Public Act 1109 97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB3366 Enrolled LRB097 10573 RLC 50927 b

Public Act 097-1109

AN ACT concerning criminal law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Article 1.

Section 1-5. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing and renumbering Sections 12-4.9, 12-10, 12-10.1, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-22, 33D-1, 44-2, and 44-3 and by adding the heading of Article 12C, the headings of Subdivisions 1, 5, 10, and 15 of Article 12C, and Sections 12C-20, 12C-25, 12C-50, 12C-60, and 12C-70 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C heading new)

ARTICLE 12C. HARMS TO CHILDREN

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 1 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 1. ENDANGERMENT AND NEGLECT OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/12C-5) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.6)

Sec. 12C-5 12-21.6. Endangering the life or health of a child.

(a) A person commits endangering the life or health of a child when he or she knowingly: (1) causes or permits It is unlawful for any person to willfully cause or permit the life or health of a child under the age of 18 to be endangered; or (2) causes or permits to willfully cause or permit a child to be placed in circumstances that endanger the child's life or health. It is not a violation of this Section , except that it is not unlawful for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) A trier of fact may infer There is a rebuttable presumption that a person committed the offense if he or she left a child 6 years of age or younger is unattended if that child is left in a motor vehicle for more than 10 minutes.

(c) "Unattended" means either: (i) not accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older; or (ii) if accompanied by a person 14 years of age or older, out of sight of that person.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 3 felony. A violation of this Section that is a proximate cause of the death of the child is a Class 3 felony for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 10 years. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01; 92-515, eff. 6-1-02; 92-651, eff. 7-11-02.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)

Sec. 12C-10 12-21.5. Child abandonment Abandonment.

(a) A person commits the offense of child abandonment when he or she, as a parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly leaves that child who is under the age of 13 without supervision by a responsible person over the age of 14 for a period of 24 hours or more. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish , except that a person does not commit the offense of child abandonment when he or she relinquishes a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the following factors:

(1) the age of the child;

(2) the number of children left at the location;

(3) special needs of the child, including whether the child is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the child was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the child was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the child was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the child was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was left without supervision, the physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or control of the child at the time the child was without supervision;

(9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or the child was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the child was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the child;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the child;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the child;

(14) any other factor that would endanger the health or safety of that particular child;

(15) whether the child was left under the supervision of another person.

(d) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3 felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-15) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-22)

Sec. 12C-15 12-22. Child abandonment or endangerment; probation Probation.

(a) Whenever a parent of a child as determined by the court on the facts before it, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of, with respect to his or her child, child abandonment under Section 12C-10 12-21.5 of this Article the Criminal Code of 1961 or endangering the life or health of a child under Section 12C-5 12-21.6 of this Article the Criminal Code of 1961, the court may, without entering a judgment of guilt and with the consent of the person, defer further proceedings and place the person upon probation upon the reasonable terms and conditions as the court may require. At least one term of the probation shall require the person to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services at the times and in the programs that the Department of Children and Family Services may require.

(b) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions imposed under subsection (a), the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings. Discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be without court adjudication of guilt and shall not be considered a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. However, a record of the disposition shall be reported by the clerk of the circuit court to the Department of State Police under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act, and the record shall be maintained and provided to any civil authority in connection with a determination of whether the person is an acceptable candidate for the care, custody and supervision of children.

(c) Discharge and dismissal under this Section may occur only once.

(d) Probation under this Section may not be for a period of less than 2 years.

(e) If the child dies of the injuries alleged, this Section shall be inapplicable.

(Source: P.A. 88-479.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-20 new)

Sec. 12C-20. Abandonment of a school bus containing children.

(a) A school bus driver commits abandonment of a school bus containing children when he or she knowingly abandons the school bus while it contains any children who are without other adult supervision, except in an emergency where the driver is seeking help or otherwise acting in the best interests of the children.

(b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(720 ILCS 5/12C-25 new)

Sec. 12C-25. Contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor.

(a) Any parent, legal guardian or person having the custody of a child under the age of 18 years commits contributing to the dependency and neglect of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages such minor to be or to become a dependent and neglected minor; (2) does acts which directly tend to render any such minor so dependent and neglected; or (3) fails to do that which will directly tend to prevent such state of dependency and neglect. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(b) "Dependent and neglected minor" means any child who, while under the age of 18 years, for any reason is destitute, homeless or abandoned; or dependent upon the public for support; or has not proper parental care or guardianship; or habitually begs or receives alms; or is found living in any house of ill fame or with any vicious or disreputable person; or has a home which by reason of neglect, cruelty or depravity on the part of its parents, guardian or any other person in whose care it may be is an unfit place for such child; and any child who while under the age of 10 years is found begging, peddling or selling any articles or singing or playing any musical instrument for gain upon the street or giving any public entertainments or accompanies or is used in aid of any person so doing.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.

(720 ILCS 5/12C-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/33D-1)

Sec. 12C-30 33D-1. Contributing to the delinquency or criminal delinquency of a minor.

(a) Contributing to the delinquency of a minor. A person commits contributing to the delinquency of a minor when he or she knowingly: (1) causes, aids, or encourages a minor to be or to become a delinquent minor; or (2) does acts which directly tend to render any minor so delinquent.

(b) (a) Contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor juvenile. A Any person of the age of 21 years and upwards commits contributing to the criminal delinquency of a minor when he or she, who with the intent to promote or facilitate the commission of an offense solicits, compels or directs a minor in the commission of the offense that is either: (i) a felony or when the minor is misdemeanor, solicits, compels or directs any person under the age of 17 years; or (ii) a misdemeanor when the minor is under the age of 18 years in the commission of the offense commits the offense of contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(c) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his or her 17th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance, and any minor who prior to his or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate, regardless of where the act occurred, any federal or State law or county or municipal ordinance classified as a misdemeanor offense.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of subsection (b) is:

(i) a Class C misdemeanor if the offense committed is a petty offense or a business offense;

(ii) a Class B misdemeanor if the offense committed is a Class C misdemeanor;

(iii) a Class A misdemeanor if the offense committed is a Class B misdemeanor;

(iv) a Class 4 felony if the offense committed is a Class A misdemeanor;

(v) a Class 3 felony if the offense committed is a Class 4 felony;

(vi) a Class 2 felony if the offense committed is a Class 3 felony;

(vii) a Class 1 felony if the offense committed is a Class 2 felony; and

(viii) a Class X felony if the offense committed is a Class 1 felony or a Class X felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (b) incurs the same penalty as first degree murder if the committed offense is first degree murder.

(e) The husband or wife of the defendant shall be a competent witness to testify in any case under this Section and to all matters relevant thereto.

(b) Sentence. Contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile is a felony one grade higher than the offense committed, if the offense committed is a felony, except when the offense committed is first degree murder or a Class X felony. When the offense committed is first degree murder or a Class X felony, the penalty for contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile is the same as the penalty for first degree murder or a Class X felony, respectively. Contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile is a misdemeanor one grade higher than the offense committed, if the offense committed is a misdemeanor, except when the offense committed is a Class A misdemeanor. If the offense committed is a Class A misdemeanor, the penalty for contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 91-337, eff. 1-1-00.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 5 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 5. BODILY HARM OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/12C-35) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10)

Sec. 12C-35 12-10. Tattooing the body of a minor. Tattooing Body of Minor.

(a) A Any person, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, commits tattooing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly who tattoos or offers to tattoo a person under the age of 18 is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) A Any person who is an owner or employee of employed by a business that performs tattooing, other than a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where tattooing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian. A violation of this subsection (b) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) As used in this Section, to "Tattoo tattoo" means to insert pigment under the surface of the skin of a human being, by pricking with a needle or otherwise, so as to produce an indelible mark or figure visible through the skin.

(d) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who tattoos or offers to tattoo another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which tattooing is performed.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 94-684, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-10.1)

Sec. 12C-40 12-10.1. Piercing the body of a minor.

(a)(1) A Any person commits piercing the body of a minor when he or she knowingly or recklessly who pierces the body or oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without written consent of a parent or legal guardian of that person commits the offense of piercing the body of a minor. Before the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age may be pierced, the written consent form signed by the parent or legal guardian must contain a provision in substantially the following form:

"I understand that the oral piercing of the tongue, lips, cheeks, or any other area of the oral cavity carries serious risk of infection or damage to the mouth and teeth, or both infection and damage to those areas, that could result but is not limited to nerve damage, numbness, and life threatening blood clots.".

A person who pierces the oral cavity of a person under 18 years of age without obtaining a signed written consent form from a parent or legal guardian of the person that includes the provision describing the health risks of body piercing, violates this Section.

(2) A (1.5) Any person who is an owner or employed by a business that performs body piercing may not permit a person under 18 years of age to enter or remain on the premises where body piercing is being performed unless the person under 18 years of age is accompanied by his or her parent or legal guardian.

(2) Sentence. A violation of clause (a)(1) or (a)(1.5) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Definition. As used in this Section, to "Pierce pierce" means to make a hole in the body or oral cavity in order to insert or allow the insertion of any ring, hoop, stud, or other object for the purpose of ornamentation of the body. "Piercing" does not include tongue splitting as defined in Section 12-10.2. The term "body" includes the oral cavity.

(c) Exceptions. This Section may not be construed in any way to prohibit any injection, incision, acupuncture, or similar medical or dental procedure performed by a licensed health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure or the presence on the premises where that procedure is being performed by a health care professional or other person authorized to perform that procedure of a person under 18 years of age who is not accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. This Section does not prohibit ear piercing. This Section does not apply to a minor emancipated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Emancipation of Minors Act or by marriage. This Section does not apply to a person under 18 years of age who pierces the body or oral cavity of another person under 18 years of age away from the premises of any business at which body piercing or oral cavity piercing is performed.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 93-449, eff. 1-1-04; 94-684, eff. 1-1-06.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-45) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4.9)

Sec. 12C-45 12-4.9. Drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete. Drug induced infliction of aggravated battery to a child athlete.

(a) A person commits drug induced infliction of harm to a child athlete when he or she knowingly Any person who distributes a drug to or encourages the ingestion of a drug by a person under the age of 18 with the intent that the person under the age of 18 ingest the drug for the purpose of a quick weight gain or loss in connection with participation in athletics is guilty of the offense of drug induced infliction of aggravated battery of a child athlete.

(b) This Section does not apply to care under usual and customary standards of medical practice by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or nor to the sale of drugs or products by a retail merchant.

(c) (b) Drug induced infliction of harm aggravated battery to a child athlete is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 89-632, eff. 1-1-97.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-50 new)

Sec. 12C-50. Hazing.

(a) A person commits hazing when he or she knowingly requires the performance of any act by a student or other person in a school, college, university, or other educational institution of this State, for the purpose of induction or admission into any group, organization, or society associated or connected with that institution, if:

(1) the act is not sanctioned or authorized by that educational institution; and

(2) the act results in bodily harm to any person.

(b) Sentence. Hazing is a Class A misdemeanor, except that hazing that results in death or great bodily harm is a Class 4 felony.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 10 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 10. CURFEW OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/12C-60 new)

Sec. 12C-60. Curfew.

(a) Curfew offenses.

(1) A minor commits a curfew offense when he or she remains in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(2) A parent or guardian of a minor or other person in custody or control of a minor commits a curfew offense when he or she knowingly permits the minor to remain in any public place or on the premises of any establishment during curfew hours.

(b) Curfew defenses. It is a defense to prosecution under subsection (a) that the minor was:

(1) accompanied by the minor's parent or guardian or other person in custody or control of the minor;

(2) on an errand at the direction of the minor's parent or guardian, without any detour or stop;

(3) in a motor vehicle involved in interstate travel;

(4) engaged in an employment activity or going to or returning home from an employment activity, without any detour or stop;

(5) involved in an emergency;

(6) on the sidewalk abutting the minor's residence or abutting the residence of a next-door neighbor if the neighbor did not complain to the police department about the minor's presence;

(7) attending an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor, or going to or returning home from, without any detour or stop, an official school, religious, or other recreational activity supervised by adults and sponsored by a government or governmental agency, a civic organization, or another similar entity that takes responsibility for the minor;

(8) exercising First Amendment rights protected by the United States Constitution, such as the free exercise of religion, freedom of speech, and the right of assembly; or

(9) married or had been married or is an emancipated minor under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

(c) Enforcement. Before taking any enforcement action under this Section, a law enforcement officer shall ask the apparent offender's age and reason for being in the public place. The officer shall not issue a citation or make an arrest under this Section unless the officer reasonably believes that an offense has occurred and that, based on any response and other circumstances, no defense in subsection (b) is present.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Curfew hours" means:

(A) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Saturday;

(B) Between 12:01 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on Sunday; and

(C) Between 11:00 p.m. on Sunday to Thursday, inclusive, and 6:00 a.m. on the following day.

(2) "Emergency" means an unforeseen combination of circumstances or the resulting state that calls for immediate action. The term includes, but is not limited to, a fire, a natural disaster, an automobile accident, or any situation requiring immediate action to prevent serious bodily injury or loss of life.

(3) "Establishment" means any privately-owned place of business operated for a profit to which the public is invited, including, but not limited to, any place of amusement or entertainment.

(4) "Guardian" means:

(A) a person who, under court order, is the guardian of the person of a minor; or

(B) a public or private agency with whom a minor has been placed by a court.

(5) "Minor" means any person under 17 years of age.

(6) "Parent" means a person who is:

(A) a natural parent, adoptive parent, or step-parent of another person; or

(B) at least 18 years of age and authorized by a parent or guardian to have the care and custody of a minor.

(7) "Public place" means any place to which the public or a substantial group of the public has access and includes, but is not limited to, streets, highways, and the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings, transport facilities, and shops.

(8) "Remain" means to:

(A) linger or stay; or

(B) fail to leave premises when requested to do so by a police officer or the owner, operator, or other person in control of the premises.

(9) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

(e) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of not less than $10 nor more than $500, except that neither a person who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, nor that person's legal guardian, shall be subject to any fine. In addition to or instead of the fine imposed by this Section, the court may order a parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section to perform community service as determined by the court, except that the legal guardian of a person who has been made a ward of the court under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may not be ordered to perform community service. The dates and times established for the performance of community service by the parent, legal guardian, or other person convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall not conflict with the dates and times that the person is employed in his or her regular occupation.

(f) County, municipal and other local boards and bodies authorized to adopt local police laws and regulations under the constitution and laws of this State may exercise legislative or regulatory authority over this subject matter by ordinance or resolution incorporating the substance of this Section or increasing the requirements thereof or otherwise not in conflict with this Section.

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 12C, Subdiv. 15 heading new)

SUBDIVISION 15. MISCELLANEOUS OFFENSES

(720 ILCS 5/12C-65) (was 720 ILCS 5/44-2 and 5/44-3)

Sec. 12C-65 44-2. Unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor.

(a) A person commits unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor when he or she gives, sells or otherwise transfers possession of a telecommunications device to a person under 18 years of age with the intent that the device be used to commit any offense under this Code, the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) "Telecommunications device" or "device" means a device which is portable or which may be installed in a motor vehicle, boat or other means of transportation, and which is capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals or other information, including but not limited to paging devices, cellular and mobile telephones, and radio transceivers, transmitters and receivers, but not including radios designed to receive only standard AM and FM broadcasts.

(c) Sentence. A violation of this Section (b) Unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor is a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Seizure and forfeiture of property. Any person who commits the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor as set forth in this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. Sec. 44-3. (a) Seizure. Any telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without the authority of the school principal, or used in the commission of an offense prohibited by this Code, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offenses may be seized and delivered forthwith to the investigating law enforcement agency. A person who is not a student of the particular elementary or secondary school, who is on school property as an invitee of the school, and who has possession of a telecommunication device for lawful and legitimate purposes, shall not need to obtain authority from the school principal to possess the telecommunication device on school property. Such telecommunication device shall not be seized unless it was used in the commission of an offense specified above, or constitutes evidence of such an offense. Within 15 days after such delivery the investigating law enforcement agency shall give notice of seizure to any known owners, lienholders and secured parties of such property. Within that 15 day period the investigating law enforcement agency shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

(b) Rights of lienholders and secured parties. The State's Attorney shall promptly release a telecommunications device seized under the provisions of this Article to any lienholder or secured party if such lienholder or secured party shows to the State's Attorney that his lien or security interest is bona fide and was created without actual knowledge that such telecommunications device was or possessed in violation of this Section or used or to be used in the commission of the offense charged.

(c) Action for forfeiture.

(1) The State's Attorney in the county in which such seizure occurs if he finds that such forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner of the telecommunications device or a lienholder or secured party to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify remission of the forfeiture, may cause the investigating law enforcement agency to remit the same upon such terms and conditions as the State's Attorney deems reasonable and just. The State's Attorney shall exercise his discretion under the foregoing provision of this Section promptly after notice is given in accordance with subsection (a). If the State's Attorney does not cause the forfeiture to be remitted he shall forthwith bring an action for forfeiture in the circuit court within whose jurisdiction the seizure and confiscation has taken place. The State's Attorney shall give notice of the forfeiture proceeding by mailing a copy of the complaint in the forfeiture proceeding to the persons and in the manner set forth in subsection (a). The owner of the device or any person with any right, title, or interest in the device may within 20 days after the mailing of such notice file a verified answer to the complaint and may appear at the hearing on the action for forfeiture. The State shall show at such hearing by a preponderance of the evidence that the device was used in the commission of an offense described in subsection (a). The owner of the device or any person with any right, title, or interest in the device may show by a preponderance of the evidence that he did not know, and did not have reason to know, that the device was possessed in violation of this Section or to be used in the commission of such an offense or that any of the exceptions set forth in subsection (d) are applicable. Unless the State shall make such showing, the Court shall order the device released to the owner. Where the State has made such showing, the Court may order the device destroyed; may upon the request of the investigating law enforcement agency, order it delivered to any local, municipal or county law enforcement agency, or the Department of State Police or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois; or may order it sold at public auction.

(2) A copy of the order shall be filed with the investigating law enforcement agency of the county in which the seizure occurs. Such order, when filed, confers ownership of the device to the department or agency to whom it is delivered or any purchaser thereof. The investigating law enforcement agency shall comply promptly with instructions to remit received from the State's Attorney or Attorney General in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection or subsection (d).

(3) The proceeds of any sale at public auction pursuant to this subsection, after payment of all liens and deduction of the reasonable charges and expenses incurred by the investigating law enforcement agency in storing and selling the device, shall be paid into the general fund of the level of government responsible for the operation of the investigating law enforcement agency.

(d) Exceptions to forfeiture. No device shall be forfeited under the provisions of subsection (c) by reason of any act or omission established by the owner thereof to have been committed or omitted by any person other than the owner while the device was unlawfully in the possession of a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal laws of the United States, or of any state.

(e) Remission by Attorney General. Whenever any owner of, or other person interested in, a device seized under the provisions of this Section files with the Attorney General before the sale or destruction of the device a petition for the remission of such forfeiture the Attorney General if he finds that such forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the owner or any person with any right, title or interest in the device to violate the law, or finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to justify the remission of forfeiture, may cause the same to be remitted upon such terms and conditions as he deems reasonable and just, or order discontinuance of any forfeiture proceeding relating thereto.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(720 ILCS 5/12C-70 new)

Sec. 12C-70. Adoption compensation prohibited.

(a) Receipt of compensation for placing out prohibited; exception. No person and no agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization, except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, shall knowingly request, receive or accept any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(b) Payment of compensation for placing out prohibited. No person shall knowingly pay or give any compensation or thing of value, directly or indirectly, for providing adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969, including placing out of a child to any person or to any agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization except a child welfare agency as defined by the Child Care Act of 1969.

(c) Certain payments of salaries and medical expenses not prevented.

(1) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent the payment of salaries or other compensation by a licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services, as that term is defined by the Child Care Act of 1969, to the officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on behalf of the child welfare agency, provided that such salaries and compensation are consistent with subsection (a) of Section 14.5 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(2) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent the payment by a prospective adoptive parent of reasonable and actual medical fees or hospital charges for services rendered in connection with the birth of such child, if such payment is made to the physician or hospital who or which rendered the services or to the biological mother of the child or to prevent the receipt of such payment by such physician, hospital, or mother.

(3) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prevent a prospective adoptive parent from giving a gift or gifts or other thing or things of value to a biological parent provided that the total value of such gift or gifts or thing or things of value does not exceed $200.

(d) Payment of certain expenses.

(1) A prospective adoptive parent shall be permitted to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents of the child sought to be adopted, in addition to those expenses set forth in subsection (c), only in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (d).

"Reasonable living expenses" means those expenses related to activities of daily living and meeting basic needs, including, but not limited to, lodging, food, and clothing for the biological parents during the biological mother's pregnancy and for no more than 120 days prior to the biological mother's expected date of delivery and for no more than 60 days after the birth of the child. The term does not include expenses for lost wages, gifts, educational expenses, or other similar expenses of the biological parents.

(2) (A) The prospective adoptive parents may seek leave of the court to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents. They shall be permitted to pay the reasonable living expenses of the biological parents only upon prior order of the circuit court where the petition for adoption will be filed, or if the petition for adoption has been filed in the circuit court where the petition is pending.

(B) Notwithstanding clause (2)(A) of this subsection (d), a prospective adoptive parent may advance a maximum of $1,000 for reasonable birth parent living expenses without prior order of court. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all expenses to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(C) If the court finds an accounting by the prospective adoptive parents to be incomplete or deceptive or to contain amounts which are unauthorized or unreasonable, the court may order a new accounting or the repayment of amounts found to be excessive or unauthorized or make any other orders it deems appropriate.

(3) Payments under this subsection (d) shall be permitted only in those circumstances where there is a demonstrated need for the payment of such expenses to protect the health of the biological parents or the health of the child sought to be adopted.

(4) Payment of their reasonable living expenses, as provided in this subsection (d), shall not obligate the biological parents to place the child for adoption. In the event the biological parents choose not to place the child for adoption, the prospective adoptive parents shall have no right to seek reimbursement from the biological parents, or from any relative or associate of the biological parents, of moneys paid to, or on behalf of, the biological parents pursuant to a court order under this subsection (d).

(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), a prospective adoptive parent may seek reimbursement of reasonable living expenses from a person who receives such payments only if the person who accepts payment of reasonable living expenses before the child's birth, as described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), knows that the person on whose behalf he or she is accepting payment is not pregnant at the time of the receipt of such payments or the person receives reimbursement for reasonable living expenses simultaneously from more than one prospective adoptive parent without the knowledge of the prospective adoptive parent.

(6) No person or entity shall offer, provide, or co-sign a loan or any other credit accommodation, directly or indirectly, with a biological parent or a relative or associate of a biological parent based on the contingency of a surrender or placement of a child for adoption.

(7) Within 14 days after the completion of all payments for reasonable living expenses of the biological parents under this subsection (d), the prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those expenses to the court. The accounting shall also include the verified statements of the prospective adoptive parents, each attorney of record, and the biological parents or parents to whom or on whose behalf the payments were made attesting to the accuracy of the accounting.

(8) If the placement of a child for adoption is made in accordance with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children, and if the sending state permits the payment of any expenses of biological parents that are not permitted under this Section, then the payment of those expenses shall not be a violation of this Section. In that event, the prospective adoptive parents shall file an accounting of all payments of the expenses of the biological parent or parents with the court in which the petition for adoption is filed or is to be filed. The accounting shall include a copy of the statutory provisions of the sending state that permit payments in addition to those permitted by this Section and a copy of all orders entered in the sending state that relate to expenses of the biological parents paid by the prospective adoptive parents in the sending state.

(9) The prospective adoptive parents shall be permitted to pay the reasonable attorney's fees of a biological parent's attorney in connection with proceedings under this Section or in connection with proceedings for the adoption of the child if the amount of fees of the attorney is $1,000 or less. If the amount of attorney's fees of each biological parent exceeds $1,000, the attorney's fees shall be paid only after a petition seeking leave to pay those fees is filed with the court in which the adoption proceeding is filed or to be filed. The court shall review the petition for leave to pay attorney's fees, and if the court determines that the fees requested are reasonable, the court shall permit the petitioners to pay them. If the court determines that the fees requested are not reasonable, the court shall determine and set the reasonable attorney's fees of the biological parents' attorney which may be paid by the petitioners. The prospective adoptive parents shall present a final accounting of all those fees to the court prior to the entry of a final judgment order for adoption.

(10) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for an unborn child to represent the interests of the child in proceedings under this subsection (d).

(11) The provisions of this subsection (d) apply to a person who is a prospective adoptive parent. This subsection (d) does not apply to a licensed child welfare agency, as that term is defined in the Child Care Act of 1969, whose payments are governed by the Child Care Act of 1969 and the Department of Children and Family Services rules adopted thereunder.

(e) Injunctive relief.

(A) Whenever it appears that any person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or about to engage in any acts or practices that constitute or will constitute a violation of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services shall inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section in addition to any other penalties and other remedies provided in this Section.

(B) Whenever it appears that any person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society, or other organization is engaged or is about to engage in any act or practice that constitutes or will constitute a violation of any rule adopted under the authority of this Section, the Department of Children and Family Services may inform the Attorney General and the State's Attorney of the appropriate county. Under such circumstances, the Attorney General or the State's Attorney may initiate injunction proceedings. Upon a proper showing, any circuit court may enter a permanent or preliminary injunction or a temporary restraining order without bond to enforce this Section or any rule adopted under this Section, in addition to any other penalties and remedies provided in this Section.

(f) A violation of this Section on a first conviction is a Class 4 felony, and on a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(g) "Adoption services" has the meaning given that term in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(h) "Placing out" means to arrange for the free care or placement of a child in a family other than that of the child's parent, stepparent, grandparent, brother, sister, uncle or aunt or legal guardian, for the purpose of adoption or for the purpose of providing care.

(i) "Prospective adoptive parent" means a person or persons who have filed or intend to file a petition to adopt a child under the Adoption Act.

Article 5.

Section 5-1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Yo-Yo Waterball Sales Prohibition Act.

Section 5-5. Definition. In this Act, "yo-yo waterball" means a water yo-yo or a soft, rubber-like ball that is filled with a liquid and is attached to an elastic cord.

Section 5-10. Sale of yo-yo waterballs prohibited. It is unlawful to sell a yo-yo waterball in this State.

Section 5-15. Sentence. A person who sells a yo-yo waterball in this State is guilty of a business offense punishable by a fine of $1,001 for each violation. Each sale of a yo-yo waterball in violation of this Act is a separate violation.

Article 10.

Section 10-900. The School Code is amended by changing Section 21B-80 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/21B-80)

Sec. 21B-80. Conviction of certain offenses as grounds for revocation of license.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Narcotics offense" means any one or more of the following offenses:

(1) Any offense defined in the Cannabis Control Act, except those defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 4 and subdivision (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act and any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(2) Any offense defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, except any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(3) Any offense defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provision of Section 70 of that Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(4) Any attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in items (1) through (3) of this definition.

(5) Any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses listed in items (1) through (4) of this definition. The changes made by Public Act 96-431 to the definition of "narcotics offense" are declaratory of existing law.

"Sex offense" means any one or more of the following offenses:

(A) Any offense defined in Sections 11-6, and 11-9 through 11-9.5, inclusive, and 11-30, of the Criminal Code of 1961; Sections 11-14 through 11-21, inclusive, of the Criminal Code of 1961; Sections 11-23 (if punished as a Class 3 felony), 11-24, 11-25, and 11-26 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-4.9, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-32, and 12-33, and 12C-45 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(B) Any attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in item (A) of this definition.

(C) Any offense committed or attempted in any other state that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses listed in items (A) and (B) of this definition.

(b) Whenever the holder of any license issued pursuant to this Article has been convicted of any sex offense or narcotics offense, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith suspend the license. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of the offense in a new trial or the charges against him or her are dismissed, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the license. When the conviction becomes final, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith revoke the license.

(c) Whenever the holder of a license issued pursuant to this Article has been convicted of attempting to commit, conspiring to commit, soliciting, or committing first degree murder or a Class X felony or any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith suspend the license. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of that offense in a new trial or the charges that he or she committed that offense are dismissed, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the license. When the conviction becomes final, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith revoke the license.

(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; incorporates 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 10-13-11.)

Section 10-905. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 14.6 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/14.6)

Sec. 14.6. Agency payment of salaries or other compensation.

(a) A licensed child welfare agency may pay salaries or other compensation to its officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on its behalf for providing adoption services, provided that all of the following limitations apply:

(1) The fees, wages, salaries, or other compensation of any description paid to the officers, employees, contractors, or any other person acting on behalf of a child welfare agency providing adoption services shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services actually rendered. Every form of compensation shall be taken into account in determining whether fees, wages, salaries, or compensation are unreasonably high, including, but not limited to, salary, bonuses, deferred and non-cash compensation, retirement funds, medical and liability insurance, loans, and other benefits such as the use, purchase, or lease of vehicles, expense accounts, and food, housing, and clothing allowances.

(2) Any earnings, if applicable, or compensation paid to the child welfare agency's directors, stockholders, or members of its governing body shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services rendered.

(3) Persons providing adoption services for a child welfare agency may be compensated only for services actually rendered and only on a fee-for-service, hourly wage, or salary basis.

(b) The Department may adopt rules setting forth the criteria to determine what constitutes unreasonably high fees and compensation as those terms are used in this Section. In determining the reasonableness of fees, wages, salaries, and compensation under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, the Department shall take into account the location, number, and qualifications of staff, workload requirements, budget, and size of the agency or person and available norms for compensation within the adoption community. Every licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services shall provide the Department and the Attorney General with a report, on an annual basis, providing a description of the fees, wages, salaries and other compensation described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this Section. Nothing in Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 1961 the Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act shall be construed to prevent a child welfare agency from charging fees or the payment of salaries and compensation as limited in this Section and any applicable Section of this Act or the Adoption Act.

(c) This Section does not apply to international adoption services performed by those child welfare agencies governed by the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Intercountry Adoption and the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000.

(d) Eligible agencies may be deemed compliant with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-586, eff. 8-15-05.)

Section 10-910. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/25)

Sec. 25. Persons ineligible to be hired by health care employers and long-term care facilities.

(a) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 1996, January 1, 1997, January 1, 2006, or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the following offenses: those defined in Sections 8-1(b), 8-1.1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.1, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 9-3.4, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-9.5, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-19, 12-21, 12-21.6, 12-32, 12-33, 12C-5, 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-25, 16A-3, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-1, 19-3, 19-4, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1, 24-1.2, 24-1.5, or 33A-2, or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or in subsection (a) of Section 12-3 or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961; those provided in Section 4 of the Wrongs to Children Act; those provided in Section 53 of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act; those defined in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act; those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or those defined in Sections 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40.

(a-1) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 2004 or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has (i) been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses defined in Section 12-3.3, 12-4.2-5, 16-2, 16-30, 16G-15, 16G-20, 17-33, 17-34, 17-36, 17-44, 18-5, 20-1.2, 24-1.1, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-3.2, or 24-3.3, or subsection (b) of Section 17-32, of the Criminal Code of 1961; Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act; or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act; or (ii) violated Section 50-50 of the Nurse Practice Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act.

A health care employer is not required to retain an individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility is required to retain an individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses enumerated in this subsection.

(b) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, if the health care employer becomes aware that the individual has been convicted in another state of committing or attempting to commit an offense that has the same or similar elements as an offense listed in subsection (a) or (a-1), as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or an FBI criminal history record check, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act. This shall not be construed to mean that a health care employer has an obligation to conduct a criminal history records check in other states in which an employee has resided.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 930, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-40, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 10-915. The Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(325 ILCS 2/25)

Sec. 25. Immunity for relinquishing person.

(a) The act of relinquishing a newborn infant to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility in accordance with this Act does not, by itself, constitute a basis for a finding of abuse, neglect, or abandonment of the infant pursuant to the laws of this State nor does it, by itself, constitute a violation of Section 12C-5 or 12C-10 12-21.5 or 12-21.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) If there is suspected child abuse or neglect that is not based solely on the newborn infant's relinquishment to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility, the personnel of the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility who are mandated reporters under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act must report the abuse or neglect pursuant to that Act.

(c) Neither a child protective investigation nor a criminal investigation may be initiated solely because a newborn infant is relinquished pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-408, eff. 8-17-01; 92-432, eff. 8-17-01; 93-820, eff. 7-27-04.)

Section 10-920. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 6-106.1 and 6-508 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease; and

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a driver applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77 and Part 383.123.

(b-1) No person shall be issued a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL unless the person certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(b-2) Persons who hold a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL on January 30, 2012 must certify to the Secretary no later than January 30, 2014 one of the following applicable self-certifications:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-382, eff. 8-23-07; 96-1182, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 95, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-26-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-21.7 rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 33D rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 44 rep.)

Section 10-925. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by repealing Section 12-21.7 and Articles 33D and 44.

(720 ILCS 120/Act rep.)

Section 10-930. The Hazing Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 130/Act rep.)

Section 10-935. The Neglected Children Offense Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 150/4.1 rep.)

Section 10-940. The Wrongs to Children Act is amended by repealing Section 4.1.

(720 ILCS 525/Act rep.)

Section 10-945. The Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act is repealed.

(720 ILCS 555/Act rep.)

Section 10-950. The Child Curfew Act is repealed.

Section 10-955. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 115-10, 124B-10, and 124B-100 and by adding Part 1000 to Article 124B as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/115-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-10)

Sec. 115-10. Certain hearsay exceptions.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical or sexual act perpetrated upon or against a child under the age of 13, or a person who was a moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person as defined in this Code and in Section 2-10.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 at the time the act was committed, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3 (unlawful restraint), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5 (child abduction), 10-6 (harboring a runaway), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction), 11-9 (public indecency), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-1 (assault), 12-2 (aggravated assault), 12-3 (battery), 12-3.2 (domestic battery), 12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery), 12-3.05 or 12-4 (aggravated battery), 12-4.1 (heinous battery), 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm), 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child), 12-4.7 (drug induced infliction of great bodily harm), 12-5 (reckless conduct), 12-6 (intimidation), 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.1 (hate crime), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-10 or 12C-35 (tattooing the body of a minor), 12-11 (home invasion), 12-21.5 or 12C-10 (child abandonment), 12-21.6 or 12C-5 (endangering the life or health of a child) or 12-32 (ritual mutilation) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or any sex offense as defined in subsection (B) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by the victim of an out of court statement made by the victim that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the victim describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a sexual or physical act against that victim.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The child or moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement; and

(3) In a case involving an offense perpetrated against a child under the age of 13, the out of court statement was made before the victim attained 13 years of age or within 3 months after the commission of the offense, whichever occurs later, but the statement may be admitted regardless of the age of the victim at the time of the proceeding.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the age and maturity of the child, or the intellectual capabilities of the moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(e) Statements described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) shall not be excluded on the basis that they were obtained as a result of interviews conducted pursuant to a protocol adopted by a Child Advocacy Advisory Board as set forth in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of Section 3 of the Children's Advocacy Center Act or that an interviewer or witness to the interview was or is an employee, agent, or investigator of a State's Attorney's office.

(Source: P.A. 95-892, eff. 1-1-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-10)

Sec. 124B-10. Applicability; offenses. This Article applies to forfeiture of property in connection with the following:

(1) A violation of Section 10A-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (involuntary servitude; involuntary servitude of a minor; trafficking of persons for forced labor or services).

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (promoting juvenile prostitution) or a violation of Section 11-17.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution).

(3) A violation of subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (promoting juvenile prostitution) or a violation of Section 11-19.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (exploitation of a child).

(4) A violation of Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (obscenity).

(5) A second or subsequent violation of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (child pornography).

(6) A violation of Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (aggravated child pornography).

(7) A violation of Section 12C-65 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor).

(8) (7) A violation of Section 16D-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (computer fraud).

(9) (8) A felony violation of Article 17B of the Criminal Code of 1961 (WIC fraud).

(10) (9) A felony violation of Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (dog fighting).

(11) (10) A violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 (terrorism).

(12) (11) A felony violation of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act (animals in entertainment).

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-100)

Sec. 124B-100. Definition; "offense". For purposes of this Article, "offense" is defined as follows:

(1) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 10A-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary servitude of a minor, or trafficking of persons for forced labor or services in violation of Section 10A-10 of that Code.

(2) In the case of forfeiture authorized under subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-17.1, of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile prostitution in violation of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-17.1, of that Code.

(3) In the case of forfeiture authorized under subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2, of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution or exploitation of a child in violation of subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2, of that Code.

(4) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of obscenity in violation of that Section.

(5) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of child pornography in violation of Section 11-20.1 of that Code.

(6) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of aggravated child pornography in violation of Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of that Code.

(7) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 12C-65 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor in violation of Section 12C-65 of that Code.

(8) (7) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 16D-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of computer fraud in violation of Section 16D-5 of that Code.

(9) (8) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 17B-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means any felony violation of Article 17B of that Code.

(10) (9) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 29D-65 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means any offense under Article 29D of that Code.

(11) (10) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means any felony offense under either of those Sections.

(12) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 124B-1000(b) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, "offense" means an offense prohibited by the Criminal Code of 1961, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or an offense involving a telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without authority of the school principal.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/Art. 124B Pt. 1000 heading new)

Part 1000. Unlawful Telecommunications Device

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1000 new)

Sec. 124B-1000. Persons and property subject to forfeiture.

(a) A person who commits the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor in violation of Section 12C-65 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall forfeit any telecommunications device used in the commission of the offense or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offense.

(b) A person who commits an offense prohibited by the Criminal Code of 1961, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or an offense involving a telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without authority of the school principal shall forfeit any telecommunications device used in the commission of the offense or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offense. A person who is not a student of the particular elementary or secondary school, who is on school property as an invitee of the school, and who has possession of a telecommunications device for lawful and legitimate purposes, shall not need to obtain authority from the school principal to possess the telecommunications device on school property.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1010 new)

Sec. 124B-1010. Seizure. A telecommunications device subject to forfeiture may be seized and delivered forthwith to the investigating law enforcement agency. Such telecommunications device shall not be seized unless it was used in the commission of an offense specified in Section 124B-1000, or constitutes evidence of such an offense. Within 15 days after such delivery, the investigating law enforcement agency shall give notice of seizure to any known owners, lien holders and secured parties of such property. Within that 15 day period the investigating law enforcement agency shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1020 new)

Sec. 124B-1020. Exception to forfeiture. No telecommunications device shall be forfeited by reason of any act or omission established by the owner thereof to have been committed or omitted by any person other than the owner while the device was unlawfully in the possession of a person who acquired possession thereof in violation of the criminal laws of the United States, or of any state.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1030 new)

Sec. 124B-1030. Transfer of property. Upon the court's determination that the telecommunications device is subject to forfeiture, the court may, notwithstanding the provisions of Section 124B-165(a), upon the request of the investigating law enforcement agency, order the property delivered to any local, municipal or county law enforcement agency, or the Department of State Police or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1040 new)

Sec. 124B-1040. Distribution of property from sale of proceeds. The proceeds of any sale of property, after payment of all liens and deduction of the reasonable charges and expenses incurred by the investigating law enforcement agency in storing and selling the property, shall be paid into the general fund of the level of government responsible for the operation of the investigating law enforcement agency.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1045 new)

Sec. 124B-1045. Definition. "Telecommunications device" means a device which is portable or which may be installed in a motor vehicle, boat, or other means of transportation, and which is capable of receiving or transmitting speech, data, signals, or other information, including but not limited to paging devices, cellular and mobile telephones, and radio transceivers, transmitters and receivers, but not including radios designed to receive only standard AM and FM broadcasts.

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1050 new)

Sec. 124B-1050. Standard forfeiture provisions incorporated by reference. All of the provisions of Part 100 of this Article are incorporated by reference into this Part 1000.

Section 10-960. The Child Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions.

(a) As used in this Act, "violent offender against youth" means any person who is:

(1) charged pursuant to Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with a violent offense against youth set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included violent offense against youth, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(2) adjudicated a juvenile delinquent as the result of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in subsection (b) or (c-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, or found guilty under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in subsection (b) or (c-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Act as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Act.

For purposes of this Section, "convicted" shall have the same meaning as "adjudicated". For the purposes of this Act, a person who is defined as a violent offender against youth as a result of being adjudicated a juvenile delinquent under paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) upon attaining 17 years of age shall be considered as having committed the violent offense against youth on or after the 17th birthday of the violent offender against youth. Registration of juveniles upon attaining 17 years of age shall not extend the original registration of 10 years from the date of conviction.

(b) As used in this Act, "violent offense against youth" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(2) First degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim was a person under 18 years of age and the defendant was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(3) Child abduction under paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998.

(4) A violation or attempted violation of the following Section of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the offense was committed on or after July 1, 1999:

10-4 (forcible detention, if the victim is under 18 years of age).

(4.1) Involuntary manslaughter under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where baby shaking was the proximate cause of death of the victim of the offense.

(4.2) Endangering the life or health of a child under Section 12-21.6 or 12C-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 that results in the death of the child where baby shaking was the proximate cause of the death of the child.

(4.3) Domestic battery resulting in bodily harm under Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the defendant was 18 years or older and the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after July 26, 2010.

(4.4) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections or clauses of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after (1) July 26, 2000 if the defendant was 18 years of age or older or (2) July 26, 2010 and the defendant was under the age of 18:

12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery),

12-3.05(a)(1), 12-3.05(d)(2), 12-3.05(f)(1), 12-4(a), 12-4(b)(1) or 12-4(b)(14) (aggravated battery),

12-3.05(a)(2) or 12-4.1 (heinous battery),

12-3.05(b) or 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child),

12-3.1(a-5) or 12-4.4 (aggravated battery of an unborn child),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child).

(4.5) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after (1) August 1, 2001 if the defendant was 18 years of age or older or (2) August 1, 2011 and the defendant was under the age of 18:

12-3.05(e)(1), (2), (3), or (4) or 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm),

12-3.05(e)(5), (6), (7), or (8) or 12-4.2-5 (aggravated battery with a machine gun),

12-11 (home invasion).

(5) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (b).

(b-5) For the purposes of this Section, "first degree murder of an adult" means first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the victim was a person 18 years of age or older at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsections (b) and (c-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act.

(c-5) A person at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense who is convicted of first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, against a person under 18 years of age, shall be required to register for natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (c-5) shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act. This subsection (c-5) applies to a person who committed the offense before June 1, 1996 only if the person is incarcerated in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility on August 20, 2004.

(c-6) A person who is convicted or adjudicated delinquent of first degree murder of an adult shall be required to register for a period of 10 years after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or any other institution or facility, and if confined, for a period of 10 years after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (c-6) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act. This subsection (c-6) does not apply to those individuals released from incarceration more than 10 years prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-154) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(d) As used in this Act, "law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the violent offender against youth expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(e) As used in this Act, "supervising officer" means the assigned Illinois Department of Corrections parole agent or county probation officer.

(f) As used in this Act, "out-of-state student" means any violent offender against youth who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(g) As used in this Act, "out-of-state employee" means any violent offender against youth who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(h) As used in this Act, "school" means any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any elementary or secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher education.

(i) As used in this Act, "fixed residence" means any and all places that a violent offender against youth resides for an aggregate period of time of 5 or more days in a calendar year.

(j) As used in this Act, "baby shaking" means the vigorous shaking of an infant or a young child that may result in bleeding inside the head and cause one or more of the following conditions: irreversible brain damage; blindness, retinal hemorrhage, or eye damage; cerebral palsy; hearing loss; spinal cord injury, including paralysis; seizures; learning disability; central nervous system injury; closed head injury; rib fracture; subdural hematoma; or death.

(Source: P.A. 96-1115, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1294, eff. 7-26-10; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-432, eff. 8-16-11; revised 10-4-11.)

Section 10-965. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/14) (from Ch. 40, par. 1517)

Sec. 14. Judgment.

(a) Prior to the entry of the judgment for order of adoption in any case other than an adoption of a related child or of an adult, each petitioner and each person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society or organization involved in the adoption of the child, except a child welfare agency, shall execute an affidavit setting forth the hospital and medical costs, legal fees, counseling fees, and any other fees or expenditures paid in accordance with the Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act or Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) Before the entry of the judgment for adoption, each child welfare agency involved in the adoption of the child shall file an affidavit concerning the costs, expenses, contributions, fees, compensation, or other things of value which have been given, promised, or received including but not limited to hospital and medical costs, legal fees, social services, living expenses, or any other expenses related to the adoption paid in accordance with the Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act or Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

If the total amount paid by the child welfare agency is $4,500 or more, the affidavit shall contain an itemization of expenditures.

If the total amount paid by the child welfare agency is less than $4,500, the agency may file an unitemized affidavit stating that the total amount paid is less than $4,500 unless the court, in its discretion, requires that agency to file an itemized affidavit.

(c) No affidavit need be filed in the case of an adoption of a related child or an adult, nor shall an affidavit be required to be filed by a non-consenting parent, or by any judge, or clerk, involved in an official capacity in the adoption proceedings.

(d) All affidavits filed in accordance with this Section shall be under penalty of perjury and shall include, but are not limited to, hospital and medical costs, legal fees, social services, living expenses or any other expenses related to the adoption or to the placement of the child, whether or not the payments are permitted by applicable laws.

(e) Upon the expiration of 6 months after the date of any interim order vesting temporary care, custody and control of a child, other than a related child, in the petitioners, entered pursuant to this Act, the petitioners may apply to the court for a judgment of adoption. Notice of such application shall be served by the petitioners upon the investigating agency or the person making such investigation, and the guardian ad litem. After the hearing on such application, at which the petitioners and the child shall appear in person, unless their presence is waived by the court for good cause shown, the court may enter a judgment for adoption, provided the court is satisfied from the report of the investigating agency or the person making the investigation, and from the evidence, if any, introduced, that the adoption is for the welfare of the child and that there is a valid consent, or that no consent is required as provided in Section 8 of this Act.

(f) A judgment for adoption of a related child, an adult, or a child as to whose adoption an agency or person authorized by law has the right of authority to consent may be entered at any time after service of process and after the return day designated therein.

(f-5) A standby adoption judgment may be entered upon notice of the death of the consenting parent or upon the consenting parent's request that a final judgment for adoption be entered. The notice must be provided to the court within 60 days after the standby adoptive parent's receipt of knowledge of death of the consenting parent or the consenting parent's request that a final judgment for adoption be entered. If the court finds that adoption is for the welfare of the child and that there is a valid consent, including consent for standby adoption, which is still in effect, or that no consent is required under Section 8 of the Act, a judgment for adoption shall be entered unless the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that it is no longer in the best interest of the child for the adoption to be finalized.

(g) No special findings of fact or certificate of evidence shall be necessary in any case to support the judgment.

(h) Only the circuit court that entered the judgment of the adoption may order the issuance of any contents of the court file or that the original birth record of the adoptee be provided to any persons.

(Source: P.A. 93-732, eff. 1-1-05.)

ARTICLE 15

Section 15-5. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place such child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department determines that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare based on the factors set forth in the Department's rules governing relative placements, and that the placement is consistent with the child's best interests, taking into consideration the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

When the Department first assumes custody of a child, in placing that child under this Act, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to identify and locate a relative who is ready, willing, and able to care for the child. At a minimum, these efforts shall be renewed each time the child requires a placement change and it is appropriate for the child to be cared for in a home environment. The Department must document its efforts to identify and locate such a relative placement and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that a placement with any identified relative is not in the child's best interests or that the relative does not meet the requirements to be a relative caregiver, as set forth in Department rules or by statute, the Department must document the basis for that decision and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If, pursuant to the Department's rules, any person files an administrative appeal of the Department's decision not to place a child with a relative, it is the Department's burden to prove that the decision is consistent with the child's best interests.

When the Department determines that the child requires placement in an environment, other than a home environment, the Department shall continue to make reasonable efforts to identify and locate relatives to serve as visitation resources for the child and potential future placement resources, except when the Department determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests.

If the Department determines that efforts to identify and locate relatives would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are inappropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

When the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are appropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible future placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination, maintain the documentation in the child's case file, create a visitation or transition plan, or both, and incorporate the visitation or transition plan, or both, into the child's case plan. For the purpose of this subsection, any determination as to the child's best interests shall include consideration of the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly or disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department, a "relative" may also include any person who would have qualified as a relative under this paragraph prior to the adoption, but only if the Department determines, and documents, that it would be in the child's best interests to consider this person a relative, based upon the factors for determining best interests set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In rejecting placement of a child with an identified relative, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In evaluating the best interests of the child, the Department shall take into consideration the factors set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 900, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 920, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-10. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), and (e) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision, an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)), or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) offenses defined as "crimes of violence" in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F). Records of arrests which result in the petitioner being charged with a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F), records of charges not initiated by arrest for Class 4 felony offenses listed in subsection (c)(2)(F), and records of charges amended to a Class 4 felony offense listed in (c)(2)(F) may be sealed, regardless of the disposition, subject to any waiting periods set forth in subsection (c)(3);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court shall enter an expungement order as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in Class 4 felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(ii) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iv) the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act; and

(v) the Steroid Control Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)).

(C) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b) and (e), and sealing under subsection (c):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to seal felony records pursuant to clause (c)(2)(E) or (c)(2)(F)(ii)-(v) or if he or she is petitioning to expunge felony records of a qualified probation pursuant to clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing, and shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Effect of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. The petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order.

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1401, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 905, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 925, eff. 7-1-11; 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; revised 9-6-11.)

Section 15-15. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Section 10-1-7 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-7)

Sec. 10-1-7. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for offices or places in the classified service, except those mentioned in Section 10-1-17, are subject to examination. The examination shall be public, competitive, and open to all citizens of the United States, with specified limitations as to residence, age, health, habits and moral character.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination on grounds of habits or moral character, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position on the police department, in which case the conviction or arrest may be considered as a factor in determining the person's habits or moral character.

(d) Persons entitled to military preference under Section 10-1-16 shall not be subject to limitations specifying age unless they are applicants for a position as a fireman or a policeman having no previous employment status as a fireman or policeman in the regularly constituted fire or police department of the municipality, in which case they must not have attained their 35th birthday, except any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age.

(e) All employees of a municipality of less than 500,000 population (except those who would be excluded from the classified service as provided in this Division 1) who are holding that employment as of the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, and who have held that employment for at least 2 years immediately before that later date, and all firemen and policemen regardless of length of service who were either appointed to their respective positions by the board of fire and police commissioners under the provisions of Division 2 of this Article or who are serving in a position (except as a temporary employee) in the fire or police department in the municipality on the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, shall become members of the classified civil service of the municipality without examination.

(f) The examinations shall be practical in their character, and shall relate to those matters that will fairly test the relative capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek to be appointed. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications, health, and (when appropriate) manual skill. If an applicant is unable to pass the physical examination solely as the result of an injury received by the applicant as the result of the performance of an act of duty while working as a temporary employee in the position for which he or she is being examined, however, the physical examination shall be waived and the applicant shall be considered to have passed the examination. No questions in any examination shall relate to political or religious opinions or affiliations. Results of examinations and the eligible registers prepared from the results shall be published by the commission within 60 days after any examinations are held.

(g) The commission shall control all examinations, and may, whenever an examination is to take place, designate a suitable number of persons, either in or not in the official service of the municipality, to be examiners. The examiners shall conduct the examinations as directed by the commission and shall make a return or report of the examinations to the commission. If the appointed examiners are in the official service of the municipality, the examiners shall not receive extra compensation for conducting the examinations. The commission may at any time substitute any other person, whether or not in the service of the municipality, in the place of any one selected as an examiner. The commission members may themselves at any time act as examiners without appointing examiners. The examiners at any examination shall not all be members of the same political party.

(h) In municipalities of 500,000 or more population, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(i) In municipalities of more than 5,000 but not more than 200,000 inhabitants, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(j) In all municipalities, applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (j) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(k) In municipalities of more than 500,000 population, applications for examination for and appointment to positions as firefighters or police shall be made available at various branches of the public library of the municipality.

(l) No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any fireman appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

(m) To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2, then Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-0251, eff. 8-4-11; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 15-20. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Section 28b as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/28b) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 328b)

Sec. 28b. Any person applying for a position as a driver of a vehicle owned by a private carrier company which provides public transportation pursuant to an agreement with the Authority shall be required to authorize an investigation by the private carrier company to determine if the applicant has been convicted of any of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-30, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-7.1, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 20-1, 20-1.1, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, in subdivisions (a)(1), (b)(1), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Upon receipt of this authorization, the private carrier company shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprints and social security number to the Department of State Police on forms prescribed by the Department. The Department of State Police shall conduct an investigation to ascertain if the applicant has been convicted of any of the above enumerated offenses. The Department shall charge the private carrier company a fee for conducting the investigation, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such investigation by the private carrier company. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of convictions, until expunged, to the private carrier company which requested the investigation. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department shall be provided to the applicant. Any record of conviction received by the private carrier company shall be confidential. Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 920, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-25. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 4.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/4.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2214.2)

Sec. 4.2. (a) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a licensed child care facility who refuses to authorize an investigation as required by Section 4.1.

(b) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been declared a sexually dangerous person under "An Act in relation to sexually dangerous persons, and providing for their commitment, detention and supervision", approved July 6, 1938, as amended, or convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) harboring a runaway;

(3.4) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) hate crime;

(16) stalking;

(17) aggravated stalking;

(18) threatening public officials;

(19) home invasion;

(20) vehicular invasion;

(21) criminal transmission of HIV;

(22) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly or disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(23) child abandonment;

(24) endangering the life or health of a child;

(25) ritual mutilation;

(26) ritualized abuse of a child;

(27) an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

(b-1) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, beginning January 1, 2004, no new applicant and, on the date of licensure renewal, no current licensee may operate or receive a license from the Department to operate, no person may be employed by, and no adult person may reside in a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses or an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the following offenses:

(I) BODILY HARM

(1) Felony aggravated assault.

(2) Vehicular endangerment.

(3) Felony domestic battery.

(4) Aggravated battery.

(5) Heinous battery.

(6) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(7) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(8) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(9) Intimidation.

(10) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(11) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(12) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(1) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(2) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(3) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(4) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(5) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(6) Disarming a police officer.

(7) Obstructing justice.

(8) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(9) Armed violence.

(10) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(III) DRUG OFFENSES

(1) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(2) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(3) Cannabis trafficking.

(4) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(5) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(6) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(7) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(8) Controlled substance trafficking.

(9) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(10) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(11) Street gang criminal drug conspiracy.

(12) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(13) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(14) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(15) Delivery of controlled substances.

(16) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(17) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(18) Felony possession of a controlled substance.

(19) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b-2) For child care facilities other than foster family homes, the Department may issue a new child care facility license to or renew the existing child care facility license of an applicant, a person employed by a child care facility, or an applicant who has an adult residing in a home child care facility who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (b-1), provided that all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense occurred more than 5 years prior to the date of application or renewal, except for drug offenses. The relevant drug offense must have occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal, unless the applicant passed a drug test, arranged and paid for by the child care facility, no less than 5 years after the offense.

(2) The Department must conduct a background check and assess all convictions and recommendations of the child care facility to determine if waiver shall apply in accordance with Department administrative rules and procedures.

(3) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as the pertinent type of child care facility under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(c) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department to operate a foster family home, and no adult person may reside in a foster family home licensed by the Department, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961, the Cannabis Control Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act:

(I) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST THE PERSON

(A) KIDNAPPING AND RELATED OFFENSES

(1) Unlawful restraint.

(B) BODILY HARM

(2) Felony aggravated assault.

(3) Vehicular endangerment.

(4) Felony domestic battery.

(5) Aggravated battery.

(6) Heinous battery.

(7) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(8) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(9) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(10) Intimidation.

(11) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(12) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(13) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST PROPERTY

(14) Felony theft.

(15) Robbery.

(16) Armed robbery.

(17) Aggravated robbery.

(18) Vehicular hijacking.

(19) Aggravated vehicular hijacking.

(20) Burglary.

(21) Possession of burglary tools.

(22) Residential burglary.

(23) Criminal fortification of a residence or building.

(24) Arson.

(25) Aggravated arson.

(26) Possession of explosive or explosive incendiary devices.

(III) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(27) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(28) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(29) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(30) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(31) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(32) Disarming a police officer.

(33) Obstructing justice.

(34) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(35) Armed violence.

(36) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(IV) DRUG OFFENSES

(37) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(38) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(39) Cannabis trafficking.

(40) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(41) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(42) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(43) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(44) Controlled substance trafficking.

(45) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(46) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(46.5) Streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(47) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(48) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(49) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(50) Delivery of controlled substances.

(51) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(52) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(53) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c), the Department may issue a new foster family home license or may renew an existing foster family home license of an applicant who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (c), provided all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense or offenses occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal.

(2) The applicant had previously disclosed the conviction or convictions to the Department for purposes of a background check.

(3) After the disclosure, the Department either placed a child in the home or the foster family home license was issued.

(4) During the background check, the Department had assessed and waived the conviction in compliance with the existing statutes and rules in effect at the time of the waiver.

(5) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as a foster family home under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(6) The applicant has a history of providing a safe, stable home environment and appears able to continue to provide a safe, stable home environment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 925, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 990, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-30. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 3667)

Sec. 17. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may impose fines not to exceed $10,000 or may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, censure, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to the license of any person, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Intentional material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty or that is directly related to the practice of the profession of nursing home administration.

(3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act.

(4) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse or sexual misconduct, related to the licensee's practice.

(5) Failing to respond within 30 days, to a written request made by the Department for information.

(6) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(7) Habitual use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(9) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(10) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(11) Physical illness, mental illness, or other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(12) Disregard or violation of this Act or of any rule issued pursuant to this Act.

(13) Aiding or abetting another in the violation of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant to this Act.

(14) Allowing one's license to be used by an unlicensed person.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

(17) Conviction of a violation of Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 for the abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(18) Violation of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act or of any rule issued under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. A final adjudication of a Type "AA" violation of the Nursing Home Care Act made by the Illinois Department of Public Health, as identified by rule, relating to the hiring, training, planning, organizing, directing, or supervising the operation of a nursing home and a licensee's failure to comply with this Act or the rules adopted under this Act, shall create a rebuttable presumption of a violation of this subsection.

(19) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against the licensee by a licensing authority of another state, territory of the United States, or foreign country; or by any governmental or law enforcement agency; or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(20) Failure to report to the Department the surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a nursing home administrator in another state or jurisdiction for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(21) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of (i) a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein or (ii) a referral for investigation under Section 3-108 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Department order based upon a finding by the Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Board, may adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining what constitutes:

(i) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(ii) dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(iii) immoral conduct in the commission of any act related to the licensee's practice; and

(iv) professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician or physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Department or Board. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board shall require such individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any individual whose license was granted pursuant to this Act or continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 30 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject administrator's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Department, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by participating in proceedings of the Department, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(c) Members of the Board, and persons retained under contract to assist and advise in an investigation, shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on or for the Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, a person entitled to indemnification under this Section shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

A person entitled to indemnification under this Section must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent a person entitled to indemnification under this Section.

(d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(e) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(f) The Department of Public Health shall transmit to the Department a list of those facilities which receive an "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-26-11.)

Section 15-35. The Fire Sprinkler Contractor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 32 as follows:

(225 ILCS 317/32)

Sec. 32. Application for building permit; identity theft. A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the fire sprinkler portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) (9) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-1455, eff. 8-20-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-26-11.)

Section 15-40. The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 335/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 7505)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 5. Display of license number; advertising.

(a) Each State licensed roofing contractor shall affix the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, to all of his or her contracts and bids. In addition, the official issuing building permits shall affix the roofing contractor license number to each application for a building permit and on each building permit issued and recorded.

(a-5) A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the roofing license number of a roofing contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Every holder of a license shall display it in a conspicuous place in his or her principal office, place of business, or place of employment.

(d) No person licensed under this Act may advertise services regulated by this Act unless that person includes in the advertisement the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license. Nothing contained in this subsection requires the publisher of advertising for roofing contractor services to investigate or verify the accuracy of the license number provided by the licensee.

(e) A person who advertises services regulated by this Act who knowingly (i) fails to display the license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, in any manner required by this Section, (ii) fails to provide a publisher with the correct license number as required by subsection (d), or (iii) provides a publisher with a false license number or a license number of another person, or a person who knowingly allows his or her license number to be displayed or used by another person to circumvent any provisions of this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor with a fine of $1,000, and, in addition, is subject to the administrative enforcement provisions of this Act. Each day that an advertisement runs or each day that a person knowingly allows his or her license to be displayed or used in violation of this Section constitutes a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-624, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1324, eff. 7-27-10; 97-235, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-45. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Section 6-206 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year, and any driver who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense, within 5 years of a previous conviction, for the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall be suspended for 5 years. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section; or

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of those offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1305, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 15-50. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-25, 3-26, 4-23, and 5-730 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-25) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-25)

Sec. 2-25. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection shall be based on the health, safety and best interests of the minor and may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) to stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) to permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) to abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) to give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) to cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) to prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) to refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor;

(h) to refrain from contacting the minor and the foster parents in any manner that is not specified in writing in the case plan.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the health, safety, and best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act if such an order is consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a temporary custody hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a temporary custody hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order. Any modification of the order granted by the court must be determined to be consistent with the best interests of the minor.

(9) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition contained in the protective order and if the court determines that this violation is of a critical service necessary to the safety and welfare of the minor, the court may proceed to findings and an order for temporary custody.

(Source: P.A. 95-405, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-26) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-26)

Sec. 3-26. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) To stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) To permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) To abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) To give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) To cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) To prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) To refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-23) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-23)

Sec. 4-23. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) To stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) To permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) To abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) To give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) To cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) To prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) To refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-730)

Sec. 5-730. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. The order may require a person:

(a) to stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) to permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) to abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his or her parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) to give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) to cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) to prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) to refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the sheriff of that county. The sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of the orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served by the modification, extension, or termination.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted under this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him or her at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place, and time of the hearing, and to cross-examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care or detention hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify the person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care or detention hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified the person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to the person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, or legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 of this Act or is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section shall not be entitled to the rights provided in that Section. The person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, the person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of that service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-55. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 2-10.1, 11-1.10, 11-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-1.80, 11-9.4-1, 11-14.1, 11-14.4, 11-18.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-4.4a, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 16-0.1, 16-7, 16-30, 17-2, 17-3, 17-10.2, 17-10.6, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 36-1, and 36.5-5 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/2-10.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-10.1)

Sec. 2-10.1. "Severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person" means a person (i) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose intelligence quotient does not exceed 55 and who suffers from significant mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired. In any proceeding in which the defendant is charged with committing a violation of Section 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.3, 12-14, or 12-16, or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, of this Code against a victim who is alleged to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, any findings concerning the victim's status as a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, made by a court after a judicial admission hearing concerning the victim under Articles V and VI of Chapter 4 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall be admissible.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-18)

Sec. 11-1.10. General provisions concerning offenses described in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60.

(a) No person accused of violating Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code shall be presumed to be incapable of committing an offense prohibited by Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code because of age, physical condition or relationship to the victim. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to modify or abrogate the affirmative defense of infancy under Section 6-1 of this Code or the provisions of Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) Any medical examination or procedure which is conducted by a physician, nurse, medical or hospital personnel, parent, or caretaker for purposes and in a manner consistent with reasonable medical standards is not an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this Code.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) After a finding at a preliminary hearing that there is probable cause to believe that an accused has committed a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code, or after an indictment is returned charging an accused with a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code, or after a finding that a defendant charged with a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40 of this Code is unfit to stand trial pursuant to Section 104-16 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 where the finding is made prior to preliminary hearing, at the request of the person who was the victim of the violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, or 11-1.40, the prosecuting State's attorney shall seek an order from the court to compel the accused to be tested within 48 hours for any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The medical tests shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners. Such testing shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention The test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall consist of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, or such other test as may be approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health; in the event of a positive result, a the Western Blot Assay or a more reliable supplemental confirmatory test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered. The results of the tests and any follow-up tests shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the victim, to the defendant, to the State's Attorney, and to the judge who entered the order, for the judge's inspection in camera. The judge shall provide to the victim a referral to the Illinois Department of Public Health HIV/AIDS toll-free hotline for counseling and information in connection with the test result. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the result of the testing may be revealed; however, in no case shall the identity of the victim be disclosed. The court shall order that the cost of the tests shall be paid by the county, and shall be taxed as costs against the accused if convicted.

(f) Whenever any law enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe that a person has been delivered a controlled substance without his or her consent, the law enforcement officer shall advise the victim about seeking medical treatment and preserving evidence.

(g) Every hospital providing emergency hospital services to an alleged sexual assault survivor, when there is reasonable cause to believe that a person has been delivered a controlled substance without his or her consent, shall designate personnel to provide:

(1) An explanation to the victim about the nature and effects of commonly used controlled substances and how such controlled substances are administered.

(2) An offer to the victim of testing for the presence of such controlled substances.

(3) A disclosure to the victim that all controlled substances or alcohol ingested by the victim will be disclosed by the test.

(4) A statement that the test is completely voluntary.

(5) A form for written authorization for sample analysis of all controlled substances and alcohol ingested by the victim.

A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may agree to be a designated person under this subsection.

No sample analysis may be performed unless the victim returns a signed written authorization within 30 days after the sample was collected.

Any medical treatment or care under this subsection shall be only in accordance with the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches. Any testing under this subsection shall be only in accordance with the order of a licensed individual authorized to order the testing.

(Source: P.A. 95-926, eff. 8-26-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.30) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14)

Sec. 11-1.30. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits criminal sexual assault and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist during the commission of the offense or, for purposes of paragraph (7), occur as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:

(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim, except as provided in paragraph (10);

(3) the person acts in a manner that threatens or endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(4) the person commits the criminal sexual assault during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony;

(5) the victim is 60 years of age or older;

(6) the victim is a physically handicapped person;

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim without the victim's consent or by threat or deception for other than medical purposes;

(8) the person is armed with a firearm;

(9) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense; or

(10) the person personally discharges a firearm during the commission of the offense, and that discharge proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 13 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual assault if that person commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim who is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (a) or in violation of subsection (b) or (c) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X felony for which 10 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(9) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(10) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life imprisonment shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault after having previously been convicted under the laws of this or any other state of an offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual assault, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent offense is required to have been after the initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.60) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-16)

Sec. 11-1.60. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Abuse.

(a) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits criminal sexual abuse and any of the following aggravating circumstances exist (i) during the commission of the offense or (ii) for purposes of paragraph (7), as part of the same course of conduct as the commission of the offense:

(1) the person displays, threatens to use, or uses a dangerous weapon or any other object fashioned or used in a manner that leads the victim, under the circumstances, reasonably to believe that the object is a dangerous weapon;

(2) the person causes bodily harm to the victim;

(3) the victim is 60 years of age or older;

(4) the victim is a physically handicapped person;

(5) the person acts in a manner that threatens or endangers the life of the victim or any other person;

(6) the person commits the criminal sexual abuse during the course of committing or attempting to commit any other felony; or

(7) the person delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) any controlled substance to the victim for other than medical purposes without the victim's consent or by threat or deception.

(b) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 18 years of age and the person is a family member.

(c) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if:

(1) that person is 17 years of age or over and: (i) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 13 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act; or

(2) that person is under 17 years of age and: (i) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is under 9 years of age; or (ii) commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 9 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person uses force or threat of force to commit the act.

(d) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age and the person is at least 5 years older than the victim.

(e) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.

(f) A person commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if that person commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who is at least 13 years of age but under 18 years of age and the person is 17 years of age or over and holds a position of trust, authority, or supervision in relation to the victim.

(g) Sentence. Aggravated criminal sexual abuse is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-1.80) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-18.1)

Sec. 11-1.80. Civil Liability.

(a) If any person has been convicted of any offense defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of this Act, a victim of such offense has a cause of action for damages against any person or entity who, by the manufacture, production, or wholesale distribution of any obscene material which was possessed or viewed by the person convicted of the offense, proximately caused such person, through his or her reading or viewing of the obscene material, to commit the violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16. No victim may recover in any such action unless he or she proves by a preponderance of the evidence that: (1) the reading or viewing of the specific obscene material manufactured, produced, or distributed wholesale by the defendant proximately caused the person convicted of the violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 to commit such violation and (2) the defendant knew or had reason to know that the manufacture, production, or wholesale distribution of such material was likely to cause a violation of an offense substantially of the type enumerated.

(b) The manufacturer, producer or wholesale distributor shall be liable to the victim for:

(1) actual damages incurred by the victim, including medical costs;

(2) court costs and reasonable attorneys fees;

(3) infliction of emotional distress;

(4) pain and suffering; and

(5) loss of consortium.

(c) Every action under this Section shall be commenced within 3 years after the conviction of the defendant for a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-15 or 12-16 of this Code. However, if the victim was under the age of 18 years at the time of the conviction of the defendant for a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of this Code, an action under this Section shall be commenced within 3 years after the victim attains the age of 18 years.

(d) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "obscene" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (b) of Section 11-20 of this Code;

(2) "wholesale distributor" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity which stands between the manufacturer and the retail seller in purchases, consignments, contracts for sale or rental of the obscene material;

(3) "producer" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity which finances or supervises, to any extent, the production or making of obscene material;

(4) "manufacturer" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity which manufacturers, assembles or produces obscene material.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; revised 5-3-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.4-1)

Sec. 11-9.4-1. Sexual predator and child sex offender; presence or loitering in or near public parks prohibited.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Child sex offender" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (d) of Section 11-9.3 11-9.4 of this Code, but does not include as a sex offense under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 11-9.3 11-9.4, the offenses under subsections (b) and (c) of Section 11-1.50 or subsections (b) and (c) of Section 12-15 of this Code.

"Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

"Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

"Sexual predator" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (E) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(b) It is unlawful for a sexual predator or a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park.

(c) It is unlawful for a sexual predator or a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park. For the purposes of this subsection (c), the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except that a second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1099, eff. 1-1-11; revised 10-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-14.1)

Sec. 11-14.1. Solicitation of a sexual act.

(a) Any person who offers a person not his or her spouse any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value for that person or any other person not his or her spouse to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification, commits solicitation of a sexual act.

(b) Sentence. Solicitation of a sexual act is a Class A misdemeanor. Solicitation of a sexual act from a person who is under the age of 18 or who is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled is a Class 4 felony.

(b-5) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of solicitation of a sexual act with a person who is under the age of 18 or who is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-14.4)

Sec. 11-14.4. Promoting juvenile prostitution.

(a) Any person who knowingly performs any of the following acts commits promoting juvenile prostitution:

(1) advances prostitution as defined in Section 11-0.1, where the minor engaged in prostitution, or any person engaged in prostitution in the place, is under 18 years of age or is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded at the time of the offense;

(2) profits from prostitution by any means where the prostituted person is under 18 years of age or is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded at the time of the offense;

(3) profits from prostitution by any means where the prostituted person is under 13 years of age at the time of the offense;

(4) confines a child under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person against his or her will by the infliction or threat of imminent infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement or by administering to the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person, without his or her consent or by threat or deception and for other than medical purposes, any alcoholic intoxicant or a drug as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act or methamphetamine as defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and:

(A) compels the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person to engage in prostitution;

(B) arranges a situation in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person may practice prostitution; or

(C) profits from prostitution by the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.

(b) For purposes of this Section, administering drugs, as defined in subdivision (a)(4), or an alcoholic intoxicant to a child under the age of 13 or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person shall be deemed to be without consent if the administering is done without the consent of the parents or legal guardian or if the administering is performed by the parents or legal guardian for other than medical purposes.

(c) If the accused did not have a reasonable opportunity to observe the prostituted person, it is an affirmative defense to a charge of promoting juvenile prostitution, except for a charge under subdivision (a)(4), that the accused reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(d) Sentence. A violation of subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(2) is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(3) is a Class X felony. A violation of subdivision (a)(4) is a Class X felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years. A second or subsequent violation of subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3), or any combination of convictions under subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is a Class X felony.

(e) Forfeiture. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section that involves promoting juvenile prostitution by keeping a place of juvenile prostitution or convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(4) is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, "prostituted person" means any person who engages in, or agrees or offers to engage in, any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-18.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-18.1)

Sec. 11-18.1. Patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(a) Any person who engages in an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code with a person engaged in prostitution who is under 18 years of age or is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(a-5) Any person who engages in any touching or fondling, with a person engaged in prostitution who either is under 18 years of age or is a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person, of the sex organs of one person by the other person, with the intent to achieve sexual arousal or gratification, commits patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to the charge of patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution that the accused reasonably believed that the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.

(c) Sentence. A person who commits patronizing a juvenile prostitute is guilty of a Class 3 felony, unless committed within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school, in which case it is a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section, or of any combination of such number of convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14 (prostitution), 11-14.1 (solicitation of a sexual act), 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18 (patronizing a prostitute), 11-19 (pimping), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping or aggravated juvenile pimping), or 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child) of this Code, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fact of such conviction is not an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial.

(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.1)

Sec. 11-20.1. Child pornography.

(a) A person commits child pornography who:

(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person where such child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces, a person to provide a child under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(b) (1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 18 years of age or older or that the person was not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person and his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.

(1.5) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The charge of child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.

(4) If the defendant possessed more than one of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted, then the trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.

(5) The charge of child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.

(6) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.

(c) If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation does not involve a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 3 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. If the violation involves a film, videotape, or other moving depiction, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.

(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) or paragraph 1 of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.

In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.

(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute, exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise, publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.

(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create, or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) For the purposes of this Section, "child pornography" includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is, or appears to be, that of a person, either in part, or in total, under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such. "Child pornography" also includes a film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer that is advertised, promoted, presented, described, or distributed in such a manner that conveys the impression that the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is of a person under the age of 18 and at least 13 years of age or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.

(g) Re-enactment; findings; purposes.

(1) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(i) Section 50-5 of Public Act 88-680, effective January 1, 1995, contained provisions amending the child pornography statute, Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961. Section 50-5 also contained other provisions.

(ii) In addition, Public Act 88-680 was entitled "AN ACT to create a Safe Neighborhoods Law". (A) Article 5 was entitled JUVENILE JUSTICE and amended the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. (B) Article 15 was entitled GANGS and amended various provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Unified Code of Corrections. (C) Article 20 was entitled ALCOHOL ABUSE and amended various provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code. (D) Article 25 was entitled DRUG ABUSE and amended the Cannabis Control Act and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. (E) Article 30 was entitled FIREARMS and amended the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. (F) Article 35 amended the Criminal Code of 1961, the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections. (G) Article 40 amended the Criminal Code of 1961 to increase the penalty for compelling organization membership of persons. (H) Article 45 created the Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act and amended the State Finance Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Unified Code of Corrections, and the Private Correctional Facility Moratorium Act. (I) Article 50 amended the WIC Vendor Management Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Criminal Code of 1961, the Wrongs to Children Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections.

(iii) On September 22, 1998, the Third District Appellate Court in People v. Dainty, 701 N.E. 2d 118, ruled that Public Act 88-680 violates the single subject clause of the Illinois Constitution (Article IV, Section 8 (d)) and was unconstitutional in its entirety. As of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was still subject to appeal.

(iv) Child pornography is a vital concern to the people of this State and the validity of future prosecutions under the child pornography statute of the Criminal Code of 1961 is in grave doubt.

(2) It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1999 to prevent or minimize any problems relating to prosecutions for child pornography that may result from challenges to the constitutional validity of Public Act 88-680 by re-enacting the Section relating to child pornography that was included in Public Act 88-680.

(3) This amendatory Act of 1999 re-enacts Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as it has been amended. This re-enactment is intended to remove any question as to the validity or content of that Section; it is not intended to supersede any other Public Act that amends the text of the Section as set forth in this amendatory Act of 1999. The material is shown as existing text (i.e., without underscoring) because, as of the time this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty was subject to appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court.

(4) The re-enactment by this amendatory Act of 1999 of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to child pornography that was amended by Public Act 88-680 is not intended, and shall not be construed, to imply that Public Act 88-680 is invalid or to limit or impair any legal argument concerning whether those provisions were substantially re-enacted by other Public Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-157, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-20.1B) (was 720 ILCS 5/11-20.3)

Sec. 11-20.1B. Aggravated child pornography.

(a) A person commits aggravated child pornography who:

(1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 years where such child is:

(i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or animal; or

(ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the sex organs of the child and the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child and the sex organs of another person or animal; or

(iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of masturbation; or

(iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd fondling, touching, or caressing involving another person or animal; or

(v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of excretion or urination within a sexual context; or

(vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual context; or

(vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the child or other person; or

(2) with the knowledge of the nature or content thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate, exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film, videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by computer which includes a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 to appear in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other person having care or custody of a child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges for such child to appear in any stage play, live performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof, possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

(7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a person to provide a child under the age of 13 to appear in any videotape, photograph, film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(b)(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of aggravated child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 13 years of age or older, but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to ascertain whether the child was 13 years of age or older and his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly reasonable.

(2) The charge of aggravated child pornography shall not apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional education programs conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social workers.

(3) If the defendant possessed more than 3 of the same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which aggravated child pornography is depicted, then the trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such materials with the intent to disseminate them.

(4) The charge of aggravated child pornography does not apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which aggravated child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.

(5) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall be deemed a crime of violence.

(c) Sentence: (1) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(2) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 2 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(3) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years with a mandatory minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(4) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.

(d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the court whether treatment of the person is necessary.

(e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft.

In addition, any person convicted under this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may object to the motion.

(f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute, exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of any telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer.

(2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise, publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.

(3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.

(4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create, or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or data that, after being processed by a computer either alone or in conjunction with one or more computer programs, results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor, screen, or display.

(6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this Code.

(7) For the purposes of this Section, "child" means a person, either in part or in total, under the age of 13, regardless of the method by which the film, videotape, photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified to appear as such.

(g) When a charge of aggravated child pornography is brought, the age of the child is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the age in question. The trier of fact can rely on its own everyday observations and common experiences in making this determination.

(Source: P.A. 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)

Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.

(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.

(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:

(1) A physically handicapped person or a person 60 years of age or older and the assault is without legal justification.

(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building used for park purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) A correctional institution employee, a county juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including a county juvenile detention center employee who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof, performing his or her official duties.

(8) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(9) A sports official or coach actively participating in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue, on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court, while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in the Air Rifle Act, or any device manufactured and designed to be substantially similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by discharging a firearm.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor vehicle.

(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of any person.

(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the firearm, against a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, employee of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department, or traffic control municipal employee:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person, other than a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving motor vehicle.

(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9), (c)(1), or (c)(4) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7) is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10), (c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8) is a Class 3 felony.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon", "Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.

an employee of a county juvenile detention center who provides direct and continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile detention center, including an employee of a county juvenile detention center who supervises recreational activity for residents of a juvenile detention center, ; or

(20) Knows the individual assaulted to be either:

(A) a person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(B) a special process server appointed by the circuit court;

while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server. , and (20)

(Source: P.A. 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1109, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1398, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-225, eff. 7-28-11; 97-313, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)

Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.

(a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, or a bomb or explosive compound.

(3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.

(5) Strangles another individual.

(b) Offense based on injury to a child or intellectually disabled mentally retarded person. A person who is at least 18 years of age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:

(1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person; or

(2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.

(c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic violence shelter.

(d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered to be any of the following:

(1) A person 60 years of age or older.

(2) A person who is pregnant or physically handicapped.

(3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or Department of Human Services employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a unit of local government, or a school district, while performing his or her official duties.

(7) A transit employee performing his or her official duties, or a transit passenger.

(8) A taxi driver on duty.

(9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code and the person without legal justification by any means causes bodily harm to the merchant.

(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process server appointed by the circuit court while that individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a process server.

(e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee, or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.

(6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional institution employee or emergency management worker:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a municipality or other governmental unit:

(i) performing his or her official duties;

(ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her official duties; or

(iii) battered in retaliation for performing his or her official duties.

(8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building used for school purposes.

(f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in the Air Rifle Act.

(2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her identity.

(3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of another.

(g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, he or she does any of the following:

(1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled substance to another and any user experiences great bodily harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled substance.

(2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another person any food containing any substance or object intended to cause physical injury if eaten.

(3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a correctional institution employee or Department of Human Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of Human Services.

(h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated battery is a Class 3 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim.

Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1 felony if:

(A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous instrument while committing the offense; or

(B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to the other person while committing the offense; or

(C) the person has been previously convicted of a violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other state.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a Class X felony.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years and a maximum of 60 years.

Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a Class X felony, except that:

(1) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(2) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act.

"Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of such a building or other structure in the case of a person who is going to or from such a building or other structure.

"Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an air rifle as defined by Section 1 of the Air Rifle Act.

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of this Code.

"Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.

(Source: P.A. 96-201, eff. 8-10-09; 96-363, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.2)

Sec. 12-3.2. Domestic battery.

(a) A person commits domestic battery if he or she knowingly without legal justification by any means:

(1) Causes bodily harm to any family or household member;

(2) Makes physical contact of an insulting or provoking nature with any family or household member.

(b) Sentence. Domestic battery is a Class A misdemeanor. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2) or violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense which is substantially similar. Domestic battery is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), or aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or any prior conviction under the law of another jurisdiction for any offense that is substantially similar to the offenses listed in this Section, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, for any second or subsequent conviction of violating this Section, the offender shall be mandatorily sentenced to a minimum of 72 consecutive hours of imprisonment. The imprisonment shall not be subject to suspension, nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence.

(c) Domestic battery committed in the presence of a child. In addition to any other sentencing alternatives, a defendant who commits, in the presence of a child, a felony domestic battery (enhanced under subsection (b)), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), or aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1) against a family or household member shall be required to serve a mandatory minimum imprisonment of 10 days or perform 300 hours of community service, or both. The defendant shall further be liable for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections. For purposes of this Section, "child" means a person under 18 years of age who is the defendant's or victim's child or step-child or who is a minor child residing within or visiting the household of the defendant or victim.

(d) Upon conviction of domestic battery, the court shall advise the defendant orally or in writing, substantially as follows: "An individual convicted of domestic battery may be subject to federal criminal penalties for possessing, transporting, shipping, or receiving any firearm or ammunition in violation of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) and (9))." A notation shall be made in the court file that the admonition was given.

(Source: P.A. 96-287, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.4) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-30)

Sec. 12-3.4. Violation of an order of protection.

(a) A person commits violation of an order of protection if:

(1) He or she knowingly commits an act which was prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered by a court in violation of:

(i) a remedy in a valid order of protection authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14) or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory,

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as the term protected parties is defined in Section 112A-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; and

(2) Such violation occurs after the offender has been served notice of the contents of the order, pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

An order of protection issued by a state, tribal or territorial court related to domestic or family violence shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity where an order is certified and appears authentic on its face. For purposes of this Section, an "order of protection" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign order of protection.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.

(c) The limitations placed on law enforcement liability by Section 305 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 apply to actions taken under this Section.

(d) Violation of an order of protection is a Class A misdemeanor. Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for domestic battery (Section 12-3.2) or violation of an order of protection (Section 12-3.4 or 12-30). Violation of an order of protection is a Class 4 felony if the defendant has any prior conviction under this Code for first degree murder (Section 9-1), attempt to commit first degree murder (Section 8-4), aggravated domestic battery (Section 12-3.3), aggravated battery (Section 12-3.05 or 12-4), heinous battery (Section 12-4.1), aggravated battery with a firearm (Section 12-4.2), aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a silencer (Section 12-4.2-5), aggravated battery of a child (Section 12-4.3), aggravated battery of an unborn child (subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, or Section 12-4.4), aggravated battery of a senior citizen (Section 12-4.6), stalking (Section 12-7.3), aggravated stalking (Section 12-7.4), criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.20 or 12-13), aggravated criminal sexual assault (Section 11-1.30 or 12-14), kidnapping (Section 10-1), aggravated kidnapping (Section 10-2), predatory criminal sexual assault of a child (Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1), aggravated criminal sexual abuse (Section 11-1.60 or 12-16), unlawful restraint (Section 10-3), aggravated unlawful restraint (Section 10-3.1), aggravated arson (Section 20-1.1), aggravated discharge of a firearm (Section 24-1.2), or a violation of any former law of this State that is substantially similar to any listed offense, when any of these offenses have been committed against a family or household member as defined in Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The court shall impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for defendant's second or subsequent violation of any order of protection; unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or such period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust. In addition to any other penalties, the court may order the defendant to pay a fine as authorized under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or to make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections. In addition to any other penalties, including those imposed by Section 5-9-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the court shall impose an additional fine of $20 as authorized by Section 5-9-1.11 of the Unified Code of Corrections upon any person convicted of or placed on supervision for a violation of this Section. The additional fine shall be imposed for each violation of this Section.

(e) (Blank).

(f) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 5, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; revised 9-11-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.4a)

Sec. 12-4.4a. Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident; criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(a) Abuse or criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(1) A person or an owner or licensee commits abuse of a long term care facility resident when he or she knowingly causes any physical or mental injury to, or commits any sexual offense in this Code against, a resident.

(2) A person or an owner or licensee commits criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she recklessly:

(A) performs acts that cause a resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of a resident, and that failure causes the resident's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate, or that create the substantial likelihood that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition will deteriorate; or

(C) abandons a resident.

(3) A person or an owner or licensee commits neglect of a long term care facility resident when he or she negligently fails to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance to the resident which results in physical or mental injury or deterioration of the resident's physical or mental condition. An owner or licensee is guilty under this subdivision (a)(3), however, only if the owner or licensee failed to exercise reasonable care in the hiring, training, supervising, or providing of staff or other related routine administrative responsibilities.

(b) Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability.

(1) A caregiver commits criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(A) performs acts that cause the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(B) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life or health of the person, and that failure causes the person's life to be endangered, health to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to deteriorate;

(C) abandons the person;

(D) physically abuses, harasses, intimidates, or interferes with the personal liberty of the person; or

(E) exposes the person to willful deprivation.

(2) It is not a defense to criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability that the caregiver reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person or person with a disability.

(c) Offense not applicable.

(1) Nothing in this Section applies to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a duly licensed nurse providing care within the scope of his or her professional judgment and within the accepted standards of care within the community.

(2) Nothing in this Section imposes criminal liability on a caregiver who made a good faith effort to provide for the health and personal care of an elderly person or person with a disability, but through no fault of his or her own was unable to provide such care.

(3) Nothing in this Section applies to the medical supervision, regulation, or control of the remedial care or treatment of residents in a long term care facility conducted for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination as described in Section 3-803 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-803 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or Section 3-803 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.

(4) Nothing in this Section prohibits a caregiver from providing treatment to an elderly person or person with a disability by spiritual means through prayer alone and care consistent therewith in lieu of medical care and treatment in accordance with the tenets and practices of any church or religious denomination of which the elderly person or person with a disability is a member.

(5) Nothing in this Section limits the remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Long term care facility. Abuse of a long term care facility resident is a Class 3 felony. Criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident is a Class 4 felony, unless it results in the resident's death in which case it is a Class 3 felony. Neglect of a long term care facility resident is a petty offense.

(2) Caregiver. Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability is a Class 3 felony, unless it results in the person's death in which case it is a Class 2 felony, and if imprisonment is imposed it shall be for a minimum term of 3 years and a maximum term of 14 years.

(e) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

"Abandon" means to desert or knowingly forsake a resident or an elderly person or person with a disability under circumstances in which a reasonable person would continue to provide care and custody.

"Caregiver" means a person who has a duty to provide for an elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care, at the elderly person or person with a disability's place of residence, including, but not limited to, food and nutrition, shelter, hygiene, prescribed medication, and medical care and treatment, and includes any of the following:

(1) A parent, spouse, adult child, or other relative by blood or marriage who resides with or resides in the same building with or regularly visits the elderly person or person with a disability, knows or reasonably should know of such person's physical or mental impairment, and knows or reasonably should know that such person is unable to adequately provide for his or her own health and personal care.

(2) A person who is employed by the elderly person or person with a disability or by another to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(3) A person who has agreed for consideration to reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or person with a disability and provide for such person's health and personal care.

(4) A person who has been appointed by a private or public agency or by a court of competent jurisdiction to provide for the elderly person or person with a disability's health and personal care.

"Caregiver" does not include a long-term care facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed or certified under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or any administrative, medical, or other personnel of such a facility, or a health care provider who is licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and renders care in the ordinary course of his or her profession.

"Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or older who is incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed to operate a facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Long term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by the State of Illinois or a political subdivision thereof, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care, or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the owner by blood or marriage. The term also includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as defined in Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act and assisted living establishments and shared housing establishments licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Owner" means the owner a long term care facility as provided in the Nursing Home Care Act, the owner of a facility as provided under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, the owner of a facility as provided in the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or the owner of an assisted living or shared housing establishment as provided in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment, resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition, which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health and personal care.

"Resident" means a person residing in a long term care facility.

"Willful deprivation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (15) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, and 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-6.2)

Sec. 12-6.2. Aggravated intimidation.

(a) A person commits aggravated intimidation when he or she commits intimidation and:

(1) the person committed the offense in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang or because of the person's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or

(2) the offense is committed with the intent to prevent any person from becoming a community policing volunteer; or

(3) the following conditions are met:

(A) the person knew that the victim was a peace officer, a correctional institution employee, a fireman, a community policing volunteer, ; or (v) a civilian reporting information regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency; and

(B) the offense was committed:

(i) while the victim was engaged in the execution of his or her official duties; or

(ii) to prevent the victim from performing his or her official duties;

(iii) in retaliation for the victim's performance of his or her official duties;

(iv) by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(v) because the person reported information regarding a forcible felony to a law enforcement agency.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(1) is a Class 1 felony. Aggravated intimidation as defined in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) is a Class 2 felony for which the offender may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years nor more than 14 years.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-162, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.1)

Sec. 12-7.1. Hate crime.

(a) A person commits hate crime when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he commits assault, battery, aggravated assault, misdemeanor theft, criminal trespass to residence, misdemeanor criminal damage to property, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to real property, mob action or disorderly conduct as these crimes are defined in Sections 12-1, 12-2, 12-3(a), 16-1, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, 25-1, and 26-1 of this Code, respectively, or harassment by telephone as defined in Section 1-1 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act, or harassment through electronic communications as defined in clauses (a)(2) and (a)(4) of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), hate crime is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(b-5) Hate crime is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense if committed:

(1) in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) in a cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) in a school or other educational facility, including an administrative facility or public or private dormitory facility of or associated with the school or other educational facility;

(4) in a public park or an ethnic or religious community center;

(5) on the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5); or

(6) on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5).

(b-10) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine up to $1,000. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of hate crime. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes if the offender caused criminal damage to property consisting of religious fixtures, objects, or decorations. The educational program may be administered, as determined by the court, by a university, college, community college, non-profit organization, or the Holocaust and Genocide Commission. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits courses discouraging hate crimes from being made available online. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result thereof, any person suffering injury to his person or damage to his property as a result of hate crime may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, or punitive damages. A judgment may include attorney's fees and costs. The parents or legal guardians, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, of an unemancipated minor shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for actual damages rendered against such minor under this subsection (c) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d) "Sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-161, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-19-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.3)

Sec. 12-7.3. Stalking.

(a) A person commits stalking when he or she knowingly engages in a course of conduct directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that this course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to:

(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.

(a-3) A person commits stalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions follows another person or places the person under surveillance or any combination thereof and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to or of that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits stalking when he or she has previously been convicted of stalking another person and knowingly and without lawful justification on one occasion:

(1) follows that same person or places that same person under surveillance; and

(2) transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement or restraint to that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Stalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. A course of conduct may include contact via electronic communications.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Family member" means a parent, grandparent, brother, sister, or child, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption and includes a step-grandparent, step-parent, step-brother, step-sister or step-child. "Family member" also means any other person who regularly resides in the household, or who, within the prior 6 months, regularly resided in the household.

(5) "Follows another person" means (i) to move in relative proximity to a person as that person moves from place to place or (ii) to remain in relative proximity to a person who is stationary or whose movements are confined to a small area. "Follows another person" does not include a following within the residence of the defendant.

(6) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(7) "Places a person under surveillance" means: (1) remaining present outside the person's school, place of employment, vehicle, other place occupied by the person, or residence other than the residence of the defendant; or (2) placing an electronic tracking device on the person or the person's property.

(8) "Reasonable person" means a person in the victim's situation.

(9) "Transmits a threat" means a verbal or written threat or a threat implied by a pattern of conduct or a combination of verbal or written statements or conduct.

(d) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute, including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the right to free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d-5) The incarceration of a person in a penal institution who commits the course of conduct or transmits a threat is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(d-10) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; revised 9-19-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.4)

Sec. 12-7.4. Aggravated stalking.

(a) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she commits stalking and:

(1) causes bodily harm to the victim;

(2) confines or restrains the victim; or

(3) violates a temporary restraining order, an order of protection, a stalking no contact order, a civil no contact order, or an injunction prohibiting the behavior described in subsection (b)(1) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-1) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or has been previously required to register under that Act and commits the offense of stalking when the victim of the stalking is also the victim of the offense for which the sex offender is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or a family member of the victim.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated stalking is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 2 felony.

(c) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the managing or maintenance of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the right of free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-468, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.5)

Sec. 12-7.5. Cyberstalking.

(a) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she engages in a course of conduct using electronic communication directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that would cause a reasonable person to:

(1) fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person; or

(2) suffer other emotional distress.

(a-3) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions, harasses another person through the use of electronic communication and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; or

(2) places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, creates and maintains an Internet website or webpage which is accessible to one or more third parties for a period of at least 24 hours, and which contains statements harassing another person and:

(1) which communicates a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, where the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person, or

(2) which places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, or

(3) which knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(b) Sentence. Cyberstalking is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 3 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a defendant directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other non-consensual contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. The incarceration in a penal institution of a person who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

(2) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions through an electronic device including, but not limited to, a telephone, cellular phone, computer, or pager, which communication includes, but is not limited to, e-mail, instant message, text message, or voice mail.

(3) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

(4) "Harass" means to engage in a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that alarms, torments, or terrorizes that person.

(5) "Non-consensual contact" means any contact with the victim that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(6) "Reasonable person" means a person in the victim's circumstances, with the victim's knowledge of the defendant and the defendant's prior acts.

(7) "Third party" means any person other than the person violating these provisions and the person or persons towards whom the violator's actions are directed.

(d) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(e) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-303, eff. 8-11-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-0.1)

Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are defined as indicated:

"Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize any services of a computer.

"Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, or money changer.

"Communication device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment which is capable of transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other component, accessory or part of any communication device which is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, acquisition or reception of all such communications, transmissions, signals, or services.

"Communication service" means any service lawfully provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution network, system, facility or technology, including, but not limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any such communications, transmissions, signals and services lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of those networks, systems, facilities or technologies.

"Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or entity providing any communication service, whether directly or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any communication service directly or indirectly by or through any such distribution system, network or facility.

"Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to computers.

"Continuing course of conduct" means a series of acts, and the accompanying mental state necessary for the crime in question, irrespective of whether the series of acts are continuous or intermittent.

"Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to transport or store any bakery or dairy product.

"Document-making implement" means any implement, impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent personal identification document.

"Financial transaction device" means any of the following:

(1) An electronic funds transfer card.

(2) A credit card.

(3) A debit card.

(4) A point-of-sale card.

(5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account number, personal identification number, or a record or copy of a code, account number, or personal identification number or other means of access to a credit account or deposit account, or a driver's license or State identification card used to access a proprietary account, other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, that can be used alone or in conjunction with another access device, for any of the following purposes:

(A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing of value.

(B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or business the availability to the device holder of funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to the order of that person or business.

(C) Providing the device holder access to a deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a deposit account, or making an electronic funds transfer.

"Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or advertised price of the merchandise. "Full retail value" includes the aggregate value of property obtained from retail thefts committed by the same person as part of a continuing course of conduct from one or more mercantile establishments in a single transaction or in separate transactions over a period of one year.

"Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

"Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the library card was issued as authorized to borrow library material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card.

"Library facility" includes any public library or museum, or any library or museum of an educational, historical or eleemosynary institution, organization or society.

"Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data processing record or other documentary, written or printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in the custody of a library facility.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, transmission or decryption of, a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others in those activities.

"Master sound recording" means the original physical object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and which the original object from which all subsequent sound recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or indirectly derived.

"Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal property, including motor fuel.

"Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a payment card or information from a payment card, or what the person believes to be a payment card or information from a payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value from the person.

"Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel.

"Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless device to access the Internet.

"Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a merchant.

"Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that impairs the individual's mental or physical ability to independently manage his or her property or financial resources, or both.

"Personal identification document" means a birth certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card, a public, government, or private employment identification card, a social security card, a firearm owner's identification card, a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or issued, by or under the authority of the United States Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another person or by the authority of one who did not give that authority.

"Personal identifying information" means any of the following information:

(1) A person's name.

(2) A person's address.

(3) A person's date of birth.

(4) A person's telephone number.

(5) A person's driver's license number or State of Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of another state.

(6) A person's social security number.

(7) A person's public, private, or government employer, place of employment, or employment identification number.

(8) The maiden name of a person's mother.

(9) The number assigned to a person's depository account, savings account, or brokerage account.

(10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard", "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar cards whether issued by a financial institution, corporation, or business entity.

(11) Personal identification numbers.

(12) Electronic identification numbers.

(13) Digital signals.

(14) User names, passwords, and any other word, number, character or combination of the same usable in whole or part to access information relating to a specific individual, or to the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

(15) Any other numbers or information which can be used to access a person's financial resources, or to identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of a specific individual.

"Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of such retail mercantile establishment.

"Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public services" mean any service subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a public utility that is owned and operated by any political subdivision, public institution of higher education or municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by any public utility that is owned by such political subdivision, public institution of higher education, or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents; any service furnished by an electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the Federal Communications Commission.

"Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book.

"Radio frequency identification device" means any implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal identification document.

"RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that contains personal identifying information from which the personal identifying information can be read or decoded by another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or transponder.

"Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card.

"Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to the public.

"Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card.

"Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use of the public in transporting commodities in stores and markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside the store.

"Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, equipment or device.

"Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any theft detection device from any merchandise.

"Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail value of the merchandise.

"Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the name of the actual performers or groups prominently and legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label of such sound or audio visual recording.

"Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect any such communication, audio or video services, programs or transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or re-transmission.

"Unlawful communication device" means any electronic serial number, mobile identification number, personal identification number or any communication or wireless device that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, or that has been altered, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also means:

(1) any phone altered to obtain service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication service or other instrument capable of disguising its identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to a communications or wireless system operated by a communication service provider; and

(2) any communication or wireless device which is capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another communication or wireless device or devices, so as to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a communication service without the express consent or express authorization of the communication service provider, including, but not limited to, any device, technology, product, service, equipment, computer software or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, decryption of, access to or acquisition of any communication service provided by any communication service provider.

"Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for propulsion.

"Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, machine, or equipment that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic, electronic or radio communications, or any part of such instrument, device, machine, or equipment, or any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or other component that is capable of facilitating the transmission or reception of telephonic, electronic, or radio communications.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-388, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-7)

Sec. 16-7. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images.

(a) A person commits unlawful use of recorded sounds or images when he or she knowingly or recklessly:

(1) transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the article to which such sounds or recordings of sound are transferred;

(2) sells, offers for sale, advertises for sale, uses or causes to be used for profit any such article described in subdivision (a)(1) without consent of the owner;

(3) offers or makes available for a fee, rental or any other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, any equipment or machinery for the purpose of use by another to reproduce or transfer, without the consent of the owner, any sounds or images recorded on any sound or audio visual recording to another sound or audio visual recording or for the purpose of use by another to manufacture any sound or audio visual recording in violation of subsection (b); or

(4) transfers or causes to be transferred without the consent of the owner, any live performance with the intent of selling or causing to be sold, or using or causing to be used for profit the sound or audio visual recording to which the performance is transferred.

(b) A person commits unlawful use of unidentified sound or audio visual recordings when he or she knowingly, recklessly, or negligently for profit manufacturers, sells, distributes, vends, circulates, performs, leases, possesses, or otherwise deals in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings or causes the manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, or other dealing in and with unidentified sound or audio visual recordings.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "owner" means the person who owns the master sound recording on which sound is recorded and from which the transferred recorded sounds are directly or indirectly derived, or the person who owns the rights to record or authorize the recording of a live performance.

For the purposes of this Section, "manufacturer" means the person who actually makes or causes to be made a sound or audio visual recording. "Manufacturer" does not include a person who manufactures the medium upon which sounds or visual images can be recorded or stored, or who manufactures the cartridge or casing itself.

(d) Sentence. Unlawful use of recorded sounds or images or unidentified sound or audio visual recordings is a Class 4 felony; however:

(1) If the offense involves more than 100 but not exceeding 1000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 7 but not exceeding 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $100,000; and

(2) If the offense involves more than 1,000 unidentified sound recordings or more than 65 unidentified audio visual recordings during any 180 day period the authorized fine is up to $250,000.

(e) Upon conviction of any violation of subsection (b), the offender shall be sentenced to make restitution to any owner or lawful producer of a master sound or audio visual recording, or to the trade association representing such owner or lawful producer, that has suffered injury resulting from the crime. The order of restitution shall be based on the aggregate wholesale value of lawfully manufactured and authorized sound or audio visual recordings corresponding to the non-conforming recorded devices involved in the offense, and shall include investigative costs relating to the offense.

(f) Subsection (a) of this Section shall neither enlarge nor diminish the rights of parties in private litigation.

(g) Subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to any person engaged in the business of radio or television broadcasting who transfers, or causes to be transferred, any sounds (other than from the sound track of a motion picture) solely for the purpose of broadcast transmission.

(h) Each individual manufacture, distribution or sale or transfer for a consideration of such recorded devices in contravention of subsection (a) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section. Each individual manufacture, sale, distribution, vending, circulation, performance, lease, possession, or other dealing in and with an unidentified sound or audio visual recording under subsection (b) of this Section constitutes a separate violation of this Section.

(i) Any sound or audio visual recordings containing transferred sounds or a performance whose transfer was not authorized by the owner of the master sound recording or performance, or any unidentified sound or audio visual recording used, in violation of this Section, or in the attempt to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-4, or in a conspiracy to commit such violation as defined in Section 8-2, or in a solicitation to commit such offense as defined in Section 8-1, may be confiscated and destroyed upon conclusion of the case or cases to which they are relevant, except that the court may enter an order preserving them as evidence for use in other cases or pending the final determination of an appeal.

(j) It is an affirmative defense to any charge of unlawful use of recorded sounds or images that the recorded sounds or images so used are public domain material. For purposes of this Section, recorded sounds are deemed to be in the public domain if the recorded sounds were copyrighted pursuant to the copyright laws of the United States, as the same may be amended from time to time, and the term of the copyright and any extensions or renewals thereof has expired.

(k) (j) With respect to sound recordings (other than accompanying a motion picture or other audiovisual work), this Section applies only to sound recordings that were initially recorded before February 15, 1972.

(Source: P.A. 97-538, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-30)

Sec. 16-30. Identity theft; aggravated identity theft.

(a) A person commits identity theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) uses any personal identifying information or personal identification document of another person to fraudulently obtain credit, money, goods, services, or other property; or

(2) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony not set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a); or

(3) obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another with intent to commit any felony; or

(4) uses, obtains, records, possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or manufactures any personal identification information or personal identification document of another knowing that such personal identification information or personal identification documents were stolen or produced without lawful authority; or

(5) uses, transfers, or possesses document-making implements to produce false identification or false documents with knowledge that they will be used by the person or another to commit any felony; or

(6) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to portray himself or herself as that person, or otherwise, for the purpose of gaining access to any personal identification information or personal identification document of that person, without the prior express permission of that person; or

(7) uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another for the purpose of gaining access to any record of the actions taken, communications made or received, or other activities or transactions of that person, without the prior express permission of that person; or

(7.5) uses, possesses, or transfers a radio frequency identification device capable of obtaining or processing personal identifying information from a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag or transponder with knowledge that the device will be used by the person or another to commit a felony violation of State law or any violation of this Article; or

(8) in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a roofing or fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing or fire sprinkler portion of the project; it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this paragraph (8) that the building permit applicant promptly informed the unit of local government that issued the building permit of any change in the roofing or fire sprinkler contractor.

(b) Aggravated identity theft. A person commits aggravated identity theft when he or she commits identity theft as set forth in subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) against a person 60 years of age or older or a person with a disability; or

(2) in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang.

A defense to aggravated identity theft does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age. For the purposes of this subsection, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) Knowledge shall be determined by an evaluation of all circumstances surrounding the use of the other person's identifying information or document.

(d) When a charge of identity theft or aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the credit, money, goods, services, or other property is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(e) Sentence.

(1) Identity theft.

(A) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be sentenced as follows:

(i) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 4 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 3 felony. A person who has been previously convicted of identity theft of less than $300 who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who has been convicted of identity theft of less than $300 when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, home repair fraud, aggravated home repair fraud, or financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(ii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value is a Class 3 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $2,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 2 felony.

(iii) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $2,000 and not exceeding $10,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class 1 felony.

(iv) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony. Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is a Class X felony.

(v) Identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(B) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(C) A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person convicted of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (5) and (7.5) of subsection (a) a second or subsequent time when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(D) A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) with respect to the identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(E) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine is guilty of a Class 2 felony for a first offense and a Class 1 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) who uses any personal identification information or personal identification document of another to purchase methamphetamine manufacturing material as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to unlawfully manufacture methamphetamine when the victim of the identity theft is an active duty member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or of the Illinois National Guard serving in a foreign country is guilty of a Class 1 felony for a first offense and a Class X felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(F) A person convicted of identity theft in violation of paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) Aggravated identity theft.

(A) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property not exceeding $300 in value is a Class 3 felony.

(B) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $300 and not exceeding $10,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(C) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $10,000 in value and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(D) Aggravated identity theft of credit, money, goods, services, or other property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(E) Aggravated identity theft for a violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 2 felony.

(F) Aggravated identity theft when a person who, within a 12-month period, is found in violation of any offense enumerated in paragraphs (2) through (7.5) (7) of subsection (a) of this Section with identifiers of, or other information relating to, 3 or more separate individuals, at the same time or consecutively, is a Class 1 felony.

(G) A person who has been previously convicted of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of aggravated identity theft regardless of the value of the property involved is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-333, eff. 8-12-11, and 97-388, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; solicitation.

(a) False personation; solicitation.

(1) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when he or she knowingly exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(2) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this paragraph, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States.

(2.5) (a-7) A person commits a false personation when he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be:

(A) (1) another actual person and does an act in such assumed character with intent to intimidate, threaten, injure, defraud, or to obtain a benefit from another; or

(B) (2) a representative of an actual person or organization and does an act in such false capacity with intent to obtain a benefit or to injure or defraud another.

(3) No person shall knowingly use the words "Police", "Police Department", "Patrolman", "Sergeant", "Lieutenant", "Peace Officer", "Sheriff's Police", "Sheriff", "Officer", "Law Enforcement", "Trooper", "Deputy", "Deputy Sheriff", "State Police", or any other words to the same effect (i) in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the named public safety personnel organization's governing board or (ii) in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government.

(4) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any public safety personnel organization when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity and specifies and states clearly and fully the purpose for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(5) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used, has been entered into.

(6) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless:

(A) the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization;

(B) the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; and

(C) before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization have entered into a written contract that specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(7) No person may knowingly claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(8) No person, firm, copartnership, or corporation (except corporations organized and doing business under the Pawners Societies Act) shall knowingly use a name that contains in it the words "Pawners' Society".

(b) False personation; public officials and employees judicial process. A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be any of the following:

(1) An attorney authorized to practice law for purposes of compensation or consideration. This paragraph (b)(1) does not apply to a person who unintentionally fails to pay attorney registration fees established by Supreme Court Rule.

(2) A public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government.

(2.3) A public officer, a public employee, or an official or employee of the federal government, and the false representation is made in furtherance of the commission of felony.

(2.7) A public officer or a public employee, and the false representation is for the purpose of effectuating identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 of this Code.

(3) A peace officer.

(4) A peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon.

(5) A peace officer in attempting or committing a felony.

(6) A peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(7) The parent, legal guardian, or other relation of a minor child to any public official, public employee, or elementary or secondary school employee or administrator.

(8) A fire fighter.

(9) A fire fighter while carrying a deadly weapon.

(10) A fire fighter in attempting or committing a felony.

(11) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State.

(12) An emergency management worker of any jurisdiction in this State in attempting or committing a felony. For the purposes of this subsection (b), "emergency management worker" has the meaning provided under Section 2-6.6 of this Code.

(b-5) The trier of fact may infer that a person falsely represents himself or herself to be a public officer or a public employee or an official or employee of the federal government if the person:

(1) wears or displays without authority any uniform, badge, insignia, or facsimile thereof by which a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government is lawfully distinguished; or

(2) falsely expresses by word or action that he or she is a public officer or public employee or official or employee of the federal government and is acting with approval or authority of a public agency or department.

(c) Fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name.

(1) A company, association, or individual commits fraudulent advertisement of a corporate name if he, she, or it, not being incorporated, puts forth a sign or advertisement and assumes, for the purpose of soliciting business, a corporate name.

(2) Nothing contained in this subsection (c) prohibits a corporation, company, association, or person from using a divisional designation or trade name in conjunction with its corporate name or assumed name under Section 4.05 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or, if it is a member of a partnership or joint venture, from doing partnership or joint venture business under the partnership or joint venture name. The name under which the joint venture or partnership does business may differ from the names of the members. Business may not be conducted or transacted under that joint venture or partnership name, however, unless all provisions of the Assumed Business Name Act have been complied with. Nothing in this subsection (c) permits a foreign corporation to do business in this State without complying with all Illinois laws regulating the doing of business by foreign corporations. No foreign corporation may conduct or transact business in this State as a member of a partnership or joint venture that violates any Illinois law regulating or pertaining to the doing of business by foreign corporations in Illinois.

(3) The provisions of this subsection (c) do not apply to limited partnerships formed under the Revised Uniform Limited Partnership Act or under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001).

(d) False law enforcement badges.

(1) A person commits false law enforcement badges if he or she knowingly produces, sells, or distributes a law enforcement badge without the express written consent of the law enforcement agency represented on the badge or, in case of a reorganized or defunct law enforcement agency, its successor law enforcement agency.

(2) It is a defense to false law enforcement badges that the law enforcement badge is used or is intended to be used exclusively: (i) as a memento or in a collection or exhibit; (ii) for decorative purposes; or (iii) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production.

(e) False medals.

(1) A person commits a false personation if he or she knowingly and falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States Government, irrespective of branch of service: The Congressional Medal of Honor, The Distinguished Service Cross, The Navy Cross, The Air Force Cross, The Silver Star, The Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

(2) It is a defense to a prosecution under paragraph (e)(1) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(A) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(B) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(f) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(8) is a petty offense subject to a fine of not less than $5 nor more than $100, and the person, firm, copartnership, or corporation commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of paragraph (c)(1) is a petty offense, and the company, association, or person commits an additional petty offense for each day he, she, or it continues to commit the violation. A violation of subsection (e) is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not more than $200.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(3) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(2), (a)(2.5), (a)(7), (a-7), (b)(2), or (b)(7) or subsection (d) is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (b)(1), (b)(2.3), (b)(2.7), (b)(3), (b)(8), or (b)(11) is a Class 4 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (b)(4), (b)(9), or (b)(12) is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(5) or (b)(10) is a Class 2 felony.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(6) is a Class 1 felony.

(g) (e) A violation of subsection (a)(1) through (a)(7) or subsection (e) of this Section may be accomplished in person or by any means of communication, including but not limited to the use of an Internet website or any form of electronic communication.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-219, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates change to Sec. 32-5 from 97-219; revised 10-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-3)

Sec. 17-3. Forgery.

(a) A person commits forgery when, with intent to defraud, he or she knowingly:

(1) makes a false document or alters any document to make it false and that document is apparently capable of defrauding another; or

(2) issues or delivers such document knowing it to have been thus made or altered; or

(3) possesses, with intent to issue or deliver, any such document knowing it to have been thus made or altered; or

(4) unlawfully uses the digital signature, as defined in the Financial Institutions Electronic Documents and Digital Signature Act, of another; or

(5) unlawfully uses the signature device of another to create an electronic signature of that other person, as those terms are defined in the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A document apparently capable of defrauding another includes, but is not limited to, one by which any right, obligation or power with reference to any person or property may be created, transferred, altered or terminated. A document includes any record or electronic record as those terms are defined in the Electronic Commerce Security Act. For purposes of this Section, a document also includes a Universal Price Code Label or coin.

(c-5) For purposes of this Section, "false document" or "document that is false" includes, but is not limited to, a document whose contents are false in some material way, or that purports to have been made by another or at another time, or with different provisions, or by authority of one who did not give such authority.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), forgery is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Forgery is a Class 4 felony when only one Universal Price Code Label is forged.

(3) Forgery is a Class A misdemeanor when an academic degree or coin is forged.

(e) It is not a violation of this Section if a false academic degree explicitly states "for novelty purposes only".

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-231, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.2) (was 720 ILCS 5/17-29)

Sec. 17-10.2. Businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities; fraudulent contracts with governmental units.

(a) In this Section:

"Minority person" means a person who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(1) African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa); (2) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race); (3) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or (4) Native American or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

"Female" means a person who is of the female gender.

"Person with a disability" means a person who is a person qualifying as being disabled.

"Disabled" means a severe physical or mental disability that: (1) results from: amputation, arthritis, autism, blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy, cystic fibrosis, deafness, head injury, heart disease, hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction, an intellectual disability mental retardation, mental illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders, neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy, paraplegia, quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions, sickle cell anemia, specific learning disabilities, or end stage renal failure disease; and (2) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

"Minority owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

"Female owned business" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

"Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

"Governmental unit" means the State, a unit of local government, or school district.

(b) In addition to any other penalties imposed by law or by an ordinance or resolution of a unit of local government or school district, any individual or entity that knowingly obtains, or knowingly assists another to obtain, a contract with a governmental unit, or a subcontract or written commitment for a subcontract under a contract with a governmental unit, by falsely representing that the individual or entity, or the individual or entity assisted, is a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony, regardless of whether the preference for awarding the contract to a minority owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a person with a disability was established by statute or by local ordinance or resolution.

(c) In addition to any other penalties authorized by law, the court shall order that an individual or entity convicted of a violation of this Section must pay to the governmental unit that awarded the contract a penalty equal to one and one-half times the amount of the contract obtained because of the false representation.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 97-227, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-396, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.6)

Sec. 17-10.6. Financial institution fraud.

(a) Misappropriation of financial institution property. A person commits misappropriation of a financial institution's property whenever he or she knowingly obtains or exerts unauthorized control over any of the moneys, funds, credits, assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, or under the custody or care of any agent, officer, director, or employee of such financial institution.

(b) Commercial bribery of a financial institution.

(1) A person commits commercial bribery of a financial institution when he or she knowingly confers or offers or agrees to confer any benefit upon any employee, agent, or fiduciary without the consent of the latter's employer or principal, with the intent to influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(2) An employee, agent, or fiduciary of a financial institution commits commercial bribery of a financial institution when, without the consent of his or her employer or principal, he or she knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit from another person upon an agreement or understanding that such benefit will influence his or her conduct in relation to his or her employer's or principal's affairs.

(c) Financial institution fraud. A person commits financial institution fraud when he or she knowingly executes or attempts to execute a scheme or artifice:

(1) to defraud a financial institution; or

(2) to obtain any of the moneys, funds, credits, assets, securities, or other property owned by or under the custody or control of a financial institution, by means of pretenses, representations, or promises he or she knows to be false.

(d) Loan fraud. A person commits loan fraud when he or she knowingly, with intent to defraud, makes any false statement or report, or overvalues any land, property, or security, with the intent to influence in any way the action of a financial institution to act upon any application, advance, discount, purchase, purchase agreement, repurchase agreement, commitment, or loan, or any change or extension of any of the same, by renewal, deferment of action, or otherwise, or the acceptance, release, or substitution of security.

(e) Concealment of collateral. A person commits concealment of collateral when he or she, with intent to defraud, knowingly conceals, removes, disposes of, or converts to the person's own use or to that of another any property mortgaged or pledged to or held by a financial institution.

(f) Financial institution robbery. A person commits robbery when he or she knowingly, by force or threat of force, or by intimidation, takes, or attempts to take, from the person or presence of another, or obtains or attempts to obtain by extortion, any property or money or any other thing of value belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of, a financial institution.

(g) Conspiracy to commit a financial crime.

(1) A person commits conspiracy to commit a financial crime when, with the intent that any violation of this Section be committed, he or she agrees with another person to the commission of that offense.

(2) No person may be convicted of conspiracy to commit a financial crime unless an overt act or acts in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by that person or by a co-conspirator and the accused is a part of a common scheme or plan to engage in the unlawful activity.

(3) It shall not be a defense to conspiracy to commit a financial crime that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(A) has not been prosecuted or convicted;

(B) has been convicted of a different offense;

(C) is not amenable to justice;

(D) has been acquitted; or

(E) lacked the capacity to commit the offense.

(h) Continuing financial crimes enterprise. A person commits a continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she knowingly, within an 18-month period, commits 3 or more separate offenses constituting any combination of the following:

(1) an offense under this Section;

(2) a felony offense in violation of Section 16A-3 or subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(3) , if involving a financial institution, any other felony offense offenses under this Code.

(i) Organizer of a continuing financial crimes enterprise.

(1) A person commits being an organizer of a continuing financial crimes enterprise when he or she:

(A) with the intent to commit any offense under this Section, agrees with another person to the commission of any combination of the following offenses on 3 or more separate occasions within an 18-month period:

(i) an offense under this Section;

(ii) a felony offense in violation of Section 16A-3 or subsection (a) of Section 16-25 or paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (a) of Section 16-1 of this Code for the purpose of reselling or otherwise re-entering the merchandise in commerce, including conveying the merchandise to a merchant in exchange for anything of value; or

(iii) , if involving a financial institution, any other felony offense under this Code, agrees with another person to the commission of that offense on 3 or more separate occasions within an 18-month period; and

(B) with respect to the other persons within the conspiracy, occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, or financier or other position of management.

(2) The person with whom the accused agreed to commit the 3 or more offenses under this Section, or, if involving a financial institution, any other felony offenses under this Code, need not be the same person or persons for each offense, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged offenses.

(j) Sentence.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, a violation of this Section, the full value of which:

(A) does not exceed $500, is a Class A misdemeanor;

(B) does not exceed $500, and the person has been previously convicted of a financial crime or any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, or home invasion, is guilty of a Class 4 felony;

(C) exceeds $500 but does not exceed $10,000, is a Class 3 felony;

(D) exceeds $10,000 but does not exceed $100,000, is a Class 2 felony;

(E) exceeds $100,000 but does not exceed $500,000, is a Class 1 felony; .

(F) exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed $1,000,000, is a Class 1 non-probationable felony; when a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $500,000 but does not exceed $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $500,000;

(G) exceeds $1,000,000, is a Class X felony; when a charge of financial crime, the full value of which exceeds $1,000,000, is brought, the value of the financial crime involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding $1,000,000.

(2) A violation of subsection (f) is a Class 1 felony.

(3) A violation of subsection (h) is a Class 1 felony.

(4) A violation for subsection (i) is a Class X felony.

(k) A "financial crime" means an offense described in this Section.

(l) Period of limitations. The period of limitations for prosecution of any offense defined in this Section begins at the time when the last act in furtherance of the offense is committed.

(m) Forfeiture. Any violation of subdivision (2) of subsection (h) or subdivision (i)(1)(A)(ii) shall be subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in subsections (f) through (s) of Section 29B-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates P.A. 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-147, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.8)

Sec. 24-3.8. Possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits possession of a stolen firearm when he or she, not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, possesses or delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(b) Possession of a stolen firearm is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3.9)

Sec. 24-3.9. Aggravated possession of a stolen firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated possession of a stolen firearm when he or she:

(1) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a one-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(2) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(3) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(4) Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(5) Not being entitled to the possession of more than 30 firearms, possesses or delivers those firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.

(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(c) Sentence.

(1) A person who violates paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class 1 felony.

(2) A person who violates paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years.

(3) A person who violates paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years.

(4) A person who violates paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years.

(5) A person who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-21-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)

Sec. 36-1. Seizure. Any vessel, vehicle or aircraft used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code, an offense prohibited by (a) Section 9-1, 9-3, 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-6, 11-14.4 except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 16-1 if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal, 18-2, 19-1, 19-2, 19-3, 20-1, 20-2, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 28-1, or 29D-15.2 of this Code, subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05, paragraph (a) of Section 12-4 of this Code, paragraph (a) of Section 11-1.50, paragraph (a) of Section 12-15, paragraph (a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60, or paragraphs (a), (c) or (d) of Section 12-16 of this Code, or paragraph (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 of this Code; (b) Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (c) Section 28, 29 or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (d) Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act; (e) 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (f) (1) driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended where the revocation or suspension was for driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (2) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries; (3) the person committed a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time; (4) the person committed the violation while he or she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit or a monitoring device driving permit; or (5) the person committed the violation while he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy; (g) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (h) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; may be seized and delivered forthwith to the sheriff of the county of seizure.

Within 15 days after such delivery the sheriff shall give notice of seizure to each person according to the following method: Upon each such person whose right, title or interest is of record in the office of the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other Department of this State, or any other state of the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered, as the case may be, by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail to the address as given upon the records of the Secretary of State, the Department of Aeronautics, Department of Public Works and Buildings or any other Department of this State or the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered. Within that 15 day period the sheriff shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel, vehicle or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

When a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this Section.

If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

Property declared contraband under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 96-313, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1267, eff. 7-26-10; 96-1289, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-14-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/36.5-5)

Sec. 36.5-5. Vehicle impoundment.

(a) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, a peace officer who arrests a person for a violation of Section 10-9, 11-14 10-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-18, or 11-18.1 of this Code, may tow and impound any vehicle used by the person in the commission of the offense. The person arrested for one or more such violations shall be charged a $1,000 fee, to be paid to the unit of government that made the arrest. The person may recover the vehicle from the impound after a minimum of 2 hours after arrest upon payment of the fee.

(b) $500 of the fee shall be distributed to the unit of government whose peace officers made the arrest, for the costs incurred by the unit of government to tow and impound the vehicle. Upon the defendant's conviction of one or more of the offenses in connection with which the vehicle was impounded and the fee imposed under this Section, the remaining $500 of the fee shall be deposited into the DHS State Projects Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund and shall be used by the Department of Human Services to make grants to non-governmental organizations to provide services for persons encountered during the course of an investigation into any violation of Section 10-9, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, or 11-19.2 of this Code, provided such persons constitute prostituted persons or other victims of human trafficking.

(c) Upon the presentation by the defendant of a signed court order showing that the defendant has been acquitted of all of the offenses in connection with which a vehicle was impounded and a fee imposed under this Section, or that the charges against the defendant for those offenses have been dismissed, the unit of government shall refund the $1,000 fee to the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; incorporates 96-1503, eff. 1-27-11, and 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-14-11.)

Section 15-60. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 110-6.3, 110-10, 111-8, 115-7.3, and 115-10.3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.3)

Sec. 110-6.3. Denial of bail in stalking and aggravated stalking offenses.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether bail should be denied to a defendant who is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, when it is alleged that the defendant's admission to bail poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, and denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while the petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) The hearing shall be held immediately upon the defendant's appearance before the court, unless for good cause shown the defendant or the State seeks a continuance. A continuance on motion of the defendant may not exceed 5 calendar days, and the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance. A continuance on the motion of the State may not exceed 3 calendar days; however, the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance under this provision if the defendant has been previously found to have violated an order of protection or has been previously convicted of, or granted court supervision for, any of the offenses set forth in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, against the same person as the alleged victim of the stalking or aggravated stalking offense.

(b) The court may deny bail to the defendant when, after the hearing, it is determined that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed the offense of stalking or aggravated stalking; and

(2) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(3) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; and

(4) the court finds that no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Code, including mental health treatment at a community mental health center, hospital, or facility of the Department of Human Services, can reasonably assure the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense.

(c) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) The hearing on the defendant's culpability and threat to the alleged victim of the offense shall be conducted in accordance with the following provisions:

(A) Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered at the hearing may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or by defendant. Defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him. Defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State. The defendant has the right to present witnesses in his favor. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pretrial detention hearing is not to be used for the purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies of defendant's criminal history, if any, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State. The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(B) A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as the result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this state of the prosecution.

(2) The facts relied upon by the court to support a finding that:

(A) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(B) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

shall be supported by clear and convincing evidence presented by the State.

(d) Factors to be considered in making a determination of the threat to the alleged victim of the offense. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses, at the time of the hearing, a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, consider but shall not be limited to evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, mandatory supervised release or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or state law;

(8) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Code, deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(e) The court shall, in any order denying bail to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking:

(1) briefly summarize the evidence of the defendant's culpability and its reasons for concluding that the defendant should be held without bail;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(f) If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant under subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by this subsection (f), he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant. The court shall immediately notify the alleged victim of the offense that the defendant has been admitted to bail under this subsection.

(g) Any person shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying bail to the defendant.

(h) The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of bail.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)

Sec. 110-10. Conditions of bail bond.

(a) If a person is released prior to conviction, either upon payment of bail security or on his or her own recognizance, the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he or she will:

(1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having jurisdiction on a day certain and thereafter as ordered by the court until discharged or final order of the court;

(2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and process of the court;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(5) At a time and place designated by the court, surrender all firearms in his or her possession to a law enforcement officer designated by the court to take custody of and impound the firearms and physically surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the clerk of the circuit court when the offense the person has been charged with is a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961; the court may, however, forgo the imposition of this condition when the circumstances of the case clearly do not warrant it or when its imposition would be impractical; if the Firearm Owner's Identification Card is confiscated, the clerk of the circuit court shall mail the confiscated card to the Illinois State Police; all legally possessed firearms shall be returned to the person upon the charges being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty, unless the finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity; and

(6) At a time and place designated by the court, submit to a psychological evaluation when the person has been charged with a violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and that violation occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school.

Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section shall be completed promptly and made available to the State, the defendant, and the court. As a further condition of bail under these circumstances, the court shall order the defendant to refrain from entering upon the property of the school, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, either the State or the defendant may request a change in the conditions of bail, pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code. The court may change the conditions of bail to include a requirement that the defendant follow the recommendations of the psychological evaluation, including undergoing psychiatric treatment. The conclusions of the psychological evaluation and any statements elicited from the defendant during its administration are not admissible as evidence of guilt during the course of any trial on the charged offense, unless the defendant places his or her mental competency in issue.

(b) The court may impose other conditions, such as the following, if the court finds that such conditions are reasonably necessary to assure the defendant's appearance in court, protect the public from the defendant, or prevent the defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly administration of justice:

(1) Report to or appear in person before such person or agency as the court may direct;

(2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with particular persons or classes of persons;

(4) Refrain from going to certain described geographical areas or premises;

(5) Refrain from engaging in certain activities or indulging in intoxicating liquors or in certain drugs;

(6) Undergo treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(7) Undergo medical or psychiatric treatment;

(8) Work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(9) Attend or reside in a facility designated by the court;

(10) Support his or her dependents;

(11) If a minor resides with his or her parents or in a foster home, attend school, attend a non-residential program for youths, and contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(12) Observe any curfew ordered by the court;

(13) Remain in the custody of such designated person or organization agreeing to supervise his release. Such third party custodian shall be responsible for notifying the court if the defendant fails to observe the conditions of release which the custodian has agreed to monitor, and shall be subject to contempt of court for failure so to notify the court;

(14) Be placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with or without the use of an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(14.1) The court shall impose upon a defendant who is charged with any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation and is placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee that represents costs incidental to the electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code;

(14.2) The court shall impose upon all defendants, including those defendants subject to paragraph (14.1) above, placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee which shall represent costs incidental to such electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be;

(14.3) The Chief Judge of the Judicial Circuit may establish reasonable fees to be paid by a person receiving pretrial services while under supervision of a pretrial services agency, probation department, or court services department. Reasonable fees may be charged for pretrial services including, but not limited to, pretrial supervision, diversion programs, electronic monitoring, victim impact services, drug and alcohol testing, DNA testing, GPS electronic monitoring, assessments and evaluations related to domestic violence and other victims, and victim mediation services. The person receiving pretrial services may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to pretrial services in accordance with his or her ability to pay those costs;

(14.4) For persons charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, refrain from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to the rules promulgated by the Secretary of State for the installation of ignition interlock devices. Under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment;

(15) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(16) Under Section 110-6.5 comply with the conditions of the drug testing program; and

(17) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961", involving a victim who is a minor under 18 years of age living in the same household with the defendant at the time of the offense, in granting bail or releasing the defendant on his own recognizance, the judge shall impose conditions to restrict the defendant's access to the victim which may include, but are not limited to conditions that he will:

1. Vacate the Household.

2. Make payment of temporary support to his dependents.

3. Refrain from contact or communication with the child victim, except as ordered by the court.

(d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A, conditions shall be imposed at the time of the defendant's release on bond that restrict the defendant's access to the victim. Unless provided otherwise by the court, the restrictions shall include requirements that the defendant do the following:

(1) refrain from contact or communication with the victim for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release; and

(2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's residence for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release.

(e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop standardized bond forms for use in cases involving family or household members as defined in Article 112A, including specific conditions of bond as provided in subsection (d). Failure of any law enforcement department to develop or use those forms shall in no way limit the applicability and enforcement of subsections (d) and (f).

(f) If the defendant is admitted to bail after conviction the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he will, in addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b) hereof:

(1) Duly prosecute his appeal;

(2) Appear at such time and place as the court may direct;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose; and

(5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed and remanded for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the officer from whose custody he was bailed.

(g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the defendant shall physically surrender, at a time and place designated by the court, any and all firearms in his or her possession and his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of remaining on bond pending sentencing.

(Source: P.A. 96-340, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-401, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-8)

Sec. 111-8. Orders of protection to prohibit domestic violence.

(a) Whenever a violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 9-3, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.3 that involves soliciting for a prostitute, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-20a, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.5, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-5, 12-6, 12-6.3, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, or 21-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Section 1-1 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act is alleged in an information, complaint or indictment on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, as now or hereafter amended, the People through the respective State's Attorneys may by separate petition and upon notice to the defendant, except as provided in subsection (c) herein, request the court to issue an order of protection.

(b) In addition to any other remedies specified in Section 208 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, as now or hereafter amended, the order may direct the defendant to initiate no contact with the alleged victim or victims who are family or household members and to refrain from entering the residence, school or place of business of the alleged victim or victims.

(c) The court may grant emergency relief without notice upon a showing of immediate and present danger of abuse to the victim or minor children of the victim and may enter a temporary order pending notice and full hearing on the matter.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-7.3)

Sec. 115-7.3. Evidence in certain cases.

(a) This Section applies to criminal cases in which:

(1) the defendant is accused of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, criminal sexual abuse, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or criminal transmission of HIV;

(2) the defendant is accused of battery, aggravated battery, first degree murder, or second degree murder when the commission of the offense involves sexual penetration or sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(3) the defendant is tried or retried for any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child.

(b) If the defendant is accused of an offense set forth in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) or the defendant is tried or retried for any of the offenses set forth in paragraph (3) of subsection (a), evidence of the defendant's commission of another offense or offenses set forth in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a), or evidence to rebut that proof or an inference from that proof, may be admissible (if that evidence is otherwise admissible under the rules of evidence) and may be considered for its bearing on any matter to which it is relevant.

(c) In weighing the probative value of the evidence against undue prejudice to the defendant, the court may consider:

(1) the proximity in time to the charged or predicate offense;

(2) the degree of factual similarity to the charged or predicate offense; or

(3) other relevant facts and circumstances.

(d) In a criminal case in which the prosecution intends to offer evidence under this Section, it must disclose the evidence, including statements of witnesses or a summary of the substance of any testimony, at a reasonable time in advance of trial, or during trial if the court excuses pretrial notice on good cause shown.

(e) In a criminal case in which evidence is offered under this Section, proof may be made by specific instances of conduct, testimony as to reputation, or testimony in the form of an expert opinion, except that the prosecution may offer reputation testimony only after the opposing party has offered that testimony.

(f) In prosecutions for a violation of Section 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-3.05, 12-4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, or 18-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, involving the involuntary delivery of a controlled substance to a victim, no inference may be made about the fact that a victim did not consent to a test for the presence of controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 95-892, eff. 1-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 10-12-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10.3)

Sec. 115-10.3. Hearsay exception regarding elder adults.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical act, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation perpetrated upon or against an eligible adult, as defined in the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, who has been diagnosed by a physician to suffer from (i) any form of dementia, developmental disability, or other form of mental incapacity or (ii) any physical infirmity, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-5, 12-6, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-11.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-15, 12-16, 12-21, 16-1, 16-1.3, 17-1, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 20-1.1, 24-1.2, and 33A-2, or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by an eligible adult, of an out of court statement made by the eligible adult, that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the eligible adult, describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a physical act, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation perpetrated upon or against the eligible adult.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The eligible adult either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the condition of the eligible adult, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his or her intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-145, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-65. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-1-2, 3-3-7, 5-3-2, 5-4-3, 5-5-3, 5-5-3.2, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-8-1, 5-8-4, and 5-9-1.7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-1-2)

Sec. 3-1-2. Definitions.

(a) "Chief Administrative Officer" means the person designated by the Director to exercise the powers and duties of the Department of Corrections in regard to committed persons within a correctional institution or facility, and includes the superintendent of any juvenile institution or facility.

(a-5) "Sex offense" for the purposes of paragraph (16) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7, paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 5-6-3, and paragraph (18) of subsection (c) of Section 5-6-3.1 only means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 or subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5).

An offense violating federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5) shall constitute a sex offense for the purpose of this subsection (a-5). A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for a sex offense for the purposes of this subsection (a-5).

(b) "Commitment" means a judicially determined placement in the custody of the Department of Corrections on the basis of delinquency or conviction.

(c) "Committed Person" is a person committed to the Department, however a committed person shall not be considered to be an employee of the Department of Corrections for any purpose, including eligibility for a pension, benefits, or any other compensation or rights or privileges which may be provided to employees of the Department.

(c-5) "Computer scrub software" means any third-party added software, designed to delete information from the computer unit, the hard drive, or other software, which would eliminate and prevent discovery of browser activity, including but not limited to Internet history, address bar or bars, cache or caches, and/or cookies, and which would over-write files in a way so as to make previous computer activity, including but not limited to website access, more difficult to discover.

(d) "Correctional Institution or Facility" means any building or part of a building where committed persons are kept in a secured manner.

(e) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" means the Department of Corrections of this State. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" means the Director of the Department of Corrections. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f-5) In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, references to "Department" or "Director" refer to either the Department of Corrections or the Director of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice unless the context is specific to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice.

(g) "Discharge" means the final termination of a commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(h) "Discipline" means the rules and regulations for the maintenance of order and the protection of persons and property within the institutions and facilities of the Department and their enforcement.

(i) "Escape" means the intentional and unauthorized absence of a committed person from the custody of the Department.

(j) "Furlough" means an authorized leave of absence from the Department of Corrections for a designated purpose and period of time.

(k) "Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a committed person under the supervision of a parole officer.

(l) "Prisoner Review Board" means the Board established in Section 3-3-1(a), independent of the Department, to review rules and regulations with respect to good time credits, to hear charges brought by the Department against certain prisoners alleged to have violated Department rules with respect to good time credits, to set release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1977, to hear requests and make recommendations to the Governor with respect to pardon, reprieve or commutation, to set conditions for parole and mandatory supervised release and determine whether violations of those conditions justify revocation of parole or release, and to assume all other functions previously exercised by the Illinois Parole and Pardon Board.

(m) Whenever medical treatment, service, counseling, or care is referred to in this Unified Code of Corrections, such term may be construed by the Department or Court, within its discretion, to include treatment, service or counseling by a Christian Science practitioner or nursing care appropriate therewith whenever request therefor is made by a person subject to the provisions of this Act.

(n) "Victim" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(o) "Wrongfully imprisoned person" means a person who has been discharged from a prison of this State and has received:

(1) a pardon from the Governor stating that such pardon is issued on the ground of innocence of the crime for which he or she was imprisoned; or

(2) a certificate of innocence from the Circuit Court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1550, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code; and

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act; and .

(19) (18) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-236, eff. 8-11-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1539, eff. 3-4-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-3-2)

Sec. 5-3-2. Presentence Report.

(a) In felony cases, the presentence report shall set forth:

(1) the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality, physical and mental history and condition, family situation and background, economic status, education, occupation and personal habits;

(2) information about special resources within the community which might be available to assist the defendant's rehabilitation, including treatment centers, residential facilities, vocational training services, correctional manpower programs, employment opportunities, special educational programs, alcohol and drug abuse programming, psychiatric and marriage counseling, and other programs and facilities which could aid the defendant's successful reintegration into society;

(3) the effect the offense committed has had upon the victim or victims thereof, and any compensatory benefit that various sentencing alternatives would confer on such victim or victims;

(4) information concerning the defendant's status since arrest, including his record if released on his own recognizance, or the defendant's achievement record if released on a conditional pre-trial supervision program;

(5) when appropriate, a plan, based upon the personal, economic and social adjustment needs of the defendant, utilizing public and private community resources as an alternative to institutional sentencing;

(6) any other matters that the investigatory officer deems relevant or the court directs to be included; and

(7) information concerning defendant's eligibility for a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Section 5-8-1.2 of this Code.

(b) The investigation shall include a physical and mental examination of the defendant when so ordered by the court. If the court determines that such an examination should be made, it shall issue an order that the defendant submit to examination at such time and place as designated by the court and that such examination be conducted by a physician, psychologist or psychiatrist designated by the court. Such an examination may be conducted in a court clinic if so ordered by the court. The cost of such examination shall be paid by the county in which the trial is held.

(b-5) In cases involving felony sex offenses in which the offender is being considered for probation only or any felony offense that is sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act in which the offender is being considered for probation only, the investigation shall include a sex offender evaluation by an evaluator approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act. In cases in which the offender is being considered for any mandatory prison sentence, the investigation shall not include a sex offender evaluation.

(c) In misdemeanor, business offense or petty offense cases, except as specified in subsection (d) of this Section, when a presentence report has been ordered by the court, such presentence report shall contain information on the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality and shall further contain only those matters listed in any of paragraphs (1) through (6) of subsection (a) or in subsection (b) of this Section as are specified by the court in its order for the report.

(d) In cases under Sections 11-1.50, 12-15, and 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as amended, the presentence report shall set forth information about alcohol, drug abuse, psychiatric, and marriage counseling or other treatment programs and facilities, information on the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality, and shall contain those additional matters listed in any of paragraphs (1) through (6) of subsection (a) or in subsection (b) of this Section as are specified by the court.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall cause the defendant to be held without bail or to have his bail revoked for the purpose of preparing the presentence report or making an examination.

(Source: P.A. 96-322, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, convicted or found guilty of any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, convicted or found guilty of, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense; or

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(a-1) Any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice on or after August 22, 2002, whether for a term of years, natural life, or a sentence of death, who has not yet submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. A person incarcerated on or after August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) shall be required to submit a specimen within 45 days of incarceration, or prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Section, by the Illinois State Police.

(a-2) Any person sentenced to life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or sentenced to death after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police. Any person serving a sentence of life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any person who is under a sentence of death on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue upon request at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3) Any person seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of this Code, the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after transfer to or residency in Illinois at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.1) Any person required by an order of the court to submit a DNA specimen shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after the court order at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.2) On or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, any person arrested for any of the following offenses, after an indictment has been returned by a grand jury, or following a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and a judge finds there is probable cause to believe the arrestee has committed one of the designated offenses, or an arrestee has waived a preliminary hearing shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 14 days after such indictment or hearing at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police:

(A) first degree murder;

(B) home invasion;

(C) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(D) aggravated criminal sexual assault; or

(E) criminal sexual assault.

(a-3.3) Any person required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, regardless of the date of conviction as set forth in subsection (c-5.2) shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within the time period prescribed in subsection (c-5.2) at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such specimens prior to final discharge or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Act, by the Illinois State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a-3) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-5.2) Unless it is determined that a registered sex offender has previously submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue that has been placed into the State DNA database, a person registering as a sex offender shall be required to submit a specimen at the time of his or her initial registration pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act or, for a person registered as a sex offender on or prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, within one year of January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) this amendatory Act or at the time of his or her next required registration.

(c-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis. The Illinois Department of State Police may require the submission of fingerprints from anyone required to give a specimen under this Act.

(d) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood specimens. The collection of specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva specimens. The collection of saliva specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue specimens. The collection of tissue specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois Department of State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois Department of State Police and the Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, (v) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (vi) identifying and assisting in the prosecution of a person who is suspected of committing a sexual assault as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois Department of State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed. For specimens required to be collected prior to conviction, unless the individual has other charges or convictions that require submission of a specimen, the DNA record for an individual shall be expunged from the DNA identification databases and the specimen destroyed upon receipt of a certified copy of a final court order for each charge against an individual in which the charge has been dismissed, resulted in acquittal, or that the charge was not filed within the applicable time period. The Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens in the possession or control of the Department are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA specimen, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois Department of State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 19-1, or 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois Department of State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois Department of State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue specimens and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i) (1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class 4 felony.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA specimen is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA specimen for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA specimen required under this Act.

(j) Any person required by subsection (a), or any person who was previously required by subsection (a-3.2), to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police for analysis and categorization into genetic marker grouping, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, shall pay an analysis fee of $250. If the analysis fee is not paid at the time of sentencing, the court shall establish a fee schedule by which the entire amount of the analysis fee shall be paid in full, such schedule not to exceed 24 months from the time of conviction. The inability to pay this analysis fee shall not be the sole ground to incarcerate the person.

(k) All analysis and categorization fees provided for by subsection (j) shall be regulated as follows:

(1) The State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(2) All fees shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund for deposit. The clerk of the circuit court may retain the amount of $10 from each collected analysis fee to offset administrative costs incurred in carrying out the clerk's responsibilities under this Section.

(3) Fees deposited into the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police or persons designated by the Department to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(n) Neither the Department of State Police, the Division of Forensic Services, nor any laboratory of the Division of Forensic Services may contract out forensic testing for the purpose of an active investigation or a matter pending before a court of competent jurisdiction without the written consent of the prosecuting agency. For the purposes of this subsection (n), "forensic testing" includes the analysis of physical evidence in an investigation or other proceeding for the prosecution of a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or for matters adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and includes the use of forensic databases and databanks, including DNA, firearm, and fingerprint databases, and expert testimony.

(o) Mistake does not invalidate a database match. The detention, arrest, or conviction of a person based upon a database match or database information is not invalidated if it is determined that the specimen was obtained or placed in the database by mistake.

(p) This Section may be referred to as the Illinois DNA Database Law of 2011.

(Source: P.A. 96-426, eff. 8-13-09; 96-642, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-383, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1), (c)(1.5), or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing heroin, cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Q) A violation of Section 20-1.2 or 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional good conduct credit for meritorious service as provided under Section 3-6-6.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09; 96-400, eff. 8-13-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-159, eff. 7-21-11; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context; or

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24.6-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1228, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1390, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses; and

(12) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the probation and court services fund.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-695, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 are present, the court may sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment when the death penalty is not imposed if the defendant,

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 17 or more and is found guilty of murdering an individual under 12 years of age; or, irrespective of the defendant's age at the time of the commission of the offense, is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had not attained the age of 17, and is found guilty of murdering a person under 12 years of age and the murder is committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d) (i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 3 years;

(2) for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 2 years;

(3) for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 1 year;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-282, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1475, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-4)

Sec. 5-8-4. Concurrent and consecutive terms of imprisonment.

(a) Concurrent terms; multiple or additional sentences. When an Illinois court (i) imposes multiple sentences of imprisonment on a defendant at the same time or (ii) imposes a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant who is already subject to a sentence of imprisonment imposed by an Illinois court, a court of another state, or a federal court, then the sentences shall run concurrently unless otherwise determined by the Illinois court under this Section.

(b) Concurrent terms; misdemeanor and felony. A defendant serving a sentence for a misdemeanor who is convicted of a felony and sentenced to imprisonment shall be transferred to the Department of Corrections, and the misdemeanor sentence shall be merged in and run concurrently with the felony sentence.

(c) Consecutive terms; permissive. The court may impose consecutive sentences in any of the following circumstances:

(1) If, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the offense and the history and character of the defendant, it is the opinion of the court that consecutive sentences are required to protect the public from further criminal conduct by the defendant, the basis for which the court shall set forth in the record.

(2) If one of the offenses for which a defendant was convicted was a violation of Section 32-5.2 (aggravated false personation of a peace officer) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/32-5.2) or a violation of subdivision (b)(5) or (b)(6) of Section 17-2 of that Code (720 ILCS 5/17-2) and the offense was committed in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(d) Consecutive terms; mandatory. The court shall impose consecutive sentences in each of the following circumstances:

(1) One of the offenses for which the defendant was convicted was first degree murder or a Class X or Class 1 felony and the defendant inflicted severe bodily injury.

(2) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), or 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/11-20.1, 5/11-20.1B, 5/11-20.3, 5/11-1.20, 5/12-13, 5/11-1.30, 5/12-14, 5/11-1.40, or 5/12-14.1).

(3) The defendant was convicted of armed violence based upon the predicate offense of any of the following: solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, a violation of subsection (g) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act (720 ILCS 550/5), cannabis trafficking, a violation of subsection (a) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), controlled substance trafficking involving a Class X felony amount of controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/), calculated criminal drug conspiracy, or streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(4) The defendant was convicted of the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving death or personal injuries under Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-401) and either: (A) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-501), (B) reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/9-3), or (C) both an offense described in item (A) and an offense described in item (B).

(5) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 9-3.1 (concealment of homicidal death) or Section 12-20.5 (dismembering a human body) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/9-3.1 or 5/12-20.5).

(5.5) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 24-3.7 (use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense) of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(6) If the defendant was in the custody of the Department of Corrections at the time of the commission of the offense, the sentence shall be served consecutive to the sentence under which the defendant is held by the Department of Corrections. If, however, the defendant is sentenced to punishment by death, the sentence shall be executed at such time as the court may fix without regard to the sentence under which the defendant may be held by the Department.

(7) A sentence under Section 3-6-4 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-4) for escape or attempted escape shall be served consecutive to the terms under which the offender is held by the Department of Corrections.

(8) If a person charged with a felony commits a separate felony while on pretrial release or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility or county detention facility, then the sentences imposed upon conviction of these felonies shall be served consecutively regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(8.5) If a person commits a battery against a county correctional officer or sheriff's employee while serving a sentence or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility, then the sentence imposed upon conviction of the battery shall be served consecutively with the sentence imposed upon conviction of the earlier misdemeanor or felony, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(9) If a person admitted to bail following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while free on bond or if a person detained in a county jail facility or county detention facility following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while in detention, then any sentence following conviction of the separate felony shall be consecutive to that of the original sentence for which the defendant was on bond or detained.

(10) If a person is found to be in possession of an item of contraband, as defined in clause (c)(2) of Section 31A-1.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, while serving a sentence in a county jail or while in pre-trial detention in a county jail, the sentence imposed upon conviction for the offense of possessing contraband in a penal institution shall be served consecutively to the sentence imposed for the offense in which the person is serving sentence in the county jail or serving pretrial detention, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(11) If a person is sentenced for a violation of bail bond under Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961, any sentence imposed for that violation shall be served consecutive to the sentence imposed for the charge for which bail had been granted and with respect to which the defendant has been convicted.

(e) Consecutive terms; subsequent non-Illinois term. If an Illinois court has imposed a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant and the defendant is subsequently sentenced to a term of imprisonment by a court of another state or a federal court, then the Illinois sentence shall run consecutively to the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court. That same Illinois court, however, may order that the Illinois sentence run concurrently with the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court, but only if the defendant applies to that same Illinois court within 30 days after the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court is finalized.

(f) Consecutive terms; aggregate maximums and minimums. The aggregate maximum and aggregate minimum of consecutive sentences shall be determined as follows:

(1) For sentences imposed under law in effect prior to February 1, 1978, the aggregate maximum of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the maximum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. The aggregate minimum period of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the highest minimum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(2) For sentences imposed under the law in effect on or after February 1, 1978, the aggregate of consecutive sentences for offenses that were committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective shall not exceed the sum of the maximum terms authorized under Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved, but no such limitation shall apply for offenses that were not committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Consecutive terms; manner served. In determining the manner in which consecutive sentences of imprisonment, one or more of which is for a felony, will be served, the Department of Corrections shall treat the defendant as though he or she had been committed for a single term subject to each of the following:

(1) The maximum period of a term of imprisonment shall consist of the aggregate of the maximums of the imposed indeterminate terms, if any, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for felonies, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for misdemeanors, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(2) The parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be as provided in paragraph (e) of Section 5-4.5-50 (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-50) for the most serious of the offenses involved.

(3) The minimum period of imprisonment shall be the aggregate of the minimum and determinate periods of imprisonment imposed by the court, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(4) The defendant shall be awarded credit against the aggregate maximum term and the aggregate minimum term of imprisonment for all time served in an institution since the commission of the offense or offenses and as a consequence thereof at the rate specified in Section 3-6-3 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-3).

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-475, eff. 8-22-11; revised 9-14-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.7)

Sec. 5-9-1.7. Sexual assault fines.

(a) Definitions. The terms used in this Section shall have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Sexual assault" means the commission or attempted commission of the following: sexual exploitation of a child, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, indecent solicitation of a child, public indecency, sexual relations within families, promoting juvenile prostitution, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, patronizing a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, obscenity, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, harmful material, or ritualized abuse of a child, as those offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961.

(2) "Family member" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-0.1 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(3) "Sexual assault organization" means any not-for-profit organization providing comprehensive, community-based services to victims of sexual assault. "Community-based services" include, but are not limited to, direct crisis intervention through a 24-hour response, medical and legal advocacy, counseling, information and referral services, training, and community education.

(b) Sexual assault fine; collection by clerk.

(1) In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $200 shall be imposed upon any person who pleads guilty or who is convicted of, or who receives a disposition of court supervision for, a sexual assault or attempt of a sexual assault. Upon request of the victim or the victim's representative, the court shall determine whether the fine will impose an undue burden on the victim of the offense. For purposes of this paragraph, the defendant may not be considered the victim's representative. If the court finds that the fine would impose an undue burden on the victim, the court may reduce or waive the fine. The court shall order that the defendant may not use funds belonging solely to the victim of the offense for payment of the fine.

(2) Sexual assault fines shall be assessed by the court imposing the sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. The circuit clerk shall retain 10% of the penalty to cover the costs involved in administering and enforcing this Section. The circuit clerk shall remit the remainder of each fine within one month of its receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit as follows:

(i) for family member offenders, one-half to the Sexual Assault Services Fund, and one-half to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund; and

(ii) for other than family member offenders, the full amount to the Sexual Assault Services Fund.

(c) Sexual Assault Services Fund; administration. There is created a Sexual Assault Services Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund under this Section shall be appropriated to the Department of Public Health. Upon appropriation of moneys from the Sexual Assault Services Fund, the Department of Public Health shall make grants of these moneys from the Fund to sexual assault organizations with whom the Department has contracts for the purpose of providing community-based services to victims of sexual assault. Grants made under this Section are in addition to, and are not substitutes for, other grants authorized and made by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; revised 10-12-11.)

Section 15-70. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 3 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 222)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) As used in this Article, "sex offender" means any person who is:

(1) charged pursuant to Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with a sex offense set forth in subsection (B) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(a) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(b) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(c) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(d) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(e) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(f) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(2) certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(3) subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act; or

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(5) adjudicated a juvenile delinquent as the result of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, or found guilty under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Article as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Article.

For purposes of this Section, "convicted" shall have the same meaning as "adjudicated".

(B) As used in this Article, "sex offense" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

11-20.1 (child pornography),

11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography),

11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child),

11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child),

11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct),

11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability),

11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution),

11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute),

11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute),

11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

11-25 (grooming),

11-26 (traveling to meet a minor),

11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

11-1.50 or 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse),

11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(1.5) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age, the defendant is not a parent of the victim, the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

If the offense was committed before January 1, 1996, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.6) First degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) A violation or attempted violation of Section 11-11 (sexual relations within families) of the Criminal Code of 1961, and the offense was committed on or after June 1, 1997. If the offense was committed before June 1, 1997, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.9) Child abduction under paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. If the offense was committed before January 1, 1998, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.10) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the offense was committed on or after July 1, 1999:

10-4 (forcible detention, if the victim is under 18 years of age), provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act,

11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult),

11-14.3 that involves soliciting for a prostitute, or 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3, or Section 11-16 (pandering, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

11-18 (patronizing a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

subdivision (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, or Section 11-19 (pimping, if the victim is under 18 years of age).

If the offense was committed before July 1, 1999, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.11) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002:

11-9 or 11-30 (public indecency for a third or subsequent conviction).

If the third or subsequent conviction was imposed before August 22, 2002, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.12) A violation or attempted violation of Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 (permitting sexual abuse) when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002. If the offense was committed before August 22, 2002, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(2) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (B) of this Section.

(C) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsections (B), (C), (E), and (E-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person or a sexually violent person under any federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or foreign country that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Article.

(C-5) A person at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense who is convicted of first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, against a person under 18 years of age, shall be required to register for natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (C-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. This subsection (C-5) applies to a person who committed the offense before June 1, 1996 if: (i) the person is incarcerated in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility on August 20, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-977), or (ii) subparagraph (i) does not apply and the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(C-6) A person who is convicted or adjudicated delinquent of first degree murder as defined in Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, against a person 18 years of age or over, shall be required to register for his or her natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (C-6) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. This subsection (C-6) does not apply to those individuals released from incarceration more than 10 years prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-154) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(D) As used in this Article, "law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the sex offender expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(D-1) As used in this Article, "supervising officer" means the assigned Illinois Department of Corrections parole agent or county probation officer.

(E) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" means any person who, after July 1, 1999, is:

(1) Convicted for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (E) or (E-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. Convicted of a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

11-14.4 that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, or 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

11-20.1 (child pornography),

11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography),

11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child);

(2) (blank);

(3) certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(5) convicted of a second or subsequent offense which requires registration pursuant to this Act. For purposes of this paragraph (5), "convicted" shall include a conviction under any substantially similar Illinois, federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(6) convicted of a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor under Section 10-5.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(7) if the person was convicted of an offense set forth in this subsection (E) on or before July 1, 1999, the person is a sexual predator for whom registration is required only when the person is convicted of a felony offense after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(E-5) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" also means a person convicted of a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

(1) Section 9-1 (first degree murder, when the victim was a person under 18 years of age and the defendant was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act);

(2) Section 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability);

(3) when the victim is a person under 18 years of age, the defendant is not a parent of the victim, the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996: (A) Section 10-1 (kidnapping), (B) Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), (C) Section 10-3 (unlawful restraint), and (D) Section 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint); and

(4) Section 10-5(b)(10) (child abduction committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act).

(E-10) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" also means a person required to register in another State due to a conviction, adjudication or other action of any court triggering an obligation to register as a sex offender, sexual predator, or substantially similar status under the laws of that State.

(F) As used in this Article, "out-of-state student" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(G) As used in this Article, "out-of-state employee" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(H) As used in this Article, "school" means any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any elementary or secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher education.

(I) As used in this Article, "fixed residence" means any and all places that a sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 5 or more days in a calendar year.

(J) As used in this Article, "Internet protocol address" means the string of numbers by which a location on the Internet is identified by routers or other computers connected to the Internet.

(Source: P.A. 96-301, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1089, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-27-11.)

(730 ILCS 150/3)

Sec. 3. Duty to register.

(a) A sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator shall, within the time period prescribed in subsections (b) and (c), register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information shall include a current photograph, current address, current place of employment, the sex offender's or sexual predator's telephone number, including cellular telephone number, the employer's telephone number, school attended, all e-mail addresses, instant messaging identities, chat room identities, and other Internet communications identities that the sex offender uses or plans to use, all Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sex offender, all blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sex offender or to which the sex offender has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information, extensions of the time period for registering as provided in this Article and, if an extension was granted, the reason why the extension was granted and the date the sex offender was notified of the extension. The information shall also include a copy of the terms and conditions of parole or release signed by the sex offender and given to the sex offender by his or her supervising officer, the county of conviction, license plate numbers for every vehicle registered in the name of the sex offender, the age of the sex offender at the time of the commission of the offense, the age of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, and any distinguishing marks located on the body of the sex offender. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, the sex offender shall report to the registering agency whether he or she is living in a household with a child under 18 years of age who is not his or her own child, provided that his or her own child is not the victim of the sex offense. The sex offender or sexual predator shall register:

(1) with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(2) with the sheriff in the county in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists.

If the sex offender or sexual predator is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, he or she shall also register:

(i) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she is employed or attends an institution of higher education located in an unincorporated area, or if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(ii) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education which he or she is employed at or attends.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

For purposes of this Article, the place of residence or temporary domicile is defined as any and all places where the sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 3 or more days during any calendar year. Any person required to register under this Article who lacks a fixed address or temporary domicile must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 3 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence.

A sex offender or sexual predator who is temporarily absent from his or her current address of registration for 3 or more days shall notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of his or her current registration, including the itinerary for travel, in the manner provided in Section 6 of this Act for notification to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of change of address.

Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, with the sheriff's office of the county in which he or she is located in an unincorporated area, or with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is located. The agency of jurisdiction will document each weekly registration to include all the locations where the person has stayed during the past 7 days.

The sex offender or sexual predator shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the sex offender's or sexual predator's current place of employment.

(a-5) An out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall, within 3 days after beginning school or employment in this State, register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information will include current place of employment, school attended, and address in state of residence. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall register:

(1) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(2) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education he or she is employed at or attends for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during a calendar year.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the out-of-state student's current place of school attendance or the out-of-state employee's current place of employment.

(a-10) Any law enforcement agency registering sex offenders or sexual predators in accordance with subsections (a) or (a-5) of this Section shall forward to the Attorney General a copy of sex offender registration forms from persons convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, including periodic and annual registrations under Section 6 of this Act.

(b) Any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator, regardless of any initial, prior, or other registration, shall, within 3 days of beginning school, or establishing a residence, place of employment, or temporary domicile in any county, register in person as set forth in subsection (a) or (a-5).

(c) The registration for any person required to register under this Article shall be as follows:

(1) Any person registered under the Habitual Child Sex Offender Registration Act or the Child Sex Offender Registration Act prior to January 1, 1996, shall be deemed initially registered as of January 1, 1996; however, this shall not be construed to extend the duration of registration set forth in Section 7.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1) or (c)(4), any person convicted or adjudicated prior to January 1, 1996, whose liability for registration under Section 7 has not expired, shall register in person prior to January 31, 1996.

(2.1) A sex offender or sexual predator, who has never previously been required to register under this Act, has a duty to register if the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011. A person who previously was required to register under this Act for a period of 10 years and successfully completed that registration period has a duty to register if: (i) the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011, and (ii) the offense for which the 10 year registration was served currently requires a registration period of more than 10 years. Notification of an offender's duty to register under this subsection shall be pursuant to Section 5-7 of this Act.

(2.5) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person who has not been notified of his or her responsibility to register shall be notified by a criminal justice entity of his or her responsibility to register. Upon notification the person must then register within 3 days of notification of his or her requirement to register. Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1), if notification is not made within the offender's 10 year registration requirement, and the Department of State Police determines no evidence exists or indicates the offender attempted to avoid registration, the offender will no longer be required to register under this Act.

(3) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person convicted on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days after the entry of the sentencing order based upon his or her conviction.

(4) Any person unable to comply with the registration requirements of this Article because he or she is confined, institutionalized, or imprisoned in Illinois on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days of discharge, parole or release.

(5) The person shall provide positive identification and documentation that substantiates proof of residence at the registering address.

(6) The person shall pay a $100 initial registration fee and a $100 annual renewal fee. The fees shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. The agency shall establish procedures to document receipt and use of the funds. The law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may waive the registration fee if it determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the registration fee. Thirty dollars for the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. Ten dollars of the initial registration fee and $10 of the annual fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund under Section 19 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. Money deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund shall be administered by the Sex Offender Management Board and shall be used to fund practices endorsed or required by the Sex Offender Management Board Act including but not limited to sex offenders evaluation, treatment, or monitoring programs that are or may be developed, as well as for administrative costs, including staff, incurred by the Board. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Registration Fund and shall be used by the Department of State Police to maintain and update the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Attorney General Sex Offender Awareness, Training, and Education Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used by the Attorney General to administer the I-SORT program and to alert and educate the public, victims, and witnesses of their rights under various victim notification laws and for training law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, and medical providers of their legal duties concerning the prosecution and investigation of sex offenses.

(d) Within 3 days after obtaining or changing employment and, if employed on January 1, 2000, within 5 days after that date, a person required to register under this Section must report, in person to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, the business name and address where he or she is employed. If the person has multiple businesses or work locations, every business and work location must be reported to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1096, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1097, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1102, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1104, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-155, eff 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 15-75. The Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 45-30 as follows:

(730 ILCS 175/45-30)

Sec. 45-30. License or employment eligibility.

(a) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a licensed facility who refuses to authorize an investigation as required by Section 45-25.

(b) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a secure residential youth care facility licensed by the Department who has been declared a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961:

(1) First degree murder.

(2) A sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-18, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45.

(3) Kidnapping.

(4) Aggravated kidnapping.

(5) Child abduction.

(6) Aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05.

(7) Criminal sexual assault.

(8) Aggravated criminal sexual assault.

(8.1) Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.

(9) Criminal sexual abuse.

(10) Aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

(11) A federal offense or an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar to any of the foregoing offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 975, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1080, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-80. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/2) (from Ch. 70, par. 72)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Applicant" means any person who applies for compensation under this Act or any person the Court of Claims finds is entitled to compensation, including the guardian of a minor or of a person under legal disability. It includes any person who was a dependent of a deceased victim of a crime of violence for his or her support at the time of the death of that victim.

(b) "Court of Claims" means the Court of Claims created by the Court of Claims Act.

(c) "Crime of violence" means and includes any offense defined in Sections 9-1, 9-2, 9-3, 10-1, 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.4, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-5, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-20.5, 12-30, 20-1 or 20-1.1, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1),, or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961, Sections 1(a) and 1(a-5) of the Cemetery Protection Act, driving under the influence of intoxicating liquor or narcotic drugs as defined in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and a violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided the victim was a pedestrian or was operating a vehicle moved solely by human power or a mobility device at the time of contact; so long as the offense did not occur during a civil riot, insurrection or rebellion. "Crime of violence" does not include any other offense or accident involving a motor vehicle except those vehicle offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph. "Crime of violence" does include all of the offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph that occur within this State but are subject to federal jurisdiction and crimes involving terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. 2331.

(d) "Victim" means (1) a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against him or her, (2) the parent of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against the person, (3) a person killed or injured in this State while attempting to assist a person against whom a crime of violence is being perpetrated or attempted, if that attempt of assistance would be expected of a reasonable person under the circumstances, (4) a person killed or injured in this State while assisting a law enforcement official apprehend a person who has perpetrated a crime of violence or prevent the perpetration of any such crime if that assistance was in response to the express request of the law enforcement official, (5) a person who personally witnessed a violent crime, (5.1) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any other person under the age of 18 who is the brother, sister, half brother, half sister, child, or stepchild of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence, (6) an Illinois resident who is a victim of a "crime of violence" as defined in this Act except, if the crime occurred outside this State, the resident has the same rights under this Act as if the crime had occurred in this State upon a showing that the state, territory, country, or political subdivision of a country in which the crime occurred does not have a compensation of victims of crimes law for which that Illinois resident is eligible, (7) a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence, or (8) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any parent, spouse, or child under the age of 18 of a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence.

(e) "Dependent" means a relative of a deceased victim who was wholly or partially dependent upon the victim's income at the time of his or her death and shall include the child of a victim born after his or her death.

(f) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child, grandchild, brother, brother-in-law, sister, sister-in-law, half brother, half sister, spouse's parent, nephew, niece, uncle or aunt.

(g) "Child" means an unmarried son or daughter who is under 18 years of age and includes a stepchild, an adopted child or a child born out of wedlock.

(h) "Pecuniary loss" means, in the case of injury, appropriate medical expenses and hospital expenses including expenses of medical examinations, rehabilitation, medically required nursing care expenses, appropriate psychiatric care or psychiatric counseling expenses, expenses for care or counseling by a licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical professional counselor and expenses for treatment by Christian Science practitioners and nursing care appropriate thereto; transportation expenses to and from medical and treatment facilities; prosthetic appliances, eyeglasses, and hearing aids necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; replacement costs for clothing and bedding used as evidence; costs associated with temporary lodging or relocation necessary as a result of the crime, including, but not limited to, the first month's rent and security deposit of the dwelling that the claimant relocated to and other reasonable relocation expenses incurred as a result of the violent crime; locks or windows necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; the purchase, lease, or rental of equipment necessary to create usability of and accessibility to the victim's real and personal property, or the real and personal property which is used by the victim, necessary as a result of the crime; the costs of appropriate crime scene clean-up; replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1000 per month; dependents replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1000 per month; loss of tuition paid to attend grammar school or high school when the victim had been enrolled as a student prior to the injury, or college or graduate school when the victim had been enrolled as a day or night student prior to the injury when the victim becomes unable to continue attendance at school as a result of the crime of violence perpetrated against him or her; loss of earnings, loss of future earnings because of disability resulting from the injury, and, in addition, in the case of death, expenses for funeral, burial, and travel and transport for survivors of homicide victims to secure bodies of deceased victims and to transport bodies for burial all of which may not exceed a maximum of $5,000 and loss of support of the dependents of the victim; in the case of dismemberment or desecration of a body, expenses for funeral and burial, all of which may not exceed a maximum of $5,000. Loss of future earnings shall be reduced by any income from substitute work actually performed by the victim or by income he or she would have earned in available appropriate substitute work he or she was capable of performing but unreasonably failed to undertake. Loss of earnings, loss of future earnings and loss of support shall be determined on the basis of the victim's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $1000 per month, whichever is less. If a divorced or legally separated applicant is claiming loss of support for a minor child of the deceased, the amount of support for each child shall be based either on the amount of support pursuant to the judgment prior to the date of the deceased victim's injury or death, or, if the subject of pending litigation filed by or on behalf of the divorced or legally separated applicant prior to the injury or death, on the result of that litigation. Real and personal property includes, but is not limited to, vehicles, houses, apartments, town houses, or condominiums. Pecuniary loss does not include pain and suffering or property loss or damage.

(i) "Replacement services loss" means expenses reasonably incurred in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the injured person would have performed, not for income, but for the benefit of himself or herself or his or her family, if he or she had not been injured.

(j) "Dependents replacement services loss" means loss reasonably incurred by dependents or private legal guardians of minor dependents after a victim's death in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the victim would have performed, not for income, but for their benefit, if he or she had not been fatally injured.

(k) "Survivor" means immediate family including a parent, step-father, step-mother, child, brother, sister, or spouse.

(Source: P.A. 96-267, eff. 8-11-09; 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 980, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1090, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

Section 15-85. The Predator Accountability Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(740 ILCS 128/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Sex trade" means any act, which if proven beyond a reasonable doubt could support a conviction for a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution); 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution); 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute); 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute); 11-16 (pandering); 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution); 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution); 11-19 (pimping); 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping); 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child); 11-20 (obscenity); 11-20.1 (child pornography); or 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography); or Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (trafficking of persons and involuntary servitude).

"Sex trade" activity may involve adults and youth of all genders and sexual orientations.

"Victim of the sex trade" means, for the following sex trade acts, the person or persons indicated:

(1) soliciting for a prostitute: the prostitute who is the object of the solicitation;

(2) soliciting for a juvenile prostitute: the juvenile prostitute, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who is the object of the solicitation;

(3) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or pandering: the person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute;

(4) keeping a place of prostitution: any person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(5) keeping a place of juvenile prostitution: any juvenile intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(6) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or pimping: the prostitute from whom anything of value is received;

(7) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping: the juvenile, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(8) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or exploitation of a child: the juvenile, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, intended or compelled to act as a prostitute or from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(9) obscenity: any person who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material;

(10) child pornography or aggravated child pornography: any child, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material; or

(11) trafficking of persons or involuntary servitude: a "trafficking victim" as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 15-90. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 503 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/503) (from Ch. 40, par. 503)

Sec. 503. Disposition of property.

(a) For purposes of this Act, "marital property" means all property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage, except the following, which is known as "non-marital property":

(1) property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(2) property acquired in exchange for property acquired before the marriage or in exchange for property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(3) property acquired by a spouse after a judgment of legal separation;

(4) property excluded by valid agreement of the parties;

(5) any judgment or property obtained by judgment awarded to a spouse from the other spouse;

(6) property acquired before the marriage;

(7) the increase in value of property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection, irrespective of whether the increase results from a contribution of marital property, non-marital property, the personal effort of a spouse, or otherwise, subject to the right of reimbursement provided in subsection (c) of this Section; and

(8) income from property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection if the income is not attributable to the personal effort of a spouse.

(b)(1) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all property acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, including non-marital property transferred into some form of co-ownership between the spouses, is presumed to be marital property, regardless of whether title is held individually or by the spouses in some form of co-ownership such as joint tenancy, tenancy in common, tenancy by the entirety, or community property. The presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the property was acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all pension benefits (including pension benefits under the Illinois Pension Code) acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of the marriage are presumed to be marital property, regardless of which spouse participates in the pension plan. The presumption that these pension benefits are marital property is overcome by a showing that the pension benefits were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The right to a division of pension benefits in just proportions under this Section is enforceable under Section 1-119 of the Illinois Pension Code.

The value of pension benefits in a retirement system subject to the Illinois Pension Code shall be determined in accordance with the valuation procedures established by the retirement system.

The recognition of pension benefits as marital property and the division of those benefits pursuant to a Qualified Illinois Domestic Relations Order shall not be deemed to be a diminishment, alienation, or impairment of those benefits. The division of pension benefits is an allocation of property in which each spouse has a species of common ownership.

(3) For purposes of distribution of property under this Section, all stock options granted to either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, whether vested or non-vested or whether their value is ascertainable, are presumed to be marital property. This presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the stock options were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The court shall allocate stock options between the parties at the time of the judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage recognizing that the value of the stock options may not be then determinable and that the actual division of the options may not occur until a future date. In making the allocation between the parties, the court shall consider, in addition to the factors set forth in subsection (d) of this Section, the following:

(i) All circumstances underlying the grant of the stock option including but not limited to whether the grant was for past, present, or future efforts, or any combination thereof.

(ii) The length of time from the grant of the option to the time the option is exercisable.

(b-5) As to any policy of life insurance insuring the life of either spouse, or any interest in such policy, that constitutes marital property, whether whole life, term life, group term life, universal life, or other form of life insurance policy, and whether or not the value is ascertainable, the court shall allocate ownership, death benefits or the right to assign death benefits, and the obligation for premium payments, if any, equitably between the parties at the time of the judgment for dissolution or declaration of invalidity of marriage.

(c) Commingled marital and non-marital property shall be treated in the following manner, unless otherwise agreed by the spouses:

(1) When marital and non-marital property are commingled by contributing one estate of property into another resulting in a loss of identity of the contributed property, the classification of the contributed property is transmuted to the estate receiving the contribution, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection; provided that if marital and non-marital property are commingled into newly acquired property resulting in a loss of identity of the contributing estates, the commingled property shall be deemed transmuted to marital property, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(2) When one estate of property makes a contribution to another estate of property, or when a spouse contributes personal effort to non-marital property, the contributing estate shall be reimbursed from the estate receiving the contribution notwithstanding any transmutation; provided, that no such reimbursement shall be made with respect to a contribution which is not retraceable by clear and convincing evidence, or was a gift, or, in the case of a contribution of personal effort of a spouse to non-marital property, unless the effort is significant and results in substantial appreciation of the non-marital property. Personal effort of a spouse shall be deemed a contribution by the marital estate. The court may provide for reimbursement out of the marital property to be divided or by imposing a lien against the non-marital property which received the contribution.

(d) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court shall assign each spouse's non-marital property to that spouse. It also shall divide the marital property without regard to marital misconduct in just proportions considering all relevant factors, including:

(1) the contribution of each party to the acquisition, preservation, or increase or decrease in value of the marital or non-marital property, including (i) any such decrease attributable to a payment deemed to have been an advance from the parties' marital estate under subsection (c-1)(2) of Section 501 and (ii) the contribution of a spouse as a homemaker or to the family unit;

(2) the dissipation by each party of the marital or non-marital property;

(3) the value of the property assigned to each spouse;

(4) the duration of the marriage;

(5) the relevant economic circumstances of each spouse when the division of property is to become effective, including the desirability of awarding the family home, or the right to live therein for reasonable periods, to the spouse having custody of the children;

(6) any obligations and rights arising from a prior marriage of either party;

(7) any antenuptial agreement of the parties;

(8) the age, health, station, occupation, amount and sources of income, vocational skills, employability, estate, liabilities, and needs of each of the parties;

(9) the custodial provisions for any children;

(10) whether the apportionment is in lieu of or in addition to maintenance;

(11) the reasonable opportunity of each spouse for future acquisition of capital assets and income; and

(12) the tax consequences of the property division upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties.

(e) Each spouse has a species of common ownership in the marital property which vests at the time dissolution proceedings are commenced and continues only during the pendency of the action. Any such interest in marital property shall not encumber that property so as to restrict its transfer, assignment or conveyance by the title holder unless such title holder is specifically enjoined from making such transfer, assignment or conveyance.

(f) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court, in determining the value of the marital and non-marital property for purposes of dividing the property, shall value the property as of the date of trial or some other date as close to the date of trial as is practicable.

(g) The court if necessary to protect and promote the best interests of the children may set aside a portion of the jointly or separately held estates of the parties in a separate fund or trust for the support, maintenance, education, physical and mental health, and general welfare of any minor, dependent, or incompetent child of the parties. In making a determination under this subsection, the court may consider, among other things, the conviction of a party of any of the offenses set forth in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the victim is a child of one or both of the parties, and there is a need for, and cost of, care, healing and counseling for the child who is the victim of the crime.

(h) Unless specifically directed by a reviewing court, or upon good cause shown, the court shall not on remand consider any increase or decrease in the value of any "marital" or "non-marital" property occurring since the assessment of such property at the original trial or hearing, but shall use only that assessment made at the original trial or hearing.

(i) The court may make such judgments affecting the marital property as may be just and may enforce such judgments by ordering a sale of marital property, with proceeds therefrom to be applied as determined by the court.

(j) After proofs have closed in the final hearing on all other issues between the parties (or in conjunction with the final hearing, if all parties so stipulate) and before judgment is entered, a party's petition for contribution to fees and costs incurred in the proceeding shall be heard and decided, in accordance with the following provisions:

(1) A petition for contribution, if not filed before the final hearing on other issues between the parties, shall be filed no later than 30 days after the closing of proofs in the final hearing or within such other period as the court orders.

(2) Any award of contribution to one party from the other party shall be based on the criteria for division of marital property under this Section 503 and, if maintenance has been awarded, on the criteria for an award of maintenance under Section 504.

(3) The filing of a petition for contribution shall not be deemed to constitute a waiver of the attorney-client privilege between the petitioning party and current or former counsel; and such a waiver shall not constitute a prerequisite to a hearing for contribution. If either party's presentation on contribution, however, includes evidence within the scope of the attorney-client privilege, the disclosure or disclosures shall be narrowly construed and shall not be deemed by the court to constitute a general waiver of the privilege as to matters beyond the scope of the presentation.

(4) No finding on which a contribution award is based or denied shall be asserted against counsel or former counsel for purposes of any hearing under subsection (c) or (e) of Section 508.

(5) A contribution award (payable to either the petitioning party or the party's counsel, or jointly, as the court determines) may be in the form of either a set dollar amount or a percentage of fees and costs (or a portion of fees and costs) to be subsequently agreed upon by the petitioning party and counsel or, alternatively, thereafter determined in a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 508 or previously or thereafter determined in an independent proceeding under subsection (e) of Section 508.

(6) The changes to this Section 503 made by this amendatory Act of 1996 apply to cases pending on or after June 1, 1997, except as otherwise provided in Section 508.

(Source: P.A. 95-374, eff. 1-1-08; 96-583, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 985, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1100, eff. 7-1-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-26-11.)

Section 15-95. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)

Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to adoption under this Act.

B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the following relationships to the child by blood or marriage: parent, grand-parent, brother, sister, step-parent, step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt, great-uncle, great-aunt, or cousin of first degree. A child whose parent has executed a final irrevocable consent to adoption or a final irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following, except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:

(a) Abandonment of the child.

(a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

(a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to relinquish his or her parental rights.

(b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's welfare.

(c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.

(d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or repeated.

(d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated, of any child residing in the household which resulted in the death of that child.

(e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.

(f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a parent is unfit if:

(1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the matter to be supported by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) The parent has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or finding resulted from the death of any child by physical abuse; or

(3) There is a finding of physical child abuse resulting from the death of any child under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (f).

(g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within his environment injurious to the child's welfare.

(h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child; provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any previous finding, order or judgment affecting or determining the rights of the parents toward the child sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph 1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or conviction of second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (5) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (6) heinous battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any United States territory; and at least one of these convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of either first or second degree murder of any person as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental rights.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (i).

(j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness proceeding.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was not the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.

(m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent, or (ii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent within 9 months after an adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (iii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent during any 9-month period after the end of the initial 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent and if those services were available, then, for purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent" includes (I) the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care within 9 months after the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and (II) the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care during any 9-month period after the end of the initial 9-month period following the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of item (iii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be treated as incorporated into the petition or motion. Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an admission that the allegations are true.

(m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22 month period which begins on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more likely than not that it will be in the best interests of the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of the date on which a petition for termination of parental rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The 15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of: (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court, (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with the child or agency, although able to do so and not prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of the child or, after being so informed where the child is not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii) to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child, the court to consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both parents; provided that the ground for termination provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be available where the petition is brought by the mother or the husband of the mother.

Contact or communication by a parent with his or her child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does not constitute reasonable contact and planning under subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not preclude a determination that the parent has intended to forgo his or her parental rights. In making this determination, the court may consider but shall not require a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in subdivision (n).

It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to impediments created by the mother or any other person having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents, although physically and financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.

(p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist, licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental impairment.

(q) (Blank).

(r) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, prior to incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the child or provided little or no support for the child, and the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.

(s) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child.

(t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation program.

E. "Parent" means the father or mother of a lawful child of the parties or child born out of wedlock. For the purpose of this Act, a person who has executed a final and irrevocable consent to adoption or a final and irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parental rights have been terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the subject of the consent or surrender, unless the consent is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:

(a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter consented;

(b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of this Act;

(c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend to adopt him through placement made by his parents;

(c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;

(d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in Section 3 of this Act; or

(e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

A person who would otherwise be available for adoption shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason of his or her death.

G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the context of this Act may require.

H. "Adoption disruption" occurs when an adoptive placement does not prove successful and it becomes necessary for the child to be removed from placement before the adoption is finalized.

I. "Foreign placing agency" is an agency or individual operating in a country or territory outside the United States that is authorized by its country to place children for adoption either directly with families in the United States or through United States based international agencies.

J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the parents of the biological parents and siblings of the biological parents.

K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child from a country other than the United States is adopted.

L. "Intercountry Adoption Coordinator" is a staff person of the Department of Children and Family Services appointed by the Director to coordinate the provision of services by the public and private sector to prospective parents of foreign-born children.

M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a law enacted by most states for the purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care facilities.

N. "Non-Compact state" means a state that has not enacted the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.

O. "Preadoption requirements" are any conditions established by the laws or regulations of the Federal Government or of each state that must be met prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.

P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to the child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon the child; or

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.

Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate, delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by law.

R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child. The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age. "Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent consents to custody and termination of parental rights to become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.

T. (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-15-11.)

Section 15-100. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 2-6.2 and 2-6.6 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.2)

Sec. 2-6.2. Financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(a) In this Section:

"Abuse" means any offense described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961.

"Financial exploitation" means any offense described in Section 16-1.3 or 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

"Neglect" means any offense described in Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) Persons convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability shall not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of that elderly person or person with a disability, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, survivor, appointee, claimant under Section 18-1.1, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. The property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect died before the decedent, provided that with respect to joint tenancy property the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect shall not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this subsection (b) if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction and subsequent to the conviction expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability in any manner contemplated by this subsection (b).

(c) (1) The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section shall not be liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability if the distribution or release occurs prior to the conviction.

(2) If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted after first having received actual written notice of the conviction in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

(d) If the holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section knows that a potential beneficiary has been convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability within the scope of this Section, the holder shall fully cooperate with law enforcement authorities and judicial officers in connection with any investigation of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect. If the holder is a person or entity that is subject to regulation by a regulatory agency pursuant to the laws of this or any other state or pursuant to the laws of the United States, including but not limited to the business of a financial institution, corporate fiduciary, or insurance company, then such person or entity shall not be deemed to be in violation of this Section to the extent that privacy laws and regulations applicable to such person or entity prevent it from voluntarily providing law enforcement authorities or judicial officers with information.

(Source: P.A. 95-315, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-155, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.6)

Sec. 2-6.6. Person convicted of certain offenses against the elderly or disabled. A person who is convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 may not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of the victim of that offense, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, joint tenant, tenant by the entirety, survivor, appointee, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. The property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 died before the decedent; provided that with respect to joint tenancy property or property held in tenancy by the entirety, the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted may not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this Section if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction and subsequent to the conviction expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 in any manner contemplated by this Section.

The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section is not liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of violating Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961.

If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted after first having received actual written notice of the conviction in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

The Department of State Police shall have access to State of Illinois databases containing information that may help in the identification or location of persons convicted of the offenses enumerated in this Section. Interagency agreements shall be implemented, consistent with security and procedures established by the State agency and consistent with the laws governing the confidentiality of the information in the databases. Information shall be used only for administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-155, eff. 7-1-11; revised 9-30-11.)