Public Act 0593 101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB1557 Enrolled LRB101 08168 SMS 53234 b

Public Act 101-0593

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 5-45 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/5-45)

Sec. 5-45. Procurement; revolving door prohibition.

(a) No former officer, member, or State employee, or spouse or immediate family member living with such person, shall, within a period of one year immediately after termination of State employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a person or entity if the officer, member, or State employee, during the year immediately preceding termination of State employment, participated personally and substantially in the award of State contracts, or the issuance of State contract change orders, with a cumulative value of $25,000 or more to the person or entity, or its parent or subsidiary.

(a-5) No officer, member, or spouse or immediate family member living with such person shall, during the officer or member's term in office or within a period of 2 years immediately leaving office, hold an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any gaming license under the Illinois Gambling Act, the Video Gaming Act, the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, or the Sports Wagering Act. Any member of the General Assembly or spouse or immediate family member living with such person who has an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any gaming license under the Illinois Gambling Act, the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, the Video Gaming Act, or the Sports Wagering Act at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly shall divest himself or herself of such ownership within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. No State employee who works for the Illinois Gaming Board or Illinois Racing Board or spouse or immediate family member living with such person shall, during State employment or within a period of 2 years immediately after termination of State employment, hold an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any gaming license under the Illinois Gambling Act, the Video Gaming Act, the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, or the Sports Wagering Act.

(a-10) This subsection (a-10) applies on and after June 25, 2021. No officer, member, or spouse or immediate family member living with such person, shall, during the officer or member's term in office or within a period of 2 years immediately after leaving office, hold an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any cannabis business establishment which is licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act. Any member of the General Assembly or spouse or immediate family member living with such person who has an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any cannabis business establishment which is licensed under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly shall divest himself or herself of such ownership within one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

No State employee who works for any State agency that regulates cannabis business establishment license holders who participated personally and substantially in the award of licenses under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or a spouse or immediate family member living with such person shall, during State employment or within a period of 2 years immediately after termination of State employment, hold an ownership interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any cannabis license under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(b) No former officer of the executive branch or State employee of the executive branch with regulatory or licensing authority, or spouse or immediate family member living with such person, shall, within a period of one year immediately after termination of State employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a person or entity if the officer or State employee, during the year immediately preceding termination of State employment, participated personally and substantially in making a regulatory or licensing decision that directly applied to the person or entity, or its parent or subsidiary.

(c) Within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, each executive branch constitutional officer and legislative leader, the Auditor General, and the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services shall adopt a policy delineating which State positions under his or her jurisdiction and control, by the nature of their duties, may have the authority to participate personally and substantially in the award of State contracts or in regulatory or licensing decisions. The Governor shall adopt such a policy for all State employees of the executive branch not under the jurisdiction and control of any other executive branch constitutional officer.

The policies required under subsection (c) of this Section shall be filed with the appropriate ethics commission established under this Act or, for the Auditor General, with the Office of the Auditor General.

(d) Each Inspector General shall have the authority to determine that additional State positions under his or her jurisdiction, not otherwise subject to the policies required by subsection (c) of this Section, are nonetheless subject to the notification requirement of subsection (f) below due to their involvement in the award of State contracts or in regulatory or licensing decisions.

(e) The Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, the Auditor General, and each of the executive branch constitutional officers and legislative leaders subject to subsection (c) of this Section shall provide written notification to all employees in positions subject to the policies required by subsection (c) or a determination made under subsection (d): (1) upon hiring, promotion, or transfer into the relevant position; and (2) at the time the employee's duties are changed in such a way as to qualify that employee. An employee receiving notification must certify in writing that the person was advised of the prohibition and the requirement to notify the appropriate Inspector General in subsection (f).

(f) Any State employee in a position subject to the policies required by subsection (c) or to a determination under subsection (d), but who does not fall within the prohibition of subsection (h) below, who is offered non-State employment during State employment or within a period of one year immediately after termination of State employment shall, prior to accepting such non-State employment, notify the appropriate Inspector General. Within 10 calendar days after receiving notification from an employee in a position subject to the policies required by subsection (c), such Inspector General shall make a determination as to whether the State employee is restricted from accepting such employment by subsection (a) or (b). In making a determination, in addition to any other relevant information, an Inspector General shall assess the effect of the prospective employment or relationship upon decisions referred to in subsections (a) and (b), based on the totality of the participation by the former officer, member, or State employee in those decisions. A determination by an Inspector General must be in writing, signed and dated by the Inspector General, and delivered to the subject of the determination within 10 calendar days or the person is deemed eligible for the employment opportunity. For purposes of this subsection, "appropriate Inspector General" means (i) for members and employees of the legislative branch, the Legislative Inspector General; (ii) for the Auditor General and employees of the Office of the Auditor General, the Inspector General provided for in Section 30-5 of this Act; and (iii) for executive branch officers and employees, the Inspector General having jurisdiction over the officer or employee. Notice of any determination of an Inspector General and of any such appeal shall be given to the ultimate jurisdictional authority, the Attorney General, and the Executive Ethics Commission.

(g) An Inspector General's determination regarding restrictions under subsection (a) or (b) may be appealed to the appropriate Ethics Commission by the person subject to the decision or the Attorney General no later than the 10th calendar day after the date of the determination.

On appeal, the Ethics Commission or Auditor General shall seek, accept, and consider written public comments regarding a determination. In deciding whether to uphold an Inspector General's determination, the appropriate Ethics Commission or Auditor General shall assess, in addition to any other relevant information, the effect of the prospective employment or relationship upon the decisions referred to in subsections (a) and (b), based on the totality of the participation by the former officer, member, or State employee in those decisions. The Ethics Commission shall decide whether to uphold an Inspector General's determination within 10 calendar days or the person is deemed eligible for the employment opportunity.

(h) The following officers, members, or State employees shall not, within a period of one year immediately after termination of office or State employment, knowingly accept employment or receive compensation or fees for services from a person or entity if the person or entity or its parent or subsidiary, during the year immediately preceding termination of State employment, was a party to a State contract or contracts with a cumulative value of $25,000 or more involving the officer, member, or State employee's State agency, or was the subject of a regulatory or licensing decision involving the officer, member, or State employee's State agency, regardless of whether he or she participated personally and substantially in the award of the State contract or contracts or the making of the regulatory or licensing decision in question:

(1) members or officers;

(2) members of a commission or board created by the Illinois Constitution;

(3) persons whose appointment to office is subject to the advice and consent of the Senate;

(4) the head of a department, commission, board, division, bureau, authority, or other administrative unit within the government of this State;

(5) chief procurement officers, State purchasing officers, and their designees whose duties are directly related to State procurement;

(6) chiefs of staff, deputy chiefs of staff, associate chiefs of staff, assistant chiefs of staff, and deputy governors;

(7) employees of the Illinois Racing Board; and

(8) employees of the Illinois Gaming Board.

(i) For the purposes of this Section, with respect to officers or employees of a regional transit board, as defined in this Act, the phrase "person or entity" does not include: (i) the United States government, (ii) the State, (iii) municipalities, as defined under Article VII, Section 1 of the Illinois Constitution, (iv) units of local government, as defined under Article VII, Section 1 of the Illinois Constitution, or (v) school districts.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19.)

Section 5. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(G-5) "Minor Cannabis Offense" means a violation of Section 4 or 5 of the Cannabis Control Act concerning not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis, provided the violation did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act and is not associated with an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes, but is not limited to, the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. From August 9, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-306) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly through December 31, 2020, in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2021.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Department of State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Department of State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing; trafficking victims.

(1) A trafficking victim as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be eligible to petition for immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(i) Minor Cannabis Offenses under the Cannabis Control Act.

(1) Expungement of Arrest Records of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) The Department of State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge all criminal history records of an arrest, charge not initiated by arrest, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation for a Minor Cannabis Offense committed prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly if:

(i) One year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(ii) No criminal charges were filed relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction or criminal charges were filed and subsequently dismissed or vacated or the arrestee was acquitted.

(B) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of condition (ii) in paragraph (A), records that satisfy condition (i) in paragraph (A) shall be automatically expunged.

(C) Records shall be expunged by the law enforcement agency pursuant to the procedures set forth in subdivision (d)(9)(A) under the following timelines:

(i) Records created prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, but on or after January 1, 2013, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2021;

(ii) Records created prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023;

(iii) Records created prior to January 1, 2000 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2025.

In response to an inquiry for expunged records, the law enforcement agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed; however, it shall provide a certificate of disposition or confirmation that the record was expunged to the individual whose record was expunged if such a record exists.

(D) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have that individual's records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act, or diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(2) Pardons Authorizing Expungement of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) Upon June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, the Department of State Police shall review all criminal history record information and identify all records that meet all of the following criteria:

(i) one or more convictions for a Minor Cannabis Offense;

(ii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act; and

(iii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) is not associated with a an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(B) Within 180 days after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, the Department of State Police shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of all such records that meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A).

(i) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the county of conviction of each record identified by State Police in paragraph (2)(A) that is classified as a Class 4 felony. The State's Attorney may provide a written objection to the Prisoner Review Board on the sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A). Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by such later date set by Prisoner Review Board in the notice after the State's Attorney received notice from the Prisoner Review Board.

(ii) In response to a written objection from a State's Attorney, the Prisoner Review Board is authorized to conduct a non-public hearing to evaluate the information provided in the objection.

(iii) The Prisoner Review Board shall make a confidential and privileged recommendation to the Governor as to whether to grant a pardon authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the Department of State Police as described in paragraph (2)(A).

(C) If an individual has been granted a pardon authorizing expungement as described in this Section, the Prisoner Review Board, through the Attorney General, shall file a petition for expungement with the Chief Judge of the circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge where the individual had been convicted. Such petition may include more than one individual. Whenever an individual who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed. Petitions to expunge under this subsection (i) may include more than one individual. Within 90 days of the filing of such a petition, the court shall enter an order expunging the records of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department of State Police be expunged and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which the individual had received a pardon but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make it available to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or otherwise make available to the individual upon request.

(D) Nothing in this Section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(3) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the motion to vacate and expunge, and any supporting documentation, on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file such a petition after the completion of any non-financial sentence or non-financial condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and sentence or condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined by Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual. Motions filed by an agency providing civil legal aid concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically.

(4) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. Motions filed by a State's Attorney concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the individual's age, the individual's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. Upon entry of an order granting a motion to vacate and expunge records pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual whose records will be expunged to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make available to the individual upon request. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section. If the State's Attorney files a motion to vacate and expunge records for Minor Cannabis Offenses pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days of such filing. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(5) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(6) If a person is arrested for a Minor Cannabis Offense as defined in this Section before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly and the person's case is still pending but a sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges against him or her, and expunge all official records of his or her arrest, plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision, or expungement. If the court determines, upon review, that: (A) the person was arrested before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly for an offense that has been made eligible for expungement; (B) the case is pending at the time; and (C) the person has not been sentenced of the minor cannabis violation eligible for expungement under this subsection, the court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. If a motion to dismiss and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(7) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions for Minor Cannabis Offenses under this subsection (i) shall be released from incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.

(8) The Department of State Police shall allow a person to use the access and review process, established in the Department of State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to Minor Cannabis Offenses of the Cannabis Control Act eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(9) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(10) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(11) Information. The Department of State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (i).

(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-282, eff. 1-1-18; 100-284, eff. 8-24-17; 100-287, eff. 8-24-17; 100-692, eff. 8-3-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-776, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-159, eff. 1-1-20; 101-306, eff. 8-9-19; revised 9-25-19.)

Section 6. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of the tangible personal property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling price of the property. In all cases where property functionally used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail. For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of like kind and character in Illinois.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel and biodiesel blends with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

Section 7. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

Section 8. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

Section 9. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in the course of business.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

Within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4 inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each retail premises where a violation occurs.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before July 1, 2017, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2023 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.

With respect to food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, food consisting of or infused with adult use cannabis, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

As used in this Section, "adult use cannabis" means cannabis subject to tax under the Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law and the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax Law and does not include cannabis subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

Section 10. The Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 143/10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Business" means any trade, occupation, activity, or enterprise engaged in, at any location whatsoever, for the purpose of selling tobacco products.

"Cigarette" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 1 of the Cigarette Tax Act.

"Contraband little cigar" means:

(1) packages of little cigars containing 20 or 25 little cigars that do not bear a required tax stamp under this Act;

(2) packages of little cigars containing 20 or 25 little cigars that bear a fraudulent, imitation, or counterfeit tax stamp;

(3) packages of little cigars containing 20 or 25 little cigars that are improperly tax stamped, including packages of little cigars that bear only a tax stamp of another state or taxing jurisdiction; or

(4) packages of little cigars containing other than 20 or 25 little cigars in the possession of a distributor, retailer or wholesaler, unless the distributor, retailer, or wholesaler possesses, or produces within the time frame provided in Section 10-27 or 10-28 of this Act, an invoice from a stamping distributor, distributor, or wholesaler showing that the tax on the packages has been or will be paid.

"Correctional Industries program" means a program run by a State penal institution in which residents of the penal institution produce tobacco products for sale to persons incarcerated in penal institutions or resident patients of a State operated mental health facility.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Distributor" means any of the following:

(1) Any manufacturer or wholesaler in this State engaged in the business of selling tobacco products who sells, exchanges, or distributes tobacco products to retailers or consumers in this State.

(2) Any manufacturer or wholesaler engaged in the business of selling tobacco products from without this State who sells, exchanges, distributes, ships, or transports tobacco products to retailers or consumers located in this State, so long as that manufacturer or wholesaler has or maintains within this State, directly or by subsidiary, an office, sales house, or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the person or subsidiary, irrespective of whether the place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily.

(3) Any retailer who receives tobacco products on which the tax has not been or will not be paid by another distributor.

"Distributor" does not include any person, wherever resident or located, who makes, manufactures, or fabricates tobacco products as part of a Correctional Industries program for sale to residents incarcerated in penal institutions or resident patients of a State operated mental health facility.

"Electronic cigarette" means:

(1) any device that employs a battery or other mechanism to heat a solution or substance to produce a vapor or aerosol intended for inhalation;

(2) any cartridge or container of a solution or substance intended to be used with or in the device or to refill the device; or

(3) any solution or substance, whether or not it contains nicotine, intended for use in the device.

"Electronic cigarette" includes, but is not limited to, any electronic nicotine delivery system, electronic cigar, electronic cigarillo, electronic pipe, electronic hookah, vape pen, or similar product or device, and any component or part that can be used to build the product or device. "Electronic cigarette" does not include: cigarettes, as defined in Section 1 of the Cigarette Tax Act; any product approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco cessation product, a tobacco dependence product, or for other medical purposes that is marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose; any asthma inhaler prescribed by a physician for that condition that is marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose; or any therapeutic product approved for use under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Little cigar" means and includes any roll, made wholly or in part of tobacco, where such roll has an integrated cellulose acetate filter and weighs less than 4 pounds per thousand and the wrapper or cover of which is made in whole or in part of tobacco.

"Manufacturer" means any person, wherever resident or located, who manufactures and sells tobacco products, except a person who makes, manufactures, or fabricates tobacco products as a part of a Correctional Industries program for sale to persons incarcerated in penal institutions or resident patients of a State operated mental health facility.

Beginning on January 1, 2013, "moist snuff" means any finely cut, ground, or powdered tobacco that is not intended to be smoked, but shall not include any finely cut, ground, or powdered tobacco that is intended to be placed in the nasal cavity.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, limited liability company, or public or private corporation, however formed, or a receiver, executor, administrator, trustee, conservator, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Place of business" means and includes any place where tobacco products are sold or where tobacco products are manufactured, stored, or kept for the purpose of sale or consumption, including any vessel, vehicle, airplane, train, or vending machine.

"Retailer" means any person in this State engaged in the business of selling tobacco products to consumers in this State, regardless of quantity or number of sales.

"Sale" means any transfer, exchange, or barter in any manner or by any means whatsoever for a consideration and includes all sales made by persons.

"Stamp" or "stamps" mean the indicia required to be affixed on a package of little cigars that evidence payment of the tax on packages of little cigars containing 20 or 25 little cigars under Section 10-10 of this Act. These stamps shall be the same stamps used for cigarettes under the Cigarette Tax Act.

"Stamping distributor" means a distributor licensed under this Act and also licensed as a distributor under the Cigarette Tax Act or Cigarette Use Tax Act.

"Tobacco products" means any cigars, including little cigars; cheroots; stogies; periques; granulated, plug cut, crimp cut, ready rubbed, and other smoking tobacco; snuff (including moist snuff) or snuff flour; cavendish; plug and twist tobacco; fine-cut and other chewing tobaccos; shorts; refuse scraps, clippings, cuttings, and sweeping of tobacco; and other kinds and forms of tobacco, prepared in such manner as to be suitable for chewing or smoking in a pipe or otherwise, or both for chewing and smoking; but does not include cigarettes as defined in Section 1 of the Cigarette Tax Act or tobacco purchased for the manufacture of cigarettes by cigarette distributors and manufacturers defined in the Cigarette Tax Act and persons who make, manufacture, or fabricate cigarettes as a part of a Correctional Industries program for sale to residents incarcerated in penal institutions or resident patients of a State operated mental health facility.

Beginning on July 1, 2019, "tobacco products" also includes electronic cigarettes.

"Wholesale price" means the established list price for which a manufacturer sells tobacco products to a distributor, before the allowance of any discount, trade allowance, rebate, or other reduction. In the absence of such an established list price, the manufacturer's invoice price at which the manufacturer sells the tobacco product to unaffiliated distributors, before any discounts, trade allowances, rebates, or other reductions, shall be presumed to be the wholesale price.

"Wholesaler" means any person, wherever resident or located, engaged in the business of selling tobacco products to others for the purpose of resale. "Wholesaler", when used in this Act, does not include a person licensed as a distributor under Section 10-20 of this Act unless expressly stated in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19.)

Section 15. The Counties Code is amended by changing Section 5-1006.8 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.8)

Sec. 5-1006.8. County Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law.

(a) This Section may be referred to as the County Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law. The On and after January 1, 2020, the corporate authorities of any county may, by ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling cannabis, other than cannabis purchased under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from these sales made in the course of that business. If imposed, the tax shall be imposed only in 0.25% increments. The tax rate may not exceed: (i) 3.75% of the gross receipts of sales made in unincorporated areas of the county; and (ii) 3% of the gross receipts of sales made in a municipality located in the county. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department of Revenue and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are described in Sections 1, 1a, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 2i, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6bb, 6c, 6d, 7 8, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

(b) Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with any State tax that sellers are required to collect.

(c) Whenever the Department of Revenue determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department of Revenue shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department of Revenue.

(d) The Department of Revenue shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder for deposit into the Local Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Consumer Excise Tax Trust Fund.

(e) On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount of money to be disbursed from the Local Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Consumer Excise Tax Trust Fund to counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties under this Section during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section from sales made in the county during the second preceding calendar month, plus an amount the Department of Revenue determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such county, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the counties, shall prepare and certify the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(f) An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof that is shall be adopted on or after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and for which a certified copy is thereof filed with the Department on or before April 1, 2020 shall be administered and enforced by the Department beginning on July 1, 2020. For ordinances filed with the Department after April 1, 2020, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following the adoption and filing.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

Section 20. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing and renumbering Section 8-11-22, as added by Public Act 101-27, and by changing Section 8-11-6a as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-6a) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-6a)

Sec. 8-11-6a. Home rule municipalities; preemption of certain taxes. Except as provided in Sections 8-11-1, 8-11-5, 8-11-6, 8-11-6b, 8-11-6c, 8-11-23 8-11-22, and 11-74.3-6 on and after September 1, 1990, no home rule municipality has the authority to impose, pursuant to its home rule authority, a retailer's occupation tax, service occupation tax, use tax, sales tax or other tax on the use, sale or purchase of tangible personal property based on the gross receipts from such sales or the selling or purchase price of said tangible personal property. Notwithstanding the foregoing, this Section does not preempt any home rule imposed tax such as the following: (1) a tax on alcoholic beverages, whether based on gross receipts, volume sold or any other measurement; (2) a tax based on the number of units of cigarettes or tobacco products (provided, however, that a home rule municipality that has not imposed a tax based on the number of units of cigarettes or tobacco products before July 1, 1993, shall not impose such a tax after that date); (3) a tax, however measured, based on the use of a hotel or motel room or similar facility; (4) a tax, however measured, on the sale or transfer of real property; (5) a tax, however measured, on lease receipts; (6) a tax on food prepared for immediate consumption and on alcoholic beverages sold by a business which provides for on premise consumption of said food or alcoholic beverages; or (7) other taxes not based on the selling or purchase price or gross receipts from the use, sale or purchase of tangible personal property. This Section does not preempt a home rule municipality with a population of more than 2,000,000 from imposing a tax, however measured, on the use, for consideration, of a parking lot, garage, or other parking facility. This Section is not intended to affect any existing tax on food and beverages prepared for immediate consumption on the premises where the sale occurs, or any existing tax on alcoholic beverages, or any existing tax imposed on the charge for renting a hotel or motel room, which was in effect January 15, 1988, or any extension of the effective date of such an existing tax by ordinance of the municipality imposing the tax, which extension is hereby authorized, in any non-home rule municipality in which the imposition of such a tax has been upheld by judicial determination, nor is this Section intended to preempt the authority granted by Public Act 85-1006. On and after December 1, 2019, no home rule municipality has the authority to impose, pursuant to its home rule authority, a tax, however measured, on sales of aviation fuel, as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, unless the tax is not subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) 47017(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133, or unless the tax revenue is expended for airport-related purposes. For purposes of this Section, "airport-related purposes" has the meaning ascribed in Section 6z-20.2 of the State Finance Act. Aviation fuel shall be excluded from tax only if, and for so long as, the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) 47017(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the municipality. This Section is a limitation, pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, on the power of home rule units to tax. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 101-10 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly are a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (g) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 8-19-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-23)

Sec. 8-11-23 8-11-22. Municipal Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law.

(a) This Section may be referred to as the Municipal Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law. The On and after January 1, 2020, the corporate authorities of any municipality may, by ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling cannabis, other than cannabis purchased under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, at retail in the municipality on the gross receipts from these sales made in the course of that business. If imposed, the tax may not exceed 3% of the gross receipts from these sales and shall only be imposed in 1/4% increments. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 2i, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

(b) Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with any State tax that sellers are required to collect.

(c) Whenever the Department of Revenue determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department of Revenue shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department of Revenue.

(d) The Department of Revenue shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder for deposit into the Local Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Trust Regulation Fund.

(e) On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount of money to be disbursed from the Local Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Consumer Excise Tax Trust Fund to municipalities from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties under this Section during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section from sales made in the municipality during the second preceding calendar month, plus an amount the Department of Revenue determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(f) An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof that is shall be adopted on or after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and for which a certified copy is thereof filed with the Department on or before April 1, 2020 shall be administered and enforced by the Department beginning on July 1, 2020. For ordinances filed with the Department after April 1, 2020, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following the adoption and filing.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-17-19.)

Section 21. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Section 9002 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/9002) (from Ch. 17, par. 7309-2)

Sec. 9002. Powers of Secretary.

(a) The Secretary shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) To exercise the rights, powers, and duties set forth in this Act or in any related Act.

(2) To establish regulations as may be reasonable or necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act.

(3) To make an annual report regarding the work of his or her office under this Act as he may consider desirable to the Governor, or as the Governor may request.

(4) To cause a suit to be filed in his or her name to enforce any law of this State that applies to savings banks, their service corporations, subsidiaries, affiliates, or holding companies operating under this Act, including the enforcement of any obligation of the officers, directors, agents, or employees of any savings bank.

(5) To prescribe a uniform manner in which the books and records of every savings bank are to be maintained.

(6) To establish a reasonable fee structure for savings banks and holding companies operating under this Act and for their service corporations and subsidiaries. The fees shall include, but not be limited to, annual fees, application fees, regular and special examination fees, and other fees as the Secretary establishes and demonstrates to be directly resultant from the Secretary's responsibilities under this Act and as are directly attributable to individual entities operating under this Act. The aggregate of all moneys collected by the Secretary on and after the effective date of this Act shall be paid promptly after receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Savings Bank Regulatory Fund established under Section 9002.1 of this Act. Nothing in this Act shall prevent continuing the practice of paying expenses involving salaries, retirement, social security, and State-paid insurance of State officers by appropriation from the General Revenue Fund. The Secretary may require payment of the fees under this Act by an electronic transfer of funds or an automatic debit of an account of each of the savings banks.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a), the Secretary shall not:

(1) issue an order against a savings bank or holding company organized under this Act for unsafe or unsound banking practices solely because the entity provides or has provided financial services to a cannabis-related legitimate business;

(2) prohibit, penalize, or otherwise discourage a savings bank or holding company organized under this Act from providing financial services to a cannabis-related legitimate business solely because the entity provides or has provided financial services to a cannabis-related legitimate business;

(3) recommend, incentivize, or encourage a savings bank or holding company organized under this Act not to offer financial services to an account holder or to downgrade or cancel the financial services offered to an account holder solely because:

(A) the account holder is a manufacturer or producer, or is the owner, operator, or employee of, a cannabis-related legitimate business;

(B) the account holder later becomes an owner or operator of a cannabis-related legitimate business; or

(C) the savings bank or holding company organized under this Act was not aware that the account holder is the owner or operator of a cannabis-related legitimate business; or

(4) take any adverse or corrective supervisory action on a loan made to an owner or operator of:

(A) a cannabis-related legitimate business solely because the owner or operator owns or operates a cannabis-related legitimate business; or

(B) real estate or equipment that is leased to a cannabis-related legitimate business solely because the owner or operator of the real estate or equipment leased the equipment or real estate to a cannabis-related legitimate business.

(Source: P.A. 97-492, eff. 1-1-12; 98-1081, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 23. The Smoke Free Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(410 ILCS 82/35)

Sec. 35. Exemptions. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, smoking is allowed in the following areas:

(1) Private residences or dwelling places, except when used as a child care, adult day care, or healthcare facility or any other home-based business open to the public.

(2) Retail tobacco stores as defined in Section 10 of this Act in operation prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The retail tobacco store shall annually file with the Department by January 31st an affidavit stating the percentage of its gross income during the prior calendar year that was derived from the sale of loose tobacco, plants, or herbs and cigars, cigarettes, pipes, or other smoking devices for smoking tobacco and related smoking accessories. Any retail tobacco store that begins operation after the effective date of this amendatory Act may only qualify for an exemption if located in a freestanding structure occupied solely by the business and smoke from the business does not migrate into an enclosed area where smoking is prohibited. A retail tobacco store may, with authorization or permission from a unit of local government, including a home rule unit, or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, allow the on-premises consumption of cannabis in a specially designated areas.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Hotel and motel sleeping rooms that are rented to guests and are designated as smoking rooms, provided that all smoking rooms on the same floor must be contiguous and smoke from these rooms must not infiltrate into nonsmoking rooms or other areas where smoking is prohibited. Not more than 25% of the rooms rented to guests in a hotel or motel may be designated as rooms where smoking is allowed. The status of rooms as smoking or nonsmoking may not be changed, except to permanently add additional nonsmoking rooms.

(5) Enclosed laboratories that are excluded from the definition of "place of employment" in Section 10 of this Act. Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(6) Common smoking rooms in long-term care facilities operated under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs or licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act that are accessible only to residents who are smokers and have requested in writing to have access to the common smoking room where smoking is permitted and the smoke shall not infiltrate other areas of the long-term care facility. Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(7) A convention hall of the Donald E. Stephens Convention Center where a meeting or trade show for manufacturers and suppliers of tobacco and tobacco products and accessories is being held, during the time the meeting or trade show is occurring, if the meeting or trade show:

(i) is a trade-only event and not open to the public;

(ii) is limited to attendees and exhibitors that are 21 years of age or older;

(iii) is being produced or organized by a business relating to tobacco or a professional association for convenience stores; and

(iv) involves the display of tobacco products.

Smoking is not allowed in any public area outside of the hall designated for the meeting or trade show.

This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after October 1, 2015.

(8) A dispensing organization, as defined in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, authorized or permitted by a unit local government to allow on-site consumption of cannabis, if the establishment: (1) maintains a specially designated area or areas for the purpose of heating, burning, smoking, or lighting cannabis; (2) is limited to individuals 21 or older; and (3) maintains a locked door or barrier to any specially designated areas for the purpose of heating, burning, smoking or lighting cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 98-1023, eff. 8-22-14.)

Section 24. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by changing Sections 60 and 210 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/60)

Sec. 60. Issuance of registry identification cards.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the Department of Public Health shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a registry identification card submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 90 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation specified in Section 55;

(2) issue registry identification cards to a qualifying patient and his or her designated caregiver, if any, within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the registered dispensing organization the patient designates into the verification system; and

(4) allow for an electronic application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for qualifying patients and applicants with life-long debilitating medical conditions, who may be charged annual renewal fees. The Department of Public Health shall not require patients and applicants with life-long debilitating medical conditions to apply to renew registry identification cards.

(b) The Department of Public Health may not issue a registry identification card to a qualifying patient who is under 18 years of age, unless that patient suffers from seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy, or as provided by administrative rule. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for the issuance of a registry identification card for qualifying patients who are under 18 years of age and suffering from seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy. The Department of Public Health may adopt rules to allow other individuals under 18 years of age to become registered qualifying patients under this Act with the consent of a parent or legal guardian. Registered qualifying patients under 18 21 years of age shall be prohibited from consuming forms of cannabis other than medical cannabis infused products and purchasing any usable cannabis or paraphernalia used for smoking or vaping medical cannabis.

(c) A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital is deemed to have a bona fide health care professional-patient relationship with a VA certifying health care professional if the patient has been seen for his or her debilitating medical condition at the VA hospital in accordance with VA hospital protocols. All reasonable inferences regarding the existence of a bona fide health care professional-patient relationship shall be drawn in favor of an applicant who is a veteran and has undergone treatment at a VA hospital.

(c-10) An individual who submits an application as someone who is terminally ill shall have all fees waived. The Department of Public Health shall within 30 days after this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly adopt emergency rules to expedite approval for terminally ill individuals. These rules shall include, but not be limited to, rules that provide that applications by individuals with terminal illnesses shall be approved or denied within 14 days of their submission.

(d) No later than 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, the Secretary of State shall remove all existing notations on driving records that the person is a registered qualifying patient or his or her caregiver under this Act. Upon the approval of the registration and issuance of a registry card under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall forward the designated caregiver or registered qualified patient's driver's registration number to the Secretary of State and certify that the individual is permitted to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of law enforcement, the Secretary of State shall make a notation on the person's driving record stating the person is a registered qualifying patient who is entitled to the lawful medical use of cannabis. If the person no longer holds a valid registry card, the Department shall notify the Secretary of State and the Secretary of State shall remove the notation from the person's driving record. The Department and the Secretary of State may establish a system by which the information may be shared electronically.

(e) Upon the approval of the registration and issuance of a registry card under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall electronically forward the registered qualifying patient's identification card information to the Prescription Monitoring Program established under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and certify that the individual is permitted to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of patient care, the Prescription Monitoring Program shall make a notation on the person's prescription record stating that the person is a registered qualifying patient who is entitled to the lawful medical use of cannabis. If the person no longer holds a valid registry card, the Department of Public Health shall notify the Prescription Monitoring Program and Department of Human Services to remove the notation from the person's record. The Department of Human Services and the Prescription Monitoring Program shall establish a system by which the information may be shared electronically. This confidential list may not be combined or linked in any manner with any other list or database except as provided in this Section.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

(410 ILCS 130/210)

Sec. 210. Returns.

(a) This subsection (a) applies to returns due on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. On or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person subject to the tax imposed under this Law during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

(1) The name of the taxpayer;

(2) The number of ounces of medical cannabis sold to a dispensing dispensary organization or a registered qualifying patient during the preceding calendar month;

(3) The amount of tax due;

(4) The signature of the taxpayer; and

(5) Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

The taxpayer shall remit the amount of the tax due to the Department at the time the taxpayer files his or her return.

(b) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, Section 65-20 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act shall apply to returns filed and taxes paid under this Act to the same extent as if those provisions were set forth in full in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

Section 25. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 1-10, 5-5, 5-15, 5-20, 5-25, 7-1, 7-10, 7-15, 7-25, 10-5, 10-10, 10-15, 10-25, 10-30, 10-35, 10-40, 10-50, 15-15, 15-20, 15-25, 15-30, 15-35, 15-36, 15-40, 15-55, 15-65, 15-70, 15-75, 15-85, 15-95, 15-100, 15-145, 15-155, 20-10, 20-15, 20-20, 20-30, 25-1, 25-10, 30-5, 30-10, 30-15, 30-30, 35-5, 35-15, 35-25, 35-31, 40-5, 40-10, 40-15, 40-20, 40-25, 40-30, 40-35, 40-40, 45-5, 50-5, 55-10, 55-20, 55-21, 55-25, 55-28, 55-30, 55-35, 55-65, 55-80, 55-85, 55-95, 60-5, 60-20, 65-5, 65-10, and 65-15 and by adding Section 1-7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Findings.

(a) In the interest of allowing law enforcement to focus on violent and property crimes, generating revenue for education, substance abuse prevention and treatment, freeing public resources to invest in communities and other public purposes, and individual freedom, the General Assembly finds and declares that the use of cannabis should be legal for persons 21 years of age or older and should be taxed in a manner similar to alcohol.

(b) In the interest of the health and public safety of the residents of Illinois, the General Assembly further finds and declares that cannabis should be regulated in a manner similar to alcohol so that:

(1) persons will have to show proof of age before purchasing cannabis;

(2) selling, distributing, or transferring cannabis to minors and other persons under 21 years of age shall remain illegal;

(3) driving under the influence of cannabis, operating a watercraft under the influence of cannabis, and operating a snowmobile under the influence of cannabis shall remain illegal;

(4) legitimate, taxpaying business people, and not criminal actors, will conduct sales of cannabis;

(5) cannabis sold in this State will be tested, labeled, and subject to additional regulation to ensure that purchasers are informed and protected; and

(6) purchasers will be informed of any known health risks associated with the use of cannabis, as concluded by evidence-based, peer reviewed research.

(c) The General Assembly further finds and declares that it is necessary to ensure consistency and fairness in the application of this Act throughout the State and that, therefore, the matters addressed by this Act are, except as specified in this Act, matters of statewide concern.

(d) The General Assembly further finds and declares that this Act shall not diminish the State's duties and commitment to seriously ill patients registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, nor alter the protections granted to them.

(e) The General Assembly supports and encourages labor neutrality in the cannabis industry and further finds and declares that employee workplace safety shall not be diminished and employer workplace policies shall be interpreted broadly to protect employee safety.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/1-7 new)

Sec. 1-7. Lawful user and lawful products. For the purposes of this Act and to clarify the legislative findings on the lawful use of cannabis, a person shall not be considered an unlawful user or addicted to narcotics solely as a result of his or her possession or use of cannabis or cannabis paraphernalia in accordance with this Act.

(410 ILCS 705/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license issued by the Department of Agriculture that permits a person to act as a cultivation center under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that permits a person to act as a dispensing organization under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Advertise" means to engage in promotional activities including, but not limited to: newspaper, radio, Internet and electronic media, and television advertising; the distribution of fliers and circulars; billboard advertising; and the display of window and interior signs. "Advertise" does not mean exterior signage displaying only the name of the licensed cannabis business establishment.

"BLS Region" means a region in Illinois used by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics to gather and categorize certain employment and wage data. The 17 such regions in Illinois are: Bloomington, Cape Girardeau, Carbondale-Marion, Champaign-Urbana, Chicago-Naperville-Elgin, Danville, Davenport-Moline-Rock Island, Decatur, Kankakee, Peoria, Rockford, St. Louis, Springfield, Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan area, West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, and South Illinois nonmetropolitan area.

"Cannabis" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other naturally produced cannabinol derivatives, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction; however, "cannabis" does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination. "Cannabis" does not include industrial hemp as defined and authorized under the Industrial Hemp Act. "Cannabis" also means cannabis flower, concentrate, and cannabis-infused products.

"Cannabis business establishment" means a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, infuser organization, dispensing organization, or transporting organization.

"Cannabis concentrate" means a product derived from cannabis that is produced by extracting cannabinoids, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), from the plant through the use of propylene glycol, glycerin, butter, olive oil or other typical cooking fats; water, ice, or dry ice; or butane, propane, CO₂, ethanol, or isopropanol and with the intended use of smoking or making a cannabis-infused product. The use of any other solvent is expressly prohibited unless and until it is approved by the Department of Agriculture.

"Cannabis container" means a sealed, traceable, container, or package used for the purpose of containment of cannabis or cannabis-infused product during transportation.

"Cannabis flower" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis; including raw kief, leaves, and buds, but not resin that has been extracted from any part of such plant; nor any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or resin.

"Cannabis-infused product" means a beverage, food, oil, ointment, tincture, topical formulation, or another product containing cannabis or cannabis concentrate that is not intended to be smoked.

"Cannabis paraphernalia" means equipment, products, or materials intended to be used for planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, ingesting, or otherwise introducing cannabis into the human body.

"Cannabis plant monitoring system" or "plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the cultivation center, craft grower, or processing organization and that is available to the Department of Revenue, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Department of State Police for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a customer from seed planting to final packaging.

"Cannabis testing facility" means an entity registered by the Department of Agriculture to test cannabis for potency and contaminants.

"Clone" means a plant section from a female cannabis plant not yet rootbound, growing in a water solution or other propagation matrix, that is capable of developing into a new plant.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant" means a person who is 21 years of age or older, licensed by the Department of Agriculture, and is employed or contracted by an Illinois community college to provide student instruction using cannabis plants at an Illinois Community College.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant.

"Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license awarded to top-scoring applicants for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License adult use dispensing organization license if the applicant meets certain conditions described in this Act, but does not entitle the recipient to begin purchasing or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license awarded to top-scoring applicants for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Cultivation Center License if the applicant meets certain conditions as determined by the Department of Agriculture by rule, but does not entitle the recipient to begin growing, processing, or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Craft grower" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, dry, cure, and package cannabis and perform other necessary activities to make cannabis available for sale at a dispensing organization or use at a processing organization. A craft grower may contain up to 5,000 square feet of canopy space on its premises for plants in the flowering state. The Department of Agriculture may authorize an increase or decrease of flowering stage cultivation space in increments of 3,000 square feet by rule based on market need, craft grower capacity, and the licensee's history of compliance or noncompliance, with a maximum space of 14,000 square feet for cultivating plants in the flowering stage, which must be cultivated in all stages of growth in an enclosed and secure area. A craft grower may share premises with a processing organization or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

"Craft grower agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a craft grower who is 21 years of age or older.

"Craft Grower Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a craft grower agent.

"Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, process, transport (unless otherwise limited by this Act), and perform other necessary activities to provide cannabis and cannabis-infused products to cannabis business establishments.

"Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older.

"Cultivation Center Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

"Currency" means currency and coin of the United States.

"Dispensary" means a facility operated by a dispensing organization at which activities licensed by this Act may occur.

"Dispensing organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire cannabis from a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, or another dispensary for the purpose of selling or dispensing cannabis, cannabis-infused products, cannabis seeds, paraphernalia, or related supplies under this Act to purchasers or to qualified registered medical cannabis patients and caregivers. As used in this Act, "dispensing dispensary organization" includes shall include a registered medical cannabis organization as defined in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act or its successor Act that has obtained an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, employee, or agent of a dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older.

"Dispensing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a dispensing organization agent.

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to the sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis cultivation center licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin cultivating, infusing, packaging, transporting (unless otherwise provided in this Act), processing and selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to cannabis business establishments for resale to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act on January 1, 2020 at a different dispensary location from its existing registered medical dispensary location.

"Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by cannabis business establishment agents working for the licensed cannabis business establishment or acting pursuant to this Act to cultivate, process, store, or distribute cannabis.

"Enclosed, locked space" means a closet, room, greenhouse, building or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by authorized individuals under this Act. "Enclosed, locked space" may include:

(1) a space within a residential building that (i) is the primary residence of the individual cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall and (ii) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing. The space must only be accessible by a key or code that is different from any key or code that can be used to access the residential building from the exterior; or

(2) a structure, such as a shed or greenhouse, that lies on the same plot of land as a residential building that (i) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing and (ii) is used as a primary residence by the person cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall, such as a shed or greenhouse. The structure must remain locked when it is unoccupied by people.

"Financial institution" has the same meaning as "financial organization" as defined in Section 1501 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and also includes the holding companies, subsidiaries, and affiliates of such financial organizations.

"Flowering stage" means the stage of cultivation where and when a cannabis plant is cultivated to produce plant material for cannabis products. This includes mature plants as follows:

(1) if greater than 2 stigmas are visible at each internode of the plant; or

(2) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, from the moment the light deprivation began through the remainder of the marijuana plant growth cycle.

"Individual" means a natural person.

"Infuser organization" or "infuser" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to directly incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis-infused product.

"Kief" means the resinous crystal-like trichomes that are found on cannabis and that are accumulated, resulting in a higher concentration of cannabinoids, untreated by heat or pressure, or extracted using a solvent.

"Labor peace agreement" means an agreement between a cannabis business establishment and any labor organization recognized under the National Labor Relations Act, referred to in this Act as a bona fide labor organization, that prohibits labor organizations and members from engaging in picketing, work stoppages, boycotts, and any other economic interference with the cannabis business establishment. This agreement means that the cannabis business establishment has agreed not to disrupt efforts by the bona fide labor organization to communicate with, and attempt to organize and represent, the cannabis business establishment's employees. The agreement shall provide a bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the cannabis business establishment's employees work, for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under State law, and terms and conditions of employment. This type of agreement shall not mandate a particular method of election or certification of the bona fide labor organization.

"Limited access area" means a building, room, or other area under the control of a cannabis dispensing organization licensed under this Act and upon the licensed premises where cannabis sales occur with access limited to purchasers, dispensing organization owners and other dispensing organization agents, or service professionals conducting business with the dispensing organization, or, if sales to registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants licensed pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act are also permitted at the dispensary, registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants.

"Member of an impacted family" means an individual who has a parent, legal guardian, child, spouse, or dependent, or was a dependent of an individual who, prior to the effective date of this Act, was arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act.

"Mother plant" means a cannabis plant that is cultivated or maintained for the purpose of generating clones, and that will not be used to produce plant material for sale to an infuser or dispensing organization.

"Ordinary public view" means within the sight line with normal visual range of a person, unassisted by visual aids, from a public street or sidewalk adjacent to real property, or from within an adjacent property.

"Ownership and control" means ownership of at least 51% of the business, including corporate stock if a corporation, and control over the management and day-to-day operations of the business and an interest in the capital, assets, and profits and losses of the business proportionate to percentage of ownership.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Possession limit" means the amount of cannabis under Section 10-10 that may be possessed at any one time by a person 21 years of age or older or who is a registered qualifying medical cannabis patient or caregiver under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Principal officer" includes a cannabis business establishment applicant or licensed cannabis business establishment's board member, owner with more than 1% interest of the total cannabis business establishment or more than 5% interest of the total cannabis business establishment of a publicly traded company, president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, partner, officer, member, manager member, or person with a profit sharing, financial interest, or revenue sharing arrangement. The definition includes a person with authority to control the cannabis business establishment, a person who assumes responsibility for the debts of the cannabis business establishment and who is further defined in this Act.

"Primary residence" means a dwelling where a person usually stays or stays more often than other locations. It may be determined by, without limitation, presence, tax filings; address on an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card; or voter registration. No person may have more than one primary residence.

"Processing organization" or "processor" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to either extract constituent chemicals or compounds to produce cannabis concentrate or incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis product.

"Processing organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a processing organization.

"Processing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a processing organization agent.

"Purchaser" means a person 21 years of age or older who acquires cannabis for a valuable consideration. "Purchaser" does not include a cardholder under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Qualified Social Equity Applicant" means a Social Equity Applicant who has been awarded a conditional license under this Act to operate a cannabis business establishment.

"Resided" means an individual's primary residence was located within the relevant geographic area as established by 2 of the following:

(1) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(2) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(3) school records;

(4) a voter registration card;

(5) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(6) a paycheck stub;

(7) a utility bill;

(8) tax records; or

(9) (8) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

"Smoking" means the inhalation of smoke caused by the combustion of cannabis.

"Social Equity Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who:

(i) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act; or

(ii) is a member of an impacted family;

(3) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51% of current employees who:

(i) currently reside in a Disproportionately Impacted Area; or

(ii) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act or member of an impacted family.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to preempt or limit the duties of any employer under the Job Opportunities for Qualified Applicants Act. Nothing in this Act shall permit an employer to require an employee to disclose sealed or expunged offenses, unless otherwise required by law.

"Tincture" means a cannabis-infused solution, typically comprised of alcohol, glycerin, or vegetable oils, derived either directly from the cannabis plant or from a processed cannabis extract. A tincture is not an alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934. A tincture shall include a calibrated dropper or other similar device capable of accurately measuring servings.

"Transporting organization" or "transporter" means an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to transport cannabis or cannabis-infused product on behalf of a cannabis business establishment or a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program.

"Transporting organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a transporting organization.

"Transporting organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a transporting organization agent.

"Unit of local government" means any county, city, village, or incorporated town.

"Vegetative stage" means the stage of cultivation in which a cannabis plant is propagated to produce additional cannabis plants or reach a sufficient size for production. This includes seedlings, clones, mothers, and other immature cannabis plants as follows:

(1) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has not been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, it has no more than 2 stigmas visible at each internode of the cannabis plant; or

(2) any cannabis plant that is cultivated solely for the purpose of propagating clones and is never used to produce cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Sharing of authority. Notwithstanding any provision of or law to the contrary, any authority granted to any State agency or State employees or appointees under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act shall be shared by any State agency or State employees or appointees given authority to license, discipline, revoke, regulate, or make rules under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall enforce the provisions of this Act relating to the oversight and registration of dispensing organizations and agents, including the issuance of identification cards for dispensing organization agents. The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may suspend or revoke the license of, or otherwise discipline dispensing organizations, principal officers, agents-in-charge, and agents impose other penalties upon, dispensing organizations for violations of this Act and any rules adopted under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Background checks.

(a) Through the Department of State Police, the licensing or issuing Department shall conduct a criminal history record check of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of a cannabis business establishment applying for a license or identification card under this Act.

Each cannabis business establishment prospective principal officer, board member, or agent shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

Unless otherwise provided in this Act, such Such fingerprints shall be transmitted through a live scan fingerprint vendor licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the State and national criminal history record check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information and shall forward the national criminal history record information to:

(i) the Department of Agriculture, with respect to a cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, or transporting organization; or

(ii) the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, with respect to a dispensing organization.

(b) When applying for the initial license or identification card, the background checks for all prospective principal officers, board members, and agents shall be completed before submitting the application to the licensing or issuing agency.

(c) All applications for licensure under this Act by applicants with criminal convictions shall be subject to Sections 2105-131, 2105-135, and 2105-205 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/5-25)

Sec. 5-25. Department of Public Health to make health warning recommendations.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall make recommendations to the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation on appropriate health warnings for dispensaries and advertising, which may apply to all cannabis products, including item-type specific labeling or warning requirements, regulate the facility where cannabis-infused products are made, regulate cannabis-infused products as provided in subsection (e) of Section 55-5, and facilitate the Adult Use Cannabis Health Advisory Committee.

(b) An Adult Use Cannabis Health Advisory Committee is hereby created and shall meet at least twice annually. The Chairperson may schedule meetings more frequently upon his or her initiative or upon the request of a Committee member. Meetings may be held in person or by teleconference. The Committee shall discuss and monitor changes in drug use data in Illinois and the emerging science and medical information relevant to the health effects associated with cannabis use and may provide recommendations to the Department of Human Services about public health awareness campaigns and messages. The Committee shall include the following members appointed by the Governor and shall represent the geographic, ethnic, and racial diversity of the State:

(1) The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee, who shall serve as the Chairperson.

(2) The Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee, who shall serve as the Co-Chairperson.

(3) A representative of the poison control center.

(4) A pharmacologist.

(5) A pulmonologist.

(6) An emergency room physician.

(7) An emergency medical technician, paramedic, or other first responder.

(8) A nurse practicing in a school-based setting.

(9) A psychologist.

(10) A neonatologist.

(11) An obstetrician-gynecologist.

(12) A drug epidemiologist.

(13) A medical toxicologist.

(14) An addiction psychiatrist.

(15) A pediatrician.

(16) A representative of a statewide professional public health organization.

(17) A representative of a statewide hospital/health system association.

(18) An individual registered as a patient in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program.

(19) An individual registered as a caregiver in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program.

(20) A representative of an organization focusing on cannabis-related policy.

(21) A representative of an organization focusing on the civil liberties of individuals who reside in Illinois.

(22) A representative of the criminal defense or civil aid community of attorneys serving Disproportionately Impacted Areas.

(23) A representative of licensed cannabis business establishments.

(24) A Social Equity Applicant.

(25) A representative of a statewide community-based substance use disorder treatment provider association.

(26) A representative of a statewide community-based mental health treatment provider association.

(27) A representative of a community-based substance use disorder treatment provider.

(28) A representative of a community-based mental health treatment provider.

(29) A substance use disorder treatment patient representative.

(30) A mental health treatment patient representative.

(c) The Committee shall provide a report by September 30, 2021, and every year thereafter, to the General Assembly. The Department of Public Health shall make the report available on its website.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/7-1)

Sec. 7-1. Findings.

(a) The General Assembly finds that the medical cannabis industry, established in 2014 through the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, has shown that additional efforts are needed to reduce barriers to ownership. Through that program, 55 licenses for dispensing organizations and 20 licenses for cultivation centers have been issued. Those licenses are held by only a small number of businesses, the ownership of which does not sufficiently meet the General Assembly's interest in business ownership that reflects the population of the State of Illinois and that demonstrates the need to reduce barriers to entry for individuals and communities most adversely impacted by the enforcement of cannabis-related laws.

(b) In the interest of establishing a legal cannabis industry that is equitable and accessible to those most adversely impacted by the enforcement of drug-related laws in this State, including cannabis-related laws, the General Assembly finds and declares that a social equity program should be established.

(c) The General Assembly also finds and declares that individuals who have been arrested or incarcerated due to drug laws suffer long-lasting negative consequences, including impacts to employment, business ownership, housing, health, and long-term financial well-being.

(d) The General Assembly also finds and declares that family members, especially children, and communities of those who have been arrested or incarcerated due to drug laws, suffer from emotional, psychological, and financial harms as a result of such arrests or incarcerations.

(e) Furthermore, the General Assembly finds and declares that certain communities have disproportionately suffered the harms of enforcement of cannabis-related laws. Those communities face greater difficulties accessing traditional banking systems and capital for establishing businesses.

(f) The General Assembly also finds that individuals who have resided in areas of high poverty suffer negative consequences, including barriers to entry in employment, business ownership, housing, health, and long-term financial well-being.

(g) The General Assembly also finds and declares that promotion of business ownership by individuals who have resided in areas of high poverty and high enforcement of cannabis-related laws furthers an equitable cannabis industry.

(h) Therefore, in the interest of remedying the harms resulting from the disproportionate enforcement of cannabis-related laws, the General Assembly finds and declares that a social equity program should offer, among other things, financial assistance and license application benefits to individuals most directly and adversely impacted by the enforcement of cannabis-related laws who are interested in starting cannabis business establishments.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/7-10)

Sec. 7-10. Cannabis Business Development Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund, which shall be held separate and apart from all other State moneys, to be known as the Cannabis Business Development Fund. The Cannabis Business Development Fund shall be exclusively used for the following purposes:

(1) to provide low-interest rate loans to Qualified Social Equity Applicants to pay for ordinary and necessary expenses to start and operate a cannabis business establishment permitted by this Act;

(2) to provide grants to Qualified Social Equity Applicants to pay for ordinary and necessary expenses to start and operate a cannabis business establishment permitted by this Act;

(3) to compensate the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for any costs related to the provision of low-interest loans and grants to Qualified Social Equity Applicants;

(4) to pay for outreach that may be provided or targeted to attract and support Social Equity Applicants and Qualified Social Equity Applicants;

(5) (blank);

(6) to conduct any study or research concerning the participation of minorities, women, veterans, or people with disabilities in the cannabis industry, including, without limitation, barriers to such individuals entering the industry as equity owners of cannabis business establishments;

(7) (blank); and

(8) to assist with job training and technical assistance for residents in Disproportionately Impacted Areas.

(b) All moneys collected under Sections 15-15 and 15-20 for Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses issued before January 1, 2021 and remunerations made as a result of transfers of permits awarded to Qualified Social Equity Applicants shall be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund.

(c) As soon as practical after July 1, 2019, the Comptroller shall order and the Treasurer shall transfer $12,000,000 from the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund to the Cannabis Business Development Fund.

(d) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Cannabis Business Development Fund is not subject to sweeps, administrative charge-backs, or any other fiscal or budgetary maneuver that would in any way transfer any amounts from the Cannabis Business Development Fund into any other fund of the State.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/7-15)

Sec. 7-15. Loans and grants to Social Equity Applicants.

(a) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall establish grant and loan programs, subject to appropriations from the Cannabis Business Development Fund, for the purposes of providing financial assistance, loans, grants, and technical assistance to Social Equity Applicants.

(b) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity has the power to:

(1) provide Cannabis Social Equity loans and grants from appropriations from the Cannabis Business Development Fund to assist Qualified Social Equity Applicants in gaining entry to, and successfully operating in, the State's regulated cannabis marketplace;

(2) enter into agreements that set forth terms and conditions of the financial assistance, accept funds or grants, and engage in cooperation with private entities and agencies of State or local government to carry out the purposes of this Section;

(3) fix, determine, charge, and collect any premiums, fees, charges, costs and expenses, including application fees, commitment fees, program fees, financing charges, or publication fees in connection with its activities under this Section;

(4) coordinate assistance under these loan programs with activities of the Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Illinois Department of Agriculture, and other agencies as needed to maximize the effectiveness and efficiency of this Act;

(5) provide staff, administration, and related support required to administer this Section;

(6) take whatever actions are necessary or appropriate to protect the State's interest in the event of bankruptcy, default, foreclosure, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of financial assistance provided under this Section, including the ability to recapture funds if the recipient is found to be noncompliant with the terms and conditions of the financial assistance agreement;

(7) establish application, notification, contract, and other forms, procedures, or rules deemed necessary and appropriate; and

(8) utilize vendors or contract work to carry out the purposes of this Act.

(c) Loans made under this Section:

(1) shall only be made if, in the Department's judgment, the project furthers the goals set forth in this Act; and

(2) shall be in such principal amount and form and contain such terms and provisions with respect to security, insurance, reporting, delinquency charges, default remedies, and other matters as the Department shall determine appropriate to protect the public interest and to be consistent with the purposes of this Section. The terms and provisions may be less than required for similar loans not covered by this Section.

(d) Grants made under this Section shall be awarded on a competitive and annual basis under the Grant Accountability and Transparency Act. Grants made under this Section shall further and promote the goals of this Act, including promotion of Social Equity Applicants, job training and workforce development, and technical assistance to Social Equity Applicants.

(e) Beginning January 1, 2021 and each year thereafter, the Department shall annually report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the outcomes and effectiveness of this Section that shall include the following:

(1) the number of persons or businesses receiving financial assistance under this Section;

(2) the amount in financial assistance awarded in the aggregate, in addition to the amount of loans made that are outstanding and the amount of grants awarded;

(3) the location of the project engaged in by the person or business; and

(4) if applicable, the number of new jobs and other forms of economic output created as a result of the financial assistance.

(f) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall include engagement with individuals with limited English proficiency as part of its outreach provided or targeted to attract and support Social Equity Applicants.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/7-25)

Sec. 7-25. Transfer of license awarded to Qualified Social Equity Applicant.

(a) In the event a Qualified Social Equity Applicant seeks to transfer, sell, or grant a cannabis business establishment license within 5 years after it was issued to a person or entity that does not qualify as a Social Equity Applicant, the transfer agreement shall require the new license holder to pay the Cannabis Business Development Fund an amount equal to:

(1) any fees that were waived by any State agency based on the applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, if applicable;

(2) any outstanding amount owed by the Qualified Social Equity Applicant for a loan through the Cannabis Business Development Fund, if applicable; and

(3) the full amount of any grants that the Qualified Social Equity Applicant received from the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, if applicable.

(b) Transfers of cannabis business establishment licenses awarded to a Social Equity Applicant are subject to all other provisions of this Act, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, and rules regarding transfers.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Personal use of cannabis; restrictions on cultivation; penalties.

(a) Beginning January 1, 2020, notwithstanding any other provision of law, and except as otherwise provided in this Act, the following acts are not a violation of this Act and shall not be a criminal or civil offense under State law or the ordinances of any unit of local government of this State or be a basis for seizure or forfeiture of assets under State law for persons other than natural individuals under 21 years of age:

(1) possession, consumption, use, purchase, obtaining, or transporting cannabis paraphernalia or an amount of cannabis for personal use that does not exceed the possession limit under Section 10-10 or otherwise in accordance with the requirements of this Act;

(2) cultivation of cannabis for personal use in accordance with the requirements of this Act; and

(3) controlling property if actions that are authorized by this Act occur on the property in accordance with this Act.

(a-1) Beginning January 1, 2020, notwithstanding any other provision of law, and except as otherwise provided in this Act, possessing, consuming, using, purchasing, obtaining, or transporting cannabis paraphernalia or an amount of cannabis purchased or produced in accordance with this Act that does not exceed the possession limit under subsection (a) of Section 10-10 shall not be a basis for seizure or forfeiture of assets under State law.

(b) Cultivating cannabis for personal use is subject to the following limitations:

(1) An Illinois resident 21 years of age or older who is a registered qualifying patient under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act may cultivate cannabis plants, with a limit of 5 plants that are more than 5 inches tall, per household without a cultivation center or craft grower license. In this Section, "resident" means a person who has been domiciled in the State of Illinois for a period of 30 days before cultivation.

(2) Cannabis cultivation must take place in an enclosed, locked space.

(3) Adult registered qualifying patients may purchase cannabis seeds from a dispensary for the purpose of home cultivation. Seeds may not be given or sold to any other person.

(4) Cannabis plants shall not be stored or placed in a location where they are subject to ordinary public view, as defined in this Act. A registered qualifying patient who cultivates cannabis under this Section shall take reasonable precautions to ensure the plants are secure from unauthorized access, including unauthorized access by a person under 21 years of age.

(5) Cannabis cultivation may occur only on residential property lawfully in possession of the cultivator or with the consent of the person in lawful possession of the property. An owner or lessor of residential property may prohibit the cultivation of cannabis by a lessee.

(6) (Blank).

(7) A dwelling, residence, apartment, condominium unit, enclosed, locked space, or piece of property not divided into multiple dwelling units shall not contain more than 5 plants at any one time.

(8) Cannabis plants may only be tended by registered qualifying patients who reside at the residence, or their authorized agent attending to the residence for brief periods, such as when the qualifying patient is temporarily away from the residence.

(9) A registered qualifying patient who cultivates more than the allowable number of cannabis plants, or who sells or gives away cannabis plants, cannabis, or cannabis-infused products produced under this Section, is liable for penalties as provided by law, including the Cannabis Control Act, in addition to loss of home cultivation privileges as established by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Possession limit.

(a) Except if otherwise authorized by this Act, for a person who is 21 years of age or older and a resident of this State, the possession limit is as follows:

(1) 30 grams of cannabis flower;

(2) no more than 500 milligrams of THC contained in cannabis-infused product;

(3) 5 grams of cannabis concentrate; and

(4) for registered qualifying patients, any cannabis produced by cannabis plants grown under subsection (b) of Section 10-5, provided any amount of cannabis produced in excess of 30 grams of raw cannabis or its equivalent must remain secured within the residence or residential property in which it was grown.

(b) For a person who is 21 years of age or older and who is not a resident of this State, the possession limit is:

(1) 15 grams of cannabis flower;

(2) 2.5 grams of cannabis concentrate; and

(3) 250 milligrams of THC contained in a cannabis-infused product.

(c) The possession limits found in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section are to be considered cumulative.

(d) No person shall knowingly obtain, seek to obtain, or possess an amount of cannabis from a dispensing organization or craft grower that would cause him or her to exceed the possession limit under this Section, including cannabis that is cultivated by a person under this Act or obtained under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(e) Cannabis and cannabis-derived substances regulated under the Industrial Hemp Act are not covered by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-15)

Sec. 10-15. Persons under 21 years of age.

(a) Nothing in this Act is intended to permit the transfer of cannabis, with or without remuneration, to a person under 21 years of age, or to allow a person under 21 years of age to purchase, possess, use, process, transport, grow, or consume cannabis except where authorized by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act or by the Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of law authorizing the possession of medical cannabis, nothing in this Act authorizes a person who is under 21 years of age to possess cannabis. A person under 21 years of age with cannabis in his or her possession is guilty of a civil law violation as outlined in paragraph (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(c) If the person under the age of 21 was in a motor vehicle at the time of the offense, the Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person for a violation of this Section under Section 6-206 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the rules adopted under it.

(d) It is unlawful for any parent or guardian to knowingly permit his or her residence, any other private property under his or her control, or any vehicle, conveyance, or watercraft under his or her control to be used by an invitee of the parent's child or the guardian's ward, if the invitee is under the age of 21, in a manner that constitutes a violation of this Section. A parent or guardian is deemed to have knowingly permitted his or her residence, any other private property under his or her control, or any vehicle, conveyance, or watercraft under his or her control to be used in violation of this Section if he or she knowingly authorizes or permits consumption of cannabis by underage invitees. Any person who violates this subsection (d) is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and the person's sentence shall include, but shall not be limited to, a fine of not less than $500. If a violation of this subsection (d) directly or indirectly results in great bodily harm or death to any person, the person violating this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony. In this subsection (d), where the residence or other property has an owner and a tenant or lessee, the trier of fact may infer that the residence or other property is occupied only by the tenant or lessee.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-25)

Sec. 10-25. Immunities and presumptions related to the use of cannabis by purchasers.

(a) A purchaser who is 21 years of age or older is not subject to arrest, prosecution, denial of any right or privilege, or other punishment including, but not limited to, any civil penalty or disciplinary action taken by an occupational or professional licensing board, based solely on the use of cannabis if (1) the purchaser possesses an amount of cannabis that does not exceed the possession limit under Section 10-10 and, if the purchaser is licensed, certified, or registered to practice any trade or profession under any Act and (2) the use of cannabis does not impair that person when he or she is engaged in the practice of the profession for which he or she is licensed, certified, or registered.

(b) A purchaser 21 years of age or older is not subject to arrest, prosecution, denial of any right or privilege, or other punishment, including, but not limited to, any civil penalty or disciplinary action taken by an occupational or professional licensing board, based solely for (i) selling cannabis paraphernalia if employed and licensed as a dispensing agent by a dispensing organization; or (ii) being in the presence or vicinity of the use of cannabis or cannabis paraphernalia as allowed under this Act; or (iii) possessing cannabis paraphernalia.

(c) Mere possession of, or application for, an agent identification card or license does not constitute probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe that a crime has been committed, nor shall it be used as the sole basis to support the search of the person, property, or home of the person possessing or applying for the agent identification card. The possession of, or application for, an agent identification card does not preclude the existence of probable cause if probable cause exists based on other grounds.

(d) No person employed by the State of Illinois shall be subject to criminal or civil penalties for taking any action in good faith in reliance on this Act when acting within the scope of his or her employment. Representation and indemnification shall be provided to State employees as set forth in Section 2 of the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(e) No law enforcement or correctional agency, nor any person employed by a law enforcement or correctional agency, shall be subject to criminal or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct, as a result of taking any action within the scope of the official duties of the agency or person to prohibit or prevent the possession or use of cannabis by a person incarcerated at a correctional facility, jail, or municipal lockup facility, on parole or mandatory supervised release, or otherwise under the lawful jurisdiction of the agency or person.

(f) For purposes of receiving medical care, including organ transplants, a person's use of cannabis under this Act does not constitute the use of an illicit substance or otherwise disqualify a person from medical care.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-30)

Sec. 10-30. Discrimination prohibited.

(a) Neither the presence of cannabinoid components or metabolites in a person's bodily fluids nor possession of cannabis-related paraphernalia, nor conduct related to the use of cannabis or the participation in cannabis-related activities lawful under this Act by a custodial or noncustodial parent, grandparent, legal guardian, foster parent, or other person charged with the well-being of a child, shall form the sole or primary basis or supporting basis for any action or proceeding by a child welfare agency or in a family or juvenile court, any adverse finding, adverse evidence, or restriction of any right or privilege in a proceeding related to adoption of a child, acting as a foster parent of a child, or a person's fitness to adopt a child or act as a foster parent of a child, or serve as the basis of any adverse finding, adverse evidence, or restriction of any right of privilege in a proceeding related to guardianship, conservatorship, trusteeship, the execution of a will, or the management of an estate, unless the person's actions in relation to cannabis created an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor or otherwise show the person to not be competent as established by clear and convincing evidence. This subsection applies only to conduct protected under this Act.

(b) No landlord may be penalized or denied any benefit under State law for leasing to a person who uses cannabis under this Act.

(c) Nothing in this Act may be construed to require any person or establishment in lawful possession of property to allow a guest, client, lessee, customer, or visitor to use cannabis on or in that property, including on any land owned in whole or in part or managed in whole or in part by the State.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-35)

Sec. 10-35. Limitations and penalties.

(a) This Act does not permit any person to engage in, and does not prevent the imposition of any civil, criminal, or other penalties for engaging in, any of the following conduct:

(1) undertaking any task under the influence of cannabis when doing so would constitute negligence, professional malpractice, or professional misconduct;

(2) possessing cannabis:

(A) in a school bus, unless permitted for a qualifying patient or caregiver pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(B) on the grounds of any preschool or primary or secondary school, unless permitted for a qualifying patient or caregiver pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(C) in any correctional facility;

(D) in a vehicle not open to the public unless the cannabis is in a reasonably secured, sealed container and reasonably inaccessible while the vehicle is moving; or

(E) in a private residence that is used at any time to provide licensed child care or other similar social service care on the premises;

(3) using cannabis:

(A) in a school bus, unless permitted for a qualifying patient or caregiver pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(B) on the grounds of any preschool or primary or secondary school, unless permitted for a qualifying patient or caregiver pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(C) in any correctional facility;

(D) in any motor vehicle;

(E) in a private residence that is used at any time to provide licensed child care or other similar social service care on the premises;

(F) in any public place; or

(G) knowingly in close physical proximity to anyone under 21 years of age who is not a registered medical cannabis patient under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(4) smoking cannabis in any place where smoking is prohibited under the Smoke Free Illinois Act;

(5) operating, navigating, or being in actual physical control of any motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, or snowmobile while using or under the influence of cannabis in violation of Section 11-501 or 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act or motorboat while using or under the influence of cannabis in violation of Section 11-501 or 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(6) facilitating the use of cannabis by any person who is not allowed to use cannabis under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(7) transferring cannabis to any person contrary to this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(8) the use of cannabis by a law enforcement officer, corrections officer, probation officer, or firefighter while on duty; nothing in this Act prevents a public employer of law enforcement officers, corrections officers, probation officers, paramedics, or firefighters from prohibiting or taking disciplinary action for the consumption, possession, sales, purchase, or delivery of cannabis or cannabis-infused substances while on or off duty, unless provided for in the employer's policies. However, an employer may not take adverse employment action against an employee based solely on the lawful possession or consumption of cannabis or cannabis-infused substances by members of the employee's household. To the extent that this Section conflicts with any applicable collective bargaining agreement, the provisions of the collective bargaining agreement shall prevail. Further, nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit in any way the right to collectively bargain over the subject matters contained in this Act; or

(9) the use of cannabis by a person who has a school bus permit or a Commercial Driver's License while on duty.

As used in this Section, "public place" means any place where a person could reasonably be expected to be observed by others. "Public place" includes all parts of buildings owned in whole or in part, or leased, by the State or a unit of local government. "Public place" includes all areas in a park, recreation area, wildlife area, or playground owned in whole or in part, leased, or managed by the State or a unit of local government. "Public place" does not include a private residence unless the private residence is used to provide licensed child care, foster care, or other similar social service care on the premises.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent the arrest or prosecution of a person for reckless driving or driving under the influence of cannabis, operating a watercraft under the influence of cannabis, or operating a snowmobile under the influence of cannabis if probable cause exists.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a private business from restricting or prohibiting the use of cannabis on its property, including areas where motor vehicles are parked.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall require an individual or business entity to violate the provisions of federal law, including colleges or universities that must abide by the Drug-Free Schools and Communities Act Amendments of 1989, that require campuses to be drug free.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-40)

Sec. 10-40. Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program.

(a) The General Assembly finds that in order to address the disparities described below, aggressive approaches and targeted resources to support local design and control of community-based responses to these outcomes are required. To carry out this intent, the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew (R3) Program is created for the following purposes:

(1) to directly address the impact of economic disinvestment, violence, and the historical overuse of criminal justice responses to community and individual needs by providing resources to support local design and control of community-based responses to these impacts;

(2) to substantially reduce both the total amount of gun violence and concentrated poverty in this State;

(3) to protect communities from gun violence through targeted investments and intervention programs, including economic growth and improving family violence prevention, community trauma treatment rates, gun injury victim services, and public health prevention activities;

(4) to promote employment infrastructure and capacity building related to the social determinants of health in the eligible community areas.

(b) In this Section, "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority in coordination with the Justice, Equity, and Opportunity Initiative of the Lieutenant Governor's Office.

(c) Eligibility of R3 Areas. Within 180 days after the effective date of this Act, the Authority shall identify as eligible, areas in this State by way of historically recognized geographic boundaries, to be designated by the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board as R3 Areas and therefore eligible to apply for R3 funding. Local groups within R3 Areas will be eligible to apply for State funding through the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board. Qualifications for designation as an R3 Area are as follows:

(1) Based on an analysis of data, communities in this State that are high need, underserved, disproportionately impacted by historical economic disinvestment, and ravaged by violence as indicated by the highest rates of gun injury, unemployment, child poverty rates, and commitments to and returns from the Illinois Department of Corrections.

(2) The Authority shall send to the Legislative Audit Commission and make publicly available its analysis and identification of eligible R3 Areas and shall recalculate the he eligibility data every 4 years. On an annual basis, the Authority shall analyze data and indicate if data covering any R3 Area or portion of an Area has, for 4 consecutive years, substantially deviated from the average of statewide data on which the original calculation was made to determine the Areas, including disinvestment, violence, gun injury, unemployment, child poverty rates, or commitments to or returns from the Illinois Department of Corrections.

(d) The Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board shall encourage collaborative partnerships within each R3 Area to minimize multiple partnerships per Area.

(e) The Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board is created and shall reflect the diversity of the State of Illinois, including geographic, racial, and ethnic diversity. Using the data provided by the Authority, the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board shall be responsible for designating the R3 Area boundaries and for the selection and oversight of R3 Area grantees. The Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board ex officio members shall, within 4 months after the effective date of this Act, convene the Board to appoint a full Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board and oversee, provide guidance to, and develop an administrative structure for the R3 Program.

(1) The ex officio members are:

(A) The Lieutenant Governor, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair.

(B) The Attorney General, or his or her designee.

(C) The Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee.

(D) The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee.

(E) The Director of Corrections, or his or her designee.

(F) The Director of Juvenile Justice, or his or her designee.

(G) The Director of Children and Family Services, or his or her designee.

(H) (F) The Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, or his or her designee.

(I) (G) The Director of Employment Security, or his or her designee.

(J) (H) The Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee.

(K) (I) A member of the Senate, designated by the President of the Senate.

(L) (J) A member of the House of Representatives, designated by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(M) (K) A member of the Senate, designated by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(N) (L) A member of the House of Representatives, designated by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(2) Within 90 days after the R3 Areas have been designated by the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board, the following members shall be appointed to the Board by the R3 board chair:

(A) Eight public officials of municipal geographic jurisdictions in the State that include an R3 Area, or their designees;

(B) Four 4 community-based providers or community development organization representatives who provide services to treat violence and address the social determinants of health, or promote community investment, including, but not limited to, services such as job placement and training, educational services, workforce development programming, and wealth building. The community-based organization representatives shall work primarily in jurisdictions that include an R3 Area and no more than 2 representatives shall work primarily in Cook County. At least one of the community-based providers shall have expertise in providing services to an immigrant population;

(C) Two experts in the field of violence reduction;

(D) One male who has previously been incarcerated and is over the age of 24 at the time of appointment;

(E) One female who has previously been incarcerated and is over the age of 24 at the time of appointment;

(F) Two individuals who have previously been incarcerated and are between the ages of 17 and 24 at the time of appointment.

As used in this paragraph (2), "an individual who has been previously incarcerated" means a person who has been convicted of or pled guilty to one or more felonies, who was sentenced to a term of imprisonment, and who has completed his or her sentence. Board members shall serve without compensation and may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of their duties from funds appropriated for that purpose. Once all its members have been appointed as outlined in items (A) through (F) of this paragraph (2), the Board may exercise any power, perform any function, take any action, or do anything in furtherance of its purposes and goals upon the appointment of a quorum of its members. The Board terms of the non-ex officio and General Assembly Board members shall end 4 years from the date of appointment.

(f) Within 12 months after the effective date of this Act, the Board shall:

(1) develop a process to solicit applications from eligible R3 Areas;

(2) develop a standard template for both planning and implementation activities to be submitted by R3 Areas to the State;

(3) identify resources sufficient to support the full administration and evaluation of the R3 Program, including building and sustaining core program capacity at the community and State levels;

(4) review R3 Area grant applications and proposed agreements and approve the distribution of resources;

(5) develop a performance measurement system that focuses on positive outcomes;

(6) develop a process to support ongoing monitoring and evaluation of R3 programs; and

(7) deliver an annual report to the General Assembly and to the Governor to be posted on the Governor's Office and General Assembly websites and provide to the public an annual report on its progress.

(g) R3 Area grants.

(1) Grant funds shall be awarded by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, in coordination with the R3 board, based on the likelihood that the plan will achieve the outcomes outlined in subsection (a) and consistent with the requirements of the Grant Accountability and Transparency Act. The R3 Program shall also facilitate the provision of training and technical assistance for capacity building within and among R3 Areas.

(2) R3 Program Board grants shall be used to address economic development, violence prevention services, re-entry services, youth development, and civil legal aid.

(3) The Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board and the R3 Area grantees shall, within a period of no more than 120 days from the completion of planning activities described in this Section, finalize an agreement on the plan for implementation. Implementation activities may:

(A) have a basis in evidence or best practice research or have evaluations demonstrating the capacity to address the purpose of the program in subsection (a);

(B) collect data from the inception of planning activities through implementation, with data collection technical assistance when needed, including cost data and data related to identified meaningful short-term, mid-term, and long-term goals and metrics;

(C) report data to the Restore, Reinvest, and Renew Program Board biannually; and

(D) report information as requested by the R3 Program Board.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/10-50)

Sec. 10-50. Employment; employer liability.

(a) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit an employer from adopting reasonable zero tolerance or drug free workplace policies, or employment policies concerning drug testing, smoking, consumption, storage, or use of cannabis in the workplace or while on call provided that the policy is applied in a nondiscriminatory manner.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall require an employer to permit an employee to be under the influence of or use cannabis in the employer's workplace or while performing the employee's job duties or while on call.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall limit or prevent an employer from disciplining an employee or terminating employment of an employee for violating an employer's employment policies or workplace drug policy.

(d) An employer may consider an employee to be impaired or under the influence of cannabis if the employer has a good faith belief that an employee manifests specific, articulable symptoms while working that decrease or lessen the employee's performance of the duties or tasks of the employee's job position, including symptoms of the employee's speech, physical dexterity, agility, coordination, demeanor, irrational or unusual behavior, or negligence or carelessness in operating equipment or machinery; disregard for the safety of the employee or others, or involvement in any accident that results in serious damage to equipment or property; disruption of a production or manufacturing process; or carelessness that results in any injury to the employee or others. If an employer elects to discipline an employee on the basis that the employee is under the influence or impaired by cannabis, the employer must afford the employee a reasonable opportunity to contest the basis of the determination.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to create or imply a cause of action for any person against an employer for:

(1) actions taken pursuant to an employer's reasonable workplace drug policy, including but not limited to subjecting an employee or applicant to reasonable drug and alcohol testing, reasonable and nondiscriminatory random drug testing, and discipline, termination of employment, or withdrawal of a job offer due to a failure of a drug test; , including but not limited to subjecting an employee or applicant to reasonable drug and alcohol testing under the employer's workplace drug policy, including an employee's refusal to be tested or to cooperate in testing procedures or disciplining or termination of employment,

(2) actions based on the employer's good faith belief that an employee used or possessed cannabis in the employer's workplace or while performing the employee's job duties or while on call in violation of the employer's employment policies;

(3) (2) actions, including discipline or termination of employment, based on the employer's good faith belief that an employee was impaired as a result of the use of cannabis, or under the influence of cannabis, while at the employer's workplace or while performing the employee's job duties or while on call in violation of the employer's workplace drug policy; or

(4) (3) injury, loss, or liability to a third party if the employer neither knew nor had reason to know that the employee was impaired.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to enhance or diminish protections afforded by any other law, including but not limited to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act or the Opioid Alternative Pilot Program.

(g) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to interfere with any federal, State, or local restrictions on employment including, but not limited to, the United States Department of Transportation regulation 49 CFR 40.151(e) or impact an employer's ability to comply with federal or State law or cause it to lose a federal or State contract or funding.

(h) As used in this Section, "workplace" means the employer's premises, including any building, real property, and parking area under the control of the employer or area used by an employee while in the performance of the employee's job duties, and vehicles, whether leased, rented, or owned. "Workplace" may be further defined by the employer's written employment policy, provided that the policy is consistent with this Section.

(i) For purposes of this Section, an employee is deemed "on call" when such employee is scheduled with at least 24 hours' notice by his or her employer to be on standby or otherwise responsible for performing tasks related to his or her employment either at the employer's premises or other previously designated location by his or her employer or supervisor to perform a work-related task.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-15)

Sec. 15-15. Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(a) Any medical cannabis dispensing organization holding a valid registration under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department for an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to serve purchasers at any medical cannabis dispensing location in operation on the effective date of this Act, pursuant to this Section.

(b) A medical cannabis dispensing organization seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to serve purchasers at any medical cannabis dispensing location in operation as of the effective date of this Act shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. The application must be submitted by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis dispensing organization registration and include the following:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable fee of $30,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Proof of registration as a medical cannabis dispensing organization that is in good standing;

(3) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements contained in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act except as provided in this Act;

(4) The legal name of the dispensing organization;

(5) The physical address of the dispensing organization;

(6) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization, each of whom must be at least 21 years of age;

(7) A nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to 3% of the dispensing organization's total sales between June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(8) Identification of one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans to be completed by March 31, 2021:

(A) Make a contribution of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by item (7) of this subsection (b);

(B) Make a grant of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(C) Make a donation of $100,000 or more to a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(D) Participate as a host in a cannabis business establishment incubator program approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant for at least a year. As used in this Section, "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued pursuant to this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder fails to find a business to incubate to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection; or

(E) Participate in a sponsorship program for at least 2 years approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder agrees to provide an interest-free loan of at least $200,000 to a Social Equity Applicant. The sponsor shall not take an ownership stake in any cannabis business establishment receiving sponsorship services to comply with this subsection.

(c) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(d) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (b) of this Section, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(e) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in subsection (b), the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(f) If an applicant meets all the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, the Department shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 14 days of receiving a completed application unless:

(1) The licensee or a principal officer is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois;

(2) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation determines there is reason, based on documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License; or

(3) Any principal officer fails to register and remain in compliance with this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(g) A registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License may begin selling cannabis, cannabis-infused products, paraphernalia, and related items to purchasers under the rules of this Act no sooner than January 1, 2020.

(h) A dispensing organization holding a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act must maintain an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products for purchase by qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants. For the purposes of this subsection, "adequate supply" means a monthly inventory level that is comparable in type and quantity to those medical cannabis products provided to patients and caregivers on an average monthly basis for the 6 months before the effective date of this Act.

(i) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products, a dispensing organization holding both a dispensing organization license under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and this Act shall prioritize serving qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants before serving purchasers.

(j) Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, a person that holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License may permit purchasers into a limited access area as that term is defined in administrative rules made under the authority in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(k) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License is valid until March 31, 2021. A dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs inform the license holder that it may apply to renew its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall renew the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of the renewal application being deemed complete if:

(1) the dispensing organization submits an application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $30,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department has not suspended or permanently revoked the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license on the same premises for violations of this Act, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or rules adopted pursuant to those Acts; and

(3) the dispensing organization has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan as provided required by parts (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of this Section or has made substantial progress toward completing a Social Equity Inclusion Plan as provided by parts (D) and (E) of paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of this Section; and

(4) the dispensing organization is in compliance with this Act and rules.

(l) The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License renewed pursuant to subsection (k) of this Section shall expire March 31, 2022. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licensee shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs inform the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant has met all of the criteria in Section 15-36.

(m) If a dispensing organization dispensary fails to submit an application for renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License before the expiration dates provided in subsections (k) and (l) of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to subsection (k) of this Section, the dispensing organization shall cease serving purchasers and cease all operations until it receives a renewal or an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, as the case may be.

(n) A dispensing organization agent who holds a valid dispensing organization agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the dispensing organization licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a dispensing organization agent.

(o) If the Department suspends, permanently revokes, or otherwise disciplines the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension, permanent revocation, or other discipline of the medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(p) (o) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, unless otherwise specified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-20)

Sec. 15-20. Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License; secondary site.

(a) If the Department suspends or revokes the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension or revocation as grounds to take disciplinary action against the medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(a-5) If, within 360 days of the effective date of this Act, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Regions prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section in which to operate an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site because no jurisdiction within the prescribed area allows the operation of an Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may waive the geographic restrictions of subsection (a) of this Section and specify another BLS Region into which the dispensary may be placed.

(a) (b) Any medical cannabis dispensing organization holding a valid registration under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department for an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to operate a dispensing organization to serve purchasers at a secondary site not within 1,500 feet of another medical cannabis dispensing organization or adult use dispensing organization. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization secondary site shall be within any BLS Region region that shares territory with the dispensing organization district to which the medical cannabis dispensing organization is assigned under the administrative rules for dispensing organizations under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(a-5) If, within 360 days of the effective date of this Act, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Regions prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section in which to operate an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site because no jurisdiction within the prescribed area allows the operation of an Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may waive the geographic restrictions of subsection (a) of this Section and specify another BLS Region into which the dispensary may be placed.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A medical cannabis dispensing organization seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to serve purchasers at a secondary site as prescribed in subsection (a) (b) of this Section shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. The application must meet or include the following qualifications:

(1) a payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $30,000;

(2) proof of registration as a medical cannabis dispensing organization that is in good standing;

(3) submission of the application by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis dispensing organization registration;

(4) the legal name of the medical cannabis dispensing organization;

(5) the physical address of the medical cannabis dispensing organization and the proposed physical address of the secondary site;

(6) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance Sections relevant to dispensary operations and documentation of the approval, the conditional approval or the status of a request for zoning approval from the local zoning office that the proposed dispensary location is in compliance with the local zoning rules;

(7) a plot plan of the dispensary drawn to scale. The applicant shall submit general specifications of the building exterior and interior layout;

(8) a statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(9) for the building or land to be used as the proposed dispensary:

(A) if the property is not owned by the applicant, a written statement from the property owner and landlord, if any, certifying consent that the applicant may operate a dispensary on the premises; or

(B) if the property is owned by the applicant, confirmation of ownership;

(10) a copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(11) a copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) a description of services to be offered; and

(B) a description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(12) a copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) a description of the delivery process by which cannabis will be received from a transporting organization, including receipt of manifests and protocols that will be used to avoid diversion, theft, or loss at the dispensary acceptance point; and

(B) the process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, patients, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(C) the process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(13) a proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(14) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) a nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to $200,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(16) a commitment to completing one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans in subsection (d).

(d) Before receiving an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, a dispensing organization shall indicate the Social Equity Inclusion Plan that the applicant plans to achieve before the expiration of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License from the list below:

(1) make a contribution of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by paragraph (16) of subsection (c) of this Section;

(2) make a grant of 3% of total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(3) make a donation of $100,000 or more to a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(4) participate as a host in a cannabis business establishment incubator program approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant for at least a year. In this paragraph (4), "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued under this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder fails to find a business to incubate in order to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection before the expiration of its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site to avoid a penalty; or

(5) participate in a sponsorship program for at least 2 years approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in which an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site holder agrees to provide an interest-free loan of at least $200,000 to a Social Equity Applicant. The sponsor shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving sponsorship services to comply with this subsection.

(e) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization license.

(f) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (c) of this Section, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified. Principal officers shall not be required to submit to the fingerprint and background check requirements of Section 5-20.

(g) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in subsection (c), the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(h) Once all required information and documents have been submitted, the Department will review the application. The Department may request revisions and retains final approval over dispensary features. Once the application is complete and meets the Department's approval, the Department shall conditionally approve the license. Final approval is contingent on the build-out and Department inspection.

(i) Upon submission of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site application, the applicant shall request an inspection and the Department may inspect the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization's secondary site to confirm compliance with the application and this Act.

(j) The Department shall only issue an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site after the completion of a successful inspection.

(k) If an applicant passes the inspection under this Section, the Department shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 10 business days unless:

(1) The licensee, any principal officer or board member of the licensee, or any person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee ; principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee; or agent is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois; or

(2) The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation determines there is reason, based on documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at its secondary site.

(l) Once the Department has issued a license, the dispensing organization shall notify the Department of the proposed opening date.

(m) A registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site may begin selling cannabis, cannabis-infused products, paraphernalia, and related items to purchasers under the rules of this Act no sooner than January 1, 2020.

(n) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products, a dispensing organization holding both a dispensing organization license under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and this Article shall prioritize serving qualifying patients and caregivers before serving purchasers.

(o) An Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site is valid until March 31, 2021. A dispensing organization that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and inform the license holder that it may renew its Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site. The Department shall renew an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site within 60 days of submission of the renewal application being deemed complete if:

(1) the dispensing organization submits an application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $30,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department has not suspended or permanently revoked the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license held by the same person or entity for violating this Act or rules adopted under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act or rules adopted under that Act; and

(3) the dispensing organization has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided as required by paragraph (1), (2), or (3) (16) of subsection (d) (c) of this Section or has made substantial progress toward completing a Social Equity Inclusion Plan provided by paragraph (4) or (5) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(p) The Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licensee at a secondary site renewed pursuant to subsection (o) shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and that informs inform the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License on forms provided by the Department. The Department shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant has meet all of the criteria in Section 15-36.

(q) If a dispensing organization fails to submit an application for renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License or for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License before the expiration dates provided in subsections (o) and (p) of this Section, the dispensing organization shall cease serving purchasers until it receives a renewal or an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(r) A dispensing organization agent who holds a valid dispensing organization agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the dispensing organization licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a dispensing organization agent.

(s) If the Department suspends, permanently revokes, or otherwise disciplines the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension, permanent revocation, or other discipline or revokes the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License of a dispensing organization that also holds a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, the Department may consider the suspension or revocation as grounds to take disciplinary action against the medical cannabis dispensing organization.

(t) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, unless otherwise specified or fines collected from an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensary Organization License at a secondary site holder as a result of a disciplinary action in the enforcement of this Act shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund and be appropriated to the Department for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Department in the administration and enforcement of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Awarding of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses prior to January 1, 2021.

(a) The Department shall issue up to 75 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses before May 1, 2020.

(b) The Department shall make the application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License available no later than October 1, 2019 and shall accept applications no later than January 1, 2020.

(c) To ensure the geographic dispersion of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holders, the following number of licenses shall be awarded in each BLS Region as determined by each region's percentage of the State's population:

(1) Bloomington: 1

(2) Cape Girardeau: 1

(3) Carbondale-Marion: 1

(4) Champaign-Urbana: 1

(5) Chicago-Naperville-Elgin: 47

(6) Danville: 1

(7) Davenport-Moline-Rock Island: 1

(8) Decatur: 1

(9) Kankakee: 1

(10) Peoria: 3

(11) Rockford: 2

(12) St. Louis: 4

(13) Springfield: 1

(14) Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(15) West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(16) East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(17) South Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(d) An applicant seeking issuance of a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. An applicant must meet the following requirements:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $5,000 for each license for which the applicant is applying, which shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements contained in this Act;

(3) The legal name of the proposed dispensing organization;

(4) A statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(5) From each principal officer, a statement indicating whether that person:

(A) has previously held or currently holds an ownership interest in a cannabis business establishment in Illinois; or

(B) has held an ownership interest in a dispensing organization or its equivalent in another state or territory of the United States that had the dispensing organization registration or license suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or subjected to other disciplinary action;

(6) Disclosure of whether any principal officer has ever filed for bankruptcy or defaulted on spousal support or child support obligation;

(7) A resume for each principal officer, including whether that person has an academic degree, certification, or relevant experience with a cannabis business establishment or in a related industry;

(8) A description of the training and education that will be provided to dispensing organization agents;

(9) A copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(10) A copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) A description of services to be offered; and

(B) A description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(11) A copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) The process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(B) The process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(12) A proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(13) A proposed floor plan, a square footage estimate, and a description of proposed security devices, including, without limitation, cameras, motion detectors, servers, video storage capabilities, and alarm service providers;

(14) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) Evidence of the applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, if applicable, and whether a Social Equity Applicant plans to apply for a loan or grant issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity;

(16) The address, telephone number, and email address of the applicant's principal place of business, if applicable. A post office box is not permitted;

(17) Written summaries of any information regarding instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on were fined or censured, or any instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on had its registration suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial proceeding;

(18) A plan for community engagement;

(19) Procedures to ensure accurate recordkeeping and security measures that are in accordance with this Article and Department rules;

(20) The estimated volume of cannabis it plans to store at the dispensary;

(21) A description of the features that will provide accessibility to purchasers as required by the Americans with Disabilities Act;

(22) A detailed description of air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors;

(23) A reasonable assurance that the issuance of a license will not have a detrimental impact on the community in which the applicant wishes to locate;

(24) The dated signature of each principal officer;

(25) A description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be stored by the dispensing organization;

(26) Signed statements from each dispensing organization agent stating that he or she will not divert cannabis;

(27) The number of licenses it is applying for in each BLS Region;

(28) A diversity plan that includes a narrative of at least 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity;

(29) A contract with a private security contractor that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 in order for the dispensary to have adequate security at its facility; and

(30) Other information deemed necessary by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to conduct the disparity and availability study referenced in subsection (e) of Section 5-45.

(e) An applicant who receives a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section has 180 days from the date of award to identify a physical location for the dispensing organization retail storefront. Before a conditional licensee receives an authorization to build out the dispensing organization from the Department, the Department shall inspect the physical space selected by the conditional licensee. The Department shall verify the site is suitable for public access, the layout promotes the safe dispensing of cannabis, the location is sufficient in size, power allocation, lighting, parking, handicapped accessible parking spaces, accessible entry and exits as required by the Americans with Disabilities Act, product handling, and storage. The applicant shall also provide a statement of reasonable assurance that the issuance of a license will not have a detrimental impact on the community. The applicant shall also provide evidence that the location is not within 1,500 feet of an existing dispensing organization. If an applicant is unable to find a suitable physical address in the opinion of the Department within 180 days of the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may extend the period for finding a physical address another 180 days if the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder demonstrates concrete attempts to secure a location and a hardship. If the Department denies the extension or the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is unable to find a location or become operational within 360 days of being awarded a conditional license, the Department shall rescind the conditional license and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region for which the license was assigned, provided the applicant receiving the license: (i) confirms a continued interest in operating a dispensing organization; (ii) can provide evidence that the applicant continues to meet all requirements for holding a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License set forth in this Act the financial requirements provided in subsection (c) of this Section; and (iii) has not otherwise become ineligible to be awarded a dispensing organization license. If the new awardee is unable to accept the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department shall award the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to the next highest scoring applicant in the same manner. The new awardee shall be subject to the same required deadlines as provided in this subsection.

(e-5) If, within 180 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License license, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Region in which it was awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License license because no jurisdiction within the BLS Region allows for the operation of an Adult Use Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may authorize the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder to transfer its license to a BLS Region specified by the Department.

(f) A dispensing organization that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to the criteria in Section 15-30 shall not purchase, possess, sell, or dispense cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the person has received an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued by the Department pursuant to Section 15-36 of this Act. The Department shall not issue an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License until:

(1) the Department has inspected the dispensary site and proposed operations and verified that they are in compliance with this Act and local zoning laws; and

(2) the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder has paid a registration fee of $60,000, or a prorated amount accounting for the difference of time between when the Adult Use Dispensing Organization License is issued and March 31 of the next even-numbered year.

(g) The Department shall conduct a background check of the prospective organization agents in order to carry out this Article. The Department of State Police shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Department of State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Identification criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-30)

Sec. 15-30. Selection criteria for conditional licenses awarded under Section 15-25.

(a) Applicants for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 15-25, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(b) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in this Section, the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(c) The Department will award up to 250 points to complete applications based on the sufficiency of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants will be awarded points based on a determination that the application satisfactorily includes the following elements:

(1) Suitability of Employee Training Plan (15 points).

The plan includes an employee training plan that demonstrates that employees will understand the rules and laws to be followed by dispensary employees, have knowledge of any security measures and operating procedures of the dispensary, and are able to advise purchasers on how to safely consume cannabis and use individual products offered by the dispensary.

(2) Security and Recordkeeping (65 points).

(A) The security plan accounts for the prevention of the theft or diversion of cannabis. The security plan demonstrates safety procedures for dispensing organization dispensary agents and purchasers, and safe delivery and storage of cannabis and currency. It demonstrates compliance with all security requirements in this Act and rules.

(B) A plan for recordkeeping, tracking, and monitoring inventory, quality control, and other policies and procedures that will promote standard recordkeeping and discourage unlawful activity. This plan includes the applicant's strategy to communicate with the Department and the Department of State Police on the destruction and disposal of cannabis. The plan must also demonstrate compliance with this Act and rules.

(C) The security plan shall also detail which private security contractor licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 the dispensary will contract with in order to provide adequate security at its facility.

(3) Applicant's Business Plan, Financials, Operating and Floor Plan (65 points).

(A) The business plan shall describe, at a minimum, how the dispensing organization will be managed on a long-term basis. This shall include a description of the dispensing organization's point-of-sale system, purchases and denials of sale, confidentiality, and products and services to be offered. It will demonstrate compliance with this Act and rules.

(B) The operating plan shall include, at a minimum, best practices for day-to-day dispensary operation and staffing. The operating plan may also include information about employment practices, including information about the percentage of full-time employees who will be provided a living wage.

(C) The proposed floor plan is suitable for public access, the layout promotes safe dispensing of cannabis, is compliant with the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Environmental Barriers Act, and facilitates safe product handling and storage.

(4) Knowledge and Experience (30 points).

(A) The applicant's principal officers must demonstrate experience and qualifications in business management or experience with the cannabis industry. This includes ensuring optimal safety and accuracy in the dispensing and sale of cannabis.

(B) The applicant's principal officers must demonstrate knowledge of various cannabis product strains or varieties and describe the types and quantities of products planned to be sold. This includes confirmation of whether the dispensing organization plans to sell cannabis paraphernalia or edibles.

(C) Knowledge and experience may be demonstrated through experience in other comparable industries that reflect on the applicant's ability to operate a cannabis business establishment.

(5) Status as a Social Equity Applicant (50 points).

The applicant meets the qualifications for a Social Equity Applicant as set forth in this Act.

(6) Labor and employment practices (5 points): The applicant may describe plans to provide a safe, healthy, and economically beneficial working environment for its agents, including, but not limited to, codes of conduct, health care benefits, educational benefits, retirement benefits, living wage standards, and entering a labor peace agreement with employees.

(7) Environmental Plan (5 points): The applicant may demonstrate an environmental plan of action to minimize the carbon footprint, environmental impact, and resource needs for the dispensary, which may include, without limitation, recycling cannabis product packaging.

(8) Illinois owner (5 points): The applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an Illinois resident, who can prove residency in each of the past 5 years with tax records or 2 of the following: .

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

(9) Status as veteran (5 points): The applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined by Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(10) A diversity plan (5 points): that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity.

(d) The Department may also award up to 2 bonus points for a plan to engage with the community. The applicant may demonstrate a desire to engage with its community by participating in one or more of, but not limited to, the following actions: (i) establishment of an incubator program designed to increase participation in the cannabis industry by persons who would qualify as Social Equity Applicants; (ii) providing financial assistance to substance abuse treatment centers; (iii) educating children and teens about the potential harms of cannabis use; or (iv) other measures demonstrating a commitment to the applicant's community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(e) The Department may verify information contained in each application and accompanying documentation to assess the applicant's veracity and fitness to operate a dispensing organization.

(f) The Department may, in its discretion, refuse to issue an authorization to any applicant:

(1) Who is unqualified to perform the duties required of the applicant;

(2) Who fails to disclose or states falsely any information called for in the application;

(3) Who has been found guilty of a violation of this Act, or whose medical cannabis dispensing organization, medical cannabis cultivation organization, or Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, or Early Approval Cultivation Center License was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied for just cause, or the applicant's cannabis business establishment license was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied in any other state; or

(4) Who has engaged in a pattern or practice of unfair or illegal practices, methods, or activities in the conduct of owning a cannabis business establishment or other business.

(g) The Department shall deny the license if any principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(h) The Department shall verify an applicant's compliance with the requirements of this Article and rules before issuing a dispensing organization license.

(i) Should the applicant be awarded a license, the information and plans provided in the application, including any plans submitted for bonus points, shall become a condition of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses and any Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued to the holder of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, except as otherwise provided by this Act or rule. Dispensing organizations have a duty to disclose any material changes to the application. The Department shall review all material changes disclosed by the dispensing organization, and may re-evaluate its prior decision regarding the awarding of a license, including, but not limited to, suspending or permanently revoking a license. Failure to comply with the conditions or requirements in the application may subject the dispensing organization to discipline, up to and including suspension or permanent revocation of its authorization or license by the Department.

(j) If an applicant has not begun operating as a dispensing organization within one year of the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may permanently revoke the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region if a suitable applicant indicates a continued interest in the license or begin a new selection process to award a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(k) The Department shall deny an application if granting that application would result in a single person or entity having a direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses. Any entity that is awarded a license that results in a single person or entity having a direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 licenses shall forfeit the most recently issued license and suffer a penalty to be determined by the Department, unless the entity declines the license at the time it is awarded.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-35)

Sec. 15-35. Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License after January 1, 2021.

(a) In addition to any of the licenses issued in Sections 15-15, Section 15-20, or Section 15-25 of this Act, by December 21, 2021, the Department shall issue up to 110 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, pursuant to the application process adopted under this Section. Prior to issuing such licenses, the Department may adopt rules through emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (gg) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. Such rules may:

(1) Modify or change the BLS Regions as they apply to this Article or modify or raise the number of Adult Conditional Use Dispensing Organization Licenses assigned to each region based on the following factors:

(A) Purchaser wait times;

(B) Travel time to the nearest dispensary for potential purchasers;

(C) Percentage of cannabis sales occurring in Illinois not in the regulated market using data from the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, National Survey on Drug Use and Health, Illinois Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, and tourism data from the Illinois Office of Tourism to ascertain total cannabis consumption in Illinois compared to the amount of sales in licensed dispensing organizations;

(D) Whether there is an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products to serve registered medical cannabis patients;

(E) Population increases or shifts;

(F) Density of dispensing organizations in a region;

(G) The Department's capacity to appropriately regulate additional licenses;

(H) The findings and recommendations from the disparity and availability study commissioned by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer in subsection (e) of Section 5-45 to reduce or eliminate any identified barriers to entry in the cannabis industry; and

(I) Any other criteria the Department deems relevant.

(2) Modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate the barriers identified in the disparity and availability study commissioned by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer and make modifications to remedy evidence of discrimination.

(b) After January 1, 2022, the Department may by rule modify or raise the number of Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses assigned to each region, and modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate barriers based on the criteria in subsection (a). At no time shall the Department issue more than 500 Adult Use Dispensing Dispensary Organization Licenses.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-36)

Sec. 15-36. Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(a) A person is only eligible to receive an Adult Use Dispensing Organization if the person has been awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to this Act or has renewed its license pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 15-15 or subsection (p) of Section 15-20.

(b) The Department shall not issue an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License until:

(1) the Department has inspected the dispensary site and proposed operations and verified that they are in compliance with this Act and local zoning laws;

(2) the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder has paid a license registration fee of $60,000 or a prorated amount accounting for the difference of time between when the Adult Use Dispensing Organization License is issued and March 31 of the next even-numbered year; and

(3) the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder has met all the requirements in this the Act and rules.

(c) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 10 dispensing organizations licensed under this Article. Further, no person or entity that is:

(1) employed by, is an agent of, or participates in the management of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization;

(2) a principal officer of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization; or

(3) an entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a dispensing organization or registered medical cannabis dispensing organization; shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a dispensing organization that would result in such person or entity owning or participating in the management of more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses at a secondary site, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses dispensing organizations. For the purpose of this subsection, participating in management may include, without limitation, controlling decisions regarding staffing, pricing, purchasing, marketing, store design, hiring, and website design.

(d) The Department shall deny an application if granting that application would result in a person or entity obtaining direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or any combination thereof. If a person or entity is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that would cause the person or entity to be in violation of this subsection, he, she, or it shall choose which license application it wants to abandon and such licenses shall become available to the next qualified applicant in the region in which the abandoned license was awarded.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-40)

Sec. 15-40. Dispensing organization agent identification card; agent training.

(a) The Department shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a dispensing organization agent identification card submitted under this Article, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(2) issue a dispensing organization agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the dispensing organization where the agent works;

(4) within one year from the effective date of this Act, allow for an electronic application process and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted; and

(5) collect a $100 nonrefundable fee from the applicant to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund.

(b) A dispensing organization agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when in the dispensary on the property of the dispensing organization.

(c) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the dispensing organization agent identification cards;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the cardholder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.

(d) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall be immediately returned to the dispensing organization upon termination of employment.

(e) The Department shall not issue an agent identification card if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(f) Any card lost by a dispensing organization agent shall be reported to the Department of State Police and the Department immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(g) An applicant shall be denied a dispensing organization agent identification card renewal if he or she fails to complete the training provided for in this Section.

(h) A dispensing organization agent shall only be required to hold one card for the same employer regardless of what type of dispensing organization license the employer holds.

(i) Cannabis retail sales training requirements.

(1) Within 90 days of September 1, 2019, or 90 days of employment, whichever is later, all owners, managers, employees, and agents involved in the handling or sale of cannabis or cannabis-infused product employed by an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization as defined in Section 10 of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act shall attend and successfully complete a Responsible Vendor Program.

(2) Each owner, manager, employee, and agent of an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization shall successfully complete the program annually.

(3) Responsible Vendor Program Training modules shall include at least 2 hours of instruction time approved by the Department including:

(i) Health and safety concerns of cannabis use, including the responsible use of cannabis, its physical effects, onset of physiological effects, recognizing signs of impairment, and appropriate responses in the event of overconsumption.

(ii) Training on laws and regulations on driving while under the influence and operating a watercraft or snowmobile while under the influence.

(iii) Sales to minors prohibition. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(iv) Quantity limitations on sales to purchasers. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(v) Acceptable forms of identification. Training shall include:

(I) How to check identification; and

(II) Common mistakes made in verification;

(vi) Safe storage of cannabis;

(vii) Compliance with all inventory tracking system regulations;

(viii) Waste handling, management, and disposal;

(ix) Health and safety standards;

(x) Maintenance of records;

(xi) Security and surveillance requirements;

(xii) Permitting inspections by State and local licensing and enforcement authorities;

(xiii) Privacy issues;

(xiv) Packaging and labeling requirement for sales to purchasers; and

(xv) Other areas as determined by rule.

(j) Blank.

(k) Upon the successful completion of the Responsible Vendor Program, the provider shall deliver proof of completion either through mail or electronic communication to the dispensing organization, which shall retain a copy of the certificate.

(l) The license of a dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization whose owners, managers, employees, or agents fail to comply with this Section may be suspended or permanently revoked under Section 15-145 or may face other disciplinary action.

(m) The regulation of dispensing organization and medical cannabis dispensing employer and employee training is an exclusive function of the State, and regulation by a unit of local government, including a home rule unit, is prohibited. This subsection (m) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(n) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) may apply for such approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year in a manner prescribed by the Department.

(o) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit a nonrefundable non-refundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule. Any changes made to the training module shall be approved by the Department.

(p) The Department shall not unreasonably deny approval of a training module that meets all the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (i). A denial of approval shall include a detailed description of the reasons for the denial.

(q) Any person approved to provide the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit an application for re-approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year and include a nonrefundable non-refundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule.

(r) All persons applying to become or renewing their registrations to be agents, including agents-in-charge and principal officers, shall disclose any disciplinary action taken against them that may have occurred in Illinois, another state, or another country in relation to their employment at a cannabis business establishment or at any cannabis cultivation center, processor, infuser, dispensary, or other cannabis business establishment.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-55)

Sec. 15-55. Financial responsibility. Evidence of financial responsibility is a requirement for the issuance, maintenance, or reactivation of a license under this Article. Evidence of financial responsibility shall be used to guarantee that the dispensing organization timely and successfully completes dispensary construction, operates in a manner that provides an uninterrupted supply of cannabis, faithfully pays registration renewal fees, keeps accurate books and records, makes regularly required reports, complies with State tax requirements, and conducts the dispensing organization in conformity with this Act and rules. Evidence of financial responsibility shall be provided by one of the following:

(1) Establishing and maintaining an escrow or surety account in a financial institution in the amount of $50,000, with escrow terms, approved by the Department, that it shall be payable to the Department in the event of circumstances outlined in this Act and rules.

(A) A financial institution may not return money in an escrow or surety account to the dispensing organization that established the account or a representative of the organization unless the organization or representative presents a statement issued by the Department indicating that the account may be released.

(B) The escrow or surety account shall not be canceled on less than 30 days' notice in writing to the Department, unless otherwise approved by the Department. If an escrow or surety account is canceled and the registrant fails to secure a new account with the required amount on or before the effective date of cancellation, the registrant's registration may be permanently revoked. The total and aggregate liability of the surety on the bond is limited to the amount specified in the escrow or surety account.

(2) Providing a surety bond in the amount of $50,000, naming the dispensing organization as principal of the bond, with terms, approved by the Department, that the bond defaults to the Department in the event of circumstances outlined in this Act and rules. Bond terms shall include:

(A) The business name and registration number on the bond must correspond exactly with the business name and registration number in the Department's records.

(B) The bond must be written on a form approved by the Department.

(C) A copy of the bond must be received by the Department within 90 days after the effective date.

(D) The bond shall not be canceled by a surety on less than 30 days' notice in writing to the Department. If a bond is canceled and the registrant fails to file a new bond with the Department in the required amount on or before the effective date of cancellation, the registrant's registration may be permanently revoked. The total and aggregate liability of the surety on the bond is limited to the amount specified in the bond.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-65)

Sec. 15-65. Administration.

(a) A dispensing organization shall establish, maintain, and comply with written policies and procedures as submitted in the Business, Financial and Operating plan as required in this Article or by rules established by the Department, and approved by the Department, for the security, storage, inventory, and distribution of cannabis. These policies and procedures shall include methods for identifying, recording, and reporting diversion, theft, or loss, and for correcting errors and inaccuracies in inventories. At a minimum, dispensing organizations shall ensure the written policies and procedures provide for the following:

(1) Mandatory and voluntary recalls of cannabis products. The policies shall be adequate to deal with recalls due to any action initiated at the request of the Department and any voluntary action by the dispensing organization to remove defective or potentially defective cannabis from the market or any action undertaken to promote public health and safety, including:

(i) A mechanism reasonably calculated to contact purchasers who have, or likely have, obtained the product from the dispensary, including information on the policy for return of the recalled product;

(ii) A mechanism to identify and contact the adult use cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser that manufactured the cannabis;

(iii) Policies for communicating with the Department, the Department of Agriculture, and the Department of Public Health within 24 hours of discovering defective or potentially defective cannabis; and

(iv) Policies for destruction of any recalled cannabis product;

(2) Responses to local, State, or national emergencies, including natural disasters, that affect the security or operation of a dispensary;

(3) Segregation and destruction of outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated cannabis. This procedure shall provide for written documentation of the cannabis disposition;

(4) Ensure the oldest stock of a cannabis product is distributed first. The procedure may permit deviation from this requirement, if such deviation is temporary and appropriate;

(5) Training of dispensing organization agents in the provisions of this Act and rules, to effectively operate the point-of-sale system and the State's verification system, proper inventory handling and tracking, specific uses of cannabis or cannabis-infused products, instruction regarding regulatory inspection preparedness and law enforcement interaction, awareness of the legal requirements for maintaining status as an agent, and other topics as specified by the dispensing organization or the Department. The dispensing organization shall maintain evidence of all training provided to each agent in its files that is subject to inspection and audit by the Department. The dispensing organization shall ensure agents receive a minimum of 8 hours of training subject to the requirements in subsection (i) of Section 15-40 annually, unless otherwise approved by the Department;

(6) Maintenance of business records consistent with industry standards, including bylaws, consents, manual or computerized records of assets and liabilities, audits, monetary transactions, journals, ledgers, and supporting documents, including agreements, checks, invoices, receipts, and vouchers. Records shall be maintained in a manner consistent with this Act and shall be retained for 5 years;

(7) Inventory control, including:

(i) Tracking purchases and denials of sale;

(ii) Disposal of unusable or damaged cannabis as required by this Act and rules; and

(8) Purchaser education and support, including:

(i) Whether possession of cannabis is illegal under federal law;

(ii) Current educational information issued by the Department of Public Health about the health risks associated with the use or abuse of cannabis;

(iii) Information about possible side effects;

(iv) Prohibition on smoking cannabis in public places; and

(v) Offering any other appropriate purchaser education or support materials.

(b) Blank.

(c) A dispensing organization shall maintain copies of the policies and procedures on the dispensary premises and provide copies to the Department upon request. The dispensing organization shall review the dispensing organization policies and procedures at least once every 12 months from the issue date of the license and update as needed due to changes in industry standards or as requested by the Department.

(d) A dispensing organization shall ensure that each principal officer and each dispensing organization agent has a current agent identification card in the agent's immediate possession when the agent is at the dispensary.

(e) A dispensing organization shall provide prompt written notice to the Department, including the date of the event, when a dispensing organization agent no longer is employed by the dispensing organization.

(f) A dispensing organization shall promptly document and report any loss or theft of cannabis from the dispensary to the Department of State Police and the Department. It is the duty of any dispensing organization agent who becomes aware of the loss or theft to report it as provided in this Article.

(g) A dispensing organization shall post the following information in a conspicuous location in an area of the dispensary accessible to consumers:

(1) The dispensing organization's license;

(2) The hours of operation.

(h) Signage that shall be posted inside the premises.

(1) All dispensing organizations must display a placard that states the following: "Cannabis consumption can impair cognition and driving, is for adult use only, may be habit forming, and should not be used by pregnant or breastfeeding women.".

(2) Any dispensing organization that sells edible cannabis-infused products must display a placard that states the following:

(A) "Edible cannabis-infused products were produced in a kitchen that may also process common food allergens."; and

(B) "The effects of cannabis products can vary from person to person, and it can take as long as two hours to feel the effects of some cannabis-infused products. Carefully review the portion size information and warnings contained on the product packaging before consuming.".

(3) All of the required signage in this subsection (h) shall be no smaller than 24 inches tall by 36 inches wide, with typed letters no smaller than 2 inches. The signage shall be clearly visible and readable by customers. The signage shall be placed in the area where cannabis and cannabis-infused products are sold and may be translated into additional languages as needed. The Department may require a dispensary to display the required signage in a different language, other than English, if the Secretary deems it necessary.

(i) A dispensing organization shall prominently post notices inside the dispensing organization that state activities that are strictly prohibited and punishable by law, including, but not limited to:

(1) no minors permitted on the premises unless the minor is a minor qualifying patient under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(2) distribution to persons under the age of 21 is prohibited;

(3) transportation of cannabis or cannabis products across state lines is prohibited.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-70)

Sec. 15-70. Operational requirements; prohibitions.

(a) A dispensing organization shall operate in accordance with the representations made in its application and license materials. It shall be in compliance with this Act and rules.

(b) A dispensing organization must include the legal name of the dispensary on the packaging of any cannabis product it sells.

(c) All cannabis, cannabis-infused products, and cannabis seeds must be obtained from an Illinois registered adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or another dispensary.

(d) Dispensing organizations are prohibited from selling any product containing alcohol except tinctures, which must be limited to containers that are no larger than 100 milliliters.

(e) A dispensing organization shall inspect and count product received from a transporting organization, by the adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, or other dispensing organization before dispensing it.

(f) A dispensing organization may only accept cannabis deliveries into a restricted access area. Deliveries may not be accepted through the public or limited access areas unless otherwise approved by the Department.

(g) A dispensing organization shall maintain compliance with State and local building, fire, and zoning requirements or regulations.

(h) A dispensing organization shall submit a list to the Department of the names of all service professionals that will work at the dispensary. The list shall include a description of the type of business or service provided. Changes to the service professional list shall be promptly provided. No service professional shall work in the dispensary until the name is provided to the Department on the service professional list.

(i) A dispensing organization's license allows for a dispensary to be operated only at a single location.

(j) A dispensary may operate between 6 a.m. and 10 p.m. local time.

(k) A dispensing organization must keep all lighting outside and inside the dispensary in good working order and wattage sufficient for security cameras.

(l) A dispensing organization must keep all air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors in good working order.

(m) A dispensing organization must contract with a private security contractor that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 to provide on-site security at all hours of the dispensary's operation.

(n) (l) A dispensing organization shall ensure that any building or equipment used by a dispensing organization for the storage or sale of cannabis is maintained in a clean and sanitary condition.

(o) (m) The dispensary shall be free from infestation by insects, rodents, or pests.

(p) (n) A dispensing organization shall not:

(1) Produce or manufacture cannabis;

(2) Accept a cannabis product from an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, dispensing organization, or transporting organization unless it is pre-packaged and labeled in accordance with this Act and any rules that may be adopted pursuant to this Act;

(3) Obtain cannabis or cannabis-infused products from outside the State of Illinois;

(4) Sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a purchaser unless the dispensing dispensary organization is licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, and the individual is registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program or the purchaser has been verified to be over the age of 21 years of age or older;

(5) Enter into an exclusive agreement with any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser. Dispensaries shall provide consumers an assortment of products from various cannabis business establishment licensees such that the inventory available for sale at any dispensary from any single cultivation center, craft grower, processor, transporter, or infuser entity shall not be more than 40% of the total inventory available for sale. For the purpose of this subsection, a cultivation center, craft grower, processor, or infuser shall be considered part of the same entity if the licensees share at least one principal officer. The Department may request that a dispensary diversify its products as needed or otherwise discipline a dispensing organization for violating this requirement;

(6) Refuse to conduct business with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, transporting organization, or infuser that has the ability to properly deliver the product and is permitted by the Department of Agriculture, on the same terms as other adult use cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, or transporters with whom it is dealing;

(7) Operate drive-through windows;

(8) Allow for the dispensing of cannabis or cannabis-infused products in vending machines;

(9) Transport cannabis to residences or other locations where purchasers may be for delivery;

(10) Enter into agreements to allow persons who are not dispensing organization agents to deliver cannabis or to transport cannabis to purchasers; .

(11) Operate a dispensary if its video surveillance equipment is inoperative;

(12) Operate a dispensary if the point-of-sale equipment is inoperative;

(13) Operate a dispensary if the State's cannabis electronic verification system is inoperative;

(14) Have fewer than 2 people working at the dispensary at any time while the dispensary is open;

(15) Be located within 1,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing dispensing organization;

(16) Sell clones or any other live plant material;

(17) Sell cannabis, cannabis concentrate, or cannabis-infused products in combination or bundled with each other or any other items for one price, and each item of cannabis, concentrate, or cannabis-infused product must be separately identified by quantity and price on the receipt;

(18) Violate any other requirements or prohibitions set by Department rules.

(q) (o) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of such licensee to accept, receive, or borrow money or anything else of value or accept or receive credit (other than merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for a period not to exceed 30 days) directly or indirectly from any adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization in exchange for preferential placement on the dispensing organization's shelves, display cases, or website. This includes anything received or borrowed or from any stockholders, officers, agents, or persons connected with an adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization. This also excludes any received or borrowed in exchange for preferential placement by the dispensing organization, including preferential placement on the dispensing organization's shelves, display cases, or website.

(r) (p) It is unlawful for any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Cannabis Dispensing Organization, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program to enter into any contract with any person licensed to cultivate, process, or transport cannabis whereby such dispensing dispensary organization agrees not to sell any cannabis cultivated, processed, transported, manufactured, or distributed by any other cultivator, transporter, or infuser, and any provision in any contract violative of this Section shall render the whole of such contract void and no action shall be brought thereon in any court.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-75)

Sec. 15-75. Inventory control system.

(a) A dispensing organization agent-in-charge shall have primary oversight of the dispensing organization's cannabis inventory verification system, and its point-of-sale system. The inventory point-of-sale system shall be real-time, web-based, and accessible by the Department at any time. The point-of-sale system shall track, at a minimum the date of sale, amount, price, and currency.

(b) A dispensing organization shall establish an account with the State's verification system that documents:

(1) Each sales transaction at the time of sale and each day's beginning inventory, acquisitions, sales, disposal, and ending inventory.

(2) Acquisition of cannabis and cannabis-infused products from a licensed adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporter, including:

(i) A description of the products, including the quantity, strain, variety, and batch number of each product received;

(ii) The name and registry identification number of the licensed adult use cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser providing the cannabis and cannabis-infused products;

(iii) The name and registry identification number of the licensed adult use cultivation center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting transportation agent delivering the cannabis;

(iv) The name and registry identification number of the dispensing organization agent receiving the cannabis; and

(v) The date of acquisition.

(3) The disposal of cannabis, including:

(i) A description of the products, including the quantity, strain, variety, batch number, and reason for the cannabis being disposed;

(ii) The method of disposal; and

(iii) The date and time of disposal.

(c) Upon cannabis delivery, a dispensing organization shall confirm the product's name, strain name, weight, and identification number on the manifest matches the information on the cannabis product label and package. The product name listed and the weight listed in the State's verification system shall match the product packaging.

(d) The agent-in-charge shall conduct daily inventory reconciliation documenting and balancing cannabis inventory by confirming the State's verification system matches the dispensing organization's point-of-sale system and the amount of physical product at the dispensary.

(1) A dispensing organization must receive Department approval before completing an inventory adjustment. It shall provide a detailed reason for the adjustment. Inventory adjustment documentation shall be kept at the dispensary for 2 years from the date performed.

(2) If the dispensing organization identifies an imbalance in the amount of cannabis after the daily inventory reconciliation due to mistake, the dispensing organization shall determine how the imbalance occurred and immediately upon discovery take and document corrective action. If the dispensing organization cannot identify the reason for the mistake within 2 calendar days after first discovery, it shall inform the Department immediately in writing of the imbalance and the corrective action taken to date. The dispensing organization shall work diligently to determine the reason for the mistake.

(3) If the dispensing organization identifies an imbalance in the amount of cannabis after the daily inventory reconciliation or through other means due to theft, criminal activity, or suspected criminal activity, the dispensing organization shall immediately determine how the reduction occurred and take and document corrective action. Within 24 hours after the first discovery of the reduction due to theft, criminal activity, or suspected criminal activity, the dispensing organization shall inform the Department and the Department of State Police in writing.

(4) The dispensing organization shall file an annual compilation report with the Department, including a financial statement that shall include, but not be limited to, an income statement, balance sheet, profit and loss statement, statement of cash flow, wholesale cost and sales, and any other documentation requested by the Department in writing. The financial statement shall include any other information the Department deems necessary in order to effectively administer this Act and all rules, orders, and final decisions promulgated under this Act. Statements required by this Section shall be filed with the Department within 60 days after the end of the calendar year. The compilation report shall include a letter authored by a licensed certified public accountant that it has been reviewed and is accurate based on the information provided. The dispensing organization, financial statement, and accompanying documents are not required to be audited unless specifically requested by the Department.

(e) A dispensing organization shall:

(1) Maintain the documentation required in this Section in a secure locked location at the dispensing organization for 5 years from the date on the document;

(2) Provide any documentation required to be maintained in this Section to the Department for review upon request; and

(3) If maintaining a bank account, retain for a period of 5 years a record of each deposit or withdrawal from the account.

(f) If a dispensing organization chooses to have a return policy for cannabis and cannabis products, the dispensing organization shall seek prior approval from the Department.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-85)

Sec. 15-85. Dispensing cannabis.

(a) Before a dispensing organization agent dispenses cannabis to a purchaser, the agent shall:

(1) Verify the age of the purchaser by checking a government-issued identification card by use of an electronic reader or electronic scanning device to scan a purchaser's government-issued identification, if applicable, to determine the purchaser's age and the validity of the identification;

(2) Verify the validity of the government-issued identification card by use of an electronic reader or electronic scanning device to scan a purchaser's government-issued identification, if applicable, to determine the purchaser's age and the validity of the identification;

(3) Offer any appropriate purchaser education or support materials;

(4) Enter the following information into the State's cannabis electronic verification system:

(i) The dispensing organization agent's identification number;

(ii) The dispensing organization's identification number;

(iii) The amount, type (including strain, if applicable) of cannabis or cannabis-infused product dispensed;

(iv) The date and time the cannabis was dispensed.

(b) A dispensing organization shall refuse to sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person unless the person produces a valid identification showing that the person is 21 years of age or older. A medical cannabis dispensing organization may sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a person who is under 21 years of age if the sale complies with the provisions of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and rules.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, valid identification must:

(1) Be valid and unexpired;

(2) Contain a photograph and the date of birth of the person.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-95)

Sec. 15-95. Agent-in-charge.

(a) Every dispensing organization shall designate, at a minimum, one agent-in-charge for each licensed dispensary. The designated agent-in-charge must hold a dispensing organization agent identification card. Maintaining an agent-in-charge is a continuing requirement for the license, except as provided in subsection (f).

(b) The agent-in-charge shall be a principal officer or a full-time agent of the dispensing organization and shall manage the dispensary. Managing the dispensary includes, but is not limited to, responsibility for opening and closing the dispensary, delivery acceptance, oversight of sales and dispensing organization agents, recordkeeping, inventory, dispensing organization agent training, and compliance with this Act and rules. Participation in affairs also includes the responsibility for maintaining all files subject to audit or inspection by the Department at the dispensary.

(c) The agent-in-charge is responsible for promptly notifying the Department of any change of information required to be reported to the Department.

(d) In determining whether an agent-in-charge manages the dispensary, the Department may consider the responsibilities identified in this Section, the number of dispensing organization agents under the supervision of the agent-in-charge, and the employment relationship between the agent-in-charge and the dispensing organization, including the existence of a contract for employment and any other relevant fact or circumstance.

(e) The agent-in-charge is responsible for notifying the Department of a change in the employment status of all dispensing organization agents within 5 business days after the change, including notice to the Department if the termination of an agent was for diversion of product or theft of currency.

(f) In the event of the separation of an agent-in-charge due to death, incapacity, termination, or any other reason and if the dispensary does not have an active agent-in-charge, the dispensing organization shall immediately contact the Department and request a temporary certificate of authority allowing the continuing operation. The request shall include the name of an interim agent-in-charge until a replacement is identified, or shall include the name of the replacement. The Department shall issue the temporary certificate of authority promptly after it approves the request. If a dispensing organization fails to promptly request a temporary certificate of authority after the separation of the agent-in-charge, its registration shall cease until the Department approves the temporary certificate of authority or registers a new agent-in-charge. No temporary certificate of authority shall be valid for more than 90 days. The succeeding agent-in-charge shall register with the Department in compliance with this Article. Once the permanent succeeding agent-in-charge is registered with the Department, the temporary certificate of authority is void. No temporary certificate of authority shall be issued for the separation of an agent-in-charge due to disciplinary action by the Department related to his or her conduct on behalf of the dispensing organization.

(g) The dispensing organization agent-in-charge registration shall expire one year from the date it is issued. The agent-in-charge's registration shall be renewed annually. The Department shall review the dispensing organization's compliance history when determining whether to grant the request to renew.

(h) Upon termination of an agent-in-charge's employment, the dispensing organization shall immediately reclaim the dispensing agent identification card. The dispensing organization shall promptly return the identification card to the Department.

(i) The Department may deny an application or renewal or discipline or revoke an agent-in-charge identification card for any of the following reasons:

(1) Submission of misleading, incorrect, false, or fraudulent information in the application or renewal application;

(2) Violation of the requirements of this Act or rules;

(3) Fraudulent use of the agent-in-charge identification card;

(4) Selling, distributing, transferring in any manner, or giving cannabis to any unauthorized person;

(5) Theft of cannabis, currency, or any other items from a dispensary; .

(6) Tampering with, falsifying, altering, modifying, or duplicating an agent-in-charge identification card;

(7) Tampering with, falsifying, altering, or modifying the surveillance video footage, point-of-sale system, or the State's verification system;

(8) Failure to notify the Department immediately upon discovery that the agent-in-charge identification card has been lost, stolen, or destroyed;

(9) Failure to notify the Department within 5 business days after a change in the information provided in the application for an agent-in-charge identification card;

(10) Conviction of a felony offense in accordance with Sections 2105-131, 2105-135, and 2105-205 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois or any incident listed in this Act or rules following the issuance of an agent-in-charge identification card;

(11) Dispensing to purchasers in amounts above the limits provided in this Act; or

(12) Delinquency in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-4-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-100)

Sec. 15-100. Security.

(a) A dispensing organization shall implement security measures to deter and prevent entry into and theft of cannabis or currency.

(b) A dispensing organization shall submit any changes to the floor plan or security plan to the Department for pre-approval. All cannabis shall be maintained and stored in a restricted access area during construction.

(c) The dispensing organization shall implement security measures to protect the premises, purchasers, and dispensing organization agents including, but not limited to the following:

(1) Establish a locked door or barrier between the facility's entrance and the limited access area;

(2) Prevent individuals from remaining on the premises if they are not engaging in activity permitted by this Act or rules;

(3) Develop a policy that addresses the maximum capacity and purchaser flow in the waiting rooms and limited access areas;

(4) Dispose of cannabis in accordance with this Act and rules;

(5) During hours of operation, store and dispense all cannabis from the restricted access area. During operational hours, cannabis shall be stored in an enclosed locked room or cabinet and accessible only to specifically authorized dispensing organization agents;

(6) When the dispensary is closed, store all cannabis and currency in a reinforced vault room in the restricted access area and in a manner as to prevent diversion, theft, or loss;

(7) Keep the reinforced vault room and any other equipment or cannabis storage areas securely locked and protected from unauthorized entry;

(8) Keep an electronic daily log of dispensing organization agents with access to the reinforced vault room and knowledge of the access code or combination;

(9) Keep all locks and security equipment in good working order;

(10) Maintain an operational security and alarm system at all times;

(11) Prohibit keys, if applicable, from being left in the locks, or stored or placed in a location accessible to persons other than specifically authorized personnel;

(12) Prohibit accessibility of security measures, including combination numbers, passwords, or electronic or biometric security systems to persons other than specifically authorized dispensing organization agents;

(13) Ensure that the dispensary interior and exterior premises are sufficiently lit to facilitate surveillance;

(14) Ensure that trees, bushes, and other foliage outside of the dispensary premises do not allow for a person or persons to conceal themselves from sight;

(15) Develop emergency policies and procedures for securing all product and currency following any instance of diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis, and conduct an assessment to determine whether additional safeguards are necessary; and

(16) Develop sufficient additional safeguards in response to any special security concerns, or as required by the Department.

(d) The Department may request or approve alternative security provisions that it determines are an adequate substitute for a security requirement specified in this Article. Any additional protections may be considered by the Department in evaluating overall security measures.

(e) A dispensing dispensary organization may share premises with a craft grower or an infuser organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

(f) A dispensing organization shall provide additional security as needed and in a manner appropriate for the community where it operates.

(g) Restricted access areas.

(1) All restricted access areas must be identified by the posting of a sign that is a minimum of 12 inches by 12 inches and that states "Do Not Enter - Restricted Access Area - Authorized Personnel Only" in lettering no smaller than one inch in height.

(2) All restricted access areas shall be clearly described in the floor plan of the premises, in the form and manner determined by the Department, reflecting walls, partitions, counters, and all areas of entry and exit. The floor plan shall show all storage, disposal, and retail sales areas.

(3) All restricted access areas must be secure, with locking devices that prevent access from the limited access areas.

(h) Security and alarm.

(1) A dispensing organization shall have an adequate security plan and security system to prevent and detect diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis, currency, or unauthorized intrusion using commercial grade equipment installed by an Illinois licensed private alarm contractor or private alarm contractor agency that shall, at a minimum, include:

(i) A perimeter alarm on all entry points and glass break protection on perimeter windows;

(ii) Security shatterproof tinted film on exterior windows;

(iii) A failure notification system that provides an audible, text, or visual notification of any failure in the surveillance system, including, but not limited to, panic buttons, alarms, and video monitoring system. The failure notification system shall provide an alert to designated dispensing organization agents within 5 minutes after the failure, either by telephone or text message;

(iv) A duress alarm, panic button, and alarm, or holdup alarm and after-hours intrusion detection alarm that by design and purpose will directly or indirectly notify, by the most efficient means, the Public Safety Answering Point for the law enforcement agency having primary jurisdiction;

(v) Security equipment to deter and prevent unauthorized entrance into the dispensary, including electronic door locks on the limited and restricted access areas that include devices or a series of devices to detect unauthorized intrusion that may include a signal system interconnected with a radio frequency method, cellular, private radio signals or other mechanical or electronic device.

(2) All security system equipment and recordings shall be maintained in good working order, in a secure location so as to prevent theft, loss, destruction, or alterations.

(3) Access to surveillance monitoring recording equipment shall be limited to persons who are essential to surveillance operations, law enforcement authorities acting within their jurisdiction, security system service personnel, and the Department. A current list of authorized dispensing organization agents and service personnel that have access to the surveillance equipment must be available to the Department upon request.

(4) All security equipment shall be inspected and tested at regular intervals, not to exceed one month from the previous inspection, and tested to ensure the systems remain functional.

(5) The security system shall provide protection against theft and diversion that is facilitated or hidden by tampering with computers or electronic records.

(6) The dispensary shall ensure all access doors are not solely controlled by an electronic access panel to ensure that locks are not released during a power outage.

(i) To monitor the dispensary, the dispensing organization shall incorporate continuous electronic video monitoring including the following:

(1) All monitors must be 19 inches or greater;

(2) Unobstructed video surveillance of all enclosed dispensary areas, unless prohibited by law, including all points of entry and exit that shall be appropriate for the normal lighting conditions of the area under surveillance. The cameras shall be directed so all areas are captured, including, but not limited to, safes, vaults, sales areas, and areas where cannabis is stored, handled, dispensed, or destroyed. Cameras shall be angled to allow for facial recognition, the capture of clear and certain identification of any person entering or exiting the dispensary area and in lighting sufficient during all times of night or day;

(3) Unobstructed video surveillance of outside areas, the storefront, and the parking lot, that shall be appropriate for the normal lighting conditions of the area under surveillance. Cameras shall be angled so as to allow for the capture of facial recognition, clear and certain identification of any person entering or exiting the dispensary and the immediate surrounding area, and license plates of vehicles in the parking lot;

(4) 24-hour recordings from all video cameras available for immediate viewing by the Department upon request. Recordings shall not be destroyed or altered and shall be retained for at least 90 days. Recordings shall be retained as long as necessary if the dispensing organization is aware of the loss or theft of cannabis or a pending criminal, civil, or administrative investigation or legal proceeding for which the recording may contain relevant information;

(5) The ability to immediately produce a clear, color still photo from the surveillance video, either live or recorded;

(6) A date and time stamp embedded on all video surveillance recordings. The date and time shall be synchronized and set correctly and shall not significantly obscure the picture;

(7) The ability to remain operational during a power outage and ensure all access doors are not solely controlled by an electronic access panel to ensure that locks are not released during a power outage;

(8) All video surveillance equipment shall allow for the exporting of still images in an industry standard image format, including .jpg, .bmp, and .gif. Exported video shall have the ability to be archived in a proprietary format that ensures authentication of the video and guarantees that no alteration of the recorded image has taken place. Exported video shall also have the ability to be saved in an industry standard file format that can be played on a standard computer operating system. All recordings shall be erased or destroyed before disposal;

(9) The video surveillance system shall be operational during a power outage with a 4-hour minimum battery backup;

(10) A video camera or cameras recording at each point-of-sale location allowing for the identification of the dispensing organization agent distributing the cannabis and any purchaser. The camera or cameras shall capture the sale, the individuals and the computer monitors used for the sale;

(11) A failure notification system that provides an audible and visual notification of any failure in the electronic video monitoring system; and

(12) All electronic video surveillance monitoring must record at least the equivalent of 8 frames per second and be available as recordings to the Department and the Department of State Police 24 hours a day via a secure web-based portal with reverse functionality.

(j) The requirements contained in this Act are minimum requirements for operating a dispensing organization. The Department may establish additional requirements by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-145)

Sec. 15-145. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may deny issuance, refuse to renew or restore, or may reprimand, place on probation, suspend, revoke, or take other disciplinary or nondisciplinary action against any license or agent identification card or may impose a fine for any of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Violations of this Act or rules;

(3) Obtaining an authorization or license by fraud or misrepresentation;

(4) A pattern of conduct that demonstrates incompetence or that the applicant has engaged in conduct or actions that would constitute grounds for discipline under this the Act;

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(6) Failing to respond to a written request for information by the Department within 30 days;

(7) Engaging in unprofessional, dishonorable, or unethical conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(8) Adverse action by another United States jurisdiction or foreign nation;

(9) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on suspended or probationary status, has violated the terms of the suspension or probation;

(10) Conviction, entry of a plea of guilty, nolo contendere, or the equivalent in a State or federal court of a principal officer or agent-in-charge of a felony offense in accordance with Sections 2105-131, 2105-135, and 2105-205 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois;

(11) Excessive use of or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug;

(12) A finding by the Department of a discrepancy in a Department audit of cannabis;

(13) A finding by the Department of a discrepancy in a Department audit of capital or funds;

(14) A finding by the Department of acceptance of cannabis from a source other than an Adult Use Cultivation Center, craft grower, infuser, or transporting organization licensed by the Department of Agriculture, or a dispensing organization licensed by the Department;

(15) An inability to operate using reasonable judgment, skill, or safety due to physical or mental illness or other impairment or disability, including, without limitation, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills or mental incompetence;

(16) Failing to report to the Department within the time frames established, or if not identified, 14 days, of any adverse action taken against the dispensing organization or an agent by a licensing jurisdiction in any state or any territory of the United States or any foreign jurisdiction, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency or any court defined in this Section;

(17) Any violation of the dispensing organization's policies and procedures submitted to the Department annually as a condition for licensure;

(18) Failure to inform the Department of any change of address within 10 business days;

(19) Disclosing customer names, personal information, or protected health information in violation of any State or federal law;

(20) Operating a dispensary before obtaining a license from the Department;

(21) Performing duties authorized by this Act prior to receiving a license to perform such duties;

(22) Dispensing cannabis when prohibited by this Act or rules;

(23) Any fact or condition that, if it had existed at the time of the original application for the license, would have warranted the denial of the license;

(24) Permitting a person without a valid agent identification card to perform licensed activities under this Act;

(25) Failure to assign an agent-in-charge as required by this Article;

(26) Failure to provide the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) of Section 15-40 within the provided timeframe;

(27) Personnel insufficient in number or unqualified in training or experience to properly operate the dispensary business;

(28) Any pattern of activity that causes a harmful impact on the community; and

(29) Failing to prevent diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis.

(b) All fines and fees imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or as otherwise specified in the order.

(c) A circuit court order establishing that an agent-in-charge or principal officer holding an agent identification card is subject to involuntary admission as that term is defined in Section 1-119 or 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall operate as a suspension of that card.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-4-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Unlicensed practice; violation; civil penalty Consent to administrative supervision order.

(a) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, any person who practices, offers to practice, attempts to practice, or holds oneself out to practice as a licensed dispensing organization owner, principal officer, agent-in-charge, or agent without being licensed under this Act shall, in addition to any other penalty provided by law, pay a civil penalty to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each offense as determined by the Department. The civil penalty shall be assessed by the Department after a hearing is held in accordance with the provisions set forth in this Act regarding the provision of a hearing for the discipline of a licensee.

(b) The Department has the authority and power to investigate any and all unlicensed activity.

(c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the civil penalty or in accordance with the order imposing the civil penalty. The order shall constitute a judgment and may be filed and execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment from any court of this State. In appropriate cases, the Department may resolve a complaint against a licensee or agent through the issuance of a consent order for administrative supervision. A license or agent subject to a consent order shall be considered by the Department to hold a license or registration in good standing.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-10)

Sec. 20-10. Early Approval of Adult Use Cultivation Center License.

(a) Any medical cannabis cultivation center registered and in good standing under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as of the effective date of this Act may, within 60 days of the effective date of this Act but no later than 180 days from the effective date of this Act, apply to the Department of Agriculture for an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License to produce cannabis and cannabis-infused products at its existing facilities as of the effective date of this Act.

(b) A medical cannabis cultivation center seeking issuance of an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department of Agriculture. The application must meet or include the following qualifications:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $100,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Proof of registration as a medical cannabis cultivation center that is in good standing;

(3) Submission of the application by the same person or entity that holds the medical cannabis cultivation center registration;

(4) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements of Section 20-30;

(5) The legal name of the cultivation center;

(6) The physical address of the cultivation center;

(7) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the cultivation center; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(8) A nonrefundable Cannabis Business Development Fee equal to 5% of the cultivation center's total sales between June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019 or $750,000, whichever is less, but at not less than $250,000, to be deposited into the Cannabis Business Development Fund; and

(9) A commitment to completing one of the following Social Equity Inclusion Plans provided for in this subsection (b) before the expiration of the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License:

(A) A contribution of 5% of the cultivation center's total sales from June 1, 2018 to June 1, 2019, or $100,000, whichever is less, to one of the following:

(i) the Cannabis Business Development Fund. This is in addition to the fee required by item (8) of this subsection (b);

(ii) a cannabis industry training or education program at an Illinois community college as defined in the Public Community College Act;

(iii) a program that provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated or that operates in a Disproportionately Impacted Area.

(B) Participate as a host in a cannabis business incubator program for at least one year approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and in which an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License holder agrees to provide a loan of at least $100,000 and mentorship to incubate, for at least a year, a Social Equity Applicant intending to seek a license or a licensee that qualifies as a Social Equity Applicant. As used in this Section, "incubate" means providing direct financial assistance and training necessary to engage in licensed cannabis industry activity similar to that of the host licensee. The Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License holder or the same entity holding any other licenses issued pursuant to this Act shall not take an ownership stake of greater than 10% in any business receiving incubation services to comply with this subsection. If an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License holder fails to find a business to incubate to comply with this subsection before its Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License expires, it may opt to meet the requirement of this subsection by completing another item from this subsection prior to the expiration of its Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License to avoid a penalty.

(c) An Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License is valid until March 31, 2021. A cultivation center that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and inform the license holder that it may renew its Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License. The Department of Agriculture shall grant a renewal of an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License within 60 days of submission of an application if:

(1) the cultivation center submits an application and the required renewal fee of $100,000 for an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License;

(2) the Department of Agriculture has not suspended the license of the cultivation center or suspended or revoked the license for violating this Act or rules adopted under this Act; and

(3) the cultivation center has completed a Social Equity Inclusion Plan as required by item (9) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(c-5) The Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License renewed pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section shall expire March 31, 2022. The Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center Licensee shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of the license that the license will expire, and inform the license holder that it may apply for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License. The Department of Agriculture shall grant an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License within 60 days of an application being deemed complete if the applicant meets all of the criteria in Section 20-21.

(d) The license fee required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section shall be in addition to any license fee required for the renewal of a registered medical cannabis cultivation center license that expires during the effective period of the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License.

(e) Applicants must submit all required information, including the requirements in subsection (b) of this Section, to the Department of Agriculture. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(f) If the Department of Agriculture receives an application with missing information, the Department may issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to submit complete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure may be disqualified.

(g) If an applicant meets all the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, the Department of Agriculture shall issue the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License within 14 days of receiving the application unless:

(1) The licensee; principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee; or agent is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois;

(2) The Director of Agriculture determines there is reason, based on an inordinate number of documented compliance violations, the licensee is not entitled to an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License; or

(3) The licensee fails to commit to the Social Equity Inclusion Plan.

(h) A cultivation center may begin producing cannabis and cannabis-infused products once the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License is approved. A cultivation center that obtains an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License may begin selling cannabis and cannabis-infused products on December 1, 2019.

(i) An Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License holder must continue to produce and provide an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products for purchase by qualifying patients and caregivers. For the purposes of this subsection, "adequate supply" means a monthly production level that is comparable in type and quantity to those medical cannabis products produced for patients and caregivers on an average monthly basis for the 6 months before the effective date of this Act.

(j) If there is a shortage of cannabis or cannabis-infused products, a license holder shall prioritize patients registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act over adult use purchasers.

(k) If an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center licensee fails to submit an application for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License before the expiration of the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section, the cultivation center shall cease adult use cultivation until it receives an Adult Use Cultivation Center License.

(l) A cultivation center agent who holds a valid cultivation center agent identification card issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act and is an officer, director, manager, or employee of the cultivation center licensed under this Section may engage in all activities authorized by this Article to be performed by a cultivation center agent.

(m) If the Department of Agriculture suspends or revokes the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License of a cultivation center that also holds a medical cannabis cultivation center license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, the Department of Agriculture may suspend or revoke the medical cannabis cultivation center license concurrently with the Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License.

(n) All fees or fines collected from an Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License holder as a result of a disciplinary action in the enforcement of this Act shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-15)

Sec. 20-15. Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center application.

(a) If the Department of Agriculture makes available additional cultivation center licenses pursuant to Section 20-5, applicants for a Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License shall electronically submit the following in such form as the Department of Agriculture may direct:

(1) the nonrefundable application fee set by rule by the Department of Agriculture, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the legal name of the cultivation center;

(3) the proposed physical address of the cultivation center;

(4) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the cultivation center; each principal officer and board member shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) the details of any administrative or judicial proceeding in which any of the principal officers or board members of the cultivation center (i) pled guilty, were convicted, were fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked, or (ii) managed or served on the board of a business or non-profit organization that pled guilty, was convicted, was fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked;

(6) proposed operating bylaws that include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, including the development and implementation of a plant monitoring system, accurate recordkeeping, staffing plan, and security plan approved by the Department of State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued by the Department of Agriculture under this Act. A physical inventory shall be performed of all plants and cannabis on a weekly basis by the cultivation center;

(7) verification from the Department of State Police that all background checks of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the cannabis business establishment have been conducted;

(8) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance or permit and verification that the proposed cultivation center is in compliance with the local zoning rules and distance limitations established by the local jurisdiction;

(9) proposed employment practices, in which the applicant must demonstrate a plan of action to inform, hire, and educate minorities, women, veterans, and persons with disabilities, engage in fair labor practices, and provide worker protections;

(10) whether an applicant can demonstrate experience in or business practices that promote economic empowerment in Disproportionately Impacted Areas;

(11) experience with the cultivation of agricultural or horticultural products, operating an agriculturally related business, or operating a horticultural business;

(12) a description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be grown, harvested, manufactured, processed, packaged, or otherwise prepared for distribution to a dispensing organization;

(13) a survey of the enclosed, locked facility, including the space used for cultivation;

(14) cultivation, processing, inventory, and packaging plans;

(15) a description of the applicant's experience with agricultural cultivation techniques and industry standards;

(16) a list of any academic degrees, certifications, or relevant experience of all prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the related business;

(17) the identity of every person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the cultivation center operation with respect to which the license is sought, whether a trust, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or sole proprietorship, including the name and address of each person;

(18) a plan describing how the cultivation center will address each of the following:

(i) energy needs, including estimates of monthly electricity and gas usage, to what extent it will procure energy from a local utility or from on-site generation, and if it has or will adopt a sustainable energy use and energy conservation policy;

(ii) water needs, including estimated water draw and if it has or will adopt a sustainable water use and water conservation policy; and

(iii) waste management, including if it has or will adopt a waste reduction policy;

(19) a diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity;

(20) any other information required by rule;

(21) a recycling plan:

(A) Purchaser packaging, including cartridges, shall be accepted by the applicant and recycled.

(B) Any recyclable waste generated by the cannabis cultivation facility shall be recycled per applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules.

(C) Any cannabis waste, liquid waste, or hazardous waste shall be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460, except, to the greatest extent feasible, all cannabis plant waste will be rendered unusable by grinding and incorporating the cannabis plant waste with compostable mixed waste to be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460(g)(1);

(22) commitment to comply with local waste provisions: a cultivation facility must remain in compliance with applicable State and federal environmental requirements, including, but not limited to:

(A) storing, securing, and managing all recyclables and waste, including organic waste composed of or containing finished cannabis and cannabis products, in accordance with applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules; and

(B) disposing Disposing liquid waste containing cannabis or byproducts of cannabis processing in compliance with all applicable State and federal requirements, including, but not limited to, the cannabis cultivation facility's permits under Title X of the Environmental Protection Act; and

(23) a commitment to a technology standard for resource efficiency of the cultivation center facility.

(A) A cannabis cultivation facility commits to use resources efficiently, including energy and water. For the following, a cannabis cultivation facility commits to meet or exceed the technology standard identified in items (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), which may be modified by rule:

(i) lighting systems, including light bulbs;

(ii) HVAC system;

(iii) water application system to the crop; and

(iv) filtration system for removing contaminants from wastewater.

(B) Lighting. The Lighting Power Densities (LPD) for cultivation space commits to not exceed an average of 36 watts per gross square foot of active and growing space canopy, or all installed lighting technology shall meet a photosynthetic photon efficacy (PPE) of no less than 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture and shall be featured on the DesignLights Consortium (DLC) Horticultural Specification Qualified Products List (QPL). In the event that DLC requirement for minimum efficacy exceeds 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture, that PPE shall become the new standard.

(C) HVAC.

(i) For cannabis grow operations with less than 6,000 square feet of canopy, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be high-efficiency ductless split HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(ii) For cannabis grow operations with 6,000 square feet of canopy or more, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be variable refrigerant flow HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(D) Water application.

(i) The cannabis cultivation facility commits to use automated watering systems, including, but not limited to, drip irrigation and flood tables, to irrigate cannabis crop.

(ii) The cannabis cultivation facility commits to measure runoff from watering events and report this volume in its water usage plan, and that on average, watering events shall have no more than 20% of runoff of water.

(E) Filtration. The cultivator commits that HVAC condensate, dehumidification water, excess runoff, and other wastewater produced by the cannabis cultivation facility shall be captured and filtered to the best of the facility's ability to achieve the quality needed to be reused in subsequent watering rounds.

(F) Reporting energy use and efficiency as required by rule.

(b) Applicants must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 20-10, to the Department of Agriculture. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(c) If the Department of Agriculture receives an application with missing information, the Department of Agriculture may issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(e) A cultivation center that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License pursuant to the criteria in Section 20-20 shall not grow, purchase, possess, or sell cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the person has received an Adult Use Cultivation Center License issued by the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 20-21 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-10-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-20)

Sec. 20-20. Conditional Adult Use License scoring applications.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall by rule develop a system to score cultivation center applications to administratively rank applications based on the clarity, organization, and quality of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants shall be awarded points based on the following categories:

(1) Suitability of the proposed facility;

(2) Suitability of employee training plan;

(3) Security and recordkeeping;

(4) Cultivation plan;

(5) Product safety and labeling plan;

(6) Business plan;

(7) The applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, which shall constitute no less than 20% of total available points;

(8) Labor and employment practices, which shall constitute no less than 2% of total available points;

(9) Environmental plan as described in paragraphs (18), (21), (22), and (23) of subsection (a) of Section 20-15;

(10) The applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an individual or individuals who have been an Illinois resident for the past 5 years as proved by tax records or 2 of the following: ;

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule;

(11) The applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined by Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code;

(12) a diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity; and

(13) Any other criteria the Department of Agriculture may set by rule for points.

(b) The Department may also award bonus points for the applicant's plan to engage with the community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(c) Should the applicant be awarded a cultivation center license, the information and plans that an applicant provided in its application, including any plans submitted for the acquiring of bonus points, becomes a mandatory condition of the permit. Any variation from or failure to perform such plans may result in discipline, including the revocation or nonrenewal of a license.

(d) Should the applicant be awarded a cultivation center license, it shall pay a fee of $100,000 prior to receiving the license, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund. The Department of Agriculture may by rule adjust the fee in this Section after January 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-30)

Sec. 20-30. Cultivation center requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a cultivation center shall include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A cultivation center shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Department of State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the cultivation center facility and accessibility to authorized law enforcement, the Department of Public Health where processing takes place, and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All cultivation of cannabis by a cultivation center must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The cultivation center location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the cultivation center, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, local and State law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, or other individuals as provided by rule.

(d) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person other than a dispensing organization, craft grower, infuser infusing organization, transporter, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) A cultivation center may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different dispensing organizations, craft growers, or infuser organizations that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (e) prevents a cultivation centers from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such as volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(f) All cannabis harvested by a cultivation center and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis harvested by a cultivation center and intended for distribution to a craft grower or infuser organization must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(g) Cultivation centers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, local safety or health inspectors, and the Department of State Police.

(h) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(i) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and any applicable federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides on cannabis plants.

(j) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 3 cultivation centers licensed under this Article. Further, no person or entity that is employed by, an agent of, has a contract to receive payment in any form from a cultivation center, is a principal officer of a cultivation center, or entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a cultivation shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a cultivation that would result in the person or entity owning or controlling in combination with any cultivation center, principal officer of a cultivation center, or entity controlled or affiliated with a principal officer of a cultivation center by which he, she, or it is employed, is an agent of, or participates in the management of, more than 3 cultivation center licenses.

(k) A cultivation center may not contain more than 210,000 square feet of canopy space for plants in the flowering stage for cultivation of adult use cannabis as provided in this Act.

(l) A cultivation center may process cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products.

(m) Beginning July 1, 2020, a cultivation center shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a craft grower, dispensing organization, infuser organization, or laboratory licensed under this Act, unless it has obtained a transporting organization license.

(n) It is unlawful for any person having a cultivation center license or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of such licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, such person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(o) A cultivation center must comply with any other requirements or prohibitions set by administrative rule of the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/25-1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 25-1. Definitions. In this Article:

"Board" means the Illinois Community College Board.

"Career in Cannabis Certificate" or "Certificate" means the certification awarded to a community college student who completes a prescribed course of study in cannabis and cannabis business industry related classes and curriculum at a community college awarded a Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program license.

"Community college" means a public community college organized under the Public Community College Act.

"Department" means the Department of Agriculture.

"Licensee" means a community college awarded a Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program license under this Article.

"Program" means the Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program.

"Program license" means a Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program license issued to a community college under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 8-16-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/25-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 25-10. Issuance of Community College Cannabis Vocational Pilot Program licenses.

(a) The Department shall issue rules regulating the selection criteria for applicants by January 1, 2020. The Department shall make the application for a Program license available no later than February 1, 2020, and shall require that applicants submit the completed application no later than July 1, 2020. If the Department issues fewer than 8 Program licenses by September 1, 2020, the Department may accept applications at a future date as prescribed by rule.

(b) The Department shall by rule develop a system to score Program licenses to administratively rank applications based on the clarity, organization, and quality of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants shall be awarded points that are based on or that meet the following categories:

(1) Geographic diversity of the applicants;

(2) Experience and credentials of the applicant's faculty;

(3) At least 5 Program license awardees must have a student population that is more than 50% low-income in each of the past 4 years;

(4) Security plan, including a requirement that all cannabis plants be in an enclosed, locked facility;

(5) Curriculum plan, including processing and testing curriculum for the Career in Cannabis Certificate;

(6) Career advising and placement plan for participating students; and

(7) Any other criteria the Department may set by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/30-5)

Sec. 30-5. Issuance of licenses.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall issue up to 40 craft grower licenses by July 1, 2020. Any person or entity awarded a license pursuant to this subsection shall only hold one craft grower license and may not sell that license until after December 21, 2021.

(b) By December 21, 2021, the Department of Agriculture shall issue up to 60 additional craft grower licenses. Any person or entity awarded a license pursuant to this subsection shall not hold more than 2 craft grower licenses. The person or entity awarded a license pursuant to this subsection or subsection (a) of this Section may sell its craft grower license subject to the restrictions of this Act or as determined by administrative rule. Prior to issuing such licenses, the Department may adopt rules through emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (gg) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to modify or raise the number of craft grower licenses assigned to each region and modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate barriers. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. In determining whether to exercise the authority granted by this subsection, the Department of Agriculture must consider the following factors:

(1) the percentage of cannabis sales occurring in Illinois not in the regulated market using data from the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, National Survey on Drug Use and Health, Illinois Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, and tourism data from the Illinois Office of Tourism to ascertain total cannabis consumption in Illinois compared to the amount of sales in licensed dispensing organizations;

(2) whether there is an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products to serve registered medical cannabis patients;

(3) whether there is an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products to serve purchasers;

(4) whether there is an oversupply of cannabis in Illinois leading to trafficking of cannabis to states where the sale of cannabis is not permitted by law;

(5) population increases or shifts;

(6) the density of craft growers in any area of the State;

(7) perceived security risks of increasing the number or location of craft growers;

(8) the past safety record of craft growers;

(9) the Department of Agriculture's capacity to appropriately regulate additional licensees;

(10) the findings and recommendations from the disparity and availability study commissioned by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to reduce or eliminate any identified barriers to entry in the cannabis industry; and

(11) any other criteria the Department of Agriculture deems relevant.

(c) After January 1, 2022, the Department of Agriculture may by rule modify or raise the number of craft grower licenses assigned to each region, and modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate barriers based on the criteria in subsection (b). At no time may the number of craft grower licenses exceed 150. Any person or entity awarded a license pursuant to this subsection shall not hold more than 3 craft grower licenses. A person or entity awarded a license pursuant to this subsection or subsection (a) or subsection (b) of this Section may sell its craft grower license or licenses subject to the restrictions of this Act or as determined by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/30-10)

Sec. 30-10. Application.

(a) When applying for a license, the applicant shall electronically submit the following in such form as the Department of Agriculture may direct:

(1) the nonrefundable application fee of $5,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund, or another amount as the Department of Agriculture may set by rule after January 1, 2021;

(2) the legal name of the craft grower;

(3) the proposed physical address of the craft grower;

(4) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the craft grower; each principal officer and board member shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) the details of any administrative or judicial proceeding in which any of the principal officers or board members of the craft grower (i) pled guilty, were convicted, were fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked or (ii) managed or served on the board of a business or non-profit organization that pled guilty, was convicted, was fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked;

(6) proposed operating bylaws that include procedures for the oversight of the craft grower, including the development and implementation of a plant monitoring system, accurate recordkeeping, staffing plan, and security plan approved by the Department of State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued by the Department of Agriculture under this Act; a physical inventory shall be performed of all plants and on a weekly basis by the craft grower;

(7) verification from the Department of State Police that all background checks of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the cannabis business establishment have been conducted;

(8) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance or permit and verification that the proposed craft grower is in compliance with the local zoning rules and distance limitations established by the local jurisdiction;

(9) proposed employment practices, in which the applicant must demonstrate a plan of action to inform, hire, and educate minorities, women, veterans, and persons with disabilities, engage in fair labor practices, and provide worker protections;

(10) whether an applicant can demonstrate experience in or business practices that promote economic empowerment in Disproportionately Impacted Areas;

(11) experience with the cultivation of agricultural or horticultural products, operating an agriculturally related business, or operating a horticultural business;

(12) a description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be grown, harvested, manufactured, packaged, or otherwise prepared for distribution to a dispensing organization or other cannabis business establishment;

(13) a survey of the enclosed, locked facility, including the space used for cultivation;

(14) cultivation, processing, inventory, and packaging plans;

(15) a description of the applicant's experience with agricultural cultivation techniques and industry standards;

(16) a list of any academic degrees, certifications, or relevant experience of all prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the related business;

(17) the identity of every person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the craft grower operation, whether a trust, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or sole proprietorship, including the name and address of each person;

(18) a plan describing how the craft grower will address each of the following:

(i) energy needs, including estimates of monthly electricity and gas usage, to what extent it will procure energy from a local utility or from on-site generation, and if it has or will adopt a sustainable energy use and energy conservation policy;

(ii) water needs, including estimated water draw and if it has or will adopt a sustainable water use and water conservation policy; and

(iii) waste management, including if it has or will adopt a waste reduction policy;

(19) a recycling plan:

(A) Purchaser packaging, including cartridges, shall be accepted by the applicant and recycled.

(B) Any recyclable waste generated by the craft grower facility shall be recycled per applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules.

(C) Any cannabis waste, liquid waste, or hazardous waste shall be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460, except, to the greatest extent feasible, all cannabis plant waste will be rendered unusable by grinding and incorporating the cannabis plant waste with compostable mixed waste to be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460(g)(1); .

(20) a commitment to comply with local waste provisions: a craft grower facility must remain in compliance with applicable State and federal environmental requirements, including, but not limited to:

(A) storing, securing, and managing all recyclables and waste, including organic waste composed of or containing finished cannabis and cannabis products, in accordance with applicable State and local laws, ordinances, and rules; and

(B) disposing Disposing liquid waste containing cannabis or byproducts of cannabis processing in compliance with all applicable State and federal requirements, including, but not limited to, the cannabis cultivation facility's permits under Title X of the Environmental Protection Act; .

(21) a commitment to a technology standard for resource efficiency of the craft grower facility.

(A) A craft grower facility commits to use resources efficiently, including energy and water. For the following, a cannabis cultivation facility commits to meet or exceed the technology standard identified in paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), which may be modified by rule:

(i) lighting systems, including light bulbs;

(ii) HVAC system;

(iii) water application system to the crop; and

(iv) filtration system for removing contaminants from wastewater.

(B) Lighting. The Lighting Power Densities (LPD) for cultivation space commits to not exceed an average of 36 watts per gross square foot of active and growing space canopy, or all installed lighting technology shall meet a photosynthetic photon efficacy (PPE) of no less than 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture and shall be featured on the DesignLights Consortium (DLC) Horticultural Specification Qualified Products List (QPL). In the event that DLC requirement for minimum efficacy exceeds 2.2 micromoles per joule fixture, that PPE shall become the new standard.

(C) HVAC.

(i) For cannabis grow operations with less than 6,000 square feet of canopy, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be high-efficiency ductless split HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(ii) For cannabis grow operations with 6,000 square feet of canopy or more, the licensee commits that all HVAC units will be variable refrigerant flow HVAC units, or other more energy efficient equipment.

(D) Water application.

(i) The craft grower facility commits to use automated watering systems, including, but not limited to, drip irrigation and flood tables, to irrigate cannabis crop.

(ii) The craft grower facility commits to measure runoff from watering events and report this volume in its water usage plan, and that on average, watering events shall have no more than 20% of runoff of water.

(E) Filtration. The craft grower commits that HVAC condensate, dehumidification water, excess runoff, and other wastewater produced by the craft grower facility shall be captured and filtered to the best of the facility's ability to achieve the quality needed to be reused in subsequent watering rounds.

(F) Reporting energy use and efficiency as required by rule; and

(22) any other information required by rule.

(b) Applicants must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 30-15, to the Department of Agriculture. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(c) If the Department of Agriculture receives an application with missing information, the Department of Agriculture may issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-4-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/30-15)

Sec. 30-15. Scoring applications.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall by rule develop a system to score craft grower applications to administratively rank applications based on the clarity, organization, and quality of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants shall be awarded points based on the following categories:

(1) Suitability of the proposed facility;

(2) Suitability of the employee training plan;

(3) Security and recordkeeping;

(4) Cultivation plan;

(5) Product safety and labeling plan;

(6) Business plan;

(7) The applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, which shall constitute no less than 20% of total available points;

(8) Labor and employment practices, which shall constitute no less than 2% of total available points;

(9) Environmental plan as described in paragraphs (18), (19), (20), and (21) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10;

(10) The applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an individual or individuals who have been an Illinois resident for the past 5 years as proved by tax records or 2 of the following: ;

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule;

(11) The applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined in Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code;

(12) A diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity; and

(13) Any other criteria the Department of Agriculture may set by rule for points.

(b) The Department may also award up to 2 bonus points for the applicant's plan to engage with the community. The applicant may demonstrate a desire to engage with its community by participating in one or more of, but not limited to, the following actions: (i) establishment of an incubator program designed to increase participation in the cannabis industry by persons who would qualify as Social Equity Applicants; (ii) providing financial assistance to substance abuse treatment centers; (iii) educating children and teens about the potential harms of cannabis use; or (iv) other measures demonstrating a commitment to the applicant's community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(c) Should the applicant be awarded a craft grower license, the information and plans that an applicant provided in its application, including any plans submitted for the acquiring of bonus points, shall be a mandatory condition of the license. Any variation from or failure to perform such plans may result in discipline, including the revocation or nonrenewal of a license.

(d) Should the applicant be awarded a craft grower license, the applicant shall pay a prorated fee of $40,000 prior to receiving the license, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund. The Department of Agriculture may by rule adjust the fee in this Section after January 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/30-30)

Sec. 30-30. Craft grower requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a craft grower shall include procedures for the oversight of the craft grower, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A craft grower shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Department of State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, and a 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the craft grower facility and that is accessible to authorized law enforcement and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All cultivation of cannabis by a craft grower must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The craft grower location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the craft grower, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, State and local law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, or participants in the incubator program, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, or other individuals as provided by rule. However, if a craft grower shares a premises with an infuser or dispensing organization, agents from those other licensees may access the craft grower portion of the premises if that is the location of common bathrooms, lunchrooms, locker rooms, or other areas of the building where work or cultivation of cannabis is not performed. At no time may an infuser or dispensing organization agent perform work at a craft grower without being a registered agent of the craft grower.

(d) A craft grower may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any person other than a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) A craft grower may not be located in an area zoned for residential use.

(f) A craft grower may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different cannabis business establishments that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (f) prevents a craft grower from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such as volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(g) All cannabis harvested by a craft grower and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and, if distribution is to a dispensing organization that does not share a premises with the dispensing organization receiving the cannabis, placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis harvested by a craft grower and intended for distribution to a cultivation center, to an infuser organization, or to a craft grower with which it does not share a premises, must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(h) Craft growers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, local safety or health inspectors, and the Department of State Police.

(i) A craft grower agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or written or electronic communication.

(j) A craft grower shall comply with all State and any applicable federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.

(k) A craft grower or craft grower agent shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any other cannabis business establishment without a transport organization license unless:

(i) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 2,000 feet of the property line of the craft grower;

(ii) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of more than 700,000 but fewer than 3,000,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 2 miles of the craft grower; or

(iii) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of fewer than the 700,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 15 miles of the craft grower.

(l) A craft grower may enter into a contract with a transporting organization to transport cannabis to a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, or a laboratory.

(m) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 3 craft grower licenses. Further, no person or entity that is employed by, an agent of, or has a contract to receive payment from or participate in the management of a craft grower, is a principal officer of a craft grower, or entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a craft grower shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a craft grower license that would result in the person or entity owning or controlling in combination with any craft grower, principal officer of a craft grower, or entity controlled or affiliated with a principal officer of a craft grower by which he, she, or it is employed, is an agent of, or participates in the management of more than 3 craft grower licenses.

(n) It is unlawful for any person having a craft grower license or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of the licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly, to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, the person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(o) A craft grower shall not be located within 1,500 feet of another craft grower or a cultivation center.

(p) A craft graft grower may process cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products.

(q) A craft grower must comply with any other requirements or prohibitions set by administrative rule of the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-10-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-5)

Sec. 35-5. Issuance of licenses.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall issue up to 40 infuser licenses through a process provided for in this Article no later than July 1, 2020.

(b) The Department of Agriculture shall make the application for infuser licenses available on January 7, 2020, or if that date falls on a weekend or holiday, the business day immediately succeeding the weekend or holiday and every January 7 or succeeding business day thereafter, and shall receive such applications no later than March 15, 2020, or, if that date falls on a weekend or holiday, the business day immediately succeeding the weekend or holiday and every March 15 or succeeding business day thereafter.

(c) By December 21, 2021, the Department of Agriculture may issue up to 60 additional infuser licenses. Prior to issuing such licenses, the Department may adopt rules through emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (gg) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to modify or raise the number of infuser licenses and modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate barriers. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

In determining whether to exercise the authority granted by this subsection, the Department of Agriculture must consider the following factors:

(1) the percentage of cannabis sales occurring in Illinois not in the regulated market using data from the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, National Survey on Drug Use and Health, Illinois Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, and tourism data from the Illinois Office of Tourism to ascertain total cannabis consumption in Illinois compared to the amount of sales in licensed dispensing organizations;

(2) whether there is an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products to serve registered medical cannabis patients;

(3) whether there is an adequate supply of cannabis and cannabis-infused products to serve sere purchasers; :

(4) whether there is an oversupply of cannabis in Illinois leading to trafficking of cannabis to any other state;

(5) population increases or shifts;

(6) changes to federal law;

(7) perceived security risks of increasing the number or location of infuser organizations;

(8) the past security records of infuser organizations;

(9) the Department of Agriculture's capacity to appropriately regulate additional licenses;

(10) the findings and recommendations from the disparity and availability study commissioned by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to reduce or eliminate any identified barriers to entry in the cannabis industry; and

(11) any other criteria the Department of Agriculture deems relevant.

(d) After January 1, 2022, the Department of Agriculture may by rule modify or raise the number of infuser licenses, and modify or change the licensing application process to reduce or eliminate barriers based on the criteria in subsection (c).

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-10-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-15)

Sec. 35-15. Issuing licenses.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall by rule develop a system to score infuser applications to administratively rank applications based on the clarity, organization, and quality of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants shall be awarded points based on the following categories:

(1) Suitability of the proposed facility;

(2) Suitability of the employee training plan;

(3) Security and recordkeeping plan;

(4) Infusing plan;

(5) Product safety and labeling plan;

(6) Business plan;

(7) The applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, which shall constitute no less than 20% of total available points;

(8) Labor and employment practices, which shall constitute no less than 2% of total available points;

(9) Environmental plan as described in paragraphs (17) and (18) of subsection (a) of Section 35-10;

(10) The applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an individual or individuals who have been an Illinois resident for the past 5 years as proved by tax records or 2 of the following: ;

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule;

(11) The applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined by Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code; and

(12) A diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity; and

(13) Any other criteria the Department of Agriculture may set by rule for points.

(b) The Department may also award up to 2 bonus points for the applicant's plan to engage with the community. The applicant may demonstrate a desire to engage with its community by participating in one or more of, but not limited to, the following actions: (i) establishment of an incubator program designed to increase participation in the cannabis industry by persons who would qualify as Social Equity Applicants; (ii) providing financial assistance to substance abuse treatment centers; (iii) educating children and teens about the potential harms of cannabis use; or (iv) other measures demonstrating a commitment to the applicant's community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(c) Should the applicant be awarded an infuser license, the information and plans that an applicant provided in its application, including any plans submitted for the acquiring of bonus points, becomes a mandatory condition of the permit. Any variation from or failure to perform such plans may result in discipline, including the revocation or nonrenewal of a license.

(d) Should the applicant be awarded an infuser organization license, it shall pay a fee of $5,000 prior to receiving the license, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund. The Department of Agriculture may by rule adjust the fee in this Section after January 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-25)

Sec. 35-25. Infuser organization requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of an infuser shall include procedures for the oversight of the infuser, an inventory monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) An infuser shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Department of State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, and a 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the infuser facility and that is accessible to authorized law enforcement, the Department of Public Health, and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All processing of cannabis by an infuser must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The infuser location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the infuser, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, State and local law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, participants in the incubator program, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, local safety or health inspectors, or other individuals as provided by rule. However, if an infuser shares a premises with a craft grower or dispensing organization, agents from these other licensees may access the infuser portion of the premises if that is the location of common bathrooms, lunchrooms, locker rooms, or other areas of the building where processing of cannabis is not performed. At no time may a craft grower or dispensing organization agent perform work at an infuser without being a registered agent of the infuser.

(d) An infuser may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any person other than a dispensing organization, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) An infuser may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different cannabis business establishments that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (e) prevents an infuser from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(f) All cannabis infused by an infuser and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and, if distribution is to a dispensing organization that does not share a premises with the infuser, placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis produced by an infuser and intended for distribution to a cultivation center, infuser organization, or craft grower with which it does not share a premises, must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(g) Infusers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Department of State Police, and local law enforcement.

(h) An infuser agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(i) An infuser organization may not be located in an area zoned for residential use.

(j) An infuser or infuser agent shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any other cannabis business establishment without a transport organization license unless:

(i) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 2,000 feet of the property line of the infuser;

(ii) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of more than 700,000 but fewer than 3,000,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 2 miles of the infuser; or

(iii) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of fewer than 700,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 15 miles of the infuser.

(k) An infuser may enter into a contract with a transporting organization to transport cannabis to a dispensing organization or a laboratory.

(l) An infuser organization may share premises with a craft grower or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

(m) It is unlawful for any person or entity having an infuser organization license or any officer, associate, member, representative or agent of such licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, such person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged the retail sales of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(n) At no time shall an infuser organization or an infuser agent perform the extraction of cannabis concentrate from cannabis flower.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-31)

Sec. 35-31. Ensuring an adequate supply of raw materials to serve infusers.

(a) As used in this Section, "raw materials" includes, but is not limited to, CO₂ hash oil, "crude", "distillate", or any other cannabis concentrate extracted from cannabis flower by use of a solvent or a mechanical process.

(b) The Department of Agriculture may by rule design a method for assessing whether licensed infusers have access to an adequate supply of reasonably affordable raw materials, which may include but not be limited to: (i) a survey of infusers; (ii) a market study on the sales trends of cannabis-infused products manufactured by infusers; and (iii) the costs cultivation centers and craft growers assume for the raw materials they use in any cannabis-infused products they manufacture.

(c) The Department of Agriculture shall perform an assessment of whether infusers have access to an adequate supply of reasonably affordable raw materials that shall start no sooner than January 1, 2022 and shall conclude no later than April 1, 2022. The Department of Agriculture may rely on data from the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer as part of this assessment.

(d) The Department of Agriculture shall perform an assessment of whether infusers have access to an adequate supply of reasonably affordable raw materials that shall start no sooner than January 1, 2023 and shall conclude no later than April 1, 2023. The Department of Agriculture may rely on data from the Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer as part of this assessment.

(e) The Department of Agriculture may by rule adopt measures to ensure infusers have access to an adequate supply of reasonably affordable raw materials necessary for the manufacture of cannabis-infused products. Such measures may include, but not be limited to (i) requiring cultivation centers and craft growers to set aside a minimum amount of raw materials for the wholesale market or (ii) enabling infusers to apply for a processor license to extract raw materials from cannabis flower.

(f) If the Department of Agriculture determines processor licenses may be available to infuser infusing organizations based upon findings made pursuant to subsection (e), infuser organizations may submit to the Department of Agriculture on forms provided by the Department of Agriculture the following information as part of an application to receive a processor license:

(1) experience with the extraction, processing, or infusing of oils similar to those derived from cannabis, or other business practices to be performed by the infuser;

(2) a description of the applicant's experience with manufacturing equipment and chemicals to be used in processing;

(3) expertise in relevant scientific fields;

(4) a commitment that any cannabis waste, liquid waste, or hazardous waste shall be disposed of in accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460, except, to the greatest extent feasible, all cannabis plant waste will be rendered unusable by grinding and incorporating the cannabis plant waste with compostable mixed waste to be disposed of in accordance with Ill. Adm. Code 1000.460(g)(1); and

(5) any other information the Department of Agriculture deems relevant.

(g) The Department of Agriculture may only issue an infuser infusing organization a processor license if, based on the information pursuant to subsection (f) and any other criteria set by the Department of Agriculture, which may include but not be limited an inspection of the site where processing would occur, the Department of Agriculture is reasonably certain the infuser infusing organization will process cannabis in a safe and compliant manner.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Issuance of licenses.

(a) The Department shall issue transporting licenses through a process provided for in this Article no later than July 1, 2020.

(b) The Department shall make the application for transporting organization licenses available on January 7, 2020 and shall receive such applications no later than March 15, 2020. The Thereafter, the Department of Agriculture shall make available such applications on every January 7 thereafter or if that date falls on a weekend or holiday, the business day immediately succeeding the weekend or holiday and shall receive such applications no later than March 15 or the succeeding business day thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-10)

Sec. 40-10. Application.

(a) When applying for a transporting organization license, the applicant shall electronically submit the following in such form as the Department of Agriculture may direct:

(1) the nonrefundable application fee of $5,000 or, after January 1, 2021, another amount as set by rule by the Department of Agriculture, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the legal name of the transporting organization;

(3) the proposed physical address of the transporting organization, if one is proposed;

(4) the name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the transporting organization; each principal officer and board member shall be at least 21 years of age;

(5) the details of any administrative or judicial proceeding in which any of the principal officers or board members of the transporting organization (i) pled guilty, were convicted, fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked, or (ii) managed or served on the board of a business or non-profit organization that pled guilty, was convicted, fined, or had a registration or license suspended or revoked;

(6) proposed operating bylaws that include procedures for the oversight of the transporting organization, including the development and implementation of an accurate recordkeeping plan, staffing plan, and security plan approved by the Department of State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued by the Department of Agriculture under this Act; a physical inventory shall be performed of all cannabis on a weekly basis by the transporting organization;

(7) verification from the Department of State Police that all background checks of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of the transporting organization have been conducted;

(8) a copy of the current local zoning ordinance or permit and verification that the proposed transporting organization is in compliance with the local zoning rules and distance limitations established by the local jurisdiction, if the transporting organization has a business address;

(9) proposed employment practices, in which the applicant must demonstrate a plan of action to inform, hire, and educate minorities, women, veterans, and persons with disabilities, engage in fair labor practices, and provide worker protections;

(10) whether an applicant can demonstrate experience in or business practices that promote economic empowerment in Disproportionately Impacted Areas;

(11) the number and type of equipment the transporting organization will use to transport cannabis and cannabis-infused products;

(12) loading, transporting, and unloading plans;

(13) a description of the applicant's experience in the distribution or security business;

(14) the identity of every person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or more in the transporting organization with respect to which the license is sought, whether a trust, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or sole proprietorship, including the name and address of each person; and

(15) any other information required by rule.

(b) Applicants must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 40-35 to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(c) If the Department receives an application with missing information, the Department of Agriculture may issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-15)

Sec. 40-15. Issuing licenses.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall by rule develop a system to score transporter applications to administratively rank applications based on the clarity, organization, and quality of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants shall be awarded points based on the following categories:

(1) suitability of employee training plan;

(2) security and recordkeeping plan;

(3) business plan;

(4) the applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, which shall constitute no less than 20% of total available points;

(5) labor and employment practices, which shall constitute no less than 2% of total available points;

(6) environmental plan that demonstrates an environmental plan of action to minimize the carbon footprint, environmental impact, and resource needs for the transporter, which may include, without limitation, recycling cannabis product packaging;

(7) the applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an individual or individuals who have been an Illinois resident for the past 5 years as proved by tax records or 2 of the following: ;

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule;

(8) the applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined by Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code;

(9) a diversity plan that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity; and

(10) any other criteria the Department of Agriculture may set by rule for points.

(b) The Department may also award up to 2 bonus points for the applicant's plan to engage with the community. The applicant may demonstrate a desire to engage with its community by participating in one or more of, but not limited to, the following actions: (i) establishment of an incubator program designed to increase participation in the cannabis industry by persons who would qualify as Social Equity Applicants; (ii) providing financial assistance to substance abuse treatment centers; (iii) educating children and teens about the potential harms of cannabis use; or (iv) other measures demonstrating a commitment to the applicant's community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(c) Applicants for transporting transportation organization licenses that score at least 75% 85% of the available points according to the system developed by rule and meet all other requirements for a transporter license shall be issued a license by the Department of Agriculture within 60 days of receiving the application. Applicants that were registered as medical cannabis cultivation centers prior to January 1, 2020 and who meet all other requirements for a transporter license shall be issued a license by the Department of Agriculture within 60 days of receiving the application.

(d) Should the applicant be awarded a transporting transportation organization license, the information and plans that an applicant provided in its application, including any plans submitted for the acquiring of bonus points, shall be a mandatory condition of the permit. Any variation from or failure to perform such plans may result in discipline, including the revocation or nonrenewal of a license.

(e) Should the applicant be awarded a transporting organization license, the applicant shall pay a prorated fee of $10,000 prior to receiving the license, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund. The Department of Agriculture may by rule adjust the fee in this Section after January 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-20)

Sec. 40-20. Denial of application. An application for a transporting transportation organization license shall be denied if any of the following conditions are met:

(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials required by this Article;

(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local zoning rules or permit requirements;

(3) one or more of the prospective principal officers or board members causes a violation of Section 40-25;

(4) one or more of the principal officers or board members is under 21 years of age;

(5) the person has submitted an application for a license under this Act that contains false information; or

(6) the licensee, principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-25)

Sec. 40-25. Transporting organization requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a transporting organization shall include procedures for the oversight of the transporter, an inventory monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A transporting organization may not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person other than a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, a testing facility, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(c) All cannabis transported by a transporting organization must be entered into a data collection system and placed into a cannabis container for transport.

(d) Transporters are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, and the Department of State Police.

(e) A transporting organization agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(f) No person under the age of 21 years shall be in a commercial vehicle or trailer transporting cannabis goods.

(g) No person or individual who is not a transporting organization agent shall be in a vehicle while transporting cannabis goods.

(h) Transporters may not use commercial motor vehicles with a weight rating of over 10,001 pounds.

(i) It is unlawful for any person to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly, to any of the following persons to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website:

(1) a person having a transporting organization license, or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of the licensee;

(2) a person having an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(3) a person connected with or in any way representing, or a member of the family of, a person holding an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act; or

(4) a stockholder, officer, manager, agent, or representative of a corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(j) A transporting transportation organization agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cannabis business establishment and during the transporting transportation of cannabis when acting under his or her duties as a transportation organization agent. During these times, the transporting transporter organization agent must also provide the identification card upon request of any law enforcement officer engaged in his or her official duties.

(k) A copy of the transporting organization's registration and a manifest for the delivery shall be present in any vehicle transporting cannabis.

(l) Cannabis shall be transported so it is not visible or recognizable from outside the vehicle.

(m) A vehicle transporting cannabis must not bear any markings to indicate the vehicle contains cannabis or bear the name or logo of the cannabis business establishment.

(n) Cannabis must be transported in an enclosed, locked storage compartment that is secured or affixed to the vehicle.

(o) The Department of Agriculture may, by rule, impose any other requirements or prohibitions on the transportation of cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-30)

Sec. 40-30. Transporting agent identification card.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall:

(1) establish by rule the information required in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act and the nonrefundable fee to accompany the initial application or renewal application;

(2) verify the information contained in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act and approve or deny an application within 30 days of receiving a completed initial application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(3) issue an agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the initial application or renewal application;

(4) enter the license number of the transporting organization where the agent works; and

(5) allow for an electronic initial application and renewal application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted. The Department of Agriculture may by rule require prospective agents to file their applications by electronic means and provide notices to the agents by electronic means.

(b) An agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cannabis business establishment, including the cannabis business establishment for which he or she is an agent.

(c) The agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the identification card;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the holder;

(4) a photograph of the cardholder; and

(5) the legal name of the transporting transporter organization employing the agent.

(d) An agent identification card shall be immediately returned to the transporting transporter organization of the agent upon termination of his or her employment.

(e) Any agent identification card lost by a transporting agent shall be reported to the Department of State Police and the Department of Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) An application for an agent identification card shall be denied if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-35)

Sec. 40-35. Transporting organization background checks.

(a) Through the Department of State Police, the Department of Agriculture shall conduct a background check of the prospective principal officers, board members, and agents of a transporter applying for a license or identification card under this Act. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee set by rule for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. In order to carry out this provision, each transporting transporter organization's prospective principal officer, board member, or agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Department of State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all conviction information to the Department of Agriculture.

(b) When applying for the initial license or identification card, the background checks for all prospective principal officers, board members, and agents shall be completed before submitting the application to the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-40)

Sec. 40-40. Renewal of transporting organization licenses and agent identification cards.

(a) Licenses and identification cards issued under this Act shall be renewed annually. A transporting organization shall receive written or electronic notice 90 days before the expiration of its current license that the license will expire. The Department of Agriculture shall grant a renewal within 45 days of submission of a renewal application if:

(1) the transporting organization submits a renewal application and the required nonrefundable renewal fee of $10,000, or after January 1, 2021, another amount set by rule by the Department of Agriculture, to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) the Department of Agriculture has not suspended or revoked the license of the transporting organization for violating this Act or rules adopted under this Act;

(3) the transporting organization has continued to operate in accordance with all plans submitted as part of its application and approved by the Department of Agriculture or any amendments thereto that have been approved by the Department of Agriculture; and

(4) the transporter has submitted an agent, employee, contracting, and subcontracting diversity report as required by the Department.

(b) If a transporting organization fails to renew its license before expiration, it shall cease operations until its license is renewed.

(c) If a transporting organization agent fails to renew his or her identification card before its expiration, he or she shall cease to work as an agent of the transporting transporter organization until his or her identification card is renewed.

(d) Any transporting organization that continues to operate, or any transporting organization agent who continues to work as an agent, after the applicable license or identification card has expired without renewal is subject to the penalties provided under Section 45-5.

(e) The Department shall not renew a license or an agent identification card if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/45-5)

Sec. 45-5. License suspension; revocation; other penalties.

(a) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related to the unlawful possession of cannabis, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Department of Agriculture may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, issue cease and desist orders, refuse to issue or renew a license, or take any other disciplinary or nondisciplinary action as each department may deem proper with regard to a cannabis business establishment or cannabis business establishment agent, including fines not to exceed:

(1) $50,000 for each violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act by a cultivation center or cultivation center agent;

(2) $20,000 $10,000 for each violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act by a dispensing organization or dispensing organization agent;

(3) $15,000 for each violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act by a craft grower or craft grower agent;

(4) $10,000 for each violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act by an infuser organization or infuser organization agent; and

(5) $10,000 for each violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act by a transporting organization or transporting organization agent.

(b) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Department of Agriculture, as the case may be, shall consider licensee cooperation in any agency or other investigation in its determination of penalties imposed under this Section.

(c) The procedures for disciplining a cannabis business establishment or cannabis business establishment agent and for administrative hearings shall be determined by rule, and shall provide for the review of final decisions under the Administrative Review Law.

(d) The Attorney General may also enforce a violation of Section 55-20, Section 55-21, and Section 15-155 as an unlawful practice under the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. Laboratory testing.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following acts, when performed by a cannabis testing facility with a current, valid registration, or a person 21 years of age or older who is acting in his or her capacity as an owner, employee, or agent of a cannabis testing facility, are not unlawful and shall not be an offense under Illinois law or be a basis for seizure or forfeiture of assets under Illinois law:

(1) possessing, repackaging, transporting, storing, or displaying cannabis or cannabis-infused products;

(2) receiving or transporting cannabis or cannabis-infused products from a cannabis business establishment, a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program, or a person 21 years of age or older; and

(3) returning or transporting cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a cannabis business establishment, a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program, or a person 21 years of age or older.

(b)(1) No laboratory shall handle, test, or analyze cannabis unless approved by the Department of Agriculture in accordance with this Section.

(2) No laboratory shall be approved to handle, test, or analyze cannabis unless the laboratory:

(A) is accredited by a private laboratory accrediting organization;

(B) is independent from all other persons involved in the cannabis industry in Illinois and no person with a direct or indirect interest in the laboratory has a direct or indirect financial, management, or other interest in an Illinois cultivation center, craft grower, dispensary, infuser, transporter, certifying physician, or any other entity in the State that may benefit from the production, manufacture, dispensing, sale, purchase, or use of cannabis; and

(C) has employed at least one person to oversee and be responsible for the laboratory testing who has earned, from a college or university accredited by a national or regional certifying authority, at least:

(i) a master's level degree in chemical or biological sciences and a minimum of 2 years' post-degree laboratory experience; or

(ii) a bachelor's degree in chemical or biological sciences and a minimum of 4 years' post-degree laboratory experience.

(3) Each independent testing laboratory that claims to be accredited must provide the Department of Agriculture with a copy of the most recent annual inspection report granting accreditation and every annual report thereafter.

(c) Immediately before manufacturing or natural processing of any cannabis or cannabis-infused product or packaging cannabis for sale to a dispensary, each batch shall be made available by the cultivation center, craft grower, or infuser for an employee of an approved laboratory to select a random sample, which shall be tested by the approved laboratory for:

(1) microbiological contaminants;

(2) mycotoxins;

(3) pesticide active ingredients;

(4) residual solvent; and

(5) an active ingredient analysis.

(d) The Department of Agriculture may select a random sample that shall, for the purposes of conducting an active ingredient analysis, be tested by the Department of Agriculture for verification of label information.

(e) A laboratory shall immediately return or dispose of any cannabis upon the completion of any testing, use, or research. If cannabis is disposed of, it shall be done in compliance with Department of Agriculture rule.

(f) If a sample of cannabis does not pass the microbiological, mycotoxin, pesticide chemical residue, or solvent residue test, based on the standards established by the Department of Agriculture, the following shall apply:

(1) If the sample failed the pesticide chemical residue test, the entire batch from which the sample was taken shall, if applicable, be recalled as provided by rule.

(2) If the sample failed any other test, the batch may be used to make a CO₂-based or solvent based extract. After processing, the CO₂-based or solvent based extract must still pass all required tests.

(g) The Department of Agriculture shall establish standards for microbial, mycotoxin, pesticide residue, solvent residue, or other standards for the presence of possible contaminants, in addition to labeling requirements for contents and potency.

(h) The laboratory shall file with the Department of Agriculture an electronic copy of each laboratory test result for any batch that does not pass the microbiological, mycotoxin, or pesticide chemical residue test, at the same time that it transmits those results to the cultivation center. In addition, the laboratory shall maintain the laboratory test results for at least 5 years and make them available at the Department of Agriculture's request.

(i) A cultivation center, craft grower, and infuser shall provide to a dispensing organization the laboratory test results for each batch of cannabis product purchased by the dispensing organization, if sampled. Each dispensing dispensary organization must have those laboratory results available upon request to purchasers.

(j) The Department of Agriculture may adopt rules related to testing in furtherance of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-10)

Sec. 55-10. Maintenance of inventory. All dispensing organizations authorized to serve both registered qualifying patients and caregivers and purchasers are required to report which cannabis and cannabis-infused products are purchased for sale under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, and which cannabis and cannabis-infused products are purchased under this Act. Nothing in this Section prohibits a registered qualifying patient under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act from purchasing cannabis as a purchaser under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-20)

Sec. 55-20. Advertising and promotions.

(a) No cannabis business establishment nor any other person or entity shall engage in advertising that contains any statement or illustration that:

(1) is false or misleading;

(2) promotes overconsumption of cannabis or cannabis products;

(3) depicts the actual consumption of cannabis or cannabis products;

(4) depicts a person under 21 years of age consuming cannabis;

(5) makes any health, medicinal, or therapeutic claims about cannabis or cannabis-infused products;

(6) includes the image of a cannabis leaf or bud; or

(7) includes any image designed or likely to appeal to minors, including cartoons, toys, animals, or children, or any other likeness to images, characters, or phrases that is designed in any manner to be appealing to or encourage consumption by of persons under 21 years of age.

(b) No cannabis business establishment nor any other person or entity shall place or maintain, or cause to be placed or maintained, an advertisement of cannabis or a cannabis-infused product in any form or through any medium:

(1) within 1,000 feet of the perimeter of school grounds, a playground, a recreation center or facility, a child care center, a public park or public library, or a game arcade to which admission is not restricted to persons 21 years of age or older;

(2) on or in a public transit vehicle or public transit shelter;

(3) on or in publicly owned or publicly operated property; or

(4) that contains information that:

(A) is false or misleading;

(B) promotes excessive consumption;

(C) depicts a person under 21 years of age consuming cannabis;

(D) includes the image of a cannabis leaf; or

(E) includes any image designed or likely to appeal to minors, including cartoons, toys, animals, or children, or any other likeness to images, characters, or phrases that are popularly used to advertise to children, or any imitation of candy packaging or labeling, or that promotes consumption of cannabis.

(c) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to an educational message.

(d) Sales promotions. No cannabis business establishment nor any other person or entity may encourage the sale of cannabis or cannabis products by giving away cannabis or cannabis products, by conducting games or competitions related to the consumption of cannabis or cannabis products, or by providing promotional materials or activities of a manner or type that would be appealing to children.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-21)

Sec. 55-21. Cannabis product packaging and labeling.

(a) Each cannabis product produced for sale shall be registered with the Department of Agriculture on forms provided by the Department of Agriculture. Each product registration shall include a label and the required registration fee at the rate established by the Department of Agriculture for a comparable medical cannabis product, or as established by rule. The registration fee is for the name of the product offered for sale and one fee shall be sufficient for all package sizes.

(b) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a cannabis enterprise must be packaged in a sealed, labeled container.

(c) Any product containing cannabis shall be packaged in a sealed, odor-proof, and child-resistant cannabis container consistent with current standards, including the Consumer Product Safety Commission standards referenced by the Poison Prevention Act.

(d) All cannabis-infused products shall be individually wrapped or packaged at the original point of preparation. The packaging of the cannabis-infused product shall conform to the labeling requirements of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, in addition to the other requirements set forth in this Section.

(e) Each cannabis product shall be labeled before sale and each label shall be securely affixed to the package and shall state in legible English and any languages required by the Department of Agriculture:

(1) the name and post office box of the registered cultivation center or craft grower where the item was manufactured;

(2) the common or usual name of the item and the registered name of the cannabis product that was registered with the Department of Agriculture under subsection (a);

(3) a unique serial number that will match the product with a cultivation center or craft grower batch and lot number to facilitate any warnings or recalls the Department of Agriculture, cultivation center, or craft grower deems appropriate;

(4) the date of final testing and packaging, if sampled, and the identification of the independent testing laboratory;

(5) the date of harvest and "use by" date;

(6) the quantity (in ounces or grams) of cannabis contained in the product;

(7) a pass/fail rating based on the laboratory's microbiological, mycotoxins, and pesticide and solvent residue analyses, if sampled; .

(8) content list.

(A) A list of the following, including the minimum and maximum percentage content by weight for subdivisions (e) (d)(8)(A)(i) through (iv):

(i) delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC);

(ii) tetrahydrocannabinolic acid (THCA);

(iii) cannabidiol (CBD);

(iv) cannabidiolic acid (CBDA); and

(v) all other ingredients of the item, including any colors, artificial flavors, and preservatives, listed in descending order by predominance of weight shown with common or usual names.

(B) The acceptable tolerances for the minimum percentage printed on the label for any of subdivisions (e) (d)(8)(A)(i) through (iv) shall not be below 85% or above 115% of the labeled amount. ;

(f) Packaging must not contain information that:

(1) is false or misleading;

(2) promotes excessive consumption;

(3) depicts a person under 21 years of age consuming cannabis;

(4) includes the image of a cannabis leaf;

(5) includes any image designed or likely to appeal to minors, including cartoons, toys, animals, or children, or any other likeness to images, characters, or phrases that are popularly used to advertise to children, or any packaging or labeling that bears reasonable resemblance to any product available for consumption as a commercially available candy, or that promotes consumption of cannabis;

(6) contains any seal, flag, crest, coat of arms, or other insignia likely to mislead the purchaser to believe that the product has been endorsed, made, or used by the State of Illinois or any of its representatives except where authorized by this Act.

(g) Cannabis products produced by concentrating or extracting ingredients from the cannabis plant shall contain the following information, where applicable:

(1) If solvents were used to create the concentrate or extract, a statement that discloses the type of extraction method, including any solvents or gases used to create the concentrate or extract; and

(2) Any other chemicals or compounds used to produce or were added to the concentrate or extract.

(h) All cannabis products must contain warning statements established for purchasers, of a size that is legible and readily visible to a consumer inspecting a package, which may not be covered or obscured in any way. The Department of Public Health shall define and update appropriate health warnings for packages including specific labeling or warning requirements for specific cannabis products.

(i) Unless modified by rule to strengthen or respond to new evidence and science, the following warnings shall apply to all cannabis products unless modified by rule: "This product contains cannabis and is intended for use by adults 21 and over. Its use can impair cognition and may be habit forming. This product should not be used by pregnant or breastfeeding women. It is unlawful to sell or provide this item to any individual, and it may not be transported outside the State of Illinois. It is illegal to operate a motor vehicle while under the influence of cannabis. Possession or use of this product may carry significant legal penalties in some jurisdictions and under federal law.".

(j) Warnings for each of the following product types must be present on labels when offered for sale to a purchaser:

(1) Cannabis that may be smoked must contain a statement that "Smoking is hazardous to your health.".

(2) Cannabis-infused products (other than those intended for topical application) must contain a statement "CAUTION: This product contains cannabis, and intoxication following use may be delayed 2 or more hours. This product was produced in a facility that cultivates cannabis, and that may also process common food allergens.".

(3) Cannabis-infused products intended for topical application must contain a statement "DO NOT EAT" in bold, capital letters.

(k) Each cannabis-infused product intended for consumption must be individually packaged, must include the total milligram content of THC and CBD, and may not include more than a total of 100 milligrams of THC per package. A package may contain multiple servings of 10 milligrams of THC, and indicated by scoring, wrapping, or by other indicators designating individual serving sizes. The Department of Agriculture may change the total amount of THC allowed for each package, or the total amount of THC allowed for each serving size, by rule.

(l) No individual other than the purchaser may alter or destroy any labeling affixed to the primary packaging of cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

(m) For each commercial weighing and measuring device used at a facility, the cultivation center or craft grower must:

(1) Ensure that the commercial device is licensed under the Weights and Measures Act and the associated administrative rules (8 Ill. Adm. Code 600);

(2) Maintain documentation of the licensure of the commercial device; and

(3) Provide a copy of the license of the commercial device to the Department of Agriculture for review upon request.

(n) It is the responsibility of the Department to ensure that packaging and labeling requirements, including product warnings, are enforced at all times for products provided to purchasers. Product registration requirements and container requirements may be modified by rule by the Department of Agriculture.

(o) Labeling, including warning labels, may be modified by rule by the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 8-30-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-25)

Sec. 55-25. Local ordinances. Unless otherwise provided under this Act or otherwise in accordance with State law:

(1) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, may enact reasonable zoning ordinances or resolutions, not in conflict with this Act or rules adopted pursuant to this Act, regulating cannabis business establishments. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, may prohibit home cultivation or unreasonably prohibit use of cannabis authorized by this Act.

(2) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, may enact ordinances or rules not in conflict with this Act or with rules adopted pursuant to this Act governing the time, place, manner, and number of cannabis business establishment operations, including minimum distance limitations between cannabis business establishments and locations it deems sensitive, including colleges and universities, through the use of conditional use permits. A unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may establish civil penalties for violation of an ordinance or rules governing the time, place, and manner of operation of a cannabis business establishment or a conditional use permit in the jurisdiction of the unit of local government. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit or non-home rule county within an unincorporated territory of the county, may unreasonably restrict the time, place, manner, and number of cannabis business establishment operations authorized by this Act.

(3) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit, or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county may authorize or permit the on-premises consumption of cannabis at or in a dispensing organization or retail tobacco store (as defined in Section 10 of the Smoke Free Illinois Act) within its jurisdiction in a manner consistent with this Act. A dispensing organization or retail tobacco store regulate the on-premises consumption of cannabis at or in a cannabis business establishment within its jurisdiction in a manner consistent with this Act. A cannabis business establishment or other entity authorized or permitted by a unit of local government to allow on-site consumption shall not be deemed a public place within the meaning of the Smoke Free Illinois Act.

(4) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, may not regulate the activities described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) in a manner more restrictive than the regulation of those activities by the State under this Act. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(5) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit or any non-home rule county within the unincorporated territory of the county, may enact ordinances to prohibit or significantly limit a cannabis business establishment's location.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-28)

Sec. 55-28. Restricted cannabis zones.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Legal voter" means a person:

(1) who is duly registered to vote in a municipality with a population of over 500,000;

(2) whose name appears on a poll list compiled by the city board of election commissioners since the last preceding election, regardless of whether the election was a primary, general, or special election;

(3) who, at the relevant time, is a resident of the address at which he or she is registered to vote; and

(4) whose address, at the relevant time, is located in the precinct where such person seeks to file a notice of intent to initiate a petition process, circulate a petition, or sign a petition under this Section.

As used in the definition of "legal voter", "relevant time" means any time that:

(i) a notice of intent is filed, pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section, to initiate the petition process under this Section;

(ii) the petition is circulated for signature in the applicable precinct; or

(iii) the petition is signed by registered voters in the applicable precinct.

"Petition" means the petition described in this Section.

"Precinct" means the smallest constituent territory within a municipality with a population of over 500,000 in which electors vote as a unit at the same polling place in any election governed by the Election Code.

"Restricted cannabis zone" means a precinct within which home cultivation, one or more types of cannabis business establishments, or both has been prohibited pursuant to an ordinance initiated by a petition under this Section.

(b) The legal voters of any precinct within a municipality with a population of over 500,000 may petition their local alderman, using a petition form made available online by the city clerk, to introduce an ordinance establishing the precinct as a restricted zone. Such petition shall specify whether it seeks an ordinance to prohibit, within the precinct: (i) home cultivation; (ii) one or more types of cannabis business establishments; or (iii) home cultivation and one or more types of cannabis business establishments.

Upon receiving a petition containing the signatures of at least 25% of the registered voters of the precinct, and concluding that the petition is legally sufficient following the posting and review process in subsection (c) of this Section, the city clerk shall notify the local alderman of the ward in which the precinct is located. Upon being notified, that alderman, following an assessment of relevant factors within the precinct, including but not limited to, its geography, density and character, the prevalence of residentially zoned property, current licensed cannabis business establishments in the precinct, the current amount of home cultivation in the precinct, and the prevailing viewpoint with regard to the issue raised in the petition, may introduce an ordinance to the municipality's governing body creating a restricted cannabis zone in that precinct.

(c) A person seeking to initiate the petition process described in this Section shall first submit to the city clerk notice of intent to do so, on a form made available online by the city clerk. That notice shall include a description of the potentially affected area and the scope of the restriction sought. The city clerk shall publicly post the submitted notice online.

To be legally sufficient, a petition must contain the requisite number of valid signatures and all such signatures must be obtained within 90 days of the date that the city clerk publicly posts the notice of intent. Upon receipt, the city clerk shall post the petition on the municipality's website for a 30-day comment period. The city clerk is authorized to take all necessary and appropriate steps to verify the legal sufficiency of a submitted petition. Following the petition review and comment period, the city clerk shall publicly post online the status of the petition as accepted or rejected, and if rejected, the reasons therefor. If the city clerk rejects a petition as legally insufficient, a minimum of 12 months must elapse from the time the city clerk posts the rejection notice before a new notice of intent for that same precinct may be submitted.

(c-5) Within 3 days after receiving an application for zoning approval to locate a cannabis business establishment within a municipality with a population of over 500,000, the municipality shall post a public notice of the filing on its website and notify the alderman of the ward in which the proposed cannabis business establishment is to be located of the filing. No action shall be taken on the zoning application for 7 business days following the notice of the filing for zoning approval.

If a notice of intent to initiate the petition process to prohibit the type of cannabis business establishment proposed in the precinct of the proposed cannabis business establishment is filed prior to the filing of the application or within the 7-day period after the filing of the application, the municipality shall not approve the application for at least 90 days after the city clerk publicly posts the notice of intent to initiate the petition process. If a petition is filed within the 90-day petition-gathering period described in subsection (c), the municipality shall not approve the application for an additional 90 days after the city clerk's receipt of the petition; provided that if the city clerk rejects a petition as legally insufficient, the municipality may approve the application prior to the end of the 90 days. If a petition is not submitted within the 90-day petition-gathering period described in subsection (c), the municipality may approve the application unless the approval is otherwise stayed pursuant to this subsection by a separate notice of intent to initiate the petition process filed timely within the 7-day period.

If no legally sufficient petition is timely filed, a minimum of 12 months must elapse before a new notice of intent for that same precinct may be submitted.

(d) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the municipality may enact an ordinance creating a restricted cannabis zone. The ordinance shall:

(1) identify the applicable precinct boundaries as of the date of the petition;

(2) state whether the ordinance prohibits within the defined boundaries of the precinct, and in what combination: (A) one or more types of cannabis business establishments; or (B) home cultivation;

(3) be in effect for 4 years, unless repealed earlier; and

(4) once in effect, be subject to renewal by ordinance at the expiration of the 4-year period without the need for another supporting petition.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-30)

Sec. 55-30. Confidentiality.

(a) Information provided by the cannabis business establishment licensees or applicants to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or other agency shall be limited to information necessary for the purposes of administering this Act. The information is subject to the provisions and limitations contained in the Freedom of Information Act and may be disclosed in accordance with Section 55-65.

(b) The following information received and records kept by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for purposes of administering this Article are subject to all applicable federal privacy laws, are confidential and exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except as provided in this Act, and not subject to disclosure to any individual or public or private entity, except to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, and the Department of State Police as necessary to perform official duties under this Article and to the Attorney General as necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act. The following information received and kept by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture may be disclosed to the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Revenue, the Department of State Police, or the Attorney General upon proper . The following information received and kept by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture, excluding any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information, may be disclosed to the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Revenue, or the Department of State Police upon request:

(1) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by or on behalf of dispensing organizations in compliance with this Article, including their physical addresses;

(2) Any plans, procedures, policies, or other records relating to dispensing organization security; and

(3) Information otherwise exempt from disclosure by State or federal law.

Illinois or national criminal history record information, or the nonexistence or lack of such information, may not be disclosed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture, except as necessary to the Attorney General to enforce this Act.

(c) The name and address of a dispensing organization licensed under this Act shall be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. The name and cannabis business establishment address of the person or entity holding each cannabis business establishment license shall be subject to disclosure.

(d) All information collected by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the course of an examination, inspection, or investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any complaint against a licensee or applicant filed with the Department and information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and shall not be disclosed, except as otherwise provided in this the Act. A formal complaint against a licensee by the Department or any disciplinary order issued by the Department against a licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise provided by law prohibited by law, as required by law, or as necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act. Complaints from consumers or members of the general public received regarding a specific, named licensee or complaints regarding conduct by unlicensed entities shall be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(e) The Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall not share or disclose any Illinois or national criminal history record information, or the nonexistence or lack of such information, existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information to any person or entity not expressly authorized by this Act. As used in this Section, "any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information" means any Illinois or national criminal history record information, including but not limited to the lack of or non-existence of these records.

(f) Each Department responsible for licensure under this Act shall publish on the Department's website a list of the ownership information of cannabis business establishment licensees under the Department's jurisdiction. The list shall include, but is not limited to: the name of the person or entity holding each cannabis business establishment license; and the address at which the entity is operating under this Act. This list shall be published and updated monthly.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; revised 9-10-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-35)

Sec. 55-35. Administrative rulemaking.

(a) No later than 180 days after the effective date of this Act, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Treasurer's Office shall adopt permanent rules in accordance with their responsibilities under this Act. The Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Revenue, and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity may adopt rules necessary to regulate personal cannabis use through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (gg) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate cannabis use is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(b) The Department of Agriculture rules may address, but are not limited to, the following matters related to cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, and transporting organizations with the goal of protecting against diversion and theft, without imposing an undue burden on the cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, or transporting organizations:

(1) oversight requirements for cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, and transporting organizations;

(2) recordkeeping requirements for cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, and transporting organizations;

(3) security requirements for cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, and transporting organizations, which shall include that each cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, and transporting organization location must be protected by a fully operational security alarm system;

(4) standards for enclosed, locked facilities under this Act;

(5) procedures for suspending or revoking the identification cards of agents of cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, and transporting organizations that commit violations of this Act or the rules adopted under this Section;

(6) rules concerning the intrastate transportation of cannabis from a cultivation center, craft grower, infuser organization, and transporting organization to a dispensing organization;

(7) standards concerning the testing, quality, cultivation, and processing of cannabis; and

(8) any other matters under oversight by the Department of Agriculture as are necessary for the fair, impartial, stringent, and comprehensive administration of this Act.

(c) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules may address, but are not limited to, the following matters related to dispensing organizations, with the goal of protecting against diversion and theft, without imposing an undue burden on the dispensing organizations:

(1) oversight requirements for dispensing organizations;

(2) recordkeeping requirements for dispensing organizations;

(3) security requirements for dispensing organizations, which shall include that each dispensing organization location must be protected by a fully operational security alarm system;

(4) procedures for suspending or revoking the licenses of dispensing organization agents that commit violations of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act;

(5) any other matters under oversight by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that are necessary for the fair, impartial, stringent, and comprehensive administration of this Act.

(d) The Department of Revenue rules may address, but are not limited to, the following matters related to the payment of taxes by cannabis business establishments:

(1) recording of sales;

(2) documentation of taxable income and expenses;

(3) transfer of funds for the payment of taxes; or

(4) any other matter under the oversight of the Department of Revenue.

(e) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity rules may address, but are not limited to, a loan program or grant program to assist Social Equity Applicants access the capital needed to start a cannabis business establishment. The names of recipients and the amounts of any moneys received through a loan program or grant program shall be a public record.

(f) The Department of State Police rules may address enforcement of its authority under this Act. The Department of State Police shall not make rules that infringe on the exclusive authority of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture over licensees under this Act.

(g) The Department of Human Services Public Health shall develop and disseminate:

(1) educational information about the health risks associated with the use of cannabis; and

(2) one or more public education campaigns in coordination with local health departments and community organizations, including one or more prevention campaigns directed at children, adolescents, parents, and pregnant or breastfeeding women, to inform them of the potential health risks associated with intentional or unintentional cannabis use.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-65)

Sec. 55-65. Financial institutions.

(a) A financial institution that provides financial services customarily provided by financial institutions to a cannabis business establishment authorized under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or to a person that is affiliated with such cannabis business establishment, is exempt from any criminal law of this State as it relates to cannabis-related conduct authorized under State law.

(b) Upon request of a financial institution, a cannabis business establishment or proposed cannabis business establishment may provide to the financial institution the following information:

(1) Whether a cannabis business establishment with which the financial institution is doing or is considering doing business holds a license under this Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act;

(2) The name of any other business or individual affiliate with the cannabis business establishment;

(3) A copy of the application, and any supporting documentation submitted with the application, for a license or a permit submitted on behalf of the proposed cannabis business establishment;

(4) If applicable, data relating to sales and the volume of product sold by the cannabis business establishment;

(5) Any past or pending violation by the person of this Act, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or the rules adopted under these Acts where applicable; and

(6) Any penalty imposed upon the person for violating this Act, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, or the rules adopted under these Acts.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) Information received by a financial institution under this Section is confidential. Except as otherwise required or permitted by this Act, State law or rule, or federal law or regulation, a financial institution may not make the information available to any person other than:

(1) the customer to whom the information applies;

(2) a trustee, conservator, guardian, personal representative, or agent of the customer to whom the information applies; a federal or State regulator when requested in connection with an examination of the financial institution or if otherwise necessary for complying with federal or State law;

(3) a federal or State regulator when requested in connection with an examination of the financial institution or if otherwise necessary for complying with federal or State law; and

(4) a third party performing services for the financial institution, provided the third party is performing such services under a written agreement that expressly or by operation of law prohibits the third party's sharing and use of such confidential information for any purpose other than as provided in its agreement to provide services to the financial institution.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-80)

Sec. 55-80. Annual reports.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall submit to the General Assembly and Governor a report, by September 30 of each year, that does not disclose any information identifying information about cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, transporting organizations, or dispensing organizations, but does contain, at a minimum, all of the following information for the previous fiscal year:

(1) The number of licenses issued to dispensing organizations by county, or, in counties with greater than 3,000,000 residents, by zip code;

(2) The total number of dispensing organization owners that are Social Equity Applicants or minority persons, women, or persons with disabilities as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(3) The total number of revenues received from dispensing organizations, segregated from revenues received from dispensing organizations under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act by county, separated by source of revenue;

(4) The total amount of revenue received from dispensing organizations that share a premises or majority ownership with a craft grower;

(5) The total amount of revenue received from dispensing organizations that share a premises or majority ownership with an infuser; and

(6) An analysis of revenue generated from taxation, licensing, and other fees for the State, including recommendations to change the tax rate applied.

(b) The Department of Agriculture shall submit to the General Assembly and Governor a report, by September 30 of each year, that does not disclose any information identifying information about cultivation centers, craft growers, infuser organizations, transporting organizations, or dispensing organizations, but does contain, at a minimum, all of the following information for the previous fiscal year:

(1) The number of licenses issued to cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, and transporters by license type, and, in counties with more than 3,000,000 residents, by zip code;

(2) The total number of cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, and transporters by license type that are Social Equity Applicants or minority persons, women, or persons with disabilities as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(3) The total amount of revenue received from cultivation centers, craft growers, infusers, and transporters, separated by license types and source of revenue;

(4) The total amount of revenue received from craft growers and infusers that share a premises or majority ownership with a dispensing organization;

(5) The total amount of revenue received from craft growers that share a premises or majority ownership with an infuser, but do not share a premises or ownership with a dispensary;

(6) The total amount of revenue received from infusers that share a premises or majority ownership with a craft grower, but do not share a premises or ownership with a dispensary;

(7) The total amount of revenue received from craft growers that share a premises or majority ownership with a dispensing organization, but do not share a premises or ownership with an infuser;

(8) The total amount of revenue received from infusers that share a premises or majority ownership with a dispensing organization, but do not share a premises or ownership with a craft grower;

(9) The total amount of revenue received from transporters; and

(10) An analysis of revenue generated from taxation, licensing, and other fees for the State, including recommendations to change the tax rate applied.

(c) The Department of State Police shall submit to the General Assembly and Governor a report, by September 30 of each year that contains, at a minimum, all of the following information for the previous fiscal year:

(1) The effect of regulation and taxation of cannabis on law enforcement resources;

(2) The impact of regulation and taxation of cannabis on highway and waterway safety and rates of impaired driving or operating safety and rates of impaired driving, where impairment was determined based on failure of a field sobriety test;

(3) The available and emerging methods for detecting the metabolites for delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol in bodily fluids, including, without limitation, blood and saliva;

(4) The effectiveness of current DUI laws and recommendations for improvements to policy to better ensure safe highways and fair laws.

(d) The Adult Use Cannabis Health Advisory Committee shall submit to the General Assembly and Governor a report, by September 30 of each year, that does not disclose any identifying information about any individuals, but does contain, at a minimum:

(1) Self-reported youth cannabis use, as published in the most recent Illinois Youth Survey available;

(2) Self-reported adult cannabis use, as published in the most recent Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance Survey available;

(3) Hospital room admissions and hospital utilization rates caused by cannabis consumption, including the presence or detection of other drugs;

(4) Overdoses of cannabis and poison control data, including the presence of other drugs that may have contributed;

(5) Incidents of impaired driving caused by the consumption of cannabis or cannabis products, including the presence of other drugs or alcohol that may have contributed to the impaired driving;

(6) Prevalence of infants born testing positive for cannabis or delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol, including demographic and racial information on which infants are tested;

(7) Public perceptions of use and risk of harm;

(8) Revenue collected from cannabis taxation and how that revenue was used;

(9) Cannabis retail licenses granted and locations;

(10) Cannabis-related arrests; and

(11) The number of individuals completing required bud tender training.

(e) Each agency or committee submitting reports under this Section may consult with one another in the preparation of each report.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-85)

Sec. 55-85. Medical cannabis.

(a) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit any privileges or rights of a medical cannabis patient including minor patients, primary caregiver, medical cannabis cultivation center, or medical cannabis dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, and where there is conflict between this Act and the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act as they relate to medical cannabis patients, the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act shall prevail.

(b) Dispensary locations that obtain an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensary Organization License or an Adult Use Dispensary Organization License in accordance with this Act at the same location as a medical cannabis dispensing organization registered under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act shall maintain an inventory of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products on a monthly basis that is substantially similar in variety and quantity to the products offered at the dispensary during the 6-month period immediately before the effective date of this Act.

(c) Beginning June 30, 2020, the Department of Agriculture shall make a quarterly determination whether inventory requirements established for dispensaries in subsection (b) should be adjusted due to changing patient need.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-95)

Sec. 55-95. Conflict of interest. A person is ineligible to apply for, hold, or own financial or voting interest, other than a passive interest in a publicly traded company, in any cannabis business license under this Act if, within a 2-year period from the effective date of this Act, the person or his or her spouse or immediate immediately family member was a member of the General Assembly or a State employee at an agency that regulates cannabis business establishment license holders who participated personally and substantially in the award of licenses under this Act. A person who violates this Section shall be guilty under subsection (b) of Section 50-5 of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/60-5)

Sec. 60-5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Cannabis" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act, except that it does not include cannabis that is subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Craft grower" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act.

"Cultivation center" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act.

"Cultivator" or "taxpayer" means a cultivation center or craft grower who is subject to tax under this Article.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Director" means the Director of Revenue.

"Dispensing organization" or "dispensary" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act.

"Gross receipts" from the sales of cannabis by a cultivator means the total selling price or the amount of such sales, as defined in this Article. In the case of charges and time sales, the amount thereof shall be included only when payments are received by the cultivator.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Infuser" means "infuser organization" or "infuser" as defined in Article 1 of this Act.

"Selling price" or "amount of sale" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, property, and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost, or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include separately stated charges identified on the invoice by cultivators to reimburse themselves for their tax liability under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/60-20)

Sec. 60-20. Return and payment of cannabis cultivation privilege tax. Each person who is required to pay the tax imposed by this Article shall make a return to the Department on or before the 20th day of each month for the preceding calendar month stating the following:

(1) the taxpayer's name;

(2) the address of the taxpayer's principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which the taxpayer is engaged in the business of cultivating cannabis subject to tax under this Article;

(3) the total amount of receipts received by the taxpayer during the preceding calendar month from sales of cannabis subject to tax under this Article by the taxpayer during the preceding calendar month;

(4) the total amount received by the taxpayer during the preceding calendar month on charge and time sales of cannabis subject to tax imposed under this Article by the taxpayer before the month for which the return is filed;

(5) deductions allowed by law;

(6) gross receipts that were received by the taxpayer during the preceding calendar month and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

(7) the amount of tax due;

(8) the signature of the taxpayer; and

(9) any other information as the Department may reasonably require.

All returns required to be filed and payments required to be made under this Article shall be by electronic means. Taxpayers who demonstrate hardship in paying electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic payment requirement. The Department may require a separate return for the tax under this Article or combine the return for the tax under this Article with the return for the tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. If the return for the tax under this Article is combined with the return for tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act, then the vendor's discount allowed under this Section and any cap on that discount shall apply to the combined return. The taxpayer making the return provided for in this Section shall also pay to the Department, in accordance with this Section, the amount of tax imposed by this Article, less a discount of 1.75%, but not to exceed $1,000 per return period, which is allowed to reimburse the taxpayer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, collecting tax, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department upon request. No discount may be claimed by a taxpayer on returns not timely filed and for taxes not timely remitted. No discount may be claimed by a taxpayer for any return that is not filed electronically. No discount may be claimed by a taxpayer for any payment that is not made electronically, unless a waiver has been granted under this Section. Any amount that is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Article shall, if the amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount if the fractional part of a dollar is $0.50 or more and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount if the fractional part of a dollar is less than $0.50. If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable, or creditable, the amount shall be disregarded if it is less than $0.50 and shall be increased to $1 if it is $0.50 or more. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article concerning the time within which a taxpayer may file a return, any such taxpayer who ceases to engage in the kind of business that makes the person responsible for filing returns under this Article shall file a final return under this Article with the Department within one month after discontinuing such business.

Each taxpayer under this Article shall make estimated payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd, and last day of the month during which tax liability to the Department is incurred. The payments shall be in an amount not less than the lower of either 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual tax liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's actual tax liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter-monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. If any quarter-monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of the quarter-monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Article, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by the credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, in accordance with reasonable rules to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit the excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, in accordance with reasonable rules prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's discount shall be reduced, if necessary, to reflect the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department is received by the taxpayer, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/65-5)

Sec. 65-5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Adjusted delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol level" means, for a delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol dominant product, the sum of the percentage of delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol plus .877 multiplied by the percentage of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid.

"Cannabis" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act, except that it does not include cannabis that is subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

"Cannabis-infused product" means beverage food, oils, ointments, tincture, topical formulation, or another product containing cannabis that is not intended to be smoked.

"Cannabis retailer" means a dispensing organization that sells cannabis for use and not for resale.

"Craft grower" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Director" means the Director of Revenue.

"Dispensing organization" or "dispensary" has the meaning given to that term in Article 1 of this Act.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Infuser organization" or "infuser" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to directly incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis-infused product.

"Purchase price" means the consideration paid for a purchase of cannabis, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, gift cards, credits, and property and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of materials used, labor or service costs, or any other expense whatsoever. However, "purchase price" does not include consideration paid for:

(1) any charge for a payment that is not honored by a financial institution;

(2) any finance or credit charge, penalty or charge for delayed payment, or discount for prompt payment; and

(3) any amounts added to a purchaser's bill because of charges made under the tax imposed by this Article, the Municipal Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law, the County Cannabis Retailers' Occupation Tax Law, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, or any locally imposed occupation or use tax.

"Purchaser" means a person who acquires cannabis for a valuable consideration.

"Taxpayer" means a cannabis retailer who is required to collect the tax imposed under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/65-10)

Sec. 65-10. Tax imposed.

(a) Beginning January 1, 2020, a tax is imposed upon purchasers for the privilege of using cannabis at the following rates:

(1) Any cannabis, other than a cannabis-infused product, with an adjusted delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol level at or below 35% shall be taxed at a rate of 10% of the purchase price;

(2) Any cannabis, other than a cannabis-infused product, with an adjusted delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol level above 35% shall be taxed at a rate of 25% of the purchase price; and

(3) A cannabis-infused product shall be taxed at a rate of 20% of the purchase price.

(b) The purchase of any product that contains any amount of cannabis or any derivative thereof is subject to the tax under subsection (a) of this Section on the full purchase price of the product.

(c) The tax imposed under this Section is not imposed on cannabis that is subject to tax under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. The tax imposed by this Section is not imposed with respect to any transaction in interstate commerce, to the extent the transaction may not, under the Constitution and statutes of the United States, be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(d) The tax imposed under this Article shall be in addition to all other occupation, privilege, or excise taxes imposed by the State of Illinois or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

(e) The tax imposed under this Article shall not be imposed on any purchase by a purchaser if the cannabis retailer is prohibited by federal or State Constitution, treaty, convention, statute, or court decision from collecting the tax from the purchaser.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(410 ILCS 705/65-15)

Sec. 65-15. Collection of tax.

(a) The tax imposed by this Article shall be collected from the purchaser by the cannabis retailer at the rate stated in Section 65-10 with respect to cannabis sold by the cannabis retailer to the purchaser, and shall be remitted to the Department as provided in Section 65-30. All sales to a purchaser who is not a cardholder under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act are presumed subject to tax collection. Cannabis retailers shall collect the tax from purchasers by adding the tax to the amount of the purchase price received from the purchaser for selling cannabis to the purchaser. The tax imposed by this Article shall, when collected, be stated as a distinct item separate and apart from the purchase price of the cannabis.

(b) If a cannabis retailer collects Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax measured by a purchase price that is not subject to Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax, or if a cannabis retailer, in collecting Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax measured by a purchase price that is subject to tax under this Act, collects more from the purchaser than the required amount of the Cannabis Purchaser Excise Tax on the transaction, the purchaser shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the cannabis retailer. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the purchaser for any reason, the cannabis retailer is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(c) Any person purchasing cannabis subject to tax under this Article as to which there has been no charge made to him or her of the tax imposed by Section 65-10 shall make payment of the tax imposed by Section 65-10 in the form and manner provided by the Department not later than the 20th day of the month following the month of purchase of the cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

Section 30. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-118.2, 6-206.1, and 11-501.10 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-118.2)

Sec. 2-118.2. Opportunity for hearing; cannabis-related suspension under Section 11-501.9.

(a) A suspension of driving privileges under Section 11-501.9 of this Code shall not become effective until the person is notified in writing of the impending suspension and informed that he or she may request a hearing in the circuit court of venue under subsection (b) of this Section and the suspension shall become effective as provided in Section 11-501.9.

(b) Within 90 days after the notice of suspension served under Section 11-501.9, the person may make a written request for a judicial hearing in the circuit court of venue. The request to the circuit court shall state the grounds upon which the person seeks to have the suspension rescinded. Within 30 days after receipt of the written request or the first appearance date on the Uniform Traffic Ticket issued for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the hearing shall be conducted by the circuit court having jurisdiction. This judicial hearing, request, or process shall not stay or delay the suspension. The hearing shall proceed in the court in the same manner as in other civil proceedings.

The hearing may be conducted upon a review of the law enforcement officer's own official reports; provided however, that the person may subpoena the officer. Failure of the officer to answer the subpoena shall be considered grounds for a continuance if in the court's discretion the continuance is appropriate.

The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issues of:

(1) Whether the officer had reasonable suspicion to believe that the person was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon a highway while impaired by the use of cannabis; and

(2) Whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person refused to submit to and complete the field sobriety tests or validated roadside chemical tests, did refuse to submit to or complete the field sobriety tests or validated roadside chemical tests authorized under Section 11-501.9; and

(3) Whether the person after being advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person submitted to field sobriety tests or validated roadside chemical tests that disclosed the person was impaired by the use of cannabis, did submit to field sobriety tests or validated roadside chemical tests that disclosed that the person was impaired by the use of cannabis.

Upon the conclusion of the judicial hearing, the circuit court shall sustain or rescind the suspension and immediately notify the Secretary of State. Reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, and Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206.1)

Sec. 6-206.1. Monitoring Device Driving Permit. Declaration of Policy. It is hereby declared a policy of the State of Illinois that the driver who is impaired by alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds is a threat to the public safety and welfare. Therefore, to provide a deterrent to such practice, a statutory summary driver's license suspension is appropriate. It is also recognized that driving is a privilege and therefore, that the granting of driving privileges, in a manner consistent with public safety, is warranted during the period of suspension in the form of a monitoring device driving permit. A person who drives and fails to comply with the requirements of the monitoring device driving permit commits a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code.

The following procedures shall apply whenever a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.1:

(a) Upon mailing of the notice of suspension of driving privileges as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501.1 of this Code, the Secretary shall also send written notice informing the person that he or she will be issued a monitoring device driving permit (MDDP). The notice shall include, at minimum, information summarizing the procedure to be followed for issuance of the MDDP, installation of the breath alcohol ignition installation device (BAIID), as provided in this Section, exemption from BAIID installation requirements, and procedures to be followed by those seeking indigent status, as provided in this Section. The notice shall also include information summarizing the procedure to be followed if the person wishes to decline issuance of the MDDP. A copy of the notice shall also be sent to the court of venue together with the notice of suspension of driving privileges, as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501. However, a MDDP shall not be issued if the Secretary finds that:

(1) the offender's driver's license is otherwise invalid;

(2) death or great bodily harm to another resulted from the arrest for Section 11-501;

(3) the offender has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or aggravated driving under the influence involving death; or

(4) the offender is less than 18 years of age. ; or

(5) the offender is a qualifying patient licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that Act and refused to submit to standardized field sobriety tests as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-501.9 or did submit to testing which disclosed the person was impaired by the use of cannabis.

Any offender participating in the MDDP program must pay the Secretary a MDDP Administration Fee in an amount not to exceed $30 per month, to be deposited into the Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. The offender must have an ignition interlock device installed within 14 days of the date the Secretary issues the MDDP. The ignition interlock device provider must notify the Secretary, in a manner and form prescribed by the Secretary, of the installation. If the Secretary does not receive notice of installation, the Secretary shall cancel the MDDP.

Upon receipt of the notice, as provided in paragraph (a) of this Section, the person may file a petition to decline issuance of the MDDP with the court of venue. The court shall admonish the offender of all consequences of declining issuance of the MDDP including, but not limited to, the enhanced penalties for driving while suspended. After being so admonished, the offender shall be permitted, in writing, to execute a notice declining issuance of the MDDP. This notice shall be filed with the court and forwarded by the clerk of the court to the Secretary. The offender may, at any time thereafter, apply to the Secretary for issuance of a MDDP.

(a-1) A person issued a MDDP may drive for any purpose and at any time, subject to the rules adopted by the Secretary under subsection (g). The person must, at his or her own expense, drive only vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1, but in no event shall such person drive a commercial motor vehicle.

(a-2) Persons who are issued a MDDP and must drive employer-owned vehicles in the course of their employment duties may seek permission to drive an employer-owned vehicle that does not have an ignition interlock device. The employer shall provide to the Secretary a form, as prescribed by the Secretary, completed by the employer verifying that the employee must drive an employer-owned vehicle in the course of employment. If approved by the Secretary, the form must be in the driver's possession while operating an employer-owner vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device. No person may use this exemption to drive a school bus, school vehicle, or a vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned motor vehicle that is owned by an entity that is wholly or partially owned by the person holding the MDDP, or by a family member of the person holding the MDDP. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned vehicle that is made available to the employee for personal use. No person may drive the exempted vehicle more than 12 hours per day, 6 days per week.

(a-3) Persons who are issued a MDDP and who must drive a farm tractor to and from a farm, within 50 air miles from the originating farm are exempt from installation of a BAIID on the farm tractor, so long as the farm tractor is being used for the exclusive purpose of conducting farm operations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) If the holder of the MDDP is convicted of or receives court supervision for a violation of Section 6-206.2, 6-303, 11-204, 11-204.1, 11-401, 11-501, 11-503, 11-506 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or is convicted of or receives court supervision for any offense for which alcohol or drugs is an element of the offense and in which a motor vehicle was involved (for an arrest other than the one for which the MDDP is issued), or de-installs the BAIID without prior authorization from the Secretary, the MDDP shall be cancelled.

(c-5) If the Secretary determines that the person seeking the MDDP is indigent, the Secretary shall provide the person with a written document as evidence of that determination, and the person shall provide that written document to an ignition interlock device provider. The provider shall install an ignition interlock device on that person's vehicle without charge to the person, and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. If the Secretary has deemed an offender indigent, the BAIID provider shall also provide the normal monthly monitoring services and the de-installation without charge to the offender and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. Any other monetary charges, such as a lockout fee or reset fee, shall be the responsibility of the MDDP holder. A BAIID provider may not seek a security deposit from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(d) MDDP information shall be available only to the courts, police officers, and the Secretary, except during the actual period the MDDP is valid, during which time it shall be a public record.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this Section. The rules adopted shall address issues including, but not limited to: compliance with the requirements of the MDDP; methods for determining compliance with those requirements; the consequences of noncompliance with those requirements; what constitutes a violation of the MDDP; methods for determining indigency; and the duties of a person or entity that supplies the ignition interlock device.

(h) The rules adopted under subsection (g) shall provide, at a minimum, that the person is not in compliance with the requirements of the MDDP if he or she:

(1) tampers or attempts to tamper with or circumvent the proper operation of the ignition interlock device;

(2) provides valid breath samples that register blood alcohol levels in excess of the number of times allowed under the rules;

(3) fails to provide evidence sufficient to satisfy the Secretary that the ignition interlock device has been installed in the designated vehicle or vehicles; or

(4) fails to follow any other applicable rules adopted by the Secretary.

(i) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device as provided under this Section shall, in addition to supplying only those devices which fully comply with all the rules adopted under subsection (g), provide the Secretary, within 7 days of inspection, all monitoring reports of each person who has had an ignition interlock device installed. These reports shall be furnished in a manner or form as prescribed by the Secretary.

(j) Upon making a determination that a violation of the requirements of the MDDP has occurred, the Secretary shall extend the summary suspension period for an additional 3 months beyond the originally imposed summary suspension period, during which time the person shall only be allowed to drive vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device; provided further there are no limitations on the total number of times the summary suspension may be extended. The Secretary may, however, limit the number of extensions imposed for violations occurring during any one monitoring period, as set forth by rule. Any person whose summary suspension is extended pursuant to this Section shall have the right to contest the extension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. If the summary suspension has already terminated prior to the Secretary receiving the monitoring report that shows a violation, the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for 3 months, provided that the Secretary may, by rule, limit the number of suspensions to be entered pursuant to this paragraph for violations occurring during any one monitoring period. Any person whose license is suspended pursuant to this paragraph, after the summary suspension had already terminated, shall have the right to contest the suspension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The only permit the person shall be eligible for during this new suspension period is a MDDP.

(k) A person who has had his or her summary suspension extended for the third time, or has any combination of 3 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle impounded for a period of 30 days, at the person's own expense. A person who has his or her summary suspension extended for the fourth time, or has any combination of 4 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle subject to seizure and forfeiture. The Secretary shall notify the prosecuting authority of any third or fourth extensions or new suspension entered as a result of a violation that occurred while the person held a MDDP. Upon receipt of the notification, the prosecuting authority shall impound or forfeit the vehicle. The impoundment or forfeiture of a vehicle shall be conducted pursuant to the procedure specified in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(l) A person whose driving privileges have been suspended under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and who had a MDDP that was cancelled, or would have been cancelled had notification of a violation been received prior to expiration of the MDDP, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of this Section, shall not be eligible for reinstatement when the summary suspension is scheduled to terminate. Instead, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a period of not less than twice the original summary suspension period, or for the length of any extensions entered under subsection (j), whichever is longer. During the period of suspension, the person shall be eligible only to apply for a restricted driving permit. If a restricted driving permit is granted, the offender may only operate vehicles equipped with a BAIID in accordance with this Section.

(m) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section shall, for each ignition interlock device installed, pay 5% of the total gross revenue received for the device, including monthly monitoring fees, into the Indigent BAIID Fund. This 5% shall be clearly indicated as a separate surcharge on each invoice that is issued. The Secretary shall conduct an annual review of the fund to determine whether the surcharge is sufficient to provide for indigent users. The Secretary may increase or decrease this surcharge requirement as needed.

(n) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section that is requested to provide an ignition interlock device to a person who presents written documentation of indigency from the Secretary, as provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, shall install the device on the person's vehicle without charge to the person and shall seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(o) The Indigent BAIID Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use all money in the Indigent BAIID Fund to reimburse ignition interlock device providers who have installed devices in vehicles of indigent persons. The Secretary shall make payments to such providers every 3 months. If the amount of money in the fund at the time payments are made is not sufficient to pay all requests for reimbursement submitted during that 3 month period, the Secretary shall make payments on a pro-rata basis, and those payments shall be considered payment in full for the requests submitted.

(p) The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use the money paid into this fund to offset its administrative costs for administering MDDPs.

(q) The Secretary is authorized to prescribe such forms as it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2021)

Sec. 11-501.10. DUI Cannabis Task Force.

(a) The DUI Cannabis Task Force is hereby created to study the issue of driving under the influence of cannabis. The Task Force shall consist of the following members:

(1) The Director of State Police, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair;

(2) The Secretary of State, or his or her designee;

(3) The President of the Illinois State's Attorneys Association, or his or her designee;

(4) The President of the Illinois Association of Criminal Defense Lawyers, or his or her designee;

(5) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(6) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(7) One member appointed by the President of the Senate;

(8) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(9) One member of an organization dedicated to end drunk driving and drugged driving;

(10) The president of a statewide bar association, appointed by the Governor; and

(11) One member of a statewide organization representing civil and constitutional rights, appointed by the Governor;

(12) One member of a statewide association representing chiefs of police, appointed by the Governor; and

(13) One member of a statewide association representing sheriffs, appointed by the Governor.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(c) The Task Force shall examine best practices in the area of driving under the influence of cannabis enforcement, including examining emerging technology in roadside testing.

(d) The Task Force shall meet no fewer than 3 times and shall present its report and recommendations on improvements to enforcement of driving under the influence of cannabis, in electronic format, to the Governor and the General Assembly no later than July 1, 2020.

(e) The Department of State Police shall provide administrative support to the Task Force as needed. The Sentencing Policy Advisory Council shall provide data on driving under the influence of cannabis offenses and other data to the Task Force as needed.

(f) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

Section 35. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, 5, 5.1, and 8 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/3) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 703)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Cannabis" includes marihuana, hashish and other substances which are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis Sativa, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of such plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other cannabinol derivatives, including its naturally occurring or synthetically produced ingredients, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction, or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis; but shall not include the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of such plant which is incapable of germination. "Cannabis" does not include industrial hemp as defined and authorized under the Industrial Hemp Act.

(b) "Casual delivery" means the delivery of not more than 10 grams of any substance containing cannabis without consideration.

(c) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(d) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of cannabis, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(e) "Department of State Police" means the Department of State Police of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(f) "Director" means the Director of the Department of State Police or his designated agent.

(g) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, county, or municipal peace unit or police force.

(h) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of cannabis, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of cannabis or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of cannabis as an incident to lawful research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(i) "Person" means any individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(j) "Produce" or "production" means planting, cultivating, tending or harvesting.

(k) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(l) "Subsequent offense" means an offense under this Act, the offender of which, prior to his conviction of the offense, has at any time been convicted under this Act or under any laws of the United States or of any state relating to cannabis, or any controlled substance as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-1091, eff. 8-26-18.)

(720 ILCS 550/4) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 704)

Sec. 4. Except as otherwise provided in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act and the Industrial Hemp Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to possess cannabis.

Any person who violates this Section with respect to:

(a) not more than 10 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a civil law violation punishable by a minimum fine of $100 and a maximum fine of $200. The proceeds of the fine shall be payable to the clerk of the circuit court. Within 30 days after the deposit of the fine, the clerk shall distribute the proceeds of the fine as follows:

(1) $10 of the fine to the circuit clerk and $10 of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation; the proceeds of each $10 fine distributed to the circuit clerk and each $10 fine distributed to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation shall be used to defer the cost of automatic expungements under paragraph (2.5) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act;

(2) $15 to the county to fund drug addiction services;

(3) $10 to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for use in training programs;

(4) $10 to the State's Attorney; and

(5) any remainder of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation.

With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the Department of State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund;

(b) more than 10 grams but not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor;

(c) more than 30 grams but not more than 100 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; provided, that if any offense under this subsection (c) is a subsequent offense, the offender shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony;

(d) more than 100 grams but not more than 500 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 4 felony; provided that if any offense under this subsection (d) is a subsequent offense, the offender shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony;

(e) more than 500 grams but not more than 2,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 3 felony;

(f) more than 2,000 grams but not more than 5,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 2 felony;

(g) more than 5,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(720 ILCS 550/5) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 705)

Sec. 5. Except as otherwise provided in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act and the Industrial Hemp Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to manufacture, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver, or manufacture, cannabis. Any person who violates this Section with respect to:

(a) not more than 2.5 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor;

(b) more than 2.5 grams but not more than 10 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor;

(c) more than 10 grams but not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 4 felony;

(d) more than 30 grams but not more than 500 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 3 felony for which a fine not to exceed $50,000 may be imposed;

(e) more than 500 grams but not more than 2,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 2 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed;

(f) more than 2,000 grams but not more than 5,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class 1 felony for which a fine not to exceed $150,000 may be imposed;

(g) more than 5,000 grams of any substance containing cannabis is guilty of a Class X felony for which a fine not to exceed $200,000 may be imposed.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(720 ILCS 550/5.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 705.1)

Sec. 5.1. Cannabis trafficking.

(a) Except for purposes authorized by this Act, the Industrial Hemp Act, or the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, any person who knowingly brings or causes to be brought into this State for the purpose of manufacture or delivery or with the intent to manufacture or deliver 2,500 grams or more of cannabis in this State or any other state or country is guilty of cannabis trafficking.

(b) A person convicted of cannabis trafficking shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment not less than twice the minimum term and fined an amount as authorized by subsection (f) or (g) of Section 5 of this Act, based upon the amount of cannabis brought or caused to be brought into this State, and not more than twice the maximum term of imprisonment and fined twice the amount as authorized by subsection (f) or (g) of Section 5 of this Act, based upon the amount of cannabis brought or caused to be brought into this State.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

(720 ILCS 550/8) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 708)

Sec. 8. Except as otherwise provided in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act and the Industrial Hemp Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to produce the Cannabis sativa plant or to possess such plants unless production or possession has been authorized pursuant to the provisions of Section 11 or 15.2 of the Act. Any person who violates this Section with respect to production or possession of:

(a) Not more than 5 plants is guilty of a civil violation punishable by a minimum fine of $100 and a maximum fine of $200. The proceeds of the fine are payable to the clerk of the circuit court. Within 30 days after the deposit of the fine, the clerk shall distribute the proceeds of the fine as follows:

(1) $10 of the fine to the circuit clerk and $10 of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation; the proceeds of each $10 fine distributed to the circuit clerk and each $10 fine distributed to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation shall be used to defer the cost of automatic expungements under paragraph (2.5) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act;

(2) $15 to the county to fund drug addiction services;

(3) $10 to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for use in training programs;

(4) $10 to the State's Attorney; and

(5) any remainder of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation.

With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the Department of State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(b) More than 5, but not more than 20 plants, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(c) More than 20, but not more than 50 plants, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(d) More than 50, but not more than 200 plants, is guilty of a Class 2 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed and for which liability for the cost of conducting the investigation and eradicating such plants may be assessed. Compensation for expenses incurred in the enforcement of this provision shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government represented by the Illinois law enforcement agency whose officers or employees conducted the investigation or caused the arrest or arrests leading to the prosecution, to be subsequently made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis. If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing different levels of government, the court levying the assessment shall determine the allocation of such assessment. The proceeds of assessment awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund.

(e) More than 200 plants is guilty of a Class 1 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed and for which liability for the cost of conducting the investigation and eradicating such plants may be assessed. Compensation for expenses incurred in the enforcement of this provision shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government represented by the Illinois law enforcement agency whose officers or employees conducted the investigation or caused the arrest or arrests leading to the prosecution, to be subsequently made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis. If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing different levels of government, the court levying the assessment shall determine the allocation of such assessment. The proceeds of assessment awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19.)

Section 40. The Drug Paraphernalia Control Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3.5, 4, and 6 as follows:

(720 ILCS 600/2) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 2102)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) The term "cannabis" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act, as if that definition were incorporated herein.

(b) The term "controlled substance" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as if that definition were incorporated herein.

(c) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(d) "Drug paraphernalia" means all equipment, products and materials of any kind, other than methamphetamine manufacturing materials as defined in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and cannabis paraphernalia as defined in Section 1-10 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, which are intended to be used unlawfully in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing into the human body cannabis or a controlled substance in violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a synthetic drug product or misbranded drug in violation of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. It includes, but is not limited to:

(1) kits intended to be used unlawfully in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing or preparing cannabis or a controlled substance;

(2) isomerization devices intended to be used unlawfully in increasing the potency of any species of plant which is cannabis or a controlled substance;

(3) testing equipment intended to be used unlawfully in a private home for identifying or in analyzing the strength, effectiveness or purity of cannabis or controlled substances;

(4) diluents and adulterants intended to be used unlawfully for cutting cannabis or a controlled substance by private persons;

(5) objects intended to be used unlawfully in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing cannabis, cocaine, hashish, hashish oil, or a synthetic drug product or misbranded drug in violation of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act into the human body including, where applicable, the following items:

(A) water pipes;

(B) carburetion tubes and devices;

(C) smoking and carburetion masks;

(D) miniature cocaine spoons and cocaine vials;

(E) carburetor pipes;

(F) electric pipes;

(G) air-driven pipes;

(H) chillums;

(I) bongs;

(J) ice pipes or chillers;

(6) any item whose purpose, as announced or described by the seller, is for use in violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-872, eff. 7-31-12.)

(720 ILCS 600/3.5)

Sec. 3.5. Possession of drug paraphernalia.

(a) A person who knowingly possesses an item of drug paraphernalia with the intent to use it in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing cannabis or a controlled substance into the human body, or in preparing cannabis or a controlled substance for that use, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for which the court shall impose a minimum fine of $750 in addition to any other penalty prescribed for a Class A misdemeanor. This subsection (a) does not apply to a person who is legally authorized to possess hypodermic syringes or needles under the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act.

(b) In determining intent under subsection (a), the trier of fact may take into consideration the proximity of the cannabis or controlled substances to drug paraphernalia or the presence of cannabis or a controlled substance on the drug paraphernalia.

(c) If a person violates subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act, the penalty for possession of any drug paraphernalia seized during the violation for that offense shall be a civil law violation punishable by a minimum fine of $100 and a maximum fine of $200. The proceeds of the fine shall be payable to the clerk of the circuit court. Within 30 days after the deposit of the fine, the clerk shall distribute the proceeds of the fine as follows:

(1) $10 of the fine to the circuit clerk and $10 of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation; the proceeds of each $10 fine distributed to the circuit clerk and each $10 fine distributed to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation shall be used to defer the cost of automatic expungements under paragraph (2.5) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act;

(2) $15 to the county to fund drug addiction services;

(3) $10 to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for use in training programs;

(4) $10 to the State's Attorney; and

(5) any remainder of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation.

With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the Department of State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(720 ILCS 600/4) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 2104)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. This Act does not apply to:

(a) Items used in the preparation, compounding, packaging, labeling, or other use of cannabis or a controlled substance as an incident to lawful research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(b) Items historically and customarily used in connection with the planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, or inhaling of cannabis, tobacco, or any other lawful substance.

Items exempt under this subsection include, but are not limited to, garden hoes, rakes, sickles, baggies, tobacco pipes, and cigarette-rolling papers.

(c) Items listed in Section 2 of this Act which are used for decorative purposes, when such items have been rendered completely inoperable or incapable of being used for any illicit purpose prohibited by this Act.

(d) A person who is legally authorized to possess hypodermic syringes or needles under the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act.

In determining whether or not a particular item is exempt under this Section, the trier of fact should consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following:

(1) the general, usual, customary, and historical use to which the item involved has been put;

(2) expert evidence concerning the ordinary or customary use of the item and the effect of any peculiarity in the design or engineering of the device upon its functioning;

(3) any written instructions accompanying the delivery of the item concerning the purposes or uses to which the item can or may be put;

(4) any oral instructions provided by the seller of the item at the time and place of sale or commercial delivery;

(5) any national or local advertising concerning the design, purpose or use of the item involved, and the entire context in which such advertising occurs;

(6) the manner, place and circumstances in which the item was displayed for sale, as well as any item or items displayed for sale or otherwise exhibited upon the premises where the sale was made;

(7) whether the owner or anyone in control of the object is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of cannabis or tobacco products;

(8) the existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(720 ILCS 600/6) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 2106)

Sec. 6. This Act is intended to be used solely for the suppression of the commercial traffic in and possession of items that, within the context of the sale or offering for sale, or possession, are clearly and beyond a reasonable doubt intended for the illegal and unlawful use of cannabis or controlled substances. To this end all reasonable and common-sense inferences shall be drawn in favor of the legitimacy of any transaction or item.

(Source: P.A. 93-526, eff. 8-12-03.)

Section 45. The Statewide Grand Jury Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 215/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. (a) County grand juries and State's Attorneys have always had and shall continue to have primary responsibility for investigating, indicting, and prosecuting persons who violate the criminal laws of the State of Illinois. However, in recent years organized terrorist activity directed against innocent civilians and certain criminal enterprises have developed that require investigation, indictment, and prosecution on a statewide or multicounty level. The criminal enterprises exist as a result of the allure of profitability present in narcotic activity, the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms, and streetgang related felonies and organized terrorist activity is supported by the contribution of money and expert assistance from geographically diverse sources. In order to shut off the life blood of terrorism and weaken or eliminate the criminal enterprises, assets, and property used to further these offenses must be frozen, and any profit must be removed. State statutes exist that can accomplish that goal. Among them are the offense of money laundering, the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act, violations of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, and gunrunning. Local prosecutors need investigative personnel and specialized training to attack and eliminate these profits. In light of the transitory and complex nature of conduct that constitutes these criminal activities, the many diverse property interests that may be used, acquired directly or indirectly as a result of these criminal activities, and the many places that illegally obtained property may be located, it is the purpose of this Act to create a limited, multicounty Statewide Grand Jury with authority to investigate, indict, and prosecute: narcotic activity, including cannabis and controlled substance trafficking, narcotics racketeering, money laundering, violations of the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act, and violations of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms; gunrunning; and streetgang related felonies.

(b) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict, and prosecute violations facilitated by the use of a computer of any of the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(725 ILCS 215/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. Written application for the appointment of a Circuit Judge to convene and preside over a Statewide Grand Jury, with jurisdiction extending throughout the State, shall be made to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. Upon such written application, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit where the Statewide Grand Jury is being sought to be convened, who shall make a determination that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary.

In such application the Attorney General shall state that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary because of an alleged offense or offenses set forth in this Section involving more than one county of the State and identifying any such offense alleged; and

(a) that he or she believes that the grand jury function for the investigation and indictment of the offense or offenses cannot effectively be performed by a county grand jury together with the reasons for such belief, and

(b)(1) that each State's Attorney with jurisdiction over an offense or offenses to be investigated has consented to the impaneling of the Statewide Grand Jury, or

(2) if one or more of the State's Attorneys having jurisdiction over an offense or offenses to be investigated fails to consent to the impaneling of the Statewide Grand Jury, the Attorney General shall set forth good cause for impaneling the Statewide Grand Jury.

If the Circuit Judge determines that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary, he or she shall convene and impanel the Statewide Grand Jury with jurisdiction extending throughout the State to investigate and return indictments:

(a) For violations of any of the following or for any other criminal offense committed in the course of violating any of the following: Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, or the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act; a streetgang related felony offense; Section 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3A, 24-3.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or a money laundering offense; provided that the violation or offense involves acts occurring in more than one county of this State; and

(a-5) For violations facilitated by the use of a computer, including the use of the Internet, the World Wide Web, electronic mail, message board, newsgroup, or any other commercial or noncommercial on-line service, of any of the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(b) For the offenses of perjury, subornation of perjury, communicating with jurors and witnesses, and harassment of jurors and witnesses, as they relate to matters before the Statewide Grand Jury.

"Streetgang related" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

Upon written application by the Attorney General for the convening of an additional Statewide Grand Jury, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit for which the additional Statewide Grand Jury is sought. The Circuit Judge shall determine the necessity for an additional Statewide Grand Jury in accordance with the provisions of this Section. No more than 2 Statewide Grand Juries may be empaneled at any time.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.