Public Act 0214 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB1388 Enrolled LRB098 07103 MGM 37164 b

Public Act 098-0214

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Section 24-102 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/24-102) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 24-102)

Sec. 24-102. As used in this Article, "employee" means any person, including a person elected, appointed or under contract, receiving compensation from the State or a unit of local government or school district for personal services rendered, including salaried persons. A health care provider who elects to participate in the State Employees Deferred Compensation Plan established under Section 24-104 of this Code shall, for purposes of that participation, be deemed an "employee" as defined in this Section.

As used in this Article, "health care provider" means a dentist, physician, optometrist, pharmacist, or podiatric physician podiatrist that participates and receives compensation as a provider under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Act, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act.

As used in this Article, "compensation" includes compensation received in a lump sum for accumulated unused vacation, personal leave or sick leave, with the exception of health care providers. "Compensation" with respect to health care providers is defined under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Act, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act.

Where applicable, in no event shall the total of the amount of deferred compensation of an employee set aside in relation to a particular year under the Illinois State Employees Deferred Compensation Plan and the employee's nondeferred compensation for that year exceed the total annual salary or compensation under the existing salary schedule or classification plan applicable to such employee in such year; except that any compensation received in a lump sum for accumulated unused vacation, personal leave or sick leave shall not be included in the calculation of such totals.

(Source: P.A. 96-806, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 8. The Podiatric Scholarship and Residency Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 15 as follows:

(110 ILCS 978/5)

Sec. 5. Purposes. The purpose of this Act is to establish a program in the Illinois Department of Public Health to upgrade primary health care services for all citizens of the State by providing grants to podiatric medicine residency programs, scholarships to podiatry students, and a loan repayment program for podiatric physicians podiatrists who will agree to practice in areas of the State demonstrating the greatest need for more professional medical care. The program shall encourage podiatric physicians to locate in areas where health manpower shortages exist and to increase the total number of podiatric physicians in the State. Minority students shall be given preference in selection for scholarships.

(Source: P.A. 87-1195.)

(110 ILCS 978/15)

Sec. 15. Powers and duties. The Department shall have the following powers and duties:

(a) To allocate funds to podiatric practice residency programs according to the following priorities:

(1) to increase the number of podiatric physicians in designated shortage areas;

(2) to increase the number of accredited podiatric practice residencies within the State;

(3) to increase the percentage of podiatric practice physicians establishing practice within the State upon completion of residency; and

(4) to provide funds for rental of office space, purchase of equipment, and other uses necessary to enable podiatric physicians podiatrists to locate their practices in communities located in designated shortage areas.

(b) To determine the procedures for the distribution of the funds to podiatric practice residency programs, including the establishment of eligibility criteria in accordance with the following guidelines:

(1) preference for programs that are to be established at locations which exhibit potential for extending podiatric practice physician availability to designated shortage areas;

(2) preference for programs that are located away from communities in which medical schools are located; and

(3) preference for programs located in hospitals having affiliation agreements with medical schools located within the State.

(c) To establish a program of podiatry student scholarships and to award scholarships to eligible podiatry students.

(d) To determine criteria and standards of financial need in the awarding of scholarships under this Act.

(e) To receive and disburse any federal funds available for carrying out the purpose of this Act.

(f) To enter into contracts or agreements with any agency or department of the State of Illinois or the United States to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(g) To coordinate the podiatry residency grants program established under this Act with the program administered by the Illinois Board of Higher Education under the Health Services Education Grants Act.

(Source: P.A. 87-1195.)

Section 10. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 6, 6.5, 6.7, and 14 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.3)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed to them:

(A) "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" means any institution, place or building devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the performance of surgical procedures or any facility in which a medical or surgical procedure is utilized to terminate a pregnancy, irrespective of whether the facility is devoted primarily to this purpose. Such facility shall not provide beds or other accommodations for the overnight stay of patients; however, facilities devoted exclusively to the treatment of children may provide accommodations and beds for their patients for up to 23 hours following admission. Individual patients shall be discharged in an ambulatory condition without danger to the continued well being of the patients or shall be transferred to a hospital.

The term "ambulatory surgical treatment center" does not include any of the following:

(1) Any institution, place, building or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the "Hospital Licensing Act", approved July 1, 1953, as amended.

(2) Any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(3) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers under its management and control.

(4) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the Federal Government or agencies thereof.

(5) Any place, agency, clinic, or practice, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted exclusively to the performance of dental or oral surgical procedures.

(B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois.

(F) "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(G) "Podiatric physician" "Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 5/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.6)

Sec. 6. Upon receipt of an application for a license, the Director may deny the application for any of the following reasons:

(1) Conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, of any of its officers or directors, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, of a felony, or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude, as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction, or, in the case of the conviction of a misdemeanor by a court not of record, as shown by other evidence, if the Director determines, after investigation, that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust; or other satisfactory evidence that the moral character of the applicant, or manager, or supervisor of the facility is not reputable;

(2) The licensure status or record of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, of any of its officers or directors, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, from any other state where the applicant has done business in a similar capacity indicates that granting a license to the applicant would be detrimental to the interests of the public; or

(3) The applicant has insufficient financial or other resources to operate and conduct the facility in accordance with the requirements of this Act and the minimum standards, rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

The Director shall only issue a license if he finds that the applicant facility complies with this Act and the rules, regulations and standards promulgated pursuant thereto and:

(a) is under the medical supervision of one or more physicians;

(b) permits a surgical procedure to be performed only by a physician, podiatric physician, podiatrist or dentist who at the time is privileged to have his patients admitted by himself or an associated physician and is himself privileged to perform surgical procedures in at least one Illinois hospital; and

(c) maintains adequate medical records for each patient.

A license, unless sooner suspended or revoked, shall be renewable annually upon approval by the Department and payment of a license fee of $300. Each license shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the application and shall not be transferable or assignable. The licenses shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the licensed premises. A placard or registry of all physicians on staff in the facility shall be centrally located and available for inspection to any interested person. The Department may, either before or after the issuance of a license, request the cooperation of the State Fire Marshal. The report and recommendations of this agency shall be in writing and shall state with particularity its findings with respect to compliance or noncompliance with such minimum standards, rules and regulations.

The Director may issue a provisional license to any ambulatory surgical treatment center which does not substantially comply with the provisions of this Act and the standards, rules and regulations promulgated by virtue thereof provided that he finds that such ambulatory surgical treatment center will undertake changes and corrections which upon completion will render the ambulatory surgical treatment center in substantial compliance with the provisions of this Act, and the standards, rules and regulations adopted hereunder, and provided that the health and safety of the patients of the ambulatory surgical treatment center will be protected during the period for which such provisional license is issued. The Director shall advise the licensee of the conditions under which such provisional license is issued, including the manner in which the facilities fail to comply with the provisions of the Act, standards, rules and regulations, and the time within which the changes and corrections necessary for such ambulatory surgical treatment center to substantially comply with this Act, and the standards, rules and regulations of the Department relating thereto shall be completed.

A person or facility not licensed under this Act or the Hospital Licensing Act shall not hold itself out to the public as a "surgery center" or as a "center for surgery".

(Source: P.A. 88-490.)

(210 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician podiatrist, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician podiatrist.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff consulting committee in consultation with the anesthesia service and included in the medical staff consulting committee policies.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician podiatrist in accordance with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 94-915, eff. 1-1-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-911, eff. 8-26-08.)

(210 ILCS 5/6.7)

Sec. 6.7. Registered nurse administration of limited levels of sedation or analgesia.

(a) Nothing in this Act precludes a registered nurse from administering medications for the delivery of local or minimal sedation ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist.

(b) If the ASTC policy allows the registered nurse to deliver moderate sedation ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist, the following are required:

(1) The registered nurse must be under the supervision of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist during the delivery or monitoring of moderate sedation and have no other responsibilities during the procedure.

(2) The registered nurse must maintain current Advanced Cardiac Life Support certification or Pediatric Advanced Life Support certification as appropriate to the age of the patient.

(3) The supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist must have training and experience in delivering and monitoring moderate sedation and possess clinical privileges at the ASTC to administer moderate sedation or analgesia.

(4) The supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist must remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of moderate sedation for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

(5) The supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist must maintain current Advanced Cardiac Life Support certification or Pediatric Advanced Life Support certification as appropriate to the age of the patient.

(c) Local, minimal, and moderate sedation shall be defined by the Division of Professional Regulation of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Registered nurses shall be limited to administering medications for moderate sedation at doses rapidly reversible pharmacologically as determined by rule by the Division of Professional Regulation of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 94-861, eff. 6-16-06.)

(210 ILCS 5/14) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.14)

Sec. 14. The Governor shall appoint an Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Licensing Board composed of 12 persons. Four members shall be practicing physicians; one member shall be a practicing podiatric physician podiatrist; one member shall be a dentist who has been licensed to perform oral surgery; one member shall be an Illinois registered professional nurse who is employed in an ambulatory surgical treatment center; one member shall be a person actively engaged in the supervision or administration of a health facility; and 4 members shall represent the general public and shall have no personal economic interest in any institution, place or building licensed pursuant to this Act. In making Board appointments, the Governor shall give consideration to recommendations made through the Director by appropriate professional organizations.

Each member shall hold office for a term of 3 years and the terms of office of the members first taking office shall expire, as designated at the time of appointment, 3 at the end of the first year, 3 at the end of the second year, and 6 at the end of the third year, after the date of appointment. The term of office of each original appointee shall commence October 1, 1973; and the term of office of each successor shall commence on October 1 of the year in which his predecessor's term expires. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. Board members, while serving on business of the Board shall receive actual and necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence. The Board shall meet as frequently as the Director deems necessary, but not less than once a year. Upon request of 3 or more members, the Director shall call a meeting of the Board.

The Board shall advise and consult with the Department in the administration of this Act, provided that no rule shall be adopted by the Department concerning the operation of ambulatory surgical treatment centers licensed under this Act which has not had prior approval of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Licensing Board. The Department shall submit a final draft of all rules to the Board for review and approval. The final draft rules shall be placed upon the agenda of a scheduled Board meeting which shall be called within 90 days of the submission of such rules. If the Board takes no action on the final draft rules within the 90-day period, the rules shall be considered approved and the Department may proceed with their promulgation in conformance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. If the final draft rules are approved by virtue of the Board's failure to act, the Department shall afford any member of the Board 10 days within which to comment upon such rules. In the event of a rule promulgation without approval of the Board, the Department shall allow the Board an ex post facto opportunity to discuss such rule following its adoption.

(Source: P.A. 86-1292.)

Section 15. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Sections 2-127, 7-101, 7-108, and 7-112 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/2-127) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 622-127)

Sec. 2-127. "Podiatric physician Podiatrist" means a person licensed in Illinois to practice podiatry.

(Source: P.A. 87-1269.)

(210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)

Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, (iv) a therapeutic optometrist for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes related to the use of diagnostic topical or therapeutic ocular pharmaceutical agents, as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, (v) a licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written guidelines required under subdivision (3) of Section 4 and under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.

(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(210 ILCS 25/7-108) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-108)

Sec. 7-108. Duties of blood banks. A blood bank shall:

(a) Collect, process, and provide for use blood or blood components from a blood donor only upon the consent of that donor and under the direction or delegated direction of the blood bank Medical Director.

(b) Transfuse blood or blood components upon the request of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a dentist, or a podiatric physician podiatrist who is on the medical staff of a hospital and has permission from the medical staff to make such a request. If the request is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the blood bank within 48 hours. If the blood bank does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records.

(Source: P.A. 87-1269.)

(210 ILCS 25/7-112) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-112)

Sec. 7-112. Blood from paid donor; transfusions. No blood initially acquired from a paid donor may be administered by transfusion in Illinois unless the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the dentist, or the podiatric physician podiatrist who is on the medical staff of a hospital and has permission from the medical staff to request a transfusion, who is in charge of the treatment of the patient to whom the blood is to be administered, has directed that blood acquired from a paid donor be administered to that patient and has specified in the patient's medical record his reason for this action.

Blood acquired from a paid donor shall be transferred for transfusion purposes in this State only as expressly permitted by rules promulgated by the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(Source: P.A. 87-1269.)

Section 20. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)

Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician podiatrist, accredited religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of the accrediting church, coroner, social worker, social services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section include all employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to residents, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with residents; and further include all employees of community service agencies who provide services to a resident of a public or private long term care facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report under this Section but the results of any such investigation shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form described by the Department.

The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee of responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer, if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has been abused or neglected.

This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought to a hospital.

A person required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section who fails to comply with the requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 25. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 10.7 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151)

Sec. 10. Board creation; Department rules.

(a) The Governor shall appoint a Hospital Licensing Board composed of 14 persons, which shall advise and consult with the Director in the administration of this Act. The Secretary of Human Services (or his or her designee) shall serve on the Board, along with one additional representative of the Department of Human Services to be designated by the Secretary. Four appointive members shall represent the general public and 2 of these shall be members of hospital governing boards; one appointive member shall be a registered professional nurse or advanced practice, nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who is employed in a hospital; 3 appointive members shall be hospital administrators actively engaged in the supervision or administration of hospitals; 2 appointive members shall be practicing physicians, licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches; and one appointive member shall be a physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987; and one appointive member shall be a dentist licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. In making Board appointments, the Governor shall give consideration to recommendations made through the Director by professional organizations concerned with hospital administration for the hospital administrative and governing board appointments, registered professional nurse organizations for the registered professional nurse appointment, professional medical organizations for the physician appointments, and professional dental organizations for the dentist appointment.

(b) Each appointive member shall hold office for a term of 3 years, except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term and the terms of office of the members first taking office shall expire, as designated at the time of appointment, 2 at the end of the first year, 2 at the end of the second year, and 3 at the end of the third year, after the date of appointment. The initial terms of office of the 2 additional members representing the general public provided for in this Section shall expire at the end of the third year after the date of appointment. The term of office of each original appointee shall commence July 1, 1953; the term of office of the original registered professional nurse appointee shall commence July 1, 1969; the term of office of the original licensed podiatric physician podiatrist appointee shall commence July 1, 1981; the term of office of the original dentist appointee shall commence July 1, 1987; and the term of office of each successor shall commence on July 1 of the year in which his predecessor's term expires. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual and necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence. The Board shall meet as frequently as the Director deems necessary, but not less than once a year. Upon request of 5 or more members, the Director shall call a meeting of the Board.

(c) The Director shall prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and statements of policy needed to implement, interpret, or make specific the provisions and purposes of this Act. The Department shall adopt rules which set forth standards for determining when the public interest, safety or welfare requires emergency action in relation to termination of a research program or experimental procedure conducted by a hospital licensed under this Act. No rule, regulation, or standard shall be adopted by the Department concerning the operation of hospitals licensed under this Act which has not had prior approval of the Hospital Licensing Board, nor shall the Department adopt any rule, regulation or standard relating to the establishment of a hospital without consultation with the Hospital Licensing Board.

(d) Within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, all hospitals licensed under this Act and providing perinatal care shall comply with standards of perinatal care promulgated by the Department. The Director shall promulgate rules or regulations under this Act which are consistent with "An Act relating to the prevention of developmental disabilities", approved September 6, 1973, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.7)

Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.

All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician podiatrist, licensed advanced practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery at the hospital. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not a hospital employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws. The medical staff shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed by the hospital.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician podiatrist.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the anesthesia service.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician podiatrist in accordance with the hospital's alternative policy.

(Source: P.A. 94-915, eff. 1-1-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-911, eff. 8-26-08.)

Section 30. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 7, and 17 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/2) (from Ch. 32, par. 596)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act, the following terms have the respective meanings set forth in this section, unless different meanings are plainly indicated by the context:

(a) "Health Services Plan Corporation" means a corporation organized under the terms of this Act for the purpose of establishing and operating a voluntary health services plan and providing other medically related services.

(b) "Voluntary health services plan" means either a plan or system under which medical, hospital, nursing and relating health services may be rendered to a subscriber or beneficiary at the expense of a health services plan corporation, or any contractual arrangement to provide, either directly or through arrangements with others, dental care services to subscribers and beneficiaries.

(c) "Subscriber" means a natural person to whom a subscription certificate has been issued by a health services plan corporation. Persons eligible under Section 5-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be subscribers if a written agreement exists, as specified in Section 25 of this Act, between the Health Services Plan Corporation and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. A subscription certificate may be issued to such persons at no cost.

(d) "Beneficiary" means a person designated in a subscription certificate as one entitled to receive health services.

(e) "Health services" means those services ordinarily rendered by physicians licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches, by podiatric physicians podiatrists licensed in Illinois to practice podiatric medicine, by dentists and dental surgeons licensed to practice in Illinois, by nurses registered in Illinois, by dental hygienists licensed to practice in Illinois, and by assistants and technicians acting under professional supervision; it likewise means hospital services as usually and customarily rendered in Illinois, and the compounding and dispensing of drugs and medicines by pharmacists and assistant pharmacists registered in Illinois.

(f) "Subscription certificate" means a certificate issued to a subscriber by a health services plan corporation, setting forth the terms and conditions upon which health services shall be rendered to a subscriber or a beneficiary.

(g) "Physician rendering service for a plan" means a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish medical service to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(h) "Dentist or dental surgeon rendering service for a plan" means a dentist or dental surgeon licensed in Illinois to practice dentistry or dental surgery who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish dental or dental surgical services to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(i) "Director" means the Director of Insurance of the State of Illinois.

(j) "Person" means any of the following: a natural person, corporation, partnership or unincorporated association.

(k) "Podiatric physician "Podiatrist or podiatric surgeon rendering service for a plan" means any podiatric physician podiatrist or podiatric surgeon licensed in Illinois to practice podiatry, who has undertaken or agreed, upon terms and conditions acceptable both to himself and to the health services plan corporation involved, to furnish podiatric or podiatric surgical services to the plan's subscribers and beneficiaries.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(215 ILCS 165/7) (from Ch. 32, par. 601)

Sec. 7. Every physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches, every podiatric physician podiatrist licensed to practice podiatric medicine in Illinois, and every dentist and dental surgeon licensed to practice in Illinois may be eligible to render medical, podiatric or dental services respectively, upon such terms and conditions as may be mutually acceptable to such physician, podiatric physician podiatrist, dentist or dental surgeon and to the health services plan corporation involved. Such a corporation shall impose no restrictions on the physicians, podiatric physicians podiatrists, dentists or dental surgeons who treat its subscribers as to methods of diagnosis or treatment. The private physician-patient relationship shall be maintained, and subscribers shall at all times have free choice of any physician, podiatric physician podiatrist, dentist or dental surgeon who is rendering service on behalf of the corporation. All of the records, charts, files and other data of a health services plan corporation pertaining to the condition of health of its subscribers and beneficiaries shall be and remain confidential, and no disclosure of the contents thereof shall be made by the corporation to any person, except upon the prior written authorization of the particular subscriber or beneficiary concerned.

(Source: P.A. 81-1456.)

(215 ILCS 165/17) (from Ch. 32, par. 611)

Sec. 17. A health services plan corporation may enter into agreements with qualified physicians, podiatric physicians podiatrists, dentists, dental surgeons, pharmacists, hospitals, nurses, registered optometrists, dental hygienists and assistants or technicians acting under professional supervision, and with other organizations, state and Federal agencies, and corporations in the field of voluntary health care.

(Source: P.A. 81-1456.)

Section 35. The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(225 ILCS 5/16) (from Ch. 111, par. 7616)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 16. Refusal to issue, suspension, or revocation of license. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee for any one or combination of the following:

(A) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(B) Negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or of the rules or regulations promulgated hereunder;

(C) Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof that is (i) a felony, (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or (iii) of any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(D) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining registration, or violating any provision of this Act;

(E) Professional incompetence;

(F) Malpractice;

(G) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(H) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

(I) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(J) Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs;

(K) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(L) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this subparagraph (L) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this subparagraph (L) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(M) A finding that the licensee after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation;

(N) Abandonment of an athlete;

(O) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(P) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(Q) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(R) Solicitation of professional services other than by permitted institutional policy;

(S) The use of any words, abbreviations, figures or letters with the intention of indicating practice as an athletic trainer without a valid license as an athletic trainer under this Act;

(T) The evaluation or treatment of ailments of human beings other than by the practice of athletic training as defined in this Act or the treatment of injuries of athletes by a licensed athletic trainer except by the referral of a physician, podiatric physician podiatrist, or dentist;

(U) Willfully violating or knowingly assisting in the violation of any law of this State relating to the use of habit-forming drugs;

(V) Willfully violating or knowingly assisting in the violation of any law of this State relating to the practice of abortion;

(W) Continued practice by a person knowingly having an infectious communicable or contagious disease;

(X) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(Y) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied; or

(Z) Failure to fulfill continuing education requirements as prescribed in Section 10 of this Act.

The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the athletic trainer is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the athlete; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)

Section 36. The Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 47/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(b) "Entity" means any individual, partnership, firm, corporation, or other business that provides health services but does not include an individual who is a health care worker who provides professional services to an individual.

(c) "Group practice" means a group of 2 or more health care workers legally organized as a partnership, professional corporation, not-for-profit corporation, faculty practice plan or a similar association in which:

(1) each health care worker who is a member or employee or an independent contractor of the group provides substantially the full range of services that the health care worker routinely provides, including consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the use of office space, facilities, equipment, or personnel of the group;

(2) the services of the health care workers are provided through the group, and payments received for health services are treated as receipts of the group; and

(3) the overhead expenses and the income from the practice are distributed by methods previously determined by the group.

(d) "Health care worker" means any individual licensed under the laws of this State to provide health services, including but not limited to: dentists licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; dental hygienists licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; nurses and advanced practice nurses licensed under the Nurse Practice Act; occupational therapists licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act; optometrists licensed under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987; pharmacists licensed under the Pharmacy Practice Act; physical therapists licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act; physicians licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987; physician assistants licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; podiatric physicians podiatrists licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987; clinical psychologists licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act; clinical social workers licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act; speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed under the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act; or hearing instrument dispensers licensed under the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, or any of their successor Acts.

(e) "Health services" means health care procedures and services provided by or through a health care worker.

(f) "Immediate family member" means a health care worker's spouse, child, child's spouse, or a parent.

(g) "Investment interest" means an equity or debt security issued by an entity, including, without limitation, shares of stock in a corporation, units or other interests in a partnership, bonds, debentures, notes, or other equity interests or debt instruments except that investment interest for purposes of Section 20 does not include interest in a hospital licensed under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(h) "Investor" means an individual or entity directly or indirectly owning a legal or beneficial ownership or investment interest, (such as through an immediate family member, trust, or another entity related to the investor).

(i) "Office practice" includes the facility or facilities at which a health care worker, on an ongoing basis, provides or supervises the provision of professional health services to individuals.

(j) "Referral" means any referral of a patient for health services, including, without limitation:

(1) The forwarding of a patient by one health care worker to another health care worker or to an entity outside the health care worker's office practice or group practice that provides health services.

(2) The request or establishment by a health care worker of a plan of care outside the health care worker's office practice or group practice that includes the provision of any health services.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09.)

Section 38. The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 51/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 15. Licensure requirement; exempt activities.

(a) No entity shall provide home medical equipment and services, or use the title "home medical equipment and services provider" in connection with his or her profession or business, without a license issued by the Department under this Act.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing or restricting the practices, services, or activities of the following, unless those practices, services, or activities include providing home medical equipment and services through a separate legal entity:

(1) a person licensed or registered in this State by any other law engaging in the profession or occupation for which he or she is licensed or registered;

(2) a home medical services provider entity that is accredited under home care standards by a recognized accrediting body;

(3) home health agencies that do not have a Part B Medicare supplier number or that do not engage in the provision of home medical equipment and services;

(4) hospitals, excluding hospital-owned and hospital-related providers of home medical equipment and services;

(5) manufacturers and wholesale distributors of home medical equipment who do not sell directly to a patient;

(6) health care practitioners who lawfully prescribe or order home medical equipment and services, or who use home medical equipment and services to treat their patients, including but not limited to physicians, nurses, physical therapists, respiratory therapists, occupational therapists, speech-language pathologists, optometrists, chiropractors, and podiatric physicians podiatrists;

(7) pharmacists, pharmacies, and home infusion pharmacies that are not engaged in the sale or rental of home medical equipment and services;

(8) hospice programs that do not involve the sale or rental of home medical equipment and services;

(9) nursing homes;

(10) veterinarians;

(11) dentists; and

(12) emergency medical service providers.

(Source: P.A. 90-532, eff. 11-14-97.)

Section 39. The Massage Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 57/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 25. Exemptions.

(a) This Act does not prohibit a person licensed under any other Act in this State from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed.

(b) Persons exempted under this Section include, but are not limited to, physicians, podiatric physicians podiatrists, naprapaths, and physical therapists.

(c) Nothing in this Act prohibits qualified members of other professional groups, including but not limited to nurses, occupational therapists, cosmetologists, and estheticians, from performing massage in a manner consistent with their training and the code of ethics of their respective professions.

(d) Nothing in this Act prohibits a student of an approved massage school or program from performing massage, provided that the student does not hold himself or herself out as a licensed massage therapist and does not receive compensation, including tips, for massage therapy services.

(e) Nothing in this Act prohibits practitioners that do not involve intentional soft tissue manipulation, including but not limited to Alexander Technique, Feldenkrais, Reike, and Therapeutic Touch, from practicing.

(f) Practitioners of certain service marked bodywork approaches that do involve intentional soft tissue manipulation, including but not limited to Rolfing, Trager Approach, Polarity Therapy, and Orthobionomy, are exempt from this Act if they are approved by their governing body based on a minimum level of training, demonstration of competency, and adherence to ethical standards.

(g) Practitioners of Asian bodywork approaches are exempt from this Act if they are members of the American Organization of Bodywork Therapies of Asia as certified practitioners or if they are approved by an Asian bodywork organization based on a minimum level of training, demonstration of competency, and adherence to ethical standards set by their governing body.

(h) Practitioners of other forms of bodywork who restrict manipulation of soft tissue to the feet, hands, and ears, and who do not have the client disrobe, such as reflexology, are exempt from this Act.

(i) Nothing in this Act applies to massage therapists from other states or countries when providing educational programs or services for a period not exceeding 30 days within a calendar year.

(j) Nothing in this Act prohibits a person from treating ailments by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

(k) Nothing in this Act applies to the practice of massage therapy by a person either actively licensed as a massage therapist in another state or currently certified by the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork or other national certifying body if said person's state does not license massage therapists, if he or she is performing his or her duties for a non-Illinois based team or organization, or for a national athletic event held in this State, so long as he or she restricts his or her practice to his or her team or organization or to event participants during the course of his or her team's or organization's stay in this State or for the duration of the event.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)

Section 40. The Naprapathic Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 15, and 110 as follows:

(225 ILCS 63/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Naprapath" means a person who practices Naprapathy and who has met all requirements as provided in the Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Referral" means the following of guidance or direction to the naprapath given by the licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist who maintains supervision of the patient.

"Documented current and relevant diagnosis" means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by naprapathy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist.

(Source: P.A. 97-778, eff. 7-13-12.)

(225 ILCS 63/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 15. Practice of naprapathy defined; referrals. Naprapathic practice means the evaluation of persons with connective tissue disorders through the use of naprapathic case history and palpation or treatment of persons by the use of connective tissue manipulation, therapeutic and rehabilitative exercise, postural counseling, nutritional counseling, and the use of the effective properties of physical measures of heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound and air, and assistive devices for the purpose of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical disability.

Naprapathic practice includes, but is not limited to, the treatment of contractures, muscle spasms, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, lesions, laxity, hypotonicity, rigidity, structural imbalance, bruising, contusions, muscular atrophy, and partial separation of connective tissue fibers.

Naprapathic practice also includes: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from licensed physicians, dentists, and podiatric physicians podiatrists, (d) establishment and modification of naprapathic treatment programs, and (e) supervision or teaching of naprapathy.

Naprapathic practice does not include radiology, surgery, pharmacology, invasive diagnostic testing, or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a naprapath licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation authorized under this Act. A naprapath licensed under this Act who is not also licensed as a physical therapist under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act shall not hold himself or herself out as qualified to provide physical therapy or physiotherapy services. Nothing in this Section shall limit a naprapath from employing appropriate naprapathic techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A naprapath shall refer to a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the naprapath.

(Source: P.A. 87-1231.)

(225 ILCS 63/110)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 110. Grounds for disciplinary action; refusal, revocation, suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee or license for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Violations of this Act or of rules adopted under this Act.

(2) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment, or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(5) Professional incompetence or gross negligence.

(6) Malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. This shall not be deemed to include rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a naprapath for the lease, rental, or use of space, owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, corporation, or association. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) Using the title "Doctor" or its abbreviation without further clarifying that title or abbreviation with the word "naprapath" or "naprapathy" or the designation "D.N.".

(14) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(15) Abandonment of a patient without cause.

(16) Willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(17) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by means other than permitted advertising.

(20) Failure to provide a patient with a copy of his or her record upon the written request of the patient.

(21) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

(22) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(23) (Blank).

(24) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or a neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(25) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(26) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(27) Maintaining a professional relationship with any person, firm, or corporation when the naprapath knows, or should know, that the person, firm, or corporation is violating this Act.

(28) Promotion of the sale of food supplements, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a client or patient in such manner as to exploit the patient or client for financial gain of the licensee.

(29) Having treated ailments of human beings other than by the practice of naprapathy as defined in this Act, or having treated ailments of human beings as a licensed naprapath independent of a documented referral or documented current and relevant diagnosis from a physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist, or having failed to notify the physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist who established a documented current and relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving naprapathic treatment pursuant to that diagnosis.

(30) Use by a registered naprapath of the word "infirmary", "hospital", "school", "university", in English or any other language, in connection with the place where naprapathy may be practiced or demonstrated.

(31) Continuance of a naprapath in the employ of any person, firm, or corporation, or as an assistant to any naprapath or naprapaths, directly or indirectly, after his or her employer or superior has been found guilty of violating or has been enjoined from violating the laws of the State of Illinois relating to the practice of naprapathy when the employer or superior persists in that violation.

(32) The performance of naprapathic service in conjunction with a scheme or plan with another person, firm, or corporation known to be advertising in a manner contrary to this Act or otherwise violating the laws of the State of Illinois concerning the practice of naprapathy.

(33) Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs as determined by and approved by the Secretary. Exceptions for extreme hardships are to be defined by the rules of the Department.

(34) (Blank).

(35) Gross or willful overcharging for professional services.

(36) (Blank).

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code, the license of any person who fails to file a return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Development Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension shall end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records including business records that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the examination and evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10; 97-778, eff. 7-13-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 45. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 50-10, 50-15, 55-30, 65-35, 65-40, 65-45, 65-55, and 70-5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of courses at a college, university, or approved school, customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from the calendar year.

"Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty credentials after their name.

"Approved program of professional nursing education" and "approved program of practical nursing education" are programs of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the Secretary.

"Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health care professionals working together, each contributing one's respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive patient care.

"Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health care professional.

"Credentialed" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Current nursing practice update course" means a planned nursing education curriculum approved by the Department consisting of activities that have educational objectives, instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and updating content and specifically planned for those nurses previously licensed in the United States or its territories and preparing for reentry into nursing practice.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or her ability to deliver competent patient care.

"License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a registered professional nurse who has completed all requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except the certification examination and has applied to take the next available certification exam and received a temporary license from the Department.

"License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam and has applied for a license from the Department. A license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Podiatric physician" "Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N.".

"Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgement, and skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical nursing education program. Practical nursing includes assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or other health care professional determined by the Department.

"Privileged" means the authorization granted by the governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or organization to provide specific patient care services within well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the credentialing process.

"Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" and the abbreviation, "R.N.".

"Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession based on the understanding of the human condition across the life span and environment and includes all nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means of completion of an approved professional nursing education program. A registered professional nurse provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of individuals who assist the registered professional nurse implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or corrective measures.

"Professional assistance program for nurses" means a professional assistance program that meets criteria established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance addiction.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good standing.

"Written collaborative agreement" means a written agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist pursuant to Section 65-35.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(225 ILCS 65/50-15) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-15. Policy; application of Act.

(a) For the protection of life and the promotion of health, and the prevention of illness and communicable diseases, any person practicing or offering to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois shall submit evidence that he or she is qualified to practice, and shall be licensed as provided under this Act. No person shall practice or offer to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois or use any title, sign, card or device to indicate that such a person is practicing professional or practical nursing unless such person has been licensed under the provisions of this Act.

(b) This Act does not prohibit the following:

(1) The practice of nursing in Federal employment in the discharge of the employee's duties by a person who is employed by the United States government or any bureau, division or agency thereof and is a legally qualified and licensed nurse of another state or territory and not in conflict with Sections 50-50, 55-10, 60-10, and 70-5 of this Act.

(2) Nursing that is included in the program of study by students enrolled in programs of nursing or in current nurse practice update courses approved by the Department.

(3) The furnishing of nursing assistance in an emergency.

(4) The practice of nursing by a nurse who holds an active license in another state when providing services to patients in Illinois during a bonafide emergency or in immediate preparation for or during interstate transit.

(5) The incidental care of the sick by members of the family, domestic servants or housekeepers, or care of the sick where treatment is by prayer or spiritual means.

(6) Persons from being employed as unlicensed assistive personnel in private homes, long term care facilities, nurseries, hospitals or other institutions.

(7) The practice of practical nursing by one who is a licensed practical nurse under the laws of another U.S. jurisdiction and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a licensed practical nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(8) The practice of advanced practice nursing by one who is an advanced practice nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States, or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as an advanced practice nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(9) The practice of professional nursing by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a registered professional nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under Section 55-10, until (1) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (2) the withdrawal of such application, or (3) the denial of such application by the Department.

(10) The practice of professional nursing that is included in a program of study by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or foreign country, territory or province and who is enrolled in a graduate nursing education program or a program for the completion of a baccalaureate nursing degree in this State, which includes clinical supervision by faculty as determined by the educational institution offering the program and the health care organization where the practice of nursing occurs.

(11) Any person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which she or he is licensed.

(12) Delegation to authorized direct care staff trained under Section 15.4 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act consistent with the policies of the Department.

(13) The practice, services, or activities of persons practicing the specified occupations set forth in subsection (a) of, and pursuant to a licensing exemption granted in subsection (b) or (d) of, Section 2105-350 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, but only for so long as the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games Professional Licensure Exemption Law is operable.

(14) County correctional personnel from delivering prepackaged medication for self-administration to an individual detainee in a correctional facility.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-516, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(225 ILCS 65/55-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 55-30. LPN scope of practice.

(a) Practice as a licensed practical nurse means a scope of basic nursing practice, with or without compensation, as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse or as directed by a physician assistant, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist, and includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Collecting data and collaborating in the assessment of the health status of a patient.

(2) Collaborating in the development and modification of the registered professional nurse's or advanced practice nurse's comprehensive nursing plan of care for all types of patients.

(3) Implementing aspects of the plan of care as delegated.

(4) Participating in health teaching and counseling to promote, attain, and maintain the optimum health level of patients, as delegated.

(5) Serving as an advocate for the patient by communicating and collaborating with other health service personnel, as delegated.

(6) Participating in the evaluation of patient responses to interventions.

(7) Communicating and collaborating with other health care professionals as delegated.

(8) Providing input into the development of policies and procedures to support patient safety.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-35) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all advanced practice nurses engaged in clinical practice, except for advanced practice nurses who are authorized to practice in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(a-5) If an advanced practice nurse engages in clinical practice outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is authorized to practice, the advanced practice nurse must have a written collaborative agreement.

(b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the working relationship of the advanced practice nurse with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the advanced practice nurse. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section. Collaboration does not require an employment relationship between the collaborating physician and advanced practice nurse. Absent an employment relationship, an agreement may not restrict the categories of patients or third-party payment sources accepted by the advanced practice nurse. Collaboration means the relationship under which an advanced practice nurse works with a collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist in an active clinical practice to deliver health care services in accordance with (i) the advanced practice nurse's training, education, and experience and (ii) collaboration and consultation as documented in a jointly developed written collaborative agreement.

The agreement shall promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the advanced practice nurse shall be services that the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist is authorized to and generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice, except as set forth in subsection (c-5) of this Section. The agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist as the procedures are being performed. The collaborative relationship under an agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician or podiatric physician podiatrist at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist in person or by telecommunications in accordance with established written guidelines as set forth in the written agreement.

(c) Collaboration and consultation under all collaboration agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist does each of the following:

(1) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the advanced practice nurse and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice or podiatric practice and advanced practice nursing practice.

(2) Provides collaboration and consultation with the advanced practice nurse at least once a month. In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

(3) Is available through telecommunications for consultation on medical problems, complications, or emergencies or patient referral. In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

The agreement must contain provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status involving a written collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for just cause.

(c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the podiatric physician podiatrist performing the procedure. Outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those services that the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist is authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating podiatric physician podiatrist.

(c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the working relationship of the certified registered nurse anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only provide those services that the operating dentist with the appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.

(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the advanced practice nurse and the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(f) An advanced practice nurse shall inform each collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist of all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist upon request.

(g) For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice" means services, not specific tasks or duties, the physician or podiatric physician podiatrist routinely provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician or podiatric physician podiatrist has the experience and ability to provide collaboration and consultation.

(Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-40) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-40. Written collaborative agreement; prescriptive authority.

(a) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as any Schedule III through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist must have a valid current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration to delegate authority to prescribe delegated controlled substances.

(b) To prescribe controlled substances under this Section, an advanced practice nurse must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist.

(c) The collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority and termination of such delegation, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced practice nurse shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(d) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate authority to an advanced practice nurse to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(1) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist prescribes.

(3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist.

(4) The advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician.

(5) The advanced practice nurse meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority including Schedule II controlled substances of an advanced practice nurse for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45.

(g) Any advanced practice nurse who writes a prescription for a controlled substance without having a valid appropriate authority may be fined by the Department not more than $50 per prescription, and the Department may take any other disciplinary action provided for in this Act.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-45) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals, hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.

(a) An advanced practice nurse may provide services in a hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section 65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee policies.

(a-2) An advanced practice nurse granted authority to order medications including controlled substances may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending or discharging physician.

(a-3) Advanced practice nurses practicing in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(a-5) For anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions, unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides otherwise. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication for anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(b) An advanced practice nurse who provides services in a hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-55) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-55. Advertising as an APN.

(a) A person licensed under this Act as an advanced practice nurse may advertise the availability of professional services in the public media or on the premises where the professional services are rendered. The advertising shall be limited to the following information:

(1) publication of the person's name, title, office hours, address, and telephone number;

(2) information pertaining to the person's areas of specialization, including but not limited to appropriate board certification or limitation of professional practice;

(3) publication of the person's collaborating physician's, dentist's, or podiatric physician's podiatrist's name, title, and areas of specialization;

(4) information on usual and customary fees for routine professional services offered, which shall include notification that fees may be adjusted due to complications or unforeseen circumstances;

(5) announcements of the opening of, change of, absence from, or return to business;

(6) announcement of additions to or deletions from professional licensed staff; and

(7) the issuance of business or appointment cards.

(b) It is unlawful for a person licensed under this Act as an advanced practice nurse to use testimonials or claims of superior quality of care to entice the public. It shall be unlawful to advertise fee comparisons of available services with those of other licensed persons.

(c) This Article does not authorize the advertising of professional services that the offeror of the services is not licensed or authorized to render. Nor shall the advertiser use statements that contain false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading material or guarantees of success, statements that play upon the vanity or fears of the public, or statements that promote or produce unfair competition.

(d) It is unlawful and punishable under the penalty provisions of this Act for a person licensed under this Article to knowingly advertise that the licensee will accept as payment for services rendered by assignment from any third party payor the amount the third party payor covers as payment in full, if the effect is to give the impression of eliminating the need of payment by the patient of any required deductible or copayment applicable in the patient's health benefit plan.

(e) A licensee shall include in every advertisement for services regulated under this Act his or her title as it appears on the license or the initials authorized under this Act.

(f) As used in this Section, "advertise" means solicitation by the licensee or through another person or entity by means of handbills, posters, circulars, motion pictures, radio, newspapers, or television or any other manner.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/70-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified mail.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that could result in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status or subject to conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person to omit to file or record medical reports as required by law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, professional, or advanced practice nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional or nursing society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing or advanced practice nursing in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or advanced practice nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(19) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(21) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensees' license to deceive the public.

(22) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(29) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(30) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(31) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist in guidelines established under a written collaborative agreement.

(32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(33) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances.

(36) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between an advanced practice nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist and a patient, except as required by law.

(37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension, as defined by rule.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)

Section 50. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3.1 and 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 75/3.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 3.1. Referrals. A licensed occupational therapist or licensed occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, evaluate, and monitor services for clients concerning non-medical occupational therapy needs. Implementation of direct occupational therapy to individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed occupational therapists, or optometrist.

An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the occupational therapist.

(Source: P.A. 92-297, eff. 1-1-02; 93-461, eff. 8-8-03; 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)

(225 ILCS 75/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3719)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 19. (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $2,500 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Wilfully violating this Act, or of the rules promulgated thereunder;

(3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof which is a felony or which is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime which is directly related to the practice of occupational therapy;

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining certification, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising;

(5) Having demonstrated unworthiness, or incompetency to act as an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant in such manner as to safeguard the interest of the public;

(6) Wilfully aiding or assisting another person, firm, partnership or corporation in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(9) Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs;

(10) Discipline by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (11) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(12) A finding by the Department that the license holder, after having his license disciplined, has violated the terms of the discipline;

(13) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of occupational therapy, including but not limited to false records filed with the State agencies or departments;

(14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

(15) Solicitation of professional services other than by permitted advertising;

(16) Wilfully exceeding the scope of practice customarily undertaken by persons licensed under this Act, which conduct results in, or may result in, harm to the public;

(17) Holding one's self out to practice occupational therapy under any name other than his own or impersonation of any other occupational therapy licensee;

(18) Gross negligence;

(19) Malpractice;

(20) Obtaining a fee in money or gift in kind of any other items of value or in the form of financial profit or benefit as personal compensation, or as compensation, or charge, profit or gain for an employer or for any other person or persons, on the fraudulent misrepresentation that a manifestly incurable condition of sickness, disease or injury to any person can be cured;

(21) Accepting commissions or rebates or other forms of remuneration for referring persons to other professionals;

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied;

(23) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act; and

(24) Having treated patients other than by the practice of occupational therapy as defined in this Act, or having treated patients as a licensed occupational therapist independent of a referral from a physician, advanced practice nurse or physician assistant in accordance with Section 3.1, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or optometrist, or having failed to notify the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or optometrist who established a diagnosis that the patient is receiving occupational therapy pursuant to that diagnosis.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a license holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, an order by the court so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the license holder be allowed to resume his practice.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Department of Revenue.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical psychologists shall be those specifically designated by the Board. The Board or the Department may order (i) the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of a licensee or applicant or (ii) the examining clinical psychologist to present testimony concerning the mental examination of a licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between a licensee or applicant and the examining physician or clinical psychologist. An individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician or clinical psychologist of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, is grounds for suspension of his or her license. The license must remain suspended until the person submits to the examination or the Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was with reasonable cause.

If the Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board must require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by a physician or clinical psychologist approved by the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. In lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Board may recommend that the Department file a complaint to immediately suspend or revoke the license of the individual or otherwise discipline the licensee.

Any individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, or renewed subject to conditions, terms, or restrictions, as provided for in this Section, or any individual who was disciplined or placed on supervision pursuant to this Section must be referred to the Director for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)

Section 55. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 57 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Accredited facility" means a facility which has been accredited by the Center for Medicare Medicaid Services to practice prosthetics, orthotics or pedorthics and which represents itself to the public by title or description of services that includes the term "prosthetic", "prosthetist", "artificial limb", "orthotic", "orthotist", "brace", "pedorthic", "pedorthist" or a similar title or description of services.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Assistant" means a person who is educated and trained to participate in comprehensive orthotic or prosthetic care while under the supervision, as defined by rule, of a licensed orthotist or licensed prosthetist. Assistants may perform orthotic or prosthetic procedures and related tasks in the management of patient care. Assistants may also fabricate, repair, and maintain orthoses and prostheses.

"Board" means the Board of Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics.

"Custom fabricated device" means an orthosis, prosthesis, or pedorthic device fabricated to comprehensive measurements or a mold or patient model for use by a patient in accordance with a prescription and which requires clinical and technical judgment in its design, fabrication, and fitting.

"Custom fitted device" means an orthosis, prosthesis, or pedorthic device made to patient measurements sized or modified for use by the patient in accordance with a prescription and which requires clinical and technical judgment and substantive alteration in its design.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Facility" means the business location where orthotic, prosthetic, or pedorthic care is provided and, in the case of an orthotic/prosthetic facility, has the appropriate clinical and laboratory space and equipment to provide comprehensive orthotic or prosthetic care and, in the case of a pedorthic facility, has the appropriate clinical space and equipment to provide pedorthic care. Licensed orthotists, prosthetists, and pedorthists must be available to either provide care or supervise the provision of care by unlicensed staff.

"Licensed orthotist" or "LO" means a person licensed under this Act to practice orthotics and who represents himself or herself to the public by title or description of services that includes the term "orthotic", "orthotist", "brace", or a similar title or description of services.

"Licensed pedorthist" or "LPed" means a person licensed under this Act to practice pedorthics and who represents himself or herself to the public by the title or description of services that include the term "pedorthic", "pedorthist", or a similar title or description of services.

"Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Licensed podiatric physician" podiatrist" means a person licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Licensed prosthetist" or "LP" means a person licensed under this Act to practice prosthetics and who represents himself or herself to the public by title or description of services that includes the term "prosthetic", "prosthetist", "artificial limb", or a similar title or description of services.

"Off-the-shelf device" means a prefabricated orthosis, prosthesis, or pedorthic device sized or modified for use by the patient in accordance with a prescription and that does not require substantial clinical judgment and substantive alteration for appropriate use.

"Orthosis" means a custom-fabricated or custom-fitted brace or support designed to provide for alignment, correction, or prevention of neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury, or deformity. "Orthosis" does not include fabric or elastic supports, corsets, arch supports, low-temperature plastic splints, trusses, elastic hoses, canes, crutches, soft cervical collars, dental appliances, or other similar devices carried in stock and sold as "over-the-counter" items by a drug store, department store, corset shop, or surgical supply facility.

"Orthotic and Prosthetic Education Program" means a course of instruction accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs, consisting of (i) a basic curriculum of college level instruction in math, physics, biology, chemistry, and psychology and (ii) a specific curriculum in orthotic or prosthetic courses, including: (A) lectures covering pertinent anatomy, biomechanics, pathomechanics, prosthetic-orthotic components and materials, training and functional capabilities, prosthetic or orthotic performance evaluation, prescription considerations, etiology of amputations and disease processes necessitating prosthetic or orthotic use, and medical management; (B) subject matter related to pediatric and geriatric problems; (C) instruction in acute care techniques, such as immediate and early post-surgical prosthetics and fracture bracing techniques; and (D) lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiences related to the entire process of measuring, casting, fitting, fabricating, aligning, and completing prostheses or orthoses.

"Orthotic and prosthetic scope of practice" means a list of tasks, with relative weight given to such factors as importance, criticality, and frequency, based on internationally accepted standards of orthotic and prosthetic care as outlined by the International Society of Prosthetics and Orthotics' professional profile for Category I and Category III orthotic and prosthetic personnel.

"Orthotics" means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting, or servicing an orthosis under an order from a licensed physician or podiatric physician podiatrist for the correction or alleviation of neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury, or deformity.

"Orthotist" means a health care professional, specifically educated and trained in orthotic patient care, who measures, designs, fabricates, fits, or services orthoses and may assist in the formulation of the order and treatment plan of orthoses for the support or correction of disabilities caused by neuro-musculoskeletal diseases, injuries, or deformities.

"Over-the-counter" means a prefabricated, mass-produced device that is prepackaged and requires no professional advice or judgement in either size selection or use, including fabric or elastic supports, corsets, generic arch supports, elastic hoses.

"Pedorthic device" means therapeutic shoes (e.g. diabetic shoes and inserts), shoe modifications made for therapeutic purposes, below the ankle partial foot prostheses, and foot orthoses for use at the ankle or below. It also includes subtalar-control foot orthoses designed to manage the function of the anatomy by controlling the range of motion of the subtalar joint. Excluding footwear, the proximal height of a custom pedorthic device does not extend beyond the junction of the gastrocnemius and the Achilles tendon. Pedorthic devices do not include non-therapeutic inlays or footwear regardless of method of manufacture; unmodified, non-therapeutic over-the-counter shoes; or prefabricated foot care products. "Therapeutic" devices address a medical condition, diagnosed by a prescribing medical professional, while "non-therapeutic" devices do not address a medical condition.

"Pedorthic education program" means an educational program accredited by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education consisting of (i) a basic curriculum of instruction in foot-related pathology of diseases, anatomy, and biomechanics and (ii) a specific curriculum in pedorthic courses, including lectures covering shoes, foot orthoses, and shoe modifications, pedorthic components and materials, training and functional capabilities, pedorthic performance evaluation, prescription considerations, etiology of disease processes necessitating use of pedorthic devices, medical management, subject matter related to pediatric and geriatric problems, and lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory experiences related to the entire process of measuring and casting, fitting, fabricating, aligning, and completing pedorthic devices.

"Pedorthic scope of practice" means a list of tasks with relative weight given to such factors as importance, criticality, and frequency based on nationally accepted standards of pedorthic care as outlined by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education comprehensive analysis with an empirical validation study of the profession performed by an independent testing company.

"Pedorthics" means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting, or servicing a pedorthic device under an order from a licensed physician or podiatric physician podiatrist for the correction or alleviation of neuromuscular or musculoskeletal dysfunction, disease, injury, or deformity.

"Pedorthist" means a health care professional, specifically educated and trained in pedorthic patient care, who measures, designs, fabricates, fits, or services pedorthic devices and may assist in the formulation of the order and treatment plan of pedorthic devices for the support or correction of disabilities caused by neuro-musculoskeletal diseases, injuries, or deformities.

"Person" means a natural person.

"Prosthesis" means an artificial medical device that is not surgically implanted and that is used to replace a missing limb, appendage, or any other external human body part including an artificial limb, hand, or foot. "Prosthesis" does not include artificial eyes, ears, fingers, or toes, dental appliances, cosmetic devices such as artificial breasts, eyelashes, or wigs, or other devices that do not have a significant impact on the musculoskeletal functions of the body.

"Prosthetics" means the science and practice of evaluating, measuring, designing, fabricating, assembling, fitting, adjusting, or servicing a prosthesis under an order from a licensed physician.

"Prosthetist" means a health care professional, specifically educated and trained in prosthetic patient care, who measures, designs, fabricates, fits, or services prostheses and may assist in the formulation of the order and treatment plan of prostheses for the replacement of external parts of the human body lost due to amputation or congenital deformities or absences.

"Prosthetist/orthotist" means a person who practices both disciplines of prosthetics and orthotics and who represents himself or herself to the public by title or by description of services. A person who is currently licensed by the State as both a licensed prosthetist and a licensed orthotist may use the title "Licensed Prosthetist Orthotist" or "LPO".

"Resident" means a person who has completed an education program in either orthotics or prosthetics and is continuing his or her clinical education in a residency accredited by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education.

"Residency" means a minimum of a one-year approved supervised program to acquire practical clinical training in orthotics or prosthetics in a patient care setting.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Technician" means a person who assists an orthotist, prosthetist, prosthetist/orthotist, or pedorthist with fabrication of orthoses, prostheses, or pedorthic devices but does not provide direct patient care.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09.)

(225 ILCS 84/57)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide care or services only if the care or services are provided pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a podiatric physician podiatrist, (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist that specifically authorizes ordering the services of an orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist, (iv) an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses clinical privileges to order services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist, or (v) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to order the services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist by his or her supervising physician. A licensed podiatric physician podiatrist or advanced practice nurse collaborating with a podiatric physician podiatrist may only order care or services concerning the foot from a licensed prosthetist.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09.)

Section 60. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians podiatrists, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7) drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatric physician podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-673, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1353, eff. 7-28-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1043, eff. 8-21-12.)

(225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:

(a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

(b) the sale of compressed gases;

(c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, according to the latest editions of the following authoritative pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic, habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;

(d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock medication;

(e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes; provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating thereto and governing the same, and those which are required under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison" printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;

(f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision agreement; and

(g) the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed podiatric physician podiatrist to an advanced practice nurse in accordance with a written collaborative agreement under Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09.)

(225 ILCS 85/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4142)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 22. Except only in the case of a drug, medicine or poison which is lawfully sold or dispensed, at retail, in the original and unbroken package of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor thereof, and which package bears the original label thereon showing the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor thereof, and the name of the drug, medicine, or poison therein contained, and the directions for its use, no person shall sell or dispense, at retail, any drug, medicine, or poison, without affixing to the box, bottle, vessel, or package containing the same, a label bearing the name of the article distinctly shown, and the directions for its use, with the name and address of the pharmacy wherein the same is sold or dispensed. However, in the case of a drug, medicine, or poison which is sold or dispensed pursuant to a prescription of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed dentist, licensed veterinarian, licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist authorized by law to prescribe drugs or medicines or poisons, the label affixed to the box, bottle, vessel, or package containing the same shall show: (a) the name and address of the pharmacy wherein the same is sold or dispensed; (b) the name or initials of the person, authorized to practice pharmacy under the provisions of this Act, selling or dispensing the same, (c) the date on which such prescription was filled; (d) the name of the patient; (e) the serial number of such prescription as filed in the prescription files; (f) the last name of the practitioner who prescribed such prescriptions; (g) the directions for use thereof as contained in such prescription; and (h) the proprietary name or names or the established name or names of the drugs, the dosage and quantity, except as otherwise authorized by regulation of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07.)

Section 65. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians podiatrists, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or podiatric physician podiatrist any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed, but who has not completed an approved physical therapist assistant program.

(11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to physical therapists.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.

(Source: P.A. 94-651, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 90/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 4267)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 17. (1) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $5000, with regard to a license for any one or a combination of the following:

A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules or regulations promulgated hereunder;

C. Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof which is a felony or which is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime which is directly related to the practice of the profession; conviction, as used in this paragraph, shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, an admission of guilt or a plea of nolo contendere;

D. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising;

E. A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act;

F. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or Rules;

G. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

H. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public. Unprofessional conduct shall include any departure from or the failure to conform to the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical therapy practice, in which proceeding actual injury to a patient need not be established;

I. Unlawful distribution of any drug or narcotic, or unlawful conversion of any drug or narcotic not belonging to the person for such person's own use or benefit or for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes;

J. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in a physical therapist's or physical therapist assistant's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

K. Revocation or suspension of a license to practice physical therapy as a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant or the taking of other disciplinary action by the proper licensing authority of another state, territory or country;

L. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing contained in this paragraph prohibits persons holding valid and current licenses under this Act from practicing physical therapy in partnership under a partnership agreement, including a limited liability partnership, a limited liability company, or a corporation under the Professional Service Corporation Act or from pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the fees and monies received by them or by the partnership, company, or corporation in accordance with the partnership agreement or the policies of the company or professional corporation. Nothing in this paragraph (L) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (L) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

M. A finding by the Board that the licensee after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation;

N. Abandonment of a patient;

O. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

P. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected elder abuse or neglect as required by the Elder Abuse Reporting Act;

Q. Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgement, skill or safety;

R. The use of any words (such as physical therapy, physical therapist physiotherapy or physiotherapist), abbreviations, figures or letters with the intention of indicating practice as a licensed physical therapist without a valid license as a physical therapist issued under this Act;

S. The use of the term physical therapist assistant, or abbreviations, figures, or letters with the intention of indicating practice as a physical therapist assistant without a valid license as a physical therapist assistant issued under this Act;

T. Willfully violating or knowingly assisting in the violation of any law of this State relating to the practice of abortion;

U. Continued practice by a person knowingly having an infectious, communicable or contagious disease;

V. Having treated ailments of human beings otherwise than by the practice of physical therapy as defined in this Act, or having treated ailments of human beings as a licensed physical therapist independent of a documented referral or a documented current and relevant diagnosis from a physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist, or having failed to notify the physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician podiatrist who established a documented current and relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving physical therapy pursuant to that diagnosis;

W. Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

X. Interpretation of referrals, performance of evaluation procedures, planning or making major modifications of patient programs by a physical therapist assistant;

Y. Failure by a physical therapist assistant and supervising physical therapist to maintain continued contact, including periodic personal supervision and instruction, to insure safety and welfare of patients;

Z. Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(2) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his practice.

(3) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)

Section 70. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 11, 20.5, and 24.2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 4811)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 11. Practice without a license forbidden and exceptions. A. It shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the practice of podiatric medicine or of holding one's self out as a podiatric physician within the meaning of this Act, for any person to diagnose the ailments of, or to treat in any manner the human foot by medical, physical or surgical methods, or to use the title "podiatric physician" or "podiatrist" podiatrist or any words or letters which indicate or tend to indicate to the public that the person so treating or so holding himself or herself out is a podiatric physician.

B. No person, except as provided in Section 3 of this Act, shall provide any type of diagnostic and therapeutic medical care services of the human foot unless under the supervision of a licensed podiatric physician.

C. Persons suitably trained and qualified may render, only under the direction of a podiatric physician licensed under this Act, such patient tests and services as diagnostic imaging procedures, laboratory studies and other appropriate patient services connected with comprehensive foot care which may be consistent with the diagnosis and treatment selected by the podiatric physician. This Section shall apply to podiatric medical care provided in all settings, including, but not limited to: long term facilities, mental health facilities, hospitals, medical offices and public health clinics.

(Source: P.A. 85-918.)

(225 ILCS 100/20.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice nurses.

(a) A podiatric physician podiatrist in active clinical practice may collaborate with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration shall be for the purpose of providing podiatric consultation and no employment relationship shall be required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement shall be for services the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of clinical podiatric practice, except as set forth in item (3) of this subsection (a). A written collaborative agreement and podiatric physician podiatric collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect to advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience. The agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify which procedures require a podiatric physician's podiatrist's presence as the procedures are being performed.

(2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist, as needed, based on the practice of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the patient services provided thereunder are periodically reviewed by the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist.

(3) The advance practice nurse provides services that the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of clinical practice. With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist must have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia consistent with Department rules.

(4) The collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist and the advanced practice nurse consult at least once a month to provide collaboration and consultation.

(5) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist in person or through telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(6) With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatric physician podiatrist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or operating podiatric physician podiatrist must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(7) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice for termination or change of status involving a written collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for just cause.

(b) The collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist shall have access to the records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice nurse.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatric physician podiatrist to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other appropriately trained persons.

(d) A podiatric physician podiatrist shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of an advanced practice nurse solely on the basis of having signed guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing an advanced practice nurse to perform acts, unless the podiatric physician podiatrist has reason to believe the advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) A podiatric physician podiatrist, may, but is not required to delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(225 ILCS 100/24.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 24.2. Prohibition against fee splitting.

(a) A licensee under this Act may not directly or indirectly divide, share, or split any professional fee or other form of compensation for professional services with anyone in exchange for a referral or otherwise, other than as provided in this Section 24.2.

(b) Nothing contained in this Section abrogates the right of 2 or more licensed health care workers as defined in the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act to each receive adequate compensation for concurrently rendering services to a patient and to divide the fee for such service, whether or not the worker is employed, provided that the patient has full knowledge of the division and the division is made in proportion to the actual services personally performed and responsibility assumed by each licensee consistent with his or her license, except as prohibited by law.

(c) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits a licensee under this Act from practicing podiatry through or within any form of legal entity authorized to conduct business in this State or from pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the professional fees and other revenues in accordance with the agreements and policies of the entity provided:

(1) each owner of the entity is licensed under this Act; or

(2) the entity is organized under the Professional Services Corporation Act, the Professional Association Act, or the Limited Liability Company Act; or

(3) the entity is allowed by Illinois law to provide podiatry services or employ podiatric physicians podiatrists such as a licensed hospital or hospital affiliate or licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center owned in full or in part by Illinois-licensed physicians; or

(4) the entity is a combination or joint venture of the entities authorized under this subsection (c).

(d) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits a licensee under this Act from paying a fair market value fee to any person or entity whose purpose is to perform billing, administrative preparation, or collection services based upon a percentage of professional service fees billed or collected, a flat fee, or any other arrangement that directly or indirectly divides professional fees, for the administrative preparation of the licensee's claims or the collection of the licensee's charges for professional services, provided that:

(1) the licensee or the licensee's practice under subsection (c) of this Section at all times controls the amount of fees charged and collected; and

(2) all charges collected are paid directly to the licensee or the licensee's practice or are deposited directly into an account in the name of and under the sole control of the licensee or the licensee's practice or deposited into a "Trust Account" by a licensed collection agency in accordance with the requirements of Section 8(c) of the Illinois Collection Agency Act.

(e) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the granting of a security interest in the accounts receivable or fees of a licensee under this Act or the licensee's practice for bona fide advances made to the licensee or licensee's practice provided the licensee retains control and responsibility for the collection of the accounts receivable and fees.

(f) Excluding payments that may be made to the owners of or licensees in the licensee's practice under subsection (c) of this Section, a licensee under this Act may not divide, share or split a professional service fee with, or otherwise directly or indirectly pay a percentage of the licensee's professional service fees, revenues or profits to anyone for: (i) the marketing or management of the licensee's practice, (ii) including the licensee or the licensee's practice on any preferred provider list, (iii) allowing the licensee to participate in any network of health care providers, (iv) negotiating fees, charges or terms of service or payment on behalf of the licensee, or (v) including the licensee in a program whereby patients or beneficiaries are provided an incentive to use the services of the licensee.

(g) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the payment of rent or other remunerations paid to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a licensee for the lease, rental, or use of space, owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, corporation, or association.

(h) Nothing contained in this Section prohibits the payment, at no more than fair market value, to an individual, partnership, or corporation by a licensee for the use of staff, administrative services, franchise agreements, marketing required by franchise agreements, or equipment owned or controlled by the individual, partnership, or corporation, or the receipt thereof by a licensee.

(i) Nothing in this Section affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(Source: P.A. 96-1158, eff. 1-1-11; incorporates P.A. 96-1482, eff. 11-29-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 75. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

"Direct supervision" means supervision by an operating physician, licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, or licensed dentist who is physically present and who personally directs delegated acts and remains available to personally respond to an emergency until the patient is released from the operating room. A registered professional nurse may also provide direct supervision within the scope of his or her license. A registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist shall perform duties as assigned.

"Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

"Physician" or "operating physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Registered surgical assistant" means a person who (i) is not licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, (ii) is certified by the National Surgical Assistant Association on the Certification of Surgical Assistants, the Liaison Council on Certification for the Surgical Technologist as a certified first assistant, or the American Board of Surgical Assisting, (iii) performs duties under direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is registered under this Act.

"Registered surgical technologist" means a person who (i) is not a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, (ii) is certified by the Liaison Council on Certification for the Surgical Technologist, (iii) performs duties under direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is registered under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 93-280, eff. 7-1-04.)

Section 80. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Section 12-4.25 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.25) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-4.25)

Sec. 12-4.25. Medical assistance program; vendor participation.

(A) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, and may deny, suspend, or recover payments, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds:

(a) Such vendor is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement, which document shall be developed by the Department as a result of negotiations with each vendor category, including physicians, hospitals, long term care facilities, pharmacists, optometrists, podiatric physicians podiatrists and dentists setting forth the terms and conditions applicable to the participation of each vendor group in the program; or

(b) Such vendor has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed for providing services. This section does not require vendors to make available patient records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code; or

(c) Such vendor has failed to furnish any information requested by the Department regarding payments for providing goods or services; or

(d) Such vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or

(e) Such vendor has furnished goods or services to a recipient which are (1) in excess of need, (2) harmful, or (3) of grossly inferior quality, all of such determinations to be based upon competent medical judgment and evaluations; or

(f) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(f-1) Such vendor has a delinquent debt owed to the Illinois Department; or

(g) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) has engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor at the time that such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership which was a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(h) The direct or indirect ownership of the vendor (including the ownership of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, a partner's interest in a vendor that is a partnership, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(A-5) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that the vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense based on fraud or willful misrepresentation related to any of the following:

(1) The medical assistance program under Article V of this Code.

(2) A medical assistance or health care program in another state.

(3) The Medicare program under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.

(4) The provision of health care services.

(5) A violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA, or another state or federal medical assistance program or health care program.

(A-10) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that (i) the vendor, (ii) a person with management responsibility for a vendor, (iii) an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor, or (v) a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense related to any of the following:

(1) Murder.

(2) A Class X felony under the Criminal Code of 1961.

(3) Sexual misconduct that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(4) A criminal offense that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(5) A crime of fraud or dishonesty.

(6) A crime involving a controlled substance.

(7) A misdemeanor relating to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct related to a health care program.

(A-15) The Illinois Department may deny the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds:

(1) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by the applicant.

(2) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership vendor applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant was (i) a person with management responsibility, (ii) an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant, (iii) an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship, (v) a partner in a partnership vendor, (vi) a technical or other advisor to a vendor, during a period of time where the conduct of that vendor resulted in a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor.

(3) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(4) There is a credible allegation of a transfer of management responsibilities, or direct or indirect ownership, to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(5) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant who is a spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, relative by marriage, nephew, cousin, or relative of a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made.

(6) There is a credible allegation that the applicant's previous affiliations with a provider of medical services that has an uncollected debt, a provider that has been or is subject to a payment suspension under a federal health care program, or a provider that has been previously excluded from participation in the medical assistance program, poses a risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the Illinois Department.

As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability.

(B) The Illinois Department shall deny, suspend or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor:

(1) immediately, if such vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or authorized;

(2) within 30 days of the date when such vendor's professional license, certification or other authorization has been refused renewal, restricted, revoked, suspended, or otherwise terminated; or

(3) if such vendor has been convicted of a violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA.

(C) Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a vendor of goods or services from participation in the medical assistance program authorized by this Article, a person with management responsibility for such vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion is barred from participation in the medical assistance program.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a corporate vendor, the officers and persons owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in the vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor may not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a sole proprietorship or partnership, the owner or partners during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. The owner of a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a sole proprietorship, and a partner in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a partnership, may not transfer his or her ownership or partnership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor who owes a debt to the Department, if that vendor has not made payment arrangements acceptable to the Department, shall not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor, or vendor assets of any kind, to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Rules adopted by the Illinois Department to implement these provisions shall specifically include a definition of the term "management responsibility" as used in this Section. Such definition shall include, but not be limited to, typical job titles, and duties and descriptions which will be considered as within the definition of individuals with management responsibility for a provider.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has been terminated, excluded, or suspended from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in that corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for the debt, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(D) If a vendor has been suspended from the medical assistance program under Article V of the Code, the Director may require that such vendor correct any deficiencies which served as the basis for the suspension. The Director shall specify in the suspension order a specific period of time, which shall not exceed one year from the date of the order, during which a suspended vendor shall not be eligible to participate. At the conclusion of the period of suspension the Director shall reinstate such vendor, unless he finds that such vendor has not corrected deficiencies upon which the suspension was based.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded from the medical assistance program under Article V, such vendor shall be barred from participation for at least one year, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for 5 years or for the length of the vendor's sentence for that conviction, whichever is longer. At the end of one year a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon proper application to be reinstated such vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director providing that such vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If such vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, he shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for one year from the date his application for reinstatement is denied.

A vendor whose termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program under Article V was based solely on an action by a governmental entity other than the Illinois Department may, upon reinstatement by that governmental entity or upon reversal of the termination, suspension, or exclusion, apply for rescission of the termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program. Upon proper application for rescission, the vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded and reinstated to the medical assistance program under Article V and the vendor is terminated, suspended, or excluded a second or subsequent time from the medical assistance program, the vendor shall be barred from participation for at least 2 years, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded a second time based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for life. At the end of 2 years, a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon application to be reinstated, the vendor may be deemed eligible if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If the vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, the vendor shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for 2 years from the date the vendor's application for reinstatement is denied.

(E) The Illinois Department may recover money improperly or erroneously paid, or overpayments, either by setoff, crediting against future billings or by requiring direct repayment to the Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may suspend or deny payment, in whole or in part, if such payment would be improper or erroneous or would otherwise result in overpayment.

(1) Payments may be suspended, denied, or recovered from a vendor or alternate payee: (i) for services rendered in violation of the Illinois Department's provider notices, statutes, rules, and regulations; (ii) for services rendered in violation of the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement; (iii) for any vendor who fails to grant the Office of Inspector General timely access to full and complete records, including, but not limited to, records relating to recipients under the medical assistance program for the most recent 6 years, in accordance with Section 140.28 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and other information for the purpose of audits, investigations, or other program integrity functions, after reasonable written request by the Inspector General; this subsection (E) does not require vendors to make available the medical records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code or to provide access to medical records more than 6 years old; (iv) when the vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or (v) when the vendor previously rendered services while terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the medical assistance program or while terminated or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a vendor has the same taxpayer identification number (assigned under Section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) as is assigned to a vendor with past-due financial obligations to the Illinois Department, the Illinois Department may make any necessary adjustments to payments to that vendor in order to satisfy any past-due obligations, regardless of whether the vendor is assigned a different billing number under the medical assistance program.

If the Illinois Department establishes through an administrative hearing that the overpayments resulted from the vendor or alternate payee knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used, a false record or statement to obtain payment or other benefit from the medical assistance program under Article V, the Department may recover interest on the amount of the payment or other benefit at the rate of 5% per annum. In addition to any other penalties that may be prescribed by law, such a vendor or alternate payee shall be subject to civil penalties consisting of an amount not to exceed 3 times the amount of payment or other benefit resulting from each such false record or statement, and the sum of $2,000 for each such false record or statement for payment or other benefit. For purposes of this paragraph, "knowingly" means that a vendor or alternate payee with respect to information: (i) has actual knowledge of the information, (ii) acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information, or (iii) acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is required.

(F) The Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee prior to or during the pendency of any audit or proceeding under this Section, and through the pendency of any administrative appeal or administrative review by any court proceeding. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be withheld under this Section. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the pendency of a proceeding, after a final decision has been rendered, or after the conclusion of any administrative appeal, where the final administrative decision is to terminate, exclude, or suspend eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be denied for such bills. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a vendor or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. The Department must complete a proceeding under this Section in a timely manner.

Notwithstanding recovery allowed under subsection (E) or this subsection (F), the Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee who is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal agency regulations. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the period of time that a vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal regulations. Facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act shall have payments denied or withheld pursuant to subsection (I) of this Section.

(F-5) The Illinois Department may temporarily withhold payments to a vendor or alternate payee if any of the following individuals have been indicted or otherwise charged under a law of the United States or this or any other state with an offense that is based on alleged fraud or willful misrepresentation on the part of the individual related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V of this Code, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services:

(1) If the vendor or alternate payee is a corporation: an officer of the corporation or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidence of ownership of the corporation.

(2) If the vendor is a sole proprietorship: the owner of the sole proprietorship.

(3) If the vendor or alternate payee is a partnership: a partner in the partnership.

(4) If the vendor or alternate payee is any other business entity authorized by law to transact business in this State: an officer of the entity or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the evidences of ownership of the entity.

If the Illinois Department withholds payments to a vendor or alternate payee under this subsection, the Department shall not release those payments to the vendor or alternate payee while any criminal proceeding related to the indictment or charge is pending unless the Department determines that there is good cause to release the payments before completion of the proceeding. If the indictment or charge results in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall retain all withheld payments, which shall be considered forfeited to the Department. If the indictment or charge does not result in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall release to the vendor or alternate payee all withheld payments.

(F-10) If the Illinois Department establishes that the vendor or alternate payee owes a debt to the Illinois Department, and the vendor or alternate payee subsequently fails to pay or make satisfactory payment arrangements with the Illinois Department for the debt owed, the Illinois Department may seek all remedies available under the law of this State to recover the debt, including, but not limited to, wage garnishment or the filing of claims or liens against the vendor or alternate payee.

(F-15) Enforcement of judgment.

(1) Any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or costs imposed, or part of any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or cost imposed, remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of or the failure to exhaust judicial review procedures under the Illinois Administrative Review Law is a debt due and owing the State and may be collected using all remedies available under the law.

(2) After expiration of the period in which judicial review under the Illinois Administrative Review Law may be sought for a final administrative decision, unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the findings, decision, and order of the Director may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(3) In any case in which any person or entity has failed to comply with a judgment ordering or imposing any fine or other sanction, any expenses incurred by the Illinois Department to enforce the judgment, including, but not limited to, attorney's fees, court costs, and costs related to property demolition or foreclosure, after they are fixed by a court of competent jurisdiction or the Director, shall be a debt due and owing the State and may be collected in accordance with applicable law. Prior to any expenses being fixed by a final administrative decision pursuant to this subsection (F-15), the Illinois Department shall provide notice to the individual or entity that states that the individual or entity shall appear at a hearing before the administrative hearing officer to determine whether the individual or entity has failed to comply with the judgment. The notice shall set the date for such a hearing, which shall not be less than 7 days from the date that notice is served. If notice is served by mail, the 7-day period shall begin to run on the date that the notice was deposited in the mail.

(4) Upon being recorded in the manner required by Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure or by the Uniform Commercial Code, a lien shall be imposed on the real estate or personal estate, or both, of the individual or entity in the amount of any debt due and owing the State under this Section. The lien may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction. A lien shall attach to all property and assets of such person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity until the judgment is satisfied.

(5) The Director may set aside any judgment entered by default and set a new hearing date upon a petition filed at any time (i) if the petitioner's failure to appear at the hearing was for good cause, or (ii) if the petitioner established that the Department did not provide proper service of process. If any judgment is set aside pursuant to this paragraph (5), the hearing officer shall have authority to enter an order extinguishing any lien which has been recorded for any debt due and owing the Illinois Department as a result of the vacated default judgment.

(G) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Illinois Department under this Section. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G-5) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the Department may terminate, suspend, or exclude vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm from participation in the medical assistance program prior to an evidentiary hearing but after reasonable notice and opportunity to respond as established by the Department by rule.

(2) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm shall submit to a fingerprint-based criminal background check on current and future information available in the State system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system by submitting all necessary fees and information in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The following individuals shall be subject to the check:

(A) In the case of a vendor that is a corporation, every shareholder who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the outstanding shares of the corporation.

(B) In the case of a vendor that is a partnership, every partner.

(C) In the case of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor.

(D) Each officer or manager of the vendor.

Each such vendor shall be responsible for payment of the cost of the criminal background check.

(3) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm may be required to post a surety bond. The Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(4) The Department, or its agents, may refuse to accept requests for authorization from specific vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm, including prior-approval and post-approval requests, if:

(A) the Department has initiated a notice of termination, suspension, or exclusion of the vendor from participation in the medical assistance program; or

(B) the Department has issued notification of its withholding of payments pursuant to subsection (F-5) of this Section; or

(C) the Department has issued a notification of its withholding of payments due to reliable evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation pending investigation.

(5) As used in this subsection, the following terms are defined as follows:

(A) "Fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in some unauthorized benefit to himself or herself or some other person. It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or State law.

(B) "Abuse" means provider practices that are inconsistent with sound fiscal, business, or medical practices and that result in an unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program or in reimbursement for services that are not medically necessary or that fail to meet professionally recognized standards for health care. It also includes recipient practices that result in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Abuse does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(C) "Waste" means the unintentional misuse of medical assistance resources, resulting in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Waste does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(D) "Harm" means physical, mental, or monetary damage to recipients or to the medical assistance program.

(G-6) The Illinois Department, upon making a determination based upon information in the possession of the Illinois Department that continuation of participation in the medical assistance program by a vendor would constitute an immediate danger to the public, may immediately suspend such vendor's participation in the medical assistance program without a hearing. In instances in which the Illinois Department immediately suspends the medical assistance program participation of a vendor under this Section, a hearing upon the vendor's participation must be convened by the Illinois Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. Such hearing shall be held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the vendor's medical assistance program participation be denied, terminated, suspended, placed on provisional status, or reinstated. In the hearing, any evidence relevant to the vendor constituting an immediate danger to the public may be introduced against such vendor; provided, however, that the vendor, or his or her counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit, impeach, and submit evidence rebutting such evidence.

(H) Nothing contained in this Code shall in any way limit or otherwise impair the authority or power of any State agency responsible for licensing of vendors.

(I) Based on a finding of noncompliance on the part of a nursing home with any requirement for certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq. or 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.), the Illinois Department may impose one or more of the following remedies after notice to the facility:

(1) Termination of the provider agreement.

(2) Temporary management.

(3) Denial of payment for new admissions.

(4) Civil money penalties.

(5) Closure of the facility in emergency situations or transfer of residents, or both.

(6) State monitoring.

(7) Denial of all payments when the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has imposed this sanction.

The Illinois Department shall by rule establish criteria governing continued payments to a nursing facility subsequent to termination of the facility's provider agreement if, in the sole discretion of the Illinois Department, circumstances affecting the health, safety, and welfare of the facility's residents require those continued payments. The Illinois Department may condition those continued payments on the appointment of temporary management, sale of the facility to new owners or operators, or other arrangements that the Illinois Department determines best serve the needs of the facility's residents.

Except in the case of a facility that has a right to a hearing on the finding of noncompliance before an agency of the federal government, a facility may request a hearing before a State agency on any finding of noncompliance within 60 days after the notice of the intent to impose a remedy. Except in the case of civil money penalties, a request for a hearing shall not delay imposition of the penalty. The choice of remedies is not appealable at a hearing. The level of noncompliance may be challenged only in the case of a civil money penalty. The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for the State agency that will conduct the evidentiary hearings.

The Illinois Department may collect interest on unpaid civil money penalties.

The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (I).

(J) The Illinois Department, by rule, may permit individual practitioners to designate that Department payments that may be due the practitioner be made to an alternate payee or alternate payees.

(a) Such alternate payee or alternate payees shall be required to register as an alternate payee in the Medical Assistance Program with the Illinois Department.

(b) If a practitioner designates an alternate payee, the alternate payee and practitioner shall be jointly and severally liable to the Department for payments made to the alternate payee. Pursuant to subsection (E) of this Section, any Department action to suspend or deny payment or recover money or overpayments from an alternate payee shall be subject to an administrative hearing.

(c) Registration as an alternate payee or alternate payees in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program shall be conditional. At any time, the Illinois Department may deny or cancel any alternate payee's registration in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program without cause. Any such denial or cancellation is not subject to an administrative hearing.

(d) The Illinois Department may seek a revocation of any alternate payee, and all owners, officers, and individuals with management responsibility for such alternate payee shall be permanently prohibited from participating as an owner, an officer, or an individual with management responsibility with an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds that:

(1) the alternate payee is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its alternate payee registration agreement; or

(2) the alternate payee has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit, or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(3) the alternate payee has failed to furnish any information requested by the Illinois Department regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(4) the alternate payee has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(5) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(6) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) has engaged in conduct prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor or alternate payee at the time that the vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership which was a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(7) the direct or indirect ownership of the vendor or alternate payee (including the ownership of a vendor or alternate payee that is a partner's interest in a vendor or alternate payee, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor or alternate payee) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor or is prohibited or revoked as an alternate payee to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(K) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee where there is credible evidence, received from State or federal law enforcement or federal oversight agencies or from the results of a preliminary Department audit, that the circumstances giving rise to the need for a withholding of payments may involve fraud or willful misrepresentation under the Illinois Medical Assistance program. The Department shall by rule define what constitutes "credible" evidence for purposes of this subsection. The Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Department must grant such a request. The Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action, but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of Medicaid claims withholding is effective.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to submit written evidence for reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding-of-payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department or the prosecuting authorities determine that there is insufficient evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation by the provider or alternate payee.

(2) Legal proceedings related to the provider's or alternate payee's alleged fraud, willful misrepresentation, violations of this Act, or violations of the Illinois Department's administrative rules are completed.

(3) The withholding of payments for a period of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K).

(K-5) The Illinois Department may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee upon initiation of an audit, quality of care review, investigation when there is a credible allegation of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrating a clear failure to cooperate with the Illinois Department such that the circumstances give rise to the need for a withholding of payments. As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability. The Illinois Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Illinois Department must grant such a request. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of claims are withheld.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to request a hearing or a reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department, including the ability to submit written evidence.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding of payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department determines that there is insufficient evidence of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrates clear cooperation with the Illinois Department, as determined by the Illinois Department, such that the circumstances do not give rise to the need for withholding of payments; or

(2) The withholding of payments has lasted for a period in excess of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K-5).

(L) The Illinois Department shall establish a protocol to enable health care providers to disclose an actual or potential violation of this Section pursuant to a self-referral disclosure protocol, referred to in this subsection as "the protocol". The protocol shall include direction for health care providers on a specific person, official, or office to whom such disclosures shall be made. The Illinois Department shall post information on the protocol on the Illinois Department's public website. The Illinois Department may adopt rules necessary to implement this subsection (L). In addition to other factors that the Illinois Department finds appropriate, the Illinois Department may consider a health care provider's timely use or failure to use the protocol in considering the provider's failure to comply with this Code.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department, at its discretion, may exempt an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and the ID/DD Community Care Act from the provisions of subsections (A-15), (B), and (C) of this Section if the licensed entity is in receivership.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 85. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 2054)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician podiatrist, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational or athletic program or facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the "Criminal Code of 1961". A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 90. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. When used in this Act:

(a) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(b) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(c) "HIV" means the Human Immunodeficiency Virus or any other identified causative agent of AIDS.

(d) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal agreement by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized representative without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress or other form of constraint or coercion, which entails at least the following pre-test information:

(1) a fair explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health care provider from combining a form used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt-out of HIV testing.

(e) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(f) "Health care provider" means any health care professional, nurse, paramedic, psychologist or other person providing medical, nursing, psychological, or other health care services of any kind.

(f-5) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric physician podiatrist, or (vi) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(g) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(h) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility or other legal entity.

(Source: P.A. 95-7, eff. 6-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

Section 95. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)

Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.

(a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department determines that the subject of the report may present or may have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection (c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this Act.

(b) If the Department determines that there is or may have been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified, they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.

(c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV, provided the Department has determined that there is or may have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to health care providers. The Department shall have access to the subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the Department.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means any physician, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing health care services of any kind.

(d) All information and records held by the Department and local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. Such information and records shall not be released or made public by the Department or local health authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(1) When made with the written consent of all persons to whom this information pertains;

(2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(3) When made by the Department for the purpose of seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any information or report concerning the existence of any disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 100. The Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act is amended by changing Section 2.36 as follows:

(410 ILCS 620/2.36) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 502.36)

Sec. 2.36. "Prescription" means and includes any order for drugs or medical devices, written, facsimile, or verbal by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatric physician podiatrist containing the following: (1) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was given; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; (4) quantity, (5) directions for use, (6) prescriber's name, address and signature, and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 89-202, eff. 7-21-95.)

Section 105. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act and the Tobacco Products Tax Act.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician podiatrist, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal euthanasia agency.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician podiatrist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician podiatrist or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants and licensed advanced practice nurses to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the physician assistant must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the physician assistant must annually complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology.

(2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,

(A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating podiatric physician podiatrist to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist;

(iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(v) the advanced practice nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the advanced practice nurse must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology; or

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician podiatrist has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 110. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-622 and 8-2001 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-622) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-622)

Sec. 2-622. Healing art malpractice.

(a) In any action, whether in tort, contract or otherwise, in which the plaintiff seeks damages for injuries or death by reason of medical, hospital, or other healing art malpractice, the plaintiff's attorney or the plaintiff, if the plaintiff is proceeding pro se, shall file an affidavit, attached to the original and all copies of the complaint, declaring one of the following:

1. That the affiant has consulted and reviewed the facts of the case with a health professional who the affiant reasonably believes: (i) is knowledgeable in the relevant issues involved in the particular action; (ii) practices or has practiced within the last 6 years or teaches or has taught within the last 6 years in the same area of health care or medicine that is at issue in the particular action; and (iii) is qualified by experience or demonstrated competence in the subject of the case; that the reviewing health professional has determined in a written report, after a review of the medical record and other relevant material involved in the particular action that there is a reasonable and meritorious cause for the filing of such action; and that the affiant has concluded on the basis of the reviewing health professional's review and consultation that there is a reasonable and meritorious cause for filing of such action. If the affidavit is filed as to a defendant who is a physician licensed to treat human ailments without the use of drugs or medicines and without operative surgery, a dentist, a podiatric physician podiatrist, a psychologist, or a naprapath, the written report must be from a health professional licensed in the same profession, with the same class of license, as the defendant. For affidavits filed as to all other defendants, the written report must be from a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. In either event, the affidavit must identify the profession of the reviewing health professional. A copy of the written report, clearly identifying the plaintiff and the reasons for the reviewing health professional's determination that a reasonable and meritorious cause for the filing of the action exists, must be attached to the affidavit, but information which would identify the reviewing health professional may be deleted from the copy so attached.

2. That the affiant was unable to obtain a consultation required by paragraph 1 because a statute of limitations would impair the action and the consultation required could not be obtained before the expiration of the statute of limitations. If an affidavit is executed pursuant to this paragraph, the certificate and written report required by paragraph 1 shall be filed within 90 days after the filing of the complaint. The defendant shall be excused from answering or otherwise pleading until 30 days after being served with a certificate required by paragraph 1.

3. That a request has been made by the plaintiff or his attorney for examination and copying of records pursuant to Part 20 of Article VIII of this Code and the party required to comply under those Sections has failed to produce such records within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If an affidavit is executed pursuant to this paragraph, the certificate and written report required by paragraph 1 shall be filed within 90 days following receipt of the requested records. All defendants except those whose failure to comply with Part 20 of Article VIII of this Code is the basis for an affidavit under this paragraph shall be excused from answering or otherwise pleading until 30 days after being served with the certificate required by paragraph 1.

(b) Where a certificate and written report are required pursuant to this Section a separate certificate and written report shall be filed as to each defendant who has been named in the complaint and shall be filed as to each defendant named at a later time.

(c) Where the plaintiff intends to rely on the doctrine of "res ipsa loquitur", as defined by Section 2-1113 of this Code, the certificate and written report must state that, in the opinion of the reviewing health professional, negligence has occurred in the course of medical treatment. The affiant shall certify upon filing of the complaint that he is relying on the doctrine of "res ipsa loquitur".

(d) When the attorney intends to rely on the doctrine of failure to inform of the consequences of the procedure, the attorney shall certify upon the filing of the complaint that the reviewing health professional has, after reviewing the medical record and other relevant materials involved in the particular action, concluded that a reasonable health professional would have informed the patient of the consequences of the procedure.

(e) Allegations and denials in the affidavit, made without reasonable cause and found to be untrue, shall subject the party pleading them or his attorney, or both, to the payment of reasonable expenses, actually incurred by the other party by reason of the untrue pleading, together with reasonable attorneys' fees to be summarily taxed by the court upon motion made within 30 days of the judgment or dismissal. In no event shall the award for attorneys' fees and expenses exceed those actually paid by the moving party, including the insurer, if any. In proceedings under this paragraph (e), the moving party shall have the right to depose and examine any and all reviewing health professionals who prepared reports used in conjunction with an affidavit required by this Section.

(f) A reviewing health professional who in good faith prepares a report used in conjunction with an affidavit required by this Section shall have civil immunity from liability which otherwise might result from the preparation of such report.

(g) The failure to file a certificate required by this Section shall be grounds for dismissal under Section 2-619.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-1145, eff. 1-18-13.)

(735 ILCS 5/8-2001) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2001)

Sec. 8-2001. Examination of health care records.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care facility" or "facility" means a public or private hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment center, nursing home, independent practice association, or physician hospital organization, or any other entity where health care services are provided to any person. The term does not include a health care practitioner.

"Health care practitioner" means any health care practitioner, including a physician, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker. The term includes a medical office, health care clinic, health department, group practice, and any other organizational structure for a licensed professional to provide health care services. The term does not include a health care facility.

(b) Every private and public health care facility shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated in such health care facility, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, permit the patient, his or her health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative to examine the health care facility patient care records, including but not limited to the history, bedside notes, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient, and permit copies of such records to be made by him or her or his or her health care practitioner or authorized attorney.

(c) Every health care practitioner shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated by the health care practitioner, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, permit the patient and the patient's health care practitioner or authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, to examine and copy the patient's records, including but not limited to those relating to the diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, history, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient.

(d) A request for copies of the records shall be in writing and shall be delivered to the administrator or manager of such health care facility or to the health care practitioner. The person (including patients, health care practitioners and attorneys) requesting copies of records shall reimburse the facility or the health care practitioner at the time of such copying for all reasonable expenses, including the costs of independent copy service companies, incurred in connection with such copying not to exceed a $20 handling charge for processing the request and the actual postage or shipping charge, if any, plus: (1) for paper copies 75 cents per page for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents per page for the 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all pages in excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per page for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format do not qualify as microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format in a electronic document, a charge of 50% of the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1). This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or other storage media. Records already maintained in an electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic format when so requested. If the records system does not allow for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital record, then the facility or practitioner shall inform the requester in writing of the reason the records can not be provided electronically. The written explanation may be included with the production of paper copies, if the requester chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The facility or health care practitioner may, however, charge for the reasonable cost of all duplication of record material or information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on a standard commercial photocopy machine such as x-ray films or pictures.

(d-5) The handling fee shall not be collected from the patient or the patient's personal representative who obtains copies of records under Section 8-2001.5.

(e) The requirements of this Section shall be satisfied within 30 days of the receipt of a written request by a patient or by his or her legally authorized representative, health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative. If the facility or health care practitioner needs more time to comply with the request, then within 30 days after receiving the request, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requesting party with a written statement of the reasons for the delay and the date by which the requested information will be provided. In any event, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requested information no later than 60 days after receiving the request.

(f) A health care facility or health care practitioner must provide the public with at least 30 days prior notice of the closure of the facility or the health care practitioner's practice. The notice must include an explanation of how copies of the facility's records may be accessed by patients. The notice may be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the area in which the health care facility or health care practitioner is located.

(g) Failure to comply with the time limit requirement of this Section shall subject the denying party to expenses and reasonable attorneys' fees incurred in connection with any court ordered enforcement of the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12.)

Section 115. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by changing Sections 30, 50, and 68 as follows:

(745 ILCS 49/30)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 94-677, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 30. Free medical clinic; exemption from civil liability for services performed without compensation.

(a) A person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a person licensed to practice the treatment of human ailments in any other state or territory of the United States, or a health care professional, including but not limited to an advanced practice nurse, retired physician, physician assistant, nurse, pharmacist, physical therapist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or social worker licensed in this State or any other state or territory of the United States, who, in good faith, provides medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice as a part of the services of an established free medical clinic providing care, including but not limited to home visits, without charge to patients which is limited to care that does not require the services of a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and who receives no fee or compensation from that source shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of his or her acts or omissions in providing that medical treatment, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(b) For purposes of this Section, a "free medical clinic" is an organized community based program providing medical care without charge to individuals, at which the care provided does not include an overnight stay in a health-care facility.

(c) The provisions of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply to a particular case unless the free medical clinic has posted in a conspicuous place on its premises an explanation of the exemption from civil liability provided herein.

(d) The immunity from civil damages provided under subsection (a) also applies to physicians, retired physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers that provide further medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice, including but not limited to hospitalization, office visits, and home visits, to a patient upon referral from an established free medical clinic without fee or compensation.

(d-5) A free medical clinic may receive reimbursement from the Illinois Department of Public Aid, provided any reimbursements shall be used only to pay overhead expenses of operating the free medical clinic and may not be used, in whole or in part, to provide a fee or other compensation to any person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or any other health care professional who is receiving an exemption under this Section. Any health care professional receiving an exemption under this Section may not receive any fee or other compensation in connection with any services provided to, or any ownership interest in, the clinic. Medical care shall not include an overnight stay in a health care facility.

(e) Nothing in this Section prohibits a free medical clinic from accepting voluntary contributions for medical services provided to a patient who has acknowledged his or her ability and willingness to pay a portion of the value of the medical services provided.

(f) Any voluntary contribution collected for providing care at a free medical clinic shall be used only to pay overhead expenses of operating the clinic. No portion of any moneys collected shall be used to provide a fee or other compensation to any person licensed under Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(g) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply to causes of action accruing on or after its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 94-677, eff. 8-25-05.)

(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 94-677, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 30. Free medical clinic; exemption from civil liability for services performed without compensation.

(a) A person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a person licensed to practice the treatment of human ailments in any other state or territory of the United States, or a health care professional, including but not limited to an advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, nurse, pharmacist, physical therapist, podiatric physician podiatrist, or social worker licensed in this State or any other state or territory of the United States, who, in good faith, provides medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice as a part of the services of an established free medical clinic providing care to medically indigent patients which is limited to care that does not require the services of a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and who receives no fee or compensation from that source shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of his or her acts or omissions in providing that medical treatment, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(b) For purposes of this Section, a "free medical clinic" is an organized community based program providing medical care without charge to individuals unable to pay for it, at which the care provided does not include the use of general anesthesia or require an overnight stay in a health-care facility.

(c) The provisions of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply to a particular case unless the free medical clinic has posted in a conspicuous place on its premises an explanation of the exemption from civil liability provided herein.

(d) The immunity from civil damages provided under subsection (a) also applies to physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers that provide further medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice to a patient upon referral from an established free medical clinic without fee or compensation.

(e) Nothing in this Section prohibits a free medical clinic from accepting voluntary contributions for medical services provided to a patient who has acknowledged his or her ability and willingness to pay a portion of the value of the medical services provided.

Any voluntary contribution collected for providing care at a free medical clinic shall be used only to pay overhead expenses of operating the clinic. No portion of any moneys collected shall be used to provide a fee or other compensation to any person licensed under Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 89-607, eff. 1-1-97; 90-742, eff. 8-13-98.)

(745 ILCS 49/50)

Sec. 50. Podiatric physician Podiatrist; exemption from civil liability for emergency care. Any person licensed to practice podiatric medicine in Illinois, or licensed under an Act of any other state or territory of the United States, who in good faith provides emergency care without fee to a victim of an accident at the scene of an accident or in case of nuclear attack shall not, as a result of his acts or omissions, except willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the person in providing the care, be liable for civil damages.

(Source: P.A. 89-607, eff. 1-1-97.)

(745 ILCS 49/68)

Sec. 68. Disaster Relief Volunteers. Any firefighter, licensed emergency medical technician (EMT) as defined by Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, physician, dentist, podiatric physician podiatrist, optometrist, pharmacist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or nurse who in good faith and without fee or compensation provides health care services as a disaster relief volunteer shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, except willful and wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in providing health care services, be liable to a person to whom the health care services are provided for civil damages. This immunity applies to health care services that are provided without fee or compensation during or within 10 days following the end of a disaster or catastrophic event.

The immunity provided in this Section only applies to a disaster relief volunteer who provides health care services in relief of an earthquake, hurricane, tornado, nuclear attack, terrorist attack, epidemic, or pandemic without fee or compensation for providing the volunteer health care services.

The provisions of this Section shall not apply to any health care facility as defined in Section 8-2001 of the Code of Civil Procedure or to any practitioner, who is not a disaster relief volunteer, providing health care services in a hospital or health care facility.

(Source: P.A. 95-447, eff. 8-27-07.)

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.