporate fiduciary; (vi) a savings bank organized under the Savings Bank Act, or a federal savings bank organized under federal law, or any subsidiary of a savings bank or federal savings bank; (vii) a savings bank holding company organized under the Savings Bank Act, or any subsidiary of a savings bank holding company; (viii) an association or federal association, as those terms are defined in the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of an association or federal association; (ix) a foreign savings and loan association or foreign savings bank subject to the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of a foreign savings and loan association or foreign savings bank; or (x) a savings and loan association holding company, as that term is defined in the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of a savings and loan association holding company.

(b-1) Any franchise seller as defined in the Federal Trade Commission rule entitled Disclosure Requirements and Prohibitions Concerning Franchising, 16 C.F.R. Part 436, as it may be amended, is exempt from the requirements of this Act.

(b-2) Any certified public accountant licensed to practice in Illinois, while engaged in the practice as a certified public accountant and whose service in relation to the business broker transaction is incidental to his or her practice, is exempt from the requirements of this Act.

(b-3) Any publisher, or regular employee of such publisher, of a bona fide newspaper or news magazine of regular and established paid circulation who, in the routine course of selling advertising, advertises businesses for sale and in which no other related services are provided is exempt from the requirements of this Act.

(c) The burden of proof of any exemption or classification provided in this Act shall be on the party claiming the exemption or classification.

(Source: P.A. 96-648, eff. 10-1-09; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 800. The Personal Information Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(815 ILCS 530/10)

Sec. 10. Notice of breach.

(a) Any data collector that owns or licenses personal information concerning an Illinois resident shall notify the resident at no charge that there has been a breach of the security of the system data following discovery or notification of the breach. The disclosure notification shall be made in the most expedient time possible and without unreasonable delay, consistent with any measures necessary to determine the scope of the breach and restore the reasonable integrity, security, and confidentiality of the data system. The disclosure notification to an Illinois resident shall include, but need not be limited to, information as follows:

(1) With respect to personal information as defined in Section 5 in paragraph (1) of the definition of "personal information":

(A) the toll-free numbers and addresses for consumer reporting agencies;

(B) the toll-free number, address, and website address for the Federal Trade Commission; and

(C) a statement that the individual can obtain information from these sources about fraud alerts and security freezes.

The notification shall not, however, include information concerning the number of Illinois residents affected by the breach.

(2) With respect to personal information defined in Section 5 in paragraph (2) of the definition of "personal information", notice may be provided in electronic or other form directing the Illinois resident whose personal information has been breached to promptly change his or her user name or password and security question or answer, as applicable, or to take other steps appropriate to protect all online accounts for which the resident uses the same user name or email address and password or security question and answer.

The notification shall not, however, include information concerning the number of Illinois residents affected by the breach.

(b) Any data collector that maintains or stores, but does not own or license, computerized data that includes personal information that the data collector does not own or license shall notify the owner or licensee of the information of any breach of the security of the data immediately following discovery, if the personal information was, or is reasonably believed to have been, acquired by an unauthorized person. In addition to providing such notification to the owner or licensee, the data collector shall cooperate with the owner or licensee in matters relating to the breach. That cooperation shall include, but need not be limited to, (i) informing the owner or licensee of the breach, including giving notice of the date or approximate date of the breach and the nature of the breach, and (ii) informing the owner or licensee of any steps the data collector has taken or plans to take relating to the breach. The data collector's cooperation shall not, however, be deemed to require either the disclosure of confidential business information or trade secrets or the notification of an Illinois resident who may have been affected by the breach.

(b-5) The notification to an Illinois resident required by subsection (a) of this Section may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the data collector with a written request for the delay. However, the data collector must notify the Illinois resident as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.

(c) For purposes of this Section, notice to consumers may be provided by one of the following methods:

(1) written notice;

(2) electronic notice, if the notice provided is consistent with the provisions regarding electronic records and signatures for notices legally required to be in writing as set forth in Section 7001 of Title 15 of the United States Code; or

(3) substitute notice, if the data collector demonstrates that the cost of providing notice would exceed $250,000 or that the affected class of subject persons to be notified exceeds 500,000, or the data collector does not have sufficient contact information. Substitute notice shall consist of all of the following: (i) email notice if the data collector has an email address for the subject persons; (ii) conspicuous posting of the notice on the data collector's web site page if the data collector maintains one; and (iii) notification to major statewide media or, if the breach impacts residents in one geographic area, to prominent local media in areas where affected individuals are likely to reside if such notice is reasonably calculated to give actual notice to persons whom notice is required.

(d) Notwithstanding any other subsection in this Section, a data collector that maintains its own notification procedures as part of an information security policy for the treatment of personal information and is otherwise consistent with the timing requirements of this Act, shall be deemed in compliance with the notification requirements of this Section if the data collector notifies subject persons in accordance with its policies in the event of a breach of the security of the system data.

(Source: P.A. 99-503, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 805. The Business Opportunity Sales Law of 1995 is amended by changing Section 5-15 as follows:

(815 ILCS 602/5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Denial or revocation of exemptions.

(a) The Secretary of State may by order deny or revoke any exemption specified in Section 5-10 of this Law with respect to a particular offering of one or more business opportunities. No such order may be entered without appropriate prior notice to all interested parties, opportunity for hearing, and written findings of fact and conclusions of law.

(b) If the public interest or the protection of purchasers so requires, the Secretary of State may by summary order deny or revoke any of the specified exemptions pending final determination of any proceedings under this Section. Upon the entry of the order, the Secretary of State shall promptly notify all interested parties that it has been entered and of the reasons therefor and that the matter will be set for hearing upon written request filed with the Secretary of State within 30 days after the receipt of the request by the respondent. If no hearing is requested and none is ordered by the Secretary of State, the order will remain in effect until it is modified or vacated by the Secretary of State. If a hearing is requested and none is ordered by the Secretary of State, the order will remain in effect until it is modified or vacated by the Secretary of State. If a hearing is requested or ordered, the Secretary of State, after notice of an opportunity for hearing to all interested persons, may modify or vacate the order or extend it until final determination.

(c) No order under this Section may operate retroactively.

(d) No person may be considered to have violated Section 5-25 by reason of any offer or sale effected after the entry of an order under paragraph (1) of Section 5-65 of this Law if he or she sustains the burden of proof that he or she did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the order.

(e) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, this Law shall not apply to (i) any dealer, salesperson, or investment adviser registered under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or any investment adviser representative, or any person who is regularly engaged in the business of offering or selling securities in a transaction exempted under subsection C, H, M, R, Q, or S of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or subsection G of Section 4 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 provided that such person is registered under the federal securities law, (ii) an associated person described in subdivision (h)(2) of Section 15 of the Federal 1934 Act, (iii) an investment adviser registered under Section 203 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act, or (iv) a person described in subdivision (a)(11) of Section 202 of the Federal 1940 Investment Advisers Advisors Act.

(f) This Law shall not be deemed to apply in any manner, directly or indirectly, to: (i) a State bank or national bank, as those terms are defined in the Illinois Banking Act, or any subsidiary of a State bank or national bank; (ii) a bank holding company, as that term is defined in the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957, or any subsidiary of a bank holding company; (iii) a foreign banking corporation, as that term is defined in the Foreign Banking Office Act, or any subsidiary of a foreign banking corporation; (iv) a representative office, as that term is defined in the Foreign Bank Representative Office Act, (v) a corporate fiduciary, as that term is defined in the Corporate Fiduciary Act, or any subsidiary of a corporate fiduciary; (vi) a savings bank organized under the Savings Bank Act, or a federal savings bank organized under federal law, or any subsidiary of a savings bank or federal savings bank; (vii) a savings bank holding company organized under the Savings Bank Act, or any subsidiary of a savings bank holding company; (viii) an association or federal association, as those terms are defined in the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of an association or federal association; (ix) a foreign savings and loan association or foreign savings bank subject to the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of a foreign savings and loan association or foreign savings bank; or (x) a savings and loan association holding company, as that term is defined in the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985, or any subsidiary of a savings and loan association holding company.

(Source: P.A. 89-209, eff. 1-1-96; 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 810. The Contractor Prompt Payment Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(815 ILCS 603/10)

Sec. 10. Construction contracts. All construction contracts shall be deemed to provide the following:

(1) If a contractor has performed in accordance with the provisions of a construction contract and the payment application has been approved by the owner or the owner's agent, the owner shall pay the amount due to the contractor pursuant to the payment application not more than 15 calendar days after the approval. The payment application shall be deemed approved 25 days after the owner receives it unless the owner provides, before the end of the 25-day period, a written statement of the amount withheld and the reason for withholding payment. If the owner finds that a portion of the work is not in accordance with the contract, payment may be withheld for the reasonable value of that portion only. Payment shall be made for any portion of the contract for which the work has been performed in accordance with the provisions of the contract. Instructions or notification from an owner to his or her lender or architect to process or pay a payment application does not constitute approval of the payment application under this Act.

(2) If a subcontractor has performed in accordance with the provisions of his or her contract with the contractor or subcontractor and the work has been accepted by the owner, the owner's agent, or the contractor, the contractor shall pay to his or her subcontractor and the subcontractor shall pay to his or her subcontractor, within 15 calendar days of the contractor's receipt from the owner or the subcontractor's receipt from the contractor of each periodic payment, final payment, or receipt of retainage monies, the full amount received for the work of the subcontractor based on the work completed or the services rendered under the construction contract.

(Source: P.A. 95-567, eff. 8-31-07; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 815. The Motor Vehicle Franchise Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(815 ILCS 710/4) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 754)

Sec. 4. Unfair competition and practices.

(a) The unfair methods of competition and unfair and deceptive acts or practices listed in this Section are hereby declared to be unlawful. In construing the provisions of this Section, the courts may be guided by the interpretations of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45 et seq.), as from time to time amended.

(b) It shall be deemed a violation for any manufacturer, factory branch, factory representative, distributor or wholesaler, distributor branch, distributor representative or motor vehicle dealer to engage in any action with respect to a franchise which is arbitrary, in bad faith or unconscionable and which causes damage to any of the parties or to the public.

(c) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer:

(1) to accept, buy or order any motor vehicle or vehicles, appliances, equipment, parts or accessories therefor, or any other commodity or commodities or service or services which such motor vehicle dealer has not voluntarily ordered or requested except items required by applicable local, state or federal law; or to require a motor vehicle dealer to accept, buy, order or purchase such items in order to obtain any motor vehicle or vehicles or any other commodity or commodities which have been ordered or requested by such motor vehicle dealer;

(2) to order or accept delivery of any motor vehicle with special features, appliances, accessories or equipment not included in the list price of the motor vehicles as publicly advertised by the manufacturer thereof, except items required by applicable law; or

(3) to order for anyone any parts, accessories, equipment, machinery, tools, appliances or any commodity whatsoever, except items required by applicable law.

(d) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to adopt, change, establish or implement a plan or system for the allocation and distribution of new motor vehicles to motor vehicle dealers which is arbitrary or capricious or to modify an existing plan so as to cause the same to be arbitrary or capricious;

(2) to fail or refuse to advise or disclose to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement, upon written request therefor, the basis upon which new motor vehicles of the same line make are allocated or distributed to motor vehicle dealers in the State and the basis upon which the current allocation or distribution is being made or will be made to such motor vehicle dealer;

(3) to refuse to deliver in reasonable quantities and within a reasonable time after receipt of dealer's order, to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement for the retail sale of new motor vehicles sold or distributed by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division, any such motor vehicles as are covered by such franchise or selling agreement specifically publicly advertised in the State by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division to be available for immediate delivery. However, the failure to deliver any motor vehicle shall not be considered a violation of this Act if such failure is due to an act of God, a work stoppage or delay due to a strike or labor difficulty, a shortage of materials, a lack of manufacturing capacity, a freight embargo or other cause over which the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler, or any agent thereof has no control;

(4) to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer to enter into any agreement with such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, or to do any other act prejudicial to the dealer by threatening to reduce his allocation of motor vehicles or cancel any franchise or any selling agreement existing between such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, and the dealer. However, notice in good faith to any motor vehicle dealer of the dealer's violation of any terms or provisions of such franchise or selling agreement or of any law or regulation applicable to the conduct of a motor vehicle dealer shall not constitute a violation of this Act;

(5) to require a franchisee to participate in an advertising campaign or contest or any promotional campaign, or to purchase or lease any promotional materials, training materials, show room or other display decorations or materials at the expense of the franchisee;

(6) to cancel or terminate the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; to fail or refuse to extend the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer upon its expiration without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; or, to offer a renewal, replacement or succeeding franchise or selling agreement containing terms and provisions the effect of which is to substantially change or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of the motor vehicle dealer arbitrarily and without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided notwithstanding any term or provision of a franchise or selling agreement.

(A) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to cancel or terminate a franchise or selling agreement or intends not to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement on its expiration, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the effective date of the proposed action, or not later than 10 days before the proposed action when the reason for the action is based upon either of the following:

(i) the business operations of the franchisee have been abandoned or the franchisee has failed to conduct customary sales and service operations during customary business hours for at least 7 consecutive business days unless such closing is due to an act of God, strike or labor difficulty or other cause over which the franchisee has no control; or

(ii) the conviction of or plea of nolo contendere by the motor vehicle dealer or any operator thereof in a court of competent jurisdiction to an offense punishable by imprisonment for more than two years.

Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed cancellation, termination, or refusal to extend or renew and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(B) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement of such motor vehicle dealer, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the date of expiration of the franchise or selling agreement. Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed action and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(C) Within 30 days from receipt of the notice under subparagraphs (A) and (B), the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When the protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting dealer or franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer or franchisee, and to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to cancel, terminate, or refuse to renew or extend the franchise or selling agreement, or to change or modify the obligations of the dealer as a condition to offer renewal, replacement, or succession shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12 of this Act.

(D) Notwithstanding the terms, conditions, or provisions of a franchise or selling agreement, the following shall not constitute good cause for cancelling or terminating or failing to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement: (i) the change of ownership or executive management of the franchisee's dealership; or (ii) the fact that the franchisee or owner of an interest in the franchise owns, has an investment in, participates in the management of, or holds a license for the sale of the same or any other line make of new motor vehicles.

(E) The manufacturer may not cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement or change or modify the obligations of the franchisee as a condition to offering a renewal, replacement, or succeeding franchise or selling agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter, if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the proposed action;

(7) notwithstanding the terms of any franchise agreement, to fail to indemnify and hold harmless its franchised dealers against any judgment or settlement for damages, including, but not limited to, court costs, expert witness fees, reasonable attorneys' fees of the new motor vehicle dealer, and other expenses incurred in the litigation, so long as such fees and costs are reasonable, arising out of complaints, claims or lawsuits including, but not limited to, strict liability, negligence, misrepresentation, warranty (express or implied), or rescission recision of the sale as defined in Section 2-608 of the Uniform Commercial Code, to the extent that the judgment or settlement relates to the alleged defective or negligent manufacture, assembly or design of new motor vehicles, parts or accessories or other functions by the manufacturer, beyond the control of the dealer; provided that, in order to provide an adequate defense, the manufacturer receives notice of the filing of a complaint, claim, or lawsuit within 60 days after the filing;

(8) to require or otherwise coerce a motor vehicle dealer to underutilize the motor vehicle dealer's facilities by requiring or otherwise coercing the motor vehicle dealer to exclude or remove from the motor vehicle dealer's facilities operations for selling or servicing of any vehicles for which the motor vehicle dealer has a franchise agreement with another manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distribution branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof; provided, however, that, in light of all existing circumstances, (i) the motor vehicle dealer maintains a reasonable line of credit for each make or line of new motor vehicle, (ii) the new motor vehicle dealer remains in compliance with any reasonable facilities requirements of the manufacturer, (iii) no change is made in the principal management of the new motor vehicle dealer, and (iv) the addition of the make or line of new motor vehicles would be reasonable. The reasonable facilities requirement set forth in item (ii) of subsection (d)(8) shall not include any requirement that a franchisee establish or maintain exclusive facilities, personnel, or display space. Any decision by a motor vehicle dealer to sell additional makes or lines at the motor vehicle dealer's facility shall be presumed to be reasonable, and the manufacturer shall have the burden to overcome that presumption. A motor vehicle dealer must provide a written notification of its intent to add a make or line of new motor vehicles to the manufacturer. If the manufacturer does not respond to the motor vehicle dealer, in writing, objecting to the addition of the make or line within 60 days after the date that the motor vehicle dealer sends the written notification, then the manufacturer shall be deemed to have approved the addition of the make or line; or

(9) to use or consider the performance of a motor vehicle dealer relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's vehicles or the motor vehicle dealer's ability to satisfy any minimum sales or market share quota or responsibility relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's new vehicles in determining:

(A) the motor vehicle dealer's eligibility to purchase program, certified, or other used motor vehicles from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(B) the volume, type, or model of program, certified, or other used motor vehicles that a motor vehicle dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(C) the price of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle that the dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler; or

(D) the availability or amount of any discount, credit, rebate, or sales incentive that the dealer is eligible to receive from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for the purchase of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle offered for sale by the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler.

(e) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to resort to or use any false or misleading advertisement in connection with his business as such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof;

(2) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any motor vehicle dealer at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered to any other motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device including, but not limited to, sales promotion plans or programs which result in such lesser actual price or fail to make available to any motor vehicle dealer any preferential pricing, incentive, rebate, finance rate, or low interest loan program offered to competing motor vehicle dealers in other contiguous states. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(3) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any person, except a wholesaler, distributor or manufacturer's employees at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered and charged to a motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device which results in such lesser actual price. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(4) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or franchisee from changing the executive management control of the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such change of executive management will result in executive management control by a person or persons who are not of good moral character or who do not meet the franchiser's existing and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However where the manufacturer rejects a proposed change in executive management control, the manufacturer shall give written notice of his reasons to the dealer within 60 days of notice to the manufacturer by the dealer of the proposed change. If the manufacturer does not send a letter to the franchisee by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 60 days from receipt by the manufacturer of the proposed change, then the change of the executive management control of the franchisee shall be deemed accepted as proposed by the franchisee, and the manufacturer shall give immediate effect to such change;

(5) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer from establishing or changing the capital structure of his dealership or the means by or through which he finances the operation thereof; provided the dealer meets any reasonable capital standards agreed to between the dealer and the manufacturer, distributor or wholesaler, who may require that the sources, method and manner by which the dealer finances or intends to finance its operation, equipment or facilities be fully disclosed;

(6) to refuse to give effect to or prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or any officer, partner or stockholder of any motor vehicle dealer from selling or transferring any part of the interest of any of them to any other person or persons or party or parties unless such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under the "The Illinois Vehicle Code" or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law:

(A) If the manufacturer intends to refuse to approve the sale or transfer of all or a part of the interest, then it shall, within 60 days from receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, advising the franchisee of any refusal to approve the sale or transfer of all or part of the interest and shall state that the dealer only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth specific criteria used to evaluate the prospective transferee and the grounds for refusing to approve the sale or transfer to that transferee. Within 30 days from the franchisee's receipt of the manufacturer's notice, the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing the date (within 60 days of the date of such order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer shall be made by the Board under subdivisions (6)(B). The manufacturer shall not refuse to approve the sale or transfer by a dealer or an officer, partner, or stockholder of a franchise or any part of the interest to any person or persons before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee.

(B) Good cause to refuse to approve such sale or transfer under this Section is established when such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under the "The Illinois Vehicle Code" or such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area.

(7) to obtain money, goods, services, anything of value, or any other benefit from any other person with whom the motor vehicle dealer does business, on account of or in relation to the transactions between the dealer and the other person as compensation, except for services actually rendered, unless such benefit is promptly accounted for and transmitted to the motor vehicle dealer;

(8) to grant an additional franchise in the relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make or to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership within or into a relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make. However, if the manufacturer wishes to grant such an additional franchise to an independent person in a bona fide relationship in which such person is prepared to make a significant investment subject to loss in such a dealership, or if the manufacturer wishes to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership, then the manufacturer shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to each existing dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise at least 60 days before the manufacturer grants an additional franchise or relocates an existing franchise of the same line make within or into the relevant market area of an existing franchisee of the same line make. Each notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the proposed grant of an additional or relocation of an existing franchise and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. Unless the parties agree upon the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the existing franchisee of the same line make or any person entitled to receive such notice, the franchisee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the grant or establishment of the proposed additional or relocated franchise.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention to grant or establish the proposed additional or relocated franchise and to the protesting dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise.

When more than one protest is filed against the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise of the same line make, the Board may consolidate the hearings to expedite disposition of the matter. The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to allow the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise. The manufacturer may not grant or establish the additional franchise or relocate the existing franchise before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the grant or establishment of the additional franchise or relocation of the existing franchise.

The determination whether good cause exists for allowing the grant or establishment of an additional franchise or relocated existing franchise, shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12 of this Act. If the manufacturer seeks to enter into a contract, agreement or other arrangement with any person, establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility, limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles, then the manufacturer shall follow the notice procedures set forth in this Section and the determination whether good cause exists for allowing the proposed agreement shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12, with the manufacturer having the burden of proof.

A. (Blank).

B. For the purposes of this Section, appointment of a successor motor vehicle dealer at the same location as its predecessor, or within 2 miles of such location, or the relocation of an existing dealer or franchise within 2 miles of the relocating dealer's or franchisee's existing location, shall not be construed as a grant, establishment or the entering into of an additional franchise or selling agreement, or a relocation of an existing franchise. The reopening of a motor vehicle dealership that has not been in operation for 18 months or more shall be deemed the grant of an additional franchise or selling agreement.

C. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 7 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 12 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. A dealer that would be farther away from the new location of an existing dealership or franchise of the same line make after a relocation may not file a written protest against the relocation with the Motor Vehicle Review Board.

D. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(9) to require a motor vehicle dealer to assent to a release, assignment, novation, waiver or estoppel which would relieve any person from liability imposed by this Act;

(10) to prevent or refuse to give effect to the succession to the ownership or management control of a dealership by any legatee under the will of a dealer or to an heir under the laws of descent and distribution of this State unless the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise. Unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that the successor is a person who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area, any designated successor of a dealer or franchisee may succeed to the ownership or management control of a dealership under the existing franchise if:

(i) The designated successor gives the franchiser written notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, of his or her intention to succeed to the ownership of the dealer within 60 days of the dealer's death or incapacity; and

(ii) The designated successor agrees to be bound by all the terms and conditions of the existing franchise.

Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the event the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee and manufacturer have duly executed an agreement concerning succession rights prior to the dealer's death or incapacitation, the agreement shall be observed.

(A) If the franchiser intends to refuse to honor the successor to the ownership of a deceased or incapacitated dealer or franchisee under an existing franchise agreement, the franchiser shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the designated successor within 60 days from receipt of a proposal advising of its intent to refuse to honor the succession and to discontinue the existing franchise agreement and shall state that the designated successor only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the refusal to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

If notice of refusal is not timely served upon the designated successor, the franchise agreement shall continue in effect subject to termination only as otherwise permitted by paragraph (6) of subsection (d) of Section 4 of this Act.

Within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the designated successor or any other person entitled to notice, the designee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the franchiser that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting designee or such other person.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession shall be made by the Board under subdivision (B) of this paragraph (10). The manufacturer shall not refuse to honor the succession or discontinue the existing franchise agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that it has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

(B) No manufacturer shall impose any conditions upon honoring the succession and continuing the existing franchise agreement with the designated successor other than that the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise, or that the designated successor is of good moral character or meets the reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area;

(11) to prevent or refuse to approve a proposal to establish a successor franchise at a location previously approved by the franchiser when submitted with the voluntary termination by the existing franchisee unless the successor franchisee would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealer's license under the Illinois Vehicle Code or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such proposed successor is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, when such a rejection of a proposal is made, the manufacturer shall give written notice of its reasons to the franchisee within 60 days of receipt by the manufacturer of the proposal. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities, or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(12) to prevent or refuse to grant a franchise to a person because such person owns, has investment in or participates in the management of or holds a franchise for the sale of another make or line of motor vehicles within 7 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons, or within 12 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons; or

(13) to prevent or attempt to prevent any new motor vehicle dealer from establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles or otherwise offering for sale factory repurchase vehicles of the same line make at an existing franchise by failing to make available any contract, agreement or other arrangement which is made available or otherwise offered to any person.

(f) It is deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent, broker, shareholder, except a shareholder of 1% or less of the outstanding shares of any class of securities of a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler which is a publicly traded corporation, or other representative, directly or indirectly, to own or operate a place of business as a motor vehicle franchisee or motor vehicle financing affiliate, except that, this subsection shall not prohibit:

(1) the ownership or operation of a place of business by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for a period, not to exceed 18 months, during the transition from one motor vehicle franchisee to another;

(2) the investment in a motor vehicle franchisee by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler if the investment is for the sole purpose of enabling a partner or shareholder in that motor vehicle franchisee to acquire an interest in that motor vehicle franchisee and that partner or shareholder is not otherwise employed by or associated with the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler and would not otherwise have the requisite capital investment funds to invest in the motor vehicle franchisee, and has the right to purchase the entire equity interest of the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler in the motor vehicle franchisee within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 5 years; or

(3) the ownership or operation of a place of business by a manufacturer that manufactures only diesel engines for installation in trucks having a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 16,000 pounds that are required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided that:

(A) the manufacturer does not otherwise manufacture, distribute, or sell motor vehicles as defined under Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) the manufacturer owned a place of business and it was in operation as of January 1, 2016;

(C) the manufacturer complies with all obligations owed to dealers that are not owned, operated, or controlled by the manufacturer, including, but not limited to those obligations arising pursuant to Section 6;

(D) to further avoid any acts or practices, the effect of which may be to lessen or eliminate competition, the manufacturer provides to dealers on substantially equal terms access to all support for completing repairs, including, but not limited to, parts and assemblies, training, and technical service bulletins, and other information concerning repairs that the manufacturer provides to facilities that are owned, operated, or controlled by the manufacturer; and

(E) the manufacturer does not require that warranty repair work be performed by a manufacturer-owned repair facility and the manufacturer provides any dealer that has an agreement with the manufacturer to sell and perform warranty repairs on the manufacturer's engines the opportunity to perform warranty repairs on those engines, regardless of whether the dealer sold the truck into which the engine was installed.

(g) Notwithstanding the terms, provisions, or conditions of any agreement or waiver, it shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to directly or indirectly condition the awarding of a franchise to a prospective new motor vehicle dealer, the addition of a line make or franchise to an existing dealer, the renewal of a franchise of an existing dealer, the approval of the relocation of an existing dealer's facility, or the approval of the sale or transfer of the ownership of a franchise on the willingness of a dealer, proposed new dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility to enter into a site control agreement or exclusive use agreement unless separate and reasonable consideration was offered and accepted for that agreement.

For purposes of this subsection (g), the terms "site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" include any agreement that has the effect of either (i) requiring that the dealer establish or maintain exclusive dealership facilities; or (ii) restricting the ability of the dealer, or the ability of the dealer's lessor in the event the dealership facility is being leased, to transfer, sell, lease, or change the use of the dealership premises, whether by sublease, lease, collateral pledge of lease, or other similar agreement. "Site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" also include a manufacturer restricting the ability of a dealer to transfer, sell, or lease the dealership premises by right of first refusal to purchase or lease, option to purchase, or option to lease if the transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises is to a person who is an immediate family member of the dealer. For the purposes of this subsection (g), "immediate family member" means a spouse, parent, son, daughter, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother, and sister.

If a manufacturer exercises any right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease with regard to a transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises to a person who is not an immediate family member of the dealer, then (1) within 60 days from the receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, the manufacturer must notify the dealer of its intent to exercise the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease and (2) the exercise of the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease must result in the dealer receiving consideration, terms, and conditions that either are the same as or greater than that which they have contracted to receive in connection with the proposed transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises.

Any provision contained in any agreement entered into on or after November 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-824) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly that is inconsistent with the provisions of this subsection (g) shall be voidable at the election of the affected dealer, prospective dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility.

(h) For purposes of this subsection:

"Successor manufacturer" means any motor vehicle manufacturer that, on or after January 1, 2009, acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of another manufacturer, referred to as the "predecessor manufacturer", as the result of any of the following:

(i) A change in ownership, operation, or control of the predecessor manufacturer by sale or transfer of assets, corporate stock or other equity interest, assignment, merger, consolidation, combination, joint venture, redemption, court-approved sale, operation of law or otherwise.

(ii) The termination, suspension, or cessation of a part or all of the business operations of the predecessor manufacturer.

(iii) The discontinuance of the sale of the product line.

(iv) A change in distribution system by the predecessor manufacturer, whether through a change in distributor or the predecessor manufacturer's decision to cease conducting business through a distributor altogether.

"Former Franchisee" means a new motor vehicle dealer that has entered into a franchise with a predecessor manufacturer and that has either:

(i) entered into a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer related to such franchise; or

(ii) has had such franchise canceled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended.

For a period of 3 years from: (i) the date that a successor manufacturer acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of a predecessor manufacturer; (ii) the last day that a former franchisee is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise under a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer; (iii) the last day that a former franchisee that was cancelled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended by a predecessor or successor manufacturer is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise; or (iv) November 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-824) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is latest, it shall be unlawful for such successor manufacturer to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing same line make franchise, for a line make of the predecessor manufacturer that would be located or relocated within the relevant market area of a former franchisee who owned or leased a dealership facility in that relevant market area without first offering the additional or relocated franchise to the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability, at no cost and without any requirements or restrictions other than those imposed generally on the manufacturer's other franchisees at that time, unless one of the following applies:

(1) As a result of the former franchisee's cancellation, termination, noncontinuance, or nonrenewal of the franchise, the predecessor manufacturer had consolidated the line make with another of its line makes for which the predecessor manufacturer had a franchisee with a then-existing dealership facility located within that relevant market area.

(2) The successor manufacturer has paid the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability, the fair market value of the former franchisee's franchise on (i) the date the franchisor announces the action which results in the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal; or (ii) the date the action which results in termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal first became general knowledge; or (iii) the day 12 months prior to the date on which the notice of termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is issued, whichever amount is higher. Payment is due within 90 days of the effective date of the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal. If the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is due to a manufacturer's change in distributors, the manufacturer may avoid paying fair market value to the dealer if the new distributor or the manufacturer offers the dealer a franchise agreement with terms acceptable to the dealer.

(3) The successor manufacturer proves that it would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee under item (e)(10) in the event that the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability. The determination of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12. A successor manufacturer that seeks to assert that it would have had good cause to terminate a former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, must file a petition seeking a hearing on this issue before the Board and shall have the burden of proving that it would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee or the successor of the former franchisee. No successor dealer, other than the former franchisee, may be appointed or franchised by the successor manufacturer within the relevant market area of the former franchisee until the Board has held a hearing and rendered a determination on the issue of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee.

In the event that a successor manufacturer attempts to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing line make franchise under this subsection (h) at a location that is within the relevant market area of 2 or more former franchisees, then the successor manufacturer may not offer it to any person other than one of those former franchisees unless the successor manufacturer can prove that at least one of the 3 exceptions in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (h) applies to each of those former franchisees.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-844, eff. 8-19-16; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 820. The Earned Income Tax Credit Information Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(820 ILCS 170/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 2755)

Sec. 5. Declaration of public policy. In order to alleviate the tax burden of low-income persons in Illinois who have earned income and support one or more dependent children, the State should facilitate the furnishing of information to such persons about the availability of the federal earned income tax credit so that eligible taxpayers may claim that credit on their federal income tax returns. It is the intent of this Act to offer the most cost-effective assistance to eligible taxpayers through notices provided by their employers and by State government.

(Source: P.A. 87-598; revised 9-15-16.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.