|
Public Act 103-0426 |
HB2089 Enrolled | LRB103 05055 BMS 51381 b |
|
|
AN ACT concerning regulation.
|
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
|
represented in the General Assembly:
|
Section 5. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by |
changing Sections 1-110.6, 1-110.10, 1-110.15, 1-113.4, |
1-113.4a, 1-113.5, 1-113.18, 2-162, 3-110, 4-108, 4-109.3, |
18-169, and 22-1004 as follows: |
(40 ILCS 5/1-110.6)
|
Sec. 1-110.6. Transactions prohibited by retirement |
systems; Republic of the Sudan. |
(a) The Government of the United States has determined |
that Sudan is a nation that sponsors terrorism and genocide. |
The General Assembly finds that acts of terrorism have caused |
injury and death to Illinois and United States residents who |
serve in the United States military, and pose a significant |
threat to safety and health in Illinois. The General Assembly |
finds that public employees and their families, including |
police officers and firefighters, are more likely than others |
to be affected by acts of terrorism. The General Assembly |
finds that Sudan continues to solicit investment and |
commercial activities by forbidden entities, including private |
market funds. The General Assembly finds that investments in |
forbidden entities are inherently and unduly risky, not in the |
|
interests of public pensioners and Illinois taxpayers, and |
against public policy. The General Assembly finds that Sudan's |
capacity to sponsor terrorism and genocide depends on or is |
supported by the activities of forbidden entities. The General |
Assembly further finds and re-affirms that the people of the |
State, acting through their representatives, do not want to be |
associated with forbidden entities, genocide, and terrorism.
|
(b) For purposes of this Section: |
"Business operations" means maintaining, selling, or |
leasing equipment, facilities, personnel, or any other |
apparatus of business or commerce in the Republic of the |
Sudan, including the ownership or possession of real or |
personal property located in the Republic of the Sudan. |
"Certifying company" means a company that (1) directly |
provides asset management services or advice to a retirement |
system or (2) as directly authorized or requested by a |
retirement system (A) identifies particular investment options |
for consideration or approval; (B) chooses particular |
investment options; or (C) allocates particular amounts to be |
invested. If no company meets the criteria set forth in this |
paragraph, then "certifying company" shall mean the retirement |
system officer who, as designated by the board, executes the |
investment decisions made by the board, or, in the |
alternative, the company that the board authorizes to complete |
the certification as the agent of that officer.
|
"Company" is any entity capable of affecting commerce, |
|
including but not limited to (i) a government, government |
agency, natural person, legal person, sole proprietorship, |
partnership, firm, corporation, subsidiary, affiliate, |
franchisor, franchisee, joint venture, trade association, |
financial institution, utility, public franchise, provider of |
financial services, trust, or enterprise; and (ii) any |
association thereof. |
" Division Department " means the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance Financial and Professional |
Regulation .
|
"Forbidden entity" means any of the following: |
(1) The government of the Republic of the Sudan and |
any of its agencies, including but not limited to |
political units and subdivisions;
|
(2) Any company that is wholly or partially managed or |
controlled by the government of the Republic of the Sudan |
and any of its agencies, including but not limited to |
political units and subdivisions; |
(3) Any company (i) that is established or organized |
under the laws of the Republic of the Sudan or (ii) whose |
principal place of business is in the Republic of the |
Sudan; |
(4) Any company (i) identified by the Office of |
Foreign Assets Control in the United States Department of |
the Treasury as sponsoring terrorist activities in the |
Republic of the Sudan; or (ii) fined, penalized, or |
|
sanctioned by the Office of Foreign Assets Control in the |
United States Department of the Treasury for any violation |
of any United States rules and restrictions relating to |
the Republic of the Sudan that occurred at any time |
following the effective date of this Act; |
(5) Any publicly traded company
that is individually |
identified by an independent researching firm that |
specializes in global security risk and that has been |
retained by a certifying company as provided in subsection |
(c) of this Section as being a company that owns or |
controls property or assets located in, has employees or |
facilities located in, provides goods or services to, |
obtains goods or services from, has distribution |
agreements with, issues credits or loans to, purchases |
bonds or commercial paper issued by, or invests in (A)
the |
Republic of the Sudan; or (B)
any company domiciled in the |
Republic of the Sudan; and |
(6) Any private market fund that fails to satisfy the |
requirements set forth in subsections (d) and (e) of this |
Section. |
Notwithstanding the foregoing, the term "forbidden entity" |
shall exclude (A) mutual funds that meet the requirements of |
item (iii) of paragraph (13) of Section 1-113.2 and (B) |
companies that transact business in the Republic of the Sudan |
under the law, license, or permit of the United States, |
including a license from the United States Department of the |
|
Treasury, and
companies, except agencies of the Republic of |
the Sudan, who are certified as Non-Government Organizations |
by the United Nations, or who engage solely in (i) the |
provision of goods and services intended to relieve human |
suffering or to promote welfare, health, religious and |
spiritual activities, and education or humanitarian purposes; |
or (ii) journalistic activities. |
"Private market fund" means any private equity fund, |
private equity fund of funds, venture capital fund, hedge |
fund, hedge fund of funds, real estate fund, or other |
investment vehicle that is not publicly traded.
|
"Republic of the Sudan" means those geographic areas of |
the Republic of Sudan that are subject to sanction or other |
restrictions placed on commercial activity imposed by the |
United States Government due to an executive or congressional |
declaration of genocide.
|
"Retirement system" means the State Employees' Retirement |
System of Illinois, the Judges Retirement System of Illinois, |
the General Assembly Retirement System, the State Universities |
Retirement System, and the Teachers' Retirement System of the |
State of Illinois.
|
(c) A retirement system shall not transfer or disburse |
funds to, deposit into, acquire any bonds or commercial paper |
from, or otherwise loan to or invest in any entity unless, as |
provided in this Section, a certifying company
certifies to |
the retirement system that, (1) with respect to investments in |
|
a publicly traded company, the certifying company has relied |
on information provided by an independent researching firm |
that specializes in global security risk and (2) 100% of the |
retirement system's assets for which the certifying company |
provides services or advice are not and have not been invested |
or reinvested in any forbidden entity at any time after 4 |
months after the effective date of this Section. |
The certifying company shall make the certification |
required under this subsection (c) to a retirement system 6 |
months after the effective date of this Section and annually |
thereafter. A retirement system shall submit the |
certifications to the Division Department , and the Division |
Department shall notify the Director of Insurance Secretary of |
Financial and Professional Regulation if a retirement system |
fails to do so. |
(d) With respect to a commitment or investment made |
pursuant to a written agreement executed prior to the |
effective date of this Section, each private market fund shall |
submit to the appropriate certifying company, at no additional |
cost to the retirement system:
|
(1) an affidavit sworn under oath in which an |
expressly authorized officer of the private market fund |
avers that the private market fund (A) does not own or |
control any property or asset located in the Republic of |
the Sudan and (B) does not conduct business operations in |
the Republic of the Sudan; or |
|
(2) a certificate in which an expressly authorized |
officer of the private market fund certifies that the |
private market fund, based on reasonable due diligence, |
has determined that, other than direct or indirect |
investments in companies certified as Non-Government |
Organizations by the United Nations, the private market |
fund has no direct or indirect investment in any company |
(A) organized under the laws of the Republic of the Sudan; |
(B) whose principal place of business is in the Republic |
of the Sudan; or (C) that conducts business operations in |
the Republic of the Sudan. Such certificate shall be based |
upon the periodic reports received by the private market |
fund, and the private market fund shall agree that the |
certifying company, directly or through an agent, or the |
retirement system, as the case may be, may from time to |
time review the private market fund's certification |
process.
|
(e) With respect to a commitment or investment made |
pursuant to a written agreement executed after the effective |
date of this Section, each private market fund shall, at no |
additional cost to the retirement system:
|
(1) submit to the appropriate certifying company an |
affidavit or certificate consistent with the requirements |
pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section; or |
(2) enter into an enforceable written agreement with |
the retirement system that provides for remedies |
|
consistent with those set forth in subsection (g) of this |
Section if any of the assets of the retirement system |
shall be transferred, loaned, or otherwise invested in any |
company that directly or indirectly (A) has facilities or |
employees in the Republic of the Sudan or (B) conducts |
business operations in the Republic of the Sudan.
|
(f) In addition to any other penalties and remedies |
available under the law of Illinois and the United States, any |
transaction, other than a transaction with a private market |
fund that is governed by subsections (g) and (h) of this |
Section, that violates the provisions of this Act shall be |
against public policy and voidable, at the sole discretion of |
the retirement system.
|
(g) If a private market fund fails to provide the |
affidavit or certification required in subsections (d) and (e) |
of this Section, then the retirement system shall, within 90 |
days, divest, or attempt in good faith to divest, the |
retirement system's interest in the private market fund, |
provided that the Board of the retirement system confirms |
through resolution that the divestment does not have a |
material and adverse impact on the retirement system. The |
retirement system shall immediately notify the Division |
Department , and the Division Department shall notify all other |
retirement systems, as soon as practicable, by posting the |
name of the private market fund on the Division's Department's |
Internet website or through e-mail communications. No other |
|
retirement system may enter into any agreement under which the |
retirement system directly or indirectly invests in the |
private market fund unless the private market fund provides |
that retirement system with the affidavit or certification |
required in subsections (d) and (e) of this Section and |
complies with all other provisions of this Section. |
(h) If a private market fund fails to fulfill its |
obligations under any agreement provided for in paragraph (2) |
of subsection (e) of this Section, the retirement system shall |
immediately take legal and other action to obtain satisfaction |
through all remedies and penalties available under the law and |
the agreement itself. The retirement system shall immediately |
notify the Division Department , and the Division Department |
shall notify all other retirement systems, as soon as |
practicable, by posting the name of the private market fund on |
the Division's Department's Internet website or through e-mail |
communications, and no other retirement system may enter into |
any agreement under which the retirement system directly or |
indirectly invests in the private market fund.
|
(i) This Section shall have full force and effect during |
any period in which the Republic of the Sudan, or the officials |
of the government of that Republic, are subject to sanctions |
authorized under any statute or executive order of the United |
States or until such time as the State Department of the United |
States confirms in the federal register or through other means |
that the Republic of the Sudan is no longer subject to |
|
sanctions by the government of the United States. |
(j) If any provision of this Section or its application to |
any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of |
that provision or application does not affect other provisions |
or applications of this Section that can be given effect |
without the invalid provision or application.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-521, eff. 8-28-07.) |
(40 ILCS 5/1-110.10)
|
Sec. 1-110.10. Servicer certification. |
(a) For the purposes of this Section: |
"Illinois finance entity" means any entity chartered under |
the Illinois Banking Act, the Savings Bank Act, the Illinois |
Credit Union Act, or the Illinois Savings and Loan Act of 1985 |
and any person or entity licensed under the Residential |
Mortgage License Act of 1987, the Consumer Installment Loan |
Act, or the Sales Finance Agency Act. |
"Retirement system or pension fund" means a retirement |
system or pension fund established under this Code.
|
(b) In order for an Illinois finance entity to be eligible |
for investment or deposit of retirement system or pension fund |
assets, the Illinois finance entity must annually certify that |
it complies with the requirements of the High Risk Home Loan |
Act and the rules adopted pursuant to that Act that are |
applicable to that Illinois finance entity. For Illinois |
finance entities with whom the retirement system or pension |
|
fund is investing or depositing assets on the effective date |
of this Section, the initial certification required under this |
Section shall be completed within 6 months after the effective |
date of this Section. For Illinois finance entities with whom |
the retirement system or pension fund is not investing or |
depositing assets on the effective date of this Section, the |
initial certification required under this Section must be |
completed before the retirement system or pension fund may |
invest or deposit assets with the Illinois finance entity. |
(c) A retirement system or pension fund shall submit the |
certifications to the Public Pension Division of the |
Department of Insurance Financial and Professional Regulation , |
and the Division shall notify the Director of Insurance |
Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation if a |
retirement system or pension fund fails to do so. |
(d) If an Illinois finance entity fails to provide an |
initial certification within 6 months after the effective date |
of this Section or fails to submit an annual certification, |
then the retirement system or pension fund shall notify the |
Illinois finance entity. The Illinois finance entity shall, |
within 30 days after the date of notification, either (i) |
notify the retirement system or pension fund of its intention |
to certify and complete certification or (ii) notify the |
retirement system or pension fund of its intention to not |
complete certification. If an Illinois finance entity fails to |
provide certification, then the retirement system or pension |
|
fund shall, within 90 days, divest, or attempt in good faith to |
divest, the retirement system's or pension fund's assets with |
that Illinois finance entity. The retirement system or pension |
fund shall immediately notify the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance Department of the Illinois finance |
entity's failure to provide certification.
|
(e) If any provision of this Section or its application to |
any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of |
that provision or application does not affect other provisions |
or applications of this Section that can be given effect |
without the invalid provision or application.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-521, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.) |
(40 ILCS 5/1-110.15)
|
Sec. 1-110.15. Transactions prohibited by retirement |
systems; Iran.
|
(a) As used in this Section: |
"Active business operations" means all business
operations |
that are not inactive business operations. |
"Business operations" means engaging in commerce
in any |
form in Iran, including, but not limited to,
acquiring, |
developing, maintaining, owning, selling,
possessing, leasing, |
or operating equipment, facilities,
personnel, products, |
services, personal property, real
property, or any other |
apparatus of business or commerce. |
"Company" means any sole proprietorship,
organization, |
|
association, corporation, partnership, joint
venture, limited |
partnership, limited liability partnership,
limited liability |
company, or other entity or business
association, including |
all wholly owned subsidiaries,
majority-owned subsidiaries, |
parent companies, or affiliates
of those entities or business |
associations, that exists for
the purpose of making profit. |
"Direct holdings" in a company means all
securities of |
that company that are held directly by the
retirement system |
or in an account or fund in which the retirement system
owns |
all shares or interests. |
"Inactive business operations" means the mere
continued |
holding or renewal of rights to property previously
operated |
for the purpose of generating revenues but not
presently |
deployed for that purpose. |
"Indirect holdings" in a company means all
securities of |
that company which are held in an account or
fund, such as a |
mutual fund, managed by one or more persons
not employed by the |
retirement system, in which the retirement system owns
shares |
or interests together with other investors not subject
to the |
provisions of this Section. |
"Mineral-extraction activities" include exploring,
|
extracting, processing, transporting, or wholesale selling or
|
trading of elemental minerals or associated metal alloys or
|
oxides (ore), including gold, copper, chromium, chromite,
|
diamonds, iron, iron ore, silver, tungsten, uranium, and zinc. |
"Oil-related activities" include, but are not
limited to, |
|
owning rights to oil blocks; exporting,
extracting, producing, |
refining, processing, exploring for,
transporting, selling, or |
trading of oil; and constructing,
maintaining, or operating a |
pipeline, refinery, or other
oil-field infrastructure. The |
mere retail sale of gasoline and
related consumer products is |
not considered an oil-related
activity. |
"Petroleum resources" means petroleum, petroleum
|
byproducts, or natural gas. |
"Private market fund" means any private equity fund, |
private equity fund of funds, venture capital fund, hedge |
fund, hedge fund of funds, real estate fund, or other |
investment vehicle that is not publicly traded.
|
"Retirement system" means the State Employees' Retirement |
System of Illinois, the Judges Retirement System of Illinois, |
the General Assembly Retirement System, the State Universities |
Retirement System, and the Teachers' Retirement System of the |
State of Illinois. |
"Scrutinized business operations" means business |
operations that have caused a company to become a scrutinized |
company.
|
"Scrutinized company" means the company has
business |
operations that involve contracts with or provision
of |
supplies or services to the Government of Iran, companies
in |
which the Government of Iran has any direct or indirect
equity |
share, consortiums or projects commissioned by the
Government |
of Iran, or companies involved in consortiums or
projects |
|
commissioned by the Government of Iran and: |
(1) more than 10% of the company's revenues produced |
in or assets located in Iran involve oil-related |
activities or
mineral-extraction activities; less than 75% |
of the
company's revenues produced in or assets located in |
Iran involve contracts
with or provision of oil-related or |
mineral-extraction
products or services to the Government |
of Iran or a project or
consortium created exclusively by |
that government; and the
company has failed to take |
substantial action; or |
(2) the company has, on or after
August 5, 1996, made |
an investment of $20 million or more, or
any combination |
of investments of at least $10 million each
that in the |
aggregate equals or exceeds $20 million in any
12-month |
period, that directly or significantly contributes
to the |
enhancement of Iran's ability to develop petroleum
|
resources of Iran. |
"Substantial action" means adopting, publicizing,
and |
implementing a formal plan to cease scrutinized business
|
operations within one year and to refrain from any such new
|
business operations. |
(b) Within 90 days after the effective date of this
|
Section, a retirement system shall make its best efforts to |
identify all scrutinized companies in which the retirement |
system has direct or indirect holdings. |
These efforts shall include the following, as appropriate |
|
in the retirement system's judgment: |
(1) reviewing and relying on publicly available |
information regarding
companies having business operations |
in Iran, including
information provided by nonprofit |
organizations, research
firms, international |
organizations, and government entities; |
(2) contacting asset managers contracted by the |
retirement system that invest in companies having business |
operations in
Iran; and |
(3) Contacting other institutional investors that have
|
divested from or engaged with companies that have business
|
operations in Iran. |
The retirement system may retain an independent research |
firm to identify scrutinized companies in which the retirement |
system has direct or indirect holdings. By the first meeting |
of the retirement system following
the 90-day period described |
in this subsection (b), the retirement system
shall assemble |
all scrutinized companies identified into a
scrutinized |
companies list. |
The retirement system shall update the scrutinized
|
companies list annually based on evolving information from,
|
among other sources, those listed in this subsection (b). |
(c) The retirement system shall adhere to
the following |
procedures for companies on the scrutinized
companies list: |
(1) The retirement system shall determine the
|
companies on the scrutinized companies list in which the
|
|
retirement system owns direct or indirect holdings. |
(2) For each company identified in item (1) of this |
subsection (c) that
has only inactive business operations, |
the retirement system shall
send a written notice |
informing the company of this Section and
encouraging it |
to continue to refrain from initiating active
business |
operations in Iran until it is able to avoid
scrutinized |
business operations. The retirement system shall
continue |
such correspondence semiannually. |
(3) For each company newly identified in item (1) of |
this subsection (c) that has active business operations, |
the retirement system shall send a written notice |
informing the company of its
scrutinized company status |
and that it may become subject to
divestment by the |
retirement system. The notice must inform the
company of |
the opportunity to clarify its Iran-related
activities and |
encourage the company, within 90 days, to cease
its |
scrutinized business operations or convert such operations
|
to inactive business operations in order to avoid |
qualifying
for divestment by the retirement system. |
(4) If, within 90 days after the retirement system's |
first
engagement with a company pursuant to this |
subsection (c), that
company ceases scrutinized business |
operations, the company
shall be removed from the |
scrutinized companies list and the
provisions of this |
Section shall cease to apply to it unless it
resumes |
|
scrutinized business operations. If, within 90 days
after |
the retirement system's first engagement, the company |
converts
its scrutinized active business operations to |
inactive
business operations, the company is subject to |
all provisions
relating thereto. |
(d) If, after 90 days following the retirement system's |
first
engagement with a company pursuant to subsection (c), |
the
company continues to have scrutinized active business
|
operations, and only while such company continues to have
|
scrutinized active business operations, the retirement system |
shall
sell, redeem, divest, or withdraw all publicly traded
|
securities of the company, except as provided in paragraph
|
(f), from the retirement system's assets under management |
within 12
months after the company's most recent appearance on |
the
scrutinized companies list. |
If a company that ceased scrutinized active
business |
operations following engagement pursuant to subsection (c) |
resumes such operations, this subsection (d) immediately
|
applies, and the retirement system shall send a written notice |
to
the company. The company shall also be immediately
|
reintroduced onto the scrutinized companies list. |
(e) The retirement system may not acquire
securities of |
companies on the scrutinized companies list
that have active |
business operations, except as provided in
subsection (f). |
(f) A company that the United States
Government |
affirmatively declares to be excluded from its
present or any |
|
future federal sanctions regime relating to
Iran is not |
subject to divestment or the investment
prohibition pursuant |
to subsections (d) and (e). |
(g) Notwithstanding the
provisions of this Section, |
paragraphs (d) and (e) do not apply to
indirect holdings in a |
private market fund.
However, the retirement system shall |
submit letters to the managers
of those investment funds |
containing companies that have
scrutinized active business |
operations requesting that they
consider removing the |
companies from the fund or create a
similar actively managed |
fund having indirect holdings devoid
of the companies. If the |
manager creates a similar fund, the
retirement system shall |
replace all applicable investments with
investments in the |
similar fund in an expedited timeframe
consistent with prudent |
investing standards. |
(h) The retirement system shall file a report with the |
Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance |
Financial and Professional Regulation that includes the |
scrutinized companies list
within 30 days after the list is |
created. This report shall be
made available to the public. |
The retirement system shall file an annual report with the |
Public Pension Division, which shall be made available to the |
public, that includes all of the following: |
(1) A summary of correspondence with companies engaged
|
by the retirement system under items (2) and (3) of |
subsection (c). |
|
(2) All investments sold, redeemed, divested, or
|
withdrawn in compliance with subsection (d). |
(3) All prohibited investments under subsection (e). |
(4) A summary of correspondence with private market |
funds notified under subsection (g). |
(i) This Section expires upon the occurrence
of any of the |
following: |
(1) The United States revokes all sanctions imposed
|
against the Government of Iran. |
(2) The Congress or President of the United States
|
declares that the Government of Iran has ceased to acquire
|
weapons of mass destruction and to support international
|
terrorism. |
(3) The Congress or President of the United States,
|
through legislation or executive order, declares that
|
mandatory divestment of the type provided for in this |
Section
interferes with the conduct of United States |
foreign policy. |
(j) With respect to actions
taken in compliance with this |
Act, including all good-faith
determinations regarding |
companies as required by this Act,
the retirement system is |
exempt from any conflicting statutory or
common law |
obligations, including any fiduciary duties under this Article |
and any obligations with
respect to choice of asset managers, |
investment funds, or
investments for the retirement system's |
securities portfolios. |
|
(k) Notwithstanding any
other provision of this Section to |
the contrary, the retirement system
may cease divesting from |
scrutinized companies
pursuant to subsection (d) or reinvest |
in
scrutinized companies from which it divested pursuant to
|
subsection (d) if clear and convincing evidence shows that the |
value of investments in scrutinized companies with active |
scrutinized business operations becomes equal to or less than |
0.5% of the market value of all assets under management by the |
retirement system. Cessation of
divestment, reinvestment, or |
any subsequent ongoing investment
authorized by this Section |
is limited to the minimum steps
necessary to avoid the |
contingency set forth in this
subsection (k). For any |
cessation of divestment, reinvestment, or
subsequent ongoing |
investment authorized by this Section, the
retirement system |
shall provide a written report to the Public Pension Division |
in advance of initial reinvestment, updated
semiannually |
thereafter as applicable, setting forth the
reasons and |
justification, supported by clear and convincing
evidence, for |
its decisions to cease divestment, reinvest, or
remain |
invested in companies having scrutinized active
business |
operations. This Section does not apply to reinvestment
in |
companies on the grounds that they have ceased to have
|
scrutinized active business operations. |
(l) If any provision of this Section or its
application to |
any person or circumstance is held invalid, the
invalidity |
does not affect other provisions or applications of
the Act |
|
which can be given effect without the invalid
provision or |
application, and to this end the provisions of
this Section |
are severable.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-616, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/1-113.4)
|
Sec. 1-113.4. List of additional permitted investments for |
pension funds
with net assets of $5,000,000 or more. |
(a) In addition to the items in Sections 1-113.2 and |
1-113.3, a pension fund
established under Article 3 or 4 that |
has net assets of at least $5,000,000 and
has appointed an |
investment adviser under Section 1-113.5 may, through that
|
investment adviser, invest a portion of its assets in common |
and preferred
stocks authorized for investments of trust funds |
under the laws of the State
of Illinois. The stocks must meet |
all of the following requirements:
|
(1) The common stocks are listed on a national |
securities exchange or
board of trade (as defined in the |
federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and
set forth in |
subdivision G of Section 3 of the Illinois Securities Law |
of 1953) or quoted in
the National Association of |
Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System
National |
Market System (NASDAQ NMS).
|
(2) The securities are of a corporation created or |
existing under the laws
of the United States or any state, |
district, or territory thereof and the
corporation has |
|
been in existence for at least 5 years.
|
(3) The corporation has not been in arrears on payment |
of dividends on its
preferred stock during the preceding 5 |
years.
|
(4) The market value of stock in any one corporation |
does not exceed 5% of
the cash and invested assets of the |
pension fund, and the investments in the
stock of any one |
corporation do not exceed 5% of the total outstanding |
stock of
that corporation.
|
(5) The straight preferred stocks or convertible |
preferred stocks are
issued or guaranteed by a corporation |
whose common stock qualifies for
investment by the board.
|
(6) The issuer of the stocks has been subject to the |
requirements of
Section 12 of the federal Securities |
Exchange Act of 1934 and has been current
with the filing |
requirements of Sections 13 and 14 of that Act during the
|
preceding 3 years.
|
(b) A pension fund's total investment in the items |
authorized under this
Section and Section 1-113.3 shall not |
exceed 35% of the market value of the
pension fund's net |
present assets stated in its most recent annual report on
file |
with the Public Pension Division of the Illinois Department of |
Insurance.
|
(c) A pension fund that invests funds under this Section |
shall
electronically file with the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance any reports of its investment |
|
activities
that the Division may require, at the times and in |
the format required by the
Division.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/1-113.4a) |
Sec. 1-113.4a. List of additional permitted investments |
for Article 3 and 4 pension funds with net assets of |
$10,000,000 or more. |
(a) In addition to the items in Sections 1-113.2 and |
1-113.3, a pension fund established under Article 3 or 4 that |
has net assets of at least $10,000,000 and has appointed an |
investment adviser, as defined under Sections 1-101.4 and |
1-113.5, may, through that investment adviser, invest an |
additional portion of its assets in common and preferred |
stocks and mutual funds. |
(b) The stocks must meet all of the following |
requirements: |
(1) The common stocks must be listed on a national |
securities exchange or board of trade (as defined in the |
Federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and set forth in |
paragraph G of Section 3 of the Illinois Securities Law of |
1953) or quoted in the National Association of Securities |
Dealers Automated Quotation System National Market System. |
(2) The securities must be of a corporation in |
existence for at least 5 years. |
(3) The market value of stock in any one corporation |
|
may not exceed 5% of the cash and invested assets of the |
pension fund, and the investments in the stock of any one |
corporation may not exceed 5% of the total outstanding |
stock of that corporation. |
(4) The straight preferred stocks or convertible |
preferred stocks must be issued or guaranteed by a |
corporation whose common stock qualifies for investment by |
the board. |
(c) The mutual funds must meet the following requirements: |
(1) The mutual fund must be managed by an investment |
company registered under the Federal Investment Company |
Act of 1940 and registered under the Illinois Securities |
Law of 1953. |
(2) The mutual fund must have been in operation for at |
least 5 years. |
(3) The mutual fund must have total net assets of |
$250,000,000 or more. |
(4) The mutual fund must be comprised of a diversified |
portfolio of common or preferred stocks, bonds, or money |
market instruments. |
(d) A pension fund's total investment in the items |
authorized under this Section and Section 1-113.3 shall not |
exceed 50% effective July 1, 2011 and 55% effective July 1, |
2012 of the market value of the pension fund's net present |
assets stated in its most recent annual report on file with the |
Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. |
|
(e) A pension fund that invests funds under this Section |
shall electronically file with the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance any reports of its investment |
activities that the Division may require, at the time and in |
the format required by the Division.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-1495, eff. 1-1-11.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/1-113.5)
|
Sec. 1-113.5. Investment advisers and investment services |
for all Article 3 or 4 pension funds.
|
(a) The board of trustees of a pension fund may appoint |
investment advisers
as defined in Section 1-101.4. The board |
of any pension fund investing in
common or preferred stock |
under Section 1-113.4 shall appoint an investment
adviser |
before making such investments.
|
The investment adviser shall be a fiduciary, as defined in |
Section 1-101.2,
with respect to the pension fund and shall be |
one of the following:
|
(1) an investment adviser registered under the federal |
Investment Advisers
Act of 1940 and the Illinois |
Securities Law of 1953;
|
(2) a bank or trust company authorized to conduct a |
trust business in
Illinois;
|
(3) a life insurance company authorized to transact |
business in Illinois;
or
|
(4) an investment company as defined and registered |
|
under the federal
Investment Company Act of 1940 and |
registered under the Illinois Securities Law
of 1953.
|
(a-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person |
or entity that provides consulting services (referred to as a |
"consultant" in this Section) to a pension fund with respect |
to the selection of fiduciaries may not be awarded a contract |
to provide those consulting services that is more than 5 years |
in duration. No contract to provide such consulting services |
may be renewed or extended. At the end of the term of a |
contract, however, the contractor is eligible to compete for a |
new contract. No person shall attempt to avoid or contravene |
the restrictions of this subsection by any means. All offers |
from responsive offerors shall be accompanied by disclosure of |
the names and addresses of the following: |
(1) The offeror. |
(2) Any entity that is a parent of, or owns a |
controlling interest in, the offeror. |
(3) Any entity that is a subsidiary of, or in which a |
controlling interest is owned by, the offeror. |
Beginning on July 1, 2008, a person, other than a trustee |
or an employee of a pension fund or retirement system, may not |
act as a consultant under this Section unless that person is at |
least one of the following: (i) registered as an investment |
adviser under the federal Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 |
U.S.C. 80b-1, et seq.); (ii) registered as an investment |
adviser under the Illinois Securities Law of 1953; (iii) a |
|
bank, as defined in the Investment Advisers Act of 1940; or |
(iv) an insurance company authorized to transact business in |
this State. |
(b) All investment advice and services provided by an |
investment adviser
or a consultant appointed under this |
Section shall be rendered pursuant to a written contract
|
between the investment adviser and the board, and in |
accordance with the
board's investment policy.
|
The contract shall include all of the following:
|
(1) acknowledgement in writing by the investment |
adviser that he or she
is a fiduciary with respect to the |
pension fund;
|
(2) the board's investment policy;
|
(3) full disclosure of direct and indirect fees, |
commissions, penalties,
and any other compensation that |
may be received by the investment adviser,
including |
reimbursement for expenses; and
|
(4) a requirement that the investment adviser submit |
periodic written
reports, on at least a quarterly basis, |
for the board's review at its regularly
scheduled |
meetings. All returns on investment shall be reported as |
net returns
after payment of all fees, commissions, and |
any other compensation.
|
(b-5) Each contract described in subsection (b) shall also |
include (i) full disclosure of direct and indirect fees, |
commissions, penalties, and other compensation, including
|
|
reimbursement for expenses, that may be paid by or on behalf of |
the investment adviser or consultant in connection with the |
provision of services to the pension fund and (ii) a |
requirement that the investment adviser or consultant update |
the disclosure promptly after a modification of those payments |
or an additional payment. |
Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory |
Act of the 95th General Assembly, each investment adviser and |
consultant providing services on the effective date or subject |
to an existing contract for the provision of services must |
disclose to the board of trustees all direct and indirect |
fees, commissions, penalties, and other compensation paid by |
or on
behalf of the investment adviser or consultant in |
connection with the provision of those services and shall |
update that disclosure promptly after a modification of those |
payments or an additional payment. |
A person required to make a disclosure under subsection |
(d) is also required to disclose direct and indirect fees, |
commissions, penalties, or other compensation that shall or |
may be paid by or on behalf of the person in connection with |
the rendering of those services. The person shall update the |
disclosure promptly after a modification of those payments or |
an additional payment. |
The disclosures required by this subsection shall be in |
writing and shall include the date and amount of each payment |
and the name and address of each recipient of a payment. |
|
(c) Within 30 days after appointing an investment adviser |
or consultant, the board shall
submit a copy of the contract to |
the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance of |
the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation .
|
(d) Investment services provided by a person other than an |
investment
adviser appointed under this Section, including but |
not limited to services
provided by the kinds of persons |
listed in items (1) through (4) of subsection
(a), shall be |
rendered only after full written disclosure of direct and
|
indirect fees, commissions, penalties, and any other |
compensation that shall or
may be received by the person |
rendering those services.
|
(e) The board of trustees of each pension fund shall |
retain records of
investment transactions in accordance with |
the rules of the Public Pension Division of the Department of
|
Insurance Financial and Professional Regulation .
|
(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 96-6, eff. 4-3-09.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/1-113.18)
|
Sec. 1-113.18. Ethics training. All board members of a |
retirement system, pension fund, or investment board created |
under this Code must attend ethics training of at least 8 hours |
per year. The training required under this Section shall |
include training on ethics, fiduciary duty, and investment |
issues and any other curriculum that the board of the |
retirement system, pension fund, or investment board |
|
establishes as being important for the administration of the |
retirement system, pension fund, or investment board. The |
Supreme Court of Illinois shall be responsible for ethics |
training and curriculum for judges designated by the Court to |
serve as members of a retirement system, pension fund, or |
investment board.
Each board shall annually certify its |
members' compliance with this Section and submit an annual |
certification to the Public Pension Division of the Department |
of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional |
Regulation . Judges shall annually certify compliance with the |
ethics training requirement and shall submit an annual |
certification to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of |
Illinois. For an elected or appointed trustee under Article 3 |
or 4 of this Code, fulfillment of the requirements of Section |
1-109.3 satisfies the requirements of this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-904, eff. 8-17-18.) |
(40 ILCS 5/2-162) |
(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 98-599, |
which has been
held unconstitutional)
|
Sec. 2-162. Application and expiration of new benefit |
increases. |
(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means |
an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this |
Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for |
any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment |
|
to this Code that takes effect after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. |
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or |
any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit |
increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be |
granted only in conformance with and contingent upon |
compliance with the provisions of this Section.
|
(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must |
identify and provide for payment to the System of additional |
funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual |
increase in cost to the System as it accrues. |
Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General |
Assembly providing the additional funding required under this |
subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and |
Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional |
funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and |
shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance Financial and Professional |
Regulation . A new benefit increase created by a Public Act |
that does not include the additional funding required under |
this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension |
Division determines that the additional funding provided for a |
new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become |
inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State |
Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the |
General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the |
|
end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.
|
(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after |
its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified |
in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided |
under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General |
Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase |
by law. |
(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating |
the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires |
under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied |
and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit |
increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and |
alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any |
other person, including without limitation a person who |
continues in service after the expiration date and did not |
apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new |
benefit increase was in effect.
|
(Source: P.A. 94-4, eff. 6-1-05.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/3-110) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 3-110)
|
Sec. 3-110. Creditable service.
|
(a) "Creditable service" is the time served by a police |
officer as a member
of a regularly constituted police force of |
a municipality. In computing
creditable service furloughs |
without pay exceeding 30 days shall not be
counted, but all |
leaves of absence for illness or accident, regardless of
|
|
length, and all periods of disability retirement for which a |
police officer has
received no disability pension payments |
under this Article shall be counted.
|
(a-5) Up to 3 years of time during which the police officer |
receives
a disability pension under Section 3-114.1, 3-114.2, |
3-114.3, or 3-114.6
shall be counted as creditable service, |
provided that
(i) the police officer returns to active service |
after the disability for a
period at least equal to the period |
for which credit is to be established and
(ii) the police |
officer makes contributions to the fund based on the rates
|
specified in Section 3-125.1 and the salary upon which the |
disability pension
is based. These contributions may be paid |
at any time prior to the
commencement of a retirement pension. |
The police officer may, but need not,
elect to have the |
contributions deducted from the disability pension or to
pay |
them in installments on a schedule approved by the board. If |
not
deducted from the disability pension, the contributions |
shall include
interest at the rate of 6% per year, compounded |
annually, from the date
for which service credit is being |
established to the date of payment. If
contributions are paid |
under this subsection (a-5) in excess of those
needed to |
establish the credit, the excess shall be refunded. This
|
subsection (a-5) applies to persons receiving a disability |
pension under
Section 3-114.1, 3-114.2, 3-114.3, or 3-114.6 on |
the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 91st General |
Assembly, as well as persons who begin to
receive such a |
|
disability pension after that date.
|
(b) Creditable service includes all periods of service in |
the military,
naval or air forces of the United States entered |
upon while an active police
officer of a municipality, |
provided that upon applying for a permanent pension,
and in |
accordance with the rules of the board, the police officer |
pays into the
fund the amount the officer would have |
contributed if he or she had been a
regular contributor during |
such period, to the extent that the municipality
which the |
police officer served has not made such contributions in the
|
officer's behalf. The total amount of such creditable service |
shall not
exceed 5 years, except that any police officer who on |
July 1, 1973 had more
than 5 years of such creditable service |
shall receive the total amount thereof.
|
(b-5) Creditable service includes all periods of service |
in the military, naval, or air forces of the United States |
entered upon before beginning service as an active police |
officer of a municipality, provided that, in accordance with |
the rules of the board, the police officer pays into the fund |
the amount the police officer would have contributed if he or |
she had been a regular contributor during such period, plus an |
amount determined by the Board to be equal to the |
municipality's normal cost of the benefit, plus interest at |
the actuarially assumed rate calculated from the date the |
employee last became a police officer under this Article. The |
total amount of such creditable service shall not exceed 2 |
|
years. |
(c) Creditable service also includes service rendered by a |
police
officer while on leave of absence from a police |
department to serve as an
executive of an organization whose |
membership consists of members of a
police department, subject |
to the following conditions: (i) the police
officer is a |
participant of a fund established under this Article with at
|
least 10 years of service as a police officer; (ii) the police |
officer
received no credit for such service under any other |
retirement system,
pension fund, or annuity and benefit fund |
included in this Code; (iii)
pursuant to the rules of the board |
the police officer pays to the fund the
amount he or she would |
have contributed had the officer been an active
member of the |
police department; (iv) the organization pays a
contribution |
equal to the municipality's normal cost for that
period of |
service; and (v) for all leaves of absence under this |
subsection (c), including those beginning before the effective |
date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the |
police officer continues to remain in sworn status, subject to |
the professional standards of the public employer or those |
terms established in statute.
|
(d)(1) Creditable service also includes periods of |
service originally
established in another police pension |
fund under this Article or in the Fund
established under |
Article 7 of this Code for which (i) the contributions |
have
been transferred under Section 3-110.7 or Section |
|
7-139.9 and (ii) any
additional contribution required |
under paragraph (2) of this subsection has
been paid in |
full in accordance with the requirements of this |
subsection (d).
|
(2) If the board of the pension fund to which |
creditable service and
related
contributions are |
transferred under Section 7-139.9 determines that
the |
amount transferred is less than the true cost to the |
pension fund of
allowing that creditable service to be |
established, then in order to establish
that creditable |
service the police officer must pay to the pension fund, |
within
the payment period specified in paragraph (3) of |
this subsection, an additional
contribution equal to the |
difference, as determined by the board in accordance
with |
the rules and procedures adopted under paragraph (6) of |
this subsection. If the board of the pension fund to which |
creditable service and
related
contributions are |
transferred under Section 3-110.7 determines that
the |
amount transferred is less than the true cost to the |
pension fund of
allowing that creditable service to be |
established, then the police officer may elect (A) to |
establish
that creditable service by paying to the pension |
fund, within
the payment period specified in paragraph (3) |
of this subsection (d), an additional
contribution equal |
to the difference, as determined by the board in |
accordance
with the rules and procedures adopted under |
|
paragraph (6) of this subsection (d) or (B) to have his or |
her creditable service reduced by an amount equal to the |
difference between the amount transferred under Section |
3-110.7 and the true cost to the pension fund of allowing |
that creditable service to be established, as determined |
by the board in accordance with the rules and procedures |
adopted under paragraph (6) of this subsection (d).
|
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (4), the |
additional
contribution that is required or elected under |
paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) must be paid to the |
board (i) within 5 years from the date of the
transfer of |
contributions under Section 3-110.7 or 7-139.9 and (ii) |
before the
police officer terminates service with the |
fund. The additional contribution
may be paid in a lump |
sum or in accordance with a schedule of installment
|
payments authorized by the board.
|
(4) If the police officer dies in service before |
payment in full has been
made and before the expiration of |
the 5-year payment period, the surviving
spouse of the |
officer may elect to pay the unpaid amount on the |
officer's
behalf within 6 months after the date of death, |
in which case the creditable
service shall be granted as |
though the deceased police officer had paid the
remaining |
balance on the day before the date of death.
|
(5) If the additional contribution that is required or |
elected under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) is not |
|
paid in full within the
required time, the creditable |
service shall not be granted and the
police officer (or |
the officer's surviving spouse or estate) shall be |
entitled
to receive a refund of (i) any partial payment of |
the additional contribution
that has been made by the |
police officer and (ii) those portions of the amounts
|
transferred under subdivision (a)(1) of Section 3-110.7 or |
subdivisions (a)(1)
and (a)(3) of Section 7-139.9 that |
represent employee contributions paid by the
police |
officer (but not the accumulated interest on those |
contributions) and
interest paid by the police officer to |
the prior pension fund in order to
reinstate service |
terminated by acceptance of a refund.
|
At the time of paying a refund under this item (5), the |
pension fund
shall also repay to the pension fund from |
which the contributions were
transferred under Section |
3-110.7 or 7-139.9 the amount originally transferred
under |
subdivision (a)(2) of that Section, plus interest at the |
rate of 6% per
year, compounded annually, from the date of |
the original transfer to the date
of repayment. Amounts |
repaid to the Article 7 fund under this provision shall
be |
credited to the appropriate municipality.
|
Transferred credit that is not granted due to failure |
to pay the additional
contribution within the required |
time is lost; it may not be transferred to
another pension |
fund and may not be reinstated in the pension fund from |
|
which
it was transferred.
|
(6) The Public Employee Pension Fund Division of the |
Department of
Insurance
shall establish by rule the manner |
of making the calculation required under
paragraph (2) of |
this subsection, taking into account the appropriate |
actuarial
assumptions; the police officer's service, age, |
and salary history; the level
of funding of the pension |
fund to which the credits are being transferred; and
any |
other factors that the Division determines to be relevant. |
The rules may
require that all calculations made under |
paragraph (2) be reported to the
Division by the board |
performing the calculation, together with documentation
of |
the creditable service to be transferred, the amounts of |
contributions and
interest to be transferred, the manner |
in which the calculation was performed,
the numbers relied |
upon in making the calculation, the results of the
|
calculation, and any other information the Division may |
deem useful.
|
(e)(1) Creditable service also includes periods of |
service originally
established in the Fund
established |
under Article 7 of this Code for which the contributions |
have
been transferred under Section 7-139.11.
|
(2) If the board of the pension fund to which |
creditable service and
related
contributions are |
transferred under Section 7-139.11 determines that
the |
amount transferred is less than the true cost to the |
|
pension fund of
allowing that creditable service to be |
established, then the amount of creditable service the |
police officer may establish under this subsection (e) |
shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference, as |
determined by the board in accordance
with the rules and |
procedures adopted under paragraph (3) of this subsection.
|
(3) The Public Pension Division of the Department of
|
Insurance Financial and Professional Regulation
shall |
establish by rule the manner of making the calculation |
required under
paragraph (2) of this subsection, taking |
into account the appropriate actuarial
assumptions; the |
police officer's service, age, and salary history; the |
level
of funding of the pension fund to which the credits |
are being transferred; and
any other factors that the |
Division determines to be relevant. The rules may
require |
that all calculations made under paragraph (2) be reported |
to the
Division by the board performing the calculation, |
together with documentation
of the creditable service to |
be transferred, the amounts of contributions and
interest |
to be transferred, the manner in which the calculation was |
performed,
the numbers relied upon in making the |
calculation, the results of the
calculation, and any other |
information the Division may deem useful.
|
(4) Until January 1, 2010, a police officer who |
transferred service from the Fund established under |
Article 7 of this Code under the provisions of Public Act |
|
94-356 may establish additional credit, but only for the |
amount of the service credit reduction in that transfer, |
as calculated under paragraph (3) of this subsection (e). |
This credit may be established upon payment by the police |
officer of an amount to be determined by the board, equal |
to (1) the amount that would have been contributed as |
employee and employer contributions had all of the service |
been as an employee under this Article, plus interest |
thereon at the rate of 6% per year, compounded annually |
from the date of service to the date of transfer, less (2) |
the total amount transferred from the Article 7 Fund, plus |
(3) interest on the difference at the rate of 6% per year, |
compounded annually, from the date of the transfer to the |
date of payment. The additional service credit is allowed |
under this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly |
notwithstanding the provisions of Article 7 terminating |
all transferred credits on the date of transfer. |
(Source: P.A. 96-297, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1260, eff. 7-23-10; |
97-651, eff. 1-5-12.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/4-108) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-108)
|
Sec. 4-108. Creditable service.
|
(a) Creditable service is the time served as a firefighter |
of a
municipality. In computing creditable service, furloughs |
and leaves of
absence without pay exceeding 30 days in any one |
year shall not be counted,
but leaves of absence for illness or |
|
accident regardless of length, and
periods of disability for |
which a firefighter received no disability
pension payments |
under this Article, shall be counted.
|
(b) Furloughs and leaves of absence of 30 days or less in |
any one year may
be counted as creditable service, if the |
firefighter makes the contribution
to the fund that would have |
been required had he or she not been
on furlough or leave of |
absence. To qualify for this creditable service,
the |
firefighter must pay the required contributions to the fund |
not more
than 90 days subsequent to the termination of the |
furlough or leave of
absence, to the extent that the |
municipality has not made such contribution
on his or her |
behalf.
|
(c) Creditable service includes:
|
(1) Service in the military, naval or air forces of |
the
United States entered upon when the person was an |
active
firefighter, provided
that, upon applying for a |
permanent pension, and in accordance with the
rules of the |
board the firefighter pays into the fund the amount that |
would
have been contributed had he or she been a regular |
contributor during such
period of service, if and to the |
extent that the municipality which the
firefighter served |
made no such contributions in his or her behalf. The
total |
amount of such creditable service shall not exceed 5 |
years, except
that any firefighter who on July 1, 1973 had |
more than 5 years of such
creditable service shall receive |
|
the total amount thereof as of that date.
|
(1.5) Up to 24 months of service in the military, |
naval, or air forces of the United States that was served |
prior to employment by a municipality or fire protection |
district as a firefighter. To receive the credit for the |
military service prior to the employment as a firefighter, |
the firefighter must apply in writing to the fund and must |
make contributions to the fund equal to (i) the employee |
contributions that would have been required had the |
service been rendered as a member, plus (ii) an amount |
determined by the fund to be equal to the employer's |
normal cost of the benefits accrued for that military |
service, plus (iii) interest at the actuarially assumed |
rate provided by the Public Pension Division of the |
Department of Insurance Financial and Professional |
Regulation , compounded annually from the first date of |
membership in the fund to the date of payment on items (i) |
and (ii). The changes to this paragraph (1.5) by this |
amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly apply only to |
participating employees in service on or after its |
effective date. |
(2) Service prior to July 1, 1976 by a firefighter |
initially excluded
from participation by reason of age who |
elected to participate and paid
the required contributions |
for such service.
|
(3) Up to 8 years of service by a firefighter as an |
|
officer in a statewide
firefighters' association when he |
is on a leave of absence from a
municipality's payroll, |
provided that (i) the firefighter has at least 10
years of |
creditable service as an active firefighter, (ii) the |
firefighter
contributes to the fund the amount that he |
would have contributed had he
remained an active member of |
the fund, (iii) the employee or statewide
firefighter |
association contributes to the fund an amount equal to the
|
employer's required contribution as determined by the |
board, and (iv) for all leaves of absence under this |
subdivision (3), including those beginning before the |
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General |
Assembly, the firefighter continues to remain in sworn |
status, subject to the professional standards of the |
public employer or those terms established in statute.
|
(4) Time spent as an on-call fireman for a |
municipality,
calculated at the rate of one year of |
creditable service for each 5 years
of time spent as an |
on-call fireman, provided that (i) the firefighter has
at |
least 18 years of creditable service as an active |
firefighter, (ii) the
firefighter spent at least 14 years |
as an on-call firefighter for the
municipality, (iii) the |
firefighter applies for such creditable service
within 30 |
days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
1989,
(iv) the firefighter contributes to the Fund an |
amount representing
employee contributions for the number |
|
of years of creditable service
granted under this |
subdivision (4), based on the salary and contribution
rate |
in effect for the firefighter at the date of entry into the |
Fund, to
be determined by the board, and (v) not more than |
3 years of creditable
service may be granted under this |
subdivision (4).
|
Except as provided in Section 4-108.5, creditable |
service shall not
include time
spent as a volunteer |
firefighter, whether or not any compensation was received
|
therefor. The change made in this Section by Public Act |
83-0463 is intended
to be a restatement and clarification |
of existing law, and does not imply
that creditable |
service was previously allowed under this Article for time
|
spent as a volunteer firefighter.
|
(5) Time served between July 1, 1976 and July 1, 1988 |
in
the position of protective inspection officer or |
administrative assistant
for fire services, for a |
municipality with a population under 10,000 that is
|
located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 and |
that maintains a
firefighters' pension fund under this |
Article, if the position included
firefighting duties, |
notwithstanding that the person may not have held an
|
appointment as a firefighter, provided that application is |
made to the
pension fund within 30 days after the |
effective date of this amendatory Act
of 1991, and the |
corresponding contributions are paid for the number of
|
|
years of service granted, based upon the salary and |
contribution rate in
effect for the firefighter at the |
date of entry into the pension fund, as
determined by the |
Board.
|
(6) Service before becoming a participant by a |
firefighter initially
excluded from participation by |
reason of age who becomes a participant
under the |
amendment to Section 4-107 made by this amendatory Act of |
1993 and
pays the required contributions for such service.
|
(7) Up to 3 years of time during which the firefighter |
receives a
disability pension under Section 4-110, |
4-110.1, or 4-111, provided that (i)
the firefighter |
returns to active service after the disability for a |
period at
least equal to the period for which credit is to |
be established and (ii) the
firefighter makes |
contributions to the fund based on the rates specified in
|
Section 4-118.1 and the salary upon which the disability |
pension is based.
These contributions may be paid at any |
time prior to the commencement of a
retirement pension. |
The firefighter may, but need not, elect to have the
|
contributions deducted from the disability pension or to |
pay them in
installments on a schedule approved by the |
board. If not deducted from the
disability pension, the |
contributions
shall include interest at the rate of 6% per |
year, compounded annually, from
the date for which service |
credit is being established to the date of payment.
If |
|
contributions are paid under this subdivision (c)(7) in |
excess of those
needed to establish the credit, the excess |
shall be refunded. This
subdivision (c)(7) applies to |
persons receiving a disability pension under
Section |
4-110, 4-110.1, or 4-111 on the effective date of this |
amendatory Act
of the 91st General Assembly, as well as |
persons who begin to receive such a
disability pension |
after that date.
|
(8) Up to 6 years of service as a police officer and |
participant in an Article 3 police pension fund |
administered by the unit of local government that employs |
the firefighter under this Article, provided that the |
service has been transferred to, and the required payment |
received by, the Article 4 fund in accordance with |
subsection (a) of Section 3-110.12 of this Code. |
(9) Up to 8 years of service as a police officer and
|
participant in an Article 3 police pension fund |
administered by a unit of local government, provided that |
the service has been transferred to, and the required |
payment received by, the Article 4 fund in accordance with |
subsection (a-5) of Section 3-110.12 of this Code. |
(Source: P.A. 102-63, eff. 7-9-21.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/4-109.3)
|
Sec. 4-109.3. Employee creditable service. |
(a) As used in this Section:
|
|
"Final monthly salary" means the monthly salary attached |
to the rank held by
the firefighter at the time of his or her |
last withdrawal from service under a
particular pension fund.
|
"Last pension fund" means the pension fund in which the |
firefighter was
participating at the time of his or her last |
withdrawal from service.
|
(b) The benefits provided under this Section are available |
only to a
firefighter who:
|
(1) is a firefighter at the time of withdrawal from |
the last
pension fund and for at least the final 3 years of |
employment prior to that
withdrawal;
|
(2) has established service credit with at least one |
pension fund
established under this Article other than the |
last pension fund;
|
(3) has a total of at least 20 years of service under |
the various
pension funds established under this Article |
and has attained age 50; and
|
(4) is in service on or after the effective date of |
this amendatory Act of
the 93rd General Assembly.
|
(c) A firefighter who is eligible for benefits under this |
Section may elect
to receive a retirement pension from each |
pension fund under this Article in
which the firefighter has |
at least one year of service credit but has not received a |
refund under Section 4-116 (unless the firefighter repays that |
refund under subsection (g)) or subsection (c) of Section |
4-118.1, by applying in
writing and paying the contribution |
|
required under subsection (i).
|
(d) From each such pension fund other than the last |
pension fund, in lieu
of any retirement pension otherwise |
payable under this Article, a firefighter
to whom this Section |
applies may elect to receive a monthly pension of 1/12th
of |
2.5% of his or her final monthly salary under that fund for |
each month of
service in that fund, subject to a maximum of 75% |
of that final monthly salary.
|
(e) From the last pension fund, in lieu of any retirement |
pension otherwise
payable under this Article, a firefighter to |
whom this Section applies may
elect to receive a monthly |
pension calculated as follows:
|
The last pension fund shall calculate the retirement |
pension that
would be payable to the firefighter under Section |
4-109 as if he
or she had
participated in that last pension |
fund during his or her entire period of
service under all |
pension funds established under this Article (excluding any |
period of service for which the firefighter has received a |
refund under Section 4-116, unless the firefighter repays that |
refund under subsection (g), or for which the firefighter has |
received a refund under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1).
|
From this hypothetical pension there shall be subtracted the |
original amounts
of the retirement pensions payable to the |
firefighter by all other pension
funds under subsection (d). |
The remainder is the retirement pension payable
to the |
firefighter by the last pension fund under this subsection |
|
(e).
|
(f) Pensions elected under this Section shall be subject |
to increases as
provided in Section 4-109.1.
|
(g) A current firefighter may reinstate creditable service |
in a
pension fund established under this Article that was |
terminated upon receipt of
a refund, by payment to that |
pension fund of the amount of the refund together
with |
interest thereon at the rate of 6% per year, compounded |
annually, from the
date of the refund to the date of payment. A |
repayment of a refund under this
Section may be made in equal |
installments over a period of up to 10 years, but
must be paid |
in full prior to retirement.
|
(h) As a condition of being eligible for the benefits |
provided in this Section, a person who is hired to a position |
as a firefighter on or after July 1, 2004 must, within 21 |
months after being hired, notify
the new employer, all of his |
or her previous employers under this Article, and
the Public |
Pension Division of the Department Division of Insurance of |
the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of his |
or her intent to receive the benefits provided under this |
Section.
|
As a condition of being eligible for the benefits provided |
in this Section, a person who first becomes a firefighter |
under this Article after December 31, 2010 must (1) within 21 |
months after being hired or within 21 months after the |
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General |
|
Assembly, whichever is later, notify the new employer, all of |
his or her previous employers under this Article, and the |
Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance of his |
or her intent to receive the benefits provided under this |
Section; and (2) make the required contributions with |
applicable interest. A person who first becomes a firefighter |
under this Article after December 31, 2010 and who, before the |
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General |
Assembly, notified the new employer, all of his or her |
previous employers under this Article, and the Public Pension |
Division of the Department of Insurance of his or her intent to |
receive the benefits provided under this Section shall be |
deemed to have met the notice requirement under item (1) of the |
preceding sentence. The changes made to this Section by this |
amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly apply |
retroactively, notwithstanding Section 1-103.1. |
(i) In order to receive a pension under this Section or an |
occupational disease disability pension for which he or she |
becomes eligible due to the application of subsection (m) of |
this Section, a firefighter must
pay to each pension fund from |
which he or she has elected to receive a pension under this |
Section a contribution equal to 1% of
monthly salary for each |
month of service credit that the firefighter has in
that fund |
(other than service credit for which the firefighter has |
already
paid the additional contribution required under |
subsection (c) of Section
4-118.1), together with interest |
|
thereon at the rate of 6% per annum, compounded
annually, from |
the firefighter's first day of employment with that fund or |
the first day of the fiscal year of that fund that immediately |
precedes the firefighter's first day of employment with that |
fund, whichever is earlier. |
In order for a firefighter who, as of the effective date of |
this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, has not |
begun to receive a pension under this Section or an |
occupational disease disability pension under subsection (m) |
of this Section and who has contributed 1/12th of 1% of monthly |
salary for each month of service credit that the firefighter |
has in
that fund (other than service credit for which the |
firefighter has already
paid the additional contribution |
required under subsection (c) of Section
4-118.1), together |
with the required interest thereon, to receive a pension under |
this Section or an occupational disease disability pension for |
which he or she becomes eligible due to the application of |
subsection (m) of this Section, the firefighter must, within |
one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
93rd General Assembly, make an additional contribution equal |
to 11/12ths of 1% of
monthly salary for each month of service |
credit that the firefighter has in
that fund (other than |
service credit for which the firefighter has already
paid the |
additional contribution required under subsection (c) of |
Section
4-118.1), together with interest thereon at the rate |
of 6% per annum, compounded
annually, from the firefighter's |
|
first day of employment with that fund or the first day of the |
fiscal year of that fund that immediately precedes the |
firefighter's first day of employment with the fund, whichever |
is earlier. A firefighter who, as of the effective date of this |
amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, has not begun to |
receive a pension under this Section or an occupational |
disease disability pension under subsection (m) of this |
Section and who has contributed 1/12th of 1% of monthly salary |
for each month of service credit that the firefighter has in
|
that fund (other than service credit for which the firefighter |
has already
paid the additional contribution required under |
subsection (c) of Section
4-118.1), together with the required |
interest thereon, in order to receive a pension under this |
Section or an occupational disease disability pension under |
subsection (m) of this Section, may elect, within one year |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd |
General Assembly to forfeit the benefits provided under this |
Section and receive a refund of that contribution.
|
(j) A retired firefighter who is receiving pension |
payments under Section 4-109 may reenter active service under |
this Article. Subject to the provisions of Section 4-117, the |
firefighter may receive credit for service performed after the |
reentry if the firefighter (1) applies to receive credit for |
that service, (2) suspends his or her pensions under this |
Section,
and (3) makes the contributions required under |
subsection (i).
|
|
(k) A firefighter who is newly hired or promoted to a |
position as a
firefighter shall not be denied participation in |
a fund under this Article
based on his or her age. |
(l) If a firefighter who elects to make contributions |
under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 for the pension |
benefits provided under this Section becomes entitled to a |
disability pension under Section 4-110, the last pension fund |
is responsible to pay that disability pension and the amount |
of that disability pension shall be based only on the |
firefighter's service with the last pension fund. |
(m) Notwithstanding any provision in Section 4-110.1 to |
the contrary, if a firefighter who elects to make |
contributions under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 for the |
pension benefits provided under this Section becomes entitled |
to an occupational disease disability pension under Section |
4-110.1, each pension fund to which the firefighter has made |
contributions under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 must pay |
a portion of that occupational disease disability pension |
equal to the proportion that the firefighter's service credit |
with that pension fund for which the contributions under |
subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 have been made bears to the |
firefighter's total service credit with all of the pension |
funds for which the contributions under subsection (c) of |
Section 4-118.1 have been made. A firefighter who has made |
contributions under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 for at |
least 5 years of creditable service shall be deemed to have met |
|
the 5-year creditable service requirement under Section |
4-110.1, regardless of whether the firefighter has 5 years of |
creditable service with the last pension fund. |
(n) If a firefighter who elects to make contributions |
under subsection (c) of Section 4-118.1 for the pension |
benefits provided under this Section becomes entitled to a |
disability pension under Section 4-111, the last pension fund |
is responsible to pay that disability pension, provided that |
the firefighter has at least 7 years of creditable service |
with the last pension fund.
In the event a firefighter began |
employment with a new employer as a result of an |
intergovernmental agreement that resulted in the elimination |
of the previous employer's fire department, the firefighter |
shall not be required to have 7 years of creditable service |
with the last pension fund to qualify for a disability pension |
under Section 4-111. Under this circumstance, a firefighter |
shall be required to have 7 years of total combined creditable |
service time to qualify for a disability pension under Section |
4-111. The disability pension received pursuant to this |
Section shall be paid by the previous employer and new |
employer in proportion to the firefighter's years of service |
with each employer.
|
(Source: P.A. 102-81, eff. 7-9-21.)
|
(40 ILCS 5/18-169)
|
Sec. 18-169. Application and expiration of new benefit |
|
increases. |
(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means |
an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this |
Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for |
any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment |
to this Code that takes effect after the effective date of this |
amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. |
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or |
any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit |
increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be |
granted only in conformance with and contingent upon |
compliance with the provisions of this Section.
|
(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must |
identify and provide for payment to the System of additional |
funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual |
increase in cost to the System as it accrues. |
Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General |
Assembly providing the additional funding required under this |
subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and |
Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional |
funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and |
shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of |
the Department of Insurance Financial and Professional |
Regulation . A new benefit increase created by a Public Act |
that does not include the additional funding required under |
this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension |
|
Division determines that the additional funding provided for a |
new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become |
inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State |
Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the |
General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the |
end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.
|
(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after |
its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified |
in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided |
under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General |
Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase |
by law. |
(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating |
the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires |
under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied |
and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit |
increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and |
alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any |
other person, including without limitation a person who |
continues in service after the expiration date and did not |
apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new |
benefit increase was in effect.
|
(Source: P.A. 94-4, eff. 6-1-05.) |
(40 ILCS 5/22-1004)
|
Sec. 22-1004. Commission on Government Forecasting and |
|
Accountability report on Articles 3 and 4 funds. Each odd |
numbered year, the Commission on Government Forecasting and |
Accountability shall analyze data submitted by the Public |
Pension Division of the Illinois Department of Insurance |
Financial and Professional Regulation pertaining to the |
pension systems established under Article 3 and Article 4 of |
this Code. The Commission shall issue a formal report during |
such years, the content of which is, to the extent |
practicable, to be similar in nature to that required under |
Section 22-1003. In addition to providing aggregate analyses |
of both systems, the report shall analyze the fiscal status |
and provide forecasting projections for selected individual |
funds in each system. To the fullest extent practicable, the |
report shall analyze factors that affect each selected |
individual fund's unfunded liability and any actuarial gains |
and losses caused by salary increases, investment returns, |
employer contributions, benefit increases, change in |
assumptions, the difference in employer contributions and the |
normal cost plus interest, and any other applicable factors. |
In analyzing net investment returns, the report shall analyze |
the assumed investment return compared to the actual |
investment return over the preceding 10 fiscal years. The |
Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance |
Financial and Professional Regulation shall provide to the |
Commission any assistance that the Commission may request with |
respect to its report under this Section.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08.) |
Section 10. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
changing Sections 143.20a, 155.18, 155.19, 155.36, 155.49, |
370c, 412, 500-140, and 1204 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 5/143.20a) (from Ch. 73, par. 755.20a)
|
Sec. 143.20a. Cancellation of Fire and Marine Policies. |
(1) Policies
covering property, except policies described in |
subsection (b) of Section 143.13 143.13b , of this
Code, issued |
for the kinds of business enumerated in Class 3 of Section
4 of |
this Code may be cancelled 10 days following receipt of |
written notice
by the named insureds if the insured property |
is found to consist of one
or more of the following:
|
(a) Buildings to which, following a fire loss, permanent |
repairs have
not commenced within 60 days after satisfactory |
adjustment of loss, unless
such delay is a direct result of a |
labor dispute or weather conditions.
|
(b) Buildings which have been unoccupied 60 consecutive |
days, except
buildings which have a seasonal occupancy and |
buildings which are undergoing
construction, repair or |
reconstruction and are properly secured against
unauthorized |
entry.
|
(c) Buildings on which, because of their physical |
condition, there is
an outstanding order to vacate, an |
outstanding demolition order, or which
have been declared |
|
unsafe in accordance with applicable law.
|
(d) Buildings on which heat, water, sewer service or |
public lighting have
not been connected for 30 consecutive |
days or more.
|
(2) All notices of cancellation under this Section shall |
be sent by
certified mail and regular mail to the address of |
record of the named insureds.
|
(3) All cancellations made pursuant to this Section shall |
be
on a pro rata basis.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-437.)
|
(215 ILCS 5/155.18) (from Ch. 73, par. 767.18)
|
(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 94-677, |
which has been held
unconstitutional) |
Sec. 155.18. (a) This Section shall apply to insurance on |
risks based
upon negligence by a physician, hospital or other |
health care provider,
referred to herein as medical liability |
insurance. This Section shall not
apply to contracts of |
reinsurance, nor to any farm, county, district or
township |
mutual insurance company transacting business under an Act |
entitled
"An Act relating to local mutual district, county and |
township insurance
companies", approved March 13, 1936, as now |
or hereafter amended, nor to
any such company operating under |
a special charter.
|
(b) The following standards shall apply to the making and |
use of rates
pertaining to all classes of medical liability |
|
insurance:
|
(1) Rates shall not be excessive or inadequate, as |
herein defined, nor
shall they be unfairly discriminatory. |
No rate shall be held to be excessive
unless such rate is |
unreasonably high for the insurance provided, and a
|
reasonable degree of competition does not exist in the |
area with respect
to the classification to which such rate |
is applicable.
|
No rate shall be held inadequate unless it is |
unreasonably low for the
insurance provided and continued |
use of it would endanger solvency of the company.
|
(2) Consideration shall be given, to the extent |
applicable, to past and
prospective loss experience within |
and outside this State, to a reasonable
margin for |
underwriting profit and contingencies, to past and |
prospective
expenses both countrywide and those especially |
applicable to this State,
and to all other factors, |
including judgment factors, deemed relevant within
and |
outside this State.
|
Consideration may also be given in the making and use |
of rates to dividends,
savings or unabsorbed premium |
deposits allowed or returned by companies
to their |
policyholders, members or subscribers.
|
(3) The systems of expense provisions included in the |
rates for use by
any company or group of companies may |
differ from those of other companies
or groups of |
|
companies to reflect the operating methods of any such |
company
or group with respect to any kind of insurance, or |
with respect to any subdivision
or combination thereof.
|
(4) Risks may be grouped by classifications for the |
establishment of rates
and minimum premiums. |
Classification rates may be modified to produce
rates for |
individual risks in accordance with rating plans which |
establish
standards for measuring variations in hazards or |
expense provisions, or
both. Such standards may measure |
any difference among risks that have a
probable effect |
upon losses or expenses. Such classifications or |
modifications
of classifications of risks may be |
established based upon size, expense,
management, |
individual experience, location or dispersion of hazard, |
or
any other reasonable considerations and shall apply to |
all risks under the
same or substantially the same |
circumstances or conditions.
The rate for
an established |
classification should be related generally to the |
anticipated
loss and expense factors of the class.
|
(c) Every company writing medical liability insurance |
shall file with
the
Director of Insurance the rates and rating |
schedules it uses for medical
liability insurance.
|
(1) This filing shall occur
at least annually
and as |
often as the rates
are changed or amended.
|
(2) For the purposes of this Section any change in |
premium to the company's
insureds as a result of a change |
|
in the company's base rates or a change
in its increased |
limits factors shall constitute a change in rates and |
shall
require a filing with the
Director.
|
(3) It shall be certified in such filing by an officer of |
the company
and a qualified actuary that the company's rates
|
are based on sound actuarial
principles and are not |
inconsistent with the company's experience.
|
(d) If after
a hearing the
Director finds:
|
(1) that any rate, rating plan or rating system |
violates the provisions
of this Section applicable to it, |
he
may issue an order to the company which
has been the |
subject of the hearing specifying in what respects such |
violation
exists and
stating when, within a reasonable |
period of time, the further
use of such rate or rating |
system by such company in contracts of insurance
made |
thereafter shall be prohibited;
|
(2) that the violation of any of the provisions of |
this Section applicable
to it by any company which has |
been the subject of hearing was wilful, he
may
suspend or |
revoke, in whole or in part, the certificate of authority
|
of such company with respect to the class of insurance |
which has been the
subject of the hearing.
|
(Source: P.A. 79-1434.)
|
(215 ILCS 5/155.19) (from Ch. 73, par. 767.19)
|
(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 94-677, |
|
which has been held
unconstitutional) |
Sec. 155.19. All claims filed after December 31, 1976 with |
any insurer
and all suits filed after December 31, 1976 in any |
court in this State,
alleging liability on the part of any |
physician, hospital or other health
care provider for |
medically related injuries, shall be reported to the
Director
|
of Insurance in such form and under such terms and conditions |
as may be
prescribed by the
Director. The
Director shall |
maintain complete and accurate
records of all such claims and |
suits including their nature, amount, disposition
and other |
information as he may deem useful or desirable in observing |
and
reporting on health care provider liability trends in this |
State. The Director
shall release to appropriate disciplinary |
and licensing agencies any such
data or information which may |
assist such agencies in
improving the quality of health care |
or which may be useful to such agencies
for the purpose of |
professional discipline.
|
With due regard for appropriate maintenance of the |
confidentiality thereof,
the
Director
may
release
from time to |
time to the Governor, the General
Assembly and the general |
public statistical reports based on such data and information.
|
The
Director may promulgate such rules and regulations as |
may be necessary
to carry out the provisions of this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 79-1434.)
|
(215 ILCS 5/155.36)
|
|
Sec. 155.36. Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act. |
Insurance
companies that transact the kinds of insurance |
authorized under Class 1(b) or
Class 2(a) of Section 4 of this |
Code shall comply
with Sections 25, 45, 45.1, 45.2, 45.3, 65, |
70, and 85, subsection (d) of Section 30, and the definition of |
the term "emergency medical
condition" in Section
10 of the |
Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-608, eff. 1-1-20; 102-409, eff. 1-1-22 .)
|
(215 ILCS 5/155.49 new) |
Sec. 155.49. Insurance company supplier diversity report. |
(a) Every company authorized to do business in this State |
or accredited by this State with assets of at least |
$50,000,000 shall submit a 2-page report on its voluntary |
supplier diversity program, or the company's procurement |
program if there is no supplier diversity program, to the |
Department. The report shall set forth all of the following: |
(1) The name, address, phone number, and email address |
of the point of contact for the supplier diversity program |
for vendors to register with the program. |
(2) Local and State certifications the company accepts |
or recognizes for minority-owned, women-owned, LGBT-owned, |
or veteran-owned business status. |
(3) On the second page, a narrative explaining the |
results of the program and the tactics to be employed to |
achieve the goals of its voluntary supplier diversity |
|
program. |
(4) The voluntary goals for the calendar year for |
which the report is made in each category for the entire |
budget of the company and the commodity codes or a |
description of particular goods and services for the area |
of procurement in which the company expects most of those |
goals to focus on in that year. |
Each company is required to submit a searchable report, in |
Portable Document Format (PDF), to the Department on or before |
April 1, 2024 and on or before April 1 every year thereafter. |
(b) For each report submitted under subsection (a), the |
Department shall publish the results on its Internet website |
for 5 years after submission. The Department is not |
responsible for collecting the reports or for the content of |
the reports. |
(c) The Department shall hold an annual insurance company |
supplier diversity workshop in July of 2024 and every July |
thereafter to discuss the reports with representatives of the |
companies and vendors. |
(d) The Department shall prepare a one-page template, not |
including the narrative section, for the voluntary supplier |
diversity reports. |
(e) The Department may adopt such rules as it deems |
necessary to implement this Section.
|
(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)
|
|
Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.
|
(a)(1) On and after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of |
Public Act 102-579),
every insurer that amends, delivers, |
issues, or renews
group accident and health policies providing |
coverage for hospital or medical treatment or
services for |
illness on an expense-incurred basis shall provide coverage |
for the medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions consistent |
with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.
|
(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use
disorders or conditions shall be |
free to select the physician licensed to
practice medicine in |
all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed |
clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional |
counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed |
speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified |
professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance |
Use Disorder Act of
his or her choice to treat such disorders, |
and
the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such |
physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, |
licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed clinical social |
worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed |
marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language |
pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a |
program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act up
|
to the limits of coverage, provided (i)
the disorder or |
|
condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the
|
physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social |
worker, licensed
clinical professional counselor, licensed |
marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language |
pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a |
program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act is
|
authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this |
State and in
accordance with accepted principles of his or her |
profession.
|
(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed |
clinical social
workers, licensed clinical professional |
counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed |
speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified |
professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Substance |
Use Disorder Act, those persons who may
provide services to |
individuals shall do so
after the licensed clinical social |
worker, licensed clinical professional
counselor, licensed |
marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language |
pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a |
program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act |
has informed the patient of the
desirability of the patient |
conferring with the patient's primary care
physician.
|
(4) "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder |
or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a |
mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls |
under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental |
|
and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the |
World Health Organization's International Classification of |
Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the |
American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical |
Manual of Mental Disorders. "Mental, emotional, nervous, or |
substance use disorder or condition" includes any mental |
health condition that occurs during pregnancy or during the |
postpartum period and includes, but is not limited to, |
postpartum depression. |
(5) Medically necessary treatment and medical necessity |
determinations shall be interpreted and made in a manner that |
is consistent with and pursuant to subsections (h) through |
(t). |
(b)(1) (Blank).
|
(2) (Blank).
|
(2.5) (Blank). |
(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and |
consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of |
this Code, the reimbursing insurer that amends, delivers, |
issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and |
health insurance, a qualified health plan offered through the |
health insurance marketplace, or a provider of treatment of |
mental, emotional, nervous,
or substance use disorders or |
conditions shall furnish medical records or other necessary |
data
that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is |
at all times medically
necessary. An insurer shall provide a |
|
mechanism for the timely review by a
provider holding the same |
license and practicing in the same specialty as the
patient's |
provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly |
selected by
the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal |
representative if the
patient is unable to act for himself or |
herself), the patient's provider, and
the insurer in the event |
of a dispute between the insurer and patient's
provider |
regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a |
patient's
provider. If the reviewing provider determines the |
treatment to be medically
necessary, the insurer shall provide |
reimbursement for the treatment. Future
contractual or |
employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's
|
provider may not be based on the provider's participation in |
this procedure.
Nothing prevents
the insured from agreeing in |
writing to continue treatment at his or her
expense. When |
making a determination of the medical necessity for a |
treatment
modality for mental, emotional, nervous, or |
substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer must make |
the determination in a
manner that is consistent with the |
manner used to make that determination with
respect to other |
diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an
|
appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for |
substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with |
appropriate patient placement criteria established by the |
American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria |
may be used to make medical necessity determinations for |
|
substance use disorders.
|
(4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, |
issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective |
date of Public Act 100-1024) or an individual policy of |
accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan |
offered through the health insurance marketplace amended, |
delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the |
effective date of Public Act 100-1024):
|
(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical |
necessity for the
treatment of a mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent |
with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this |
Code; provided, however, that in each calendar year |
coverage shall not be less than the following:
|
(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and
|
(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective |
date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient |
treatment including group and individual
outpatient |
treatment; and |
(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for |
delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 |
(the effective date of Public Act 94-906),
20 |
additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for |
treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that |
will be in addition to speech therapy provided |
pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and
|
|
(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of |
days of inpatient
treatment or the number of outpatient |
visits covered under the plan.
|
(C) (Blank).
|
(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan or an |
individual policy of accident and health insurance or a |
qualified health plan offered through the health insurance |
marketplace may not count toward the number
of outpatient |
visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient
|
visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover |
the outpatient
visits under the same terms and conditions as |
it covers outpatient visits for
the treatment of physical |
illness.
|
(5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, |
delivered, issued, or renewed on or after September 9, 2015 |
(the effective date of Public Act 99-480) shall offer coverage |
for medically necessary acute treatment services and medically |
necessary clinical stabilization services. The treating |
provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the |
health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity |
determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with |
the most current edition of the Treatment Criteria for |
Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions |
established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. The |
treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and |
the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity |
|
determinations for medication-assisted treatment in accordance |
with the most current Treatment Criteria for Addictive, |
Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by |
the American Society of Addiction Medicine. |
As used in this subsection: |
"Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically |
supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and |
withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial |
assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational |
groups, and discharge planning. |
"Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, |
usually following acute treatment services for substance |
abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling |
regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, |
relapse prevention, outreach to families and significant |
others, and aftercare planning for individuals beginning to |
engage in recovery from addiction. |
(6) An issuer of a group health benefit
plan may provide or |
offer coverage required under this Section through a
managed |
care plan.
|
(6.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, |
delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the |
effective date of Public Act 100-1024): |
(A) shall not impose prior authorization requirements, |
other than those established under the Treatment Criteria |
for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring |
|
Conditions established by the American Society of |
Addiction Medicine, on a prescription medication approved |
by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is |
prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance |
use disorders; |
(B) shall not impose any step therapy requirements, |
other than those established under the Treatment Criteria |
for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring |
Conditions established by the American Society of |
Addiction Medicine, before authorizing coverage for a |
prescription medication approved by the United States Food |
and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered |
for the treatment of substance use disorders; |
(C) shall place all prescription medications approved |
by the United States Food and Drug Administration |
prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance |
use disorders on, for brand medications, the lowest tier |
of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the |
individual or group health benefit plan that covers brand |
medications and, for generic medications, the lowest tier |
of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the |
individual or group health benefit plan that covers |
generic medications; and |
(D) shall not exclude coverage for a prescription |
medication approved by the United States Food and Drug |
Administration for the treatment of substance use |
|
disorders and any associated counseling or wraparound |
services on the grounds that such medications and services |
were court ordered. |
(7) (Blank).
|
(8)
(Blank).
|
(9) With respect to all mental, emotional, nervous, or |
substance use disorders or conditions, coverage for inpatient |
treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a |
residential treatment center certified or licensed by the |
Department of Public Health or the Department of Human |
Services. |
(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require |
coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for |
those individuals covered under Section 356z.15
of this Code. |
(d) With respect to a group or individual policy of |
accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan |
offered through the health insurance marketplace, the |
Department and, with respect to medical assistance, the |
Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall each |
enforce the requirements of this Section and Sections 356z.23 |
and 370c.1 of this Code, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici |
Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 |
U.S.C. 18031(j), and any amendments to, and federal guidance |
or regulations issued under, those Acts, including, but not |
limited to, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone |
and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity |
|
Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone |
and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity |
Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the |
Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit |
plans. Specifically, the Department and the Department of |
Healthcare and Family Services shall take action: |
(1) proactively ensuring compliance by individual and |
group policies, including by requiring that insurers |
submit comparative analyses, as set forth in paragraph (6) |
of subsection (k) of Section 370c.1, demonstrating how |
they design and apply nonquantitative treatment |
limitations, both as written and in operation, for mental, |
emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition |
benefits as compared to how they design and apply |
nonquantitative treatment limitations, as written and in |
operation, for medical and surgical benefits; |
(2) evaluating all consumer or provider complaints |
regarding mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
disorder or condition coverage for possible parity |
violations; |
(3) performing parity compliance market conduct |
examinations or, in the case of the Department of |
Healthcare and Family Services, parity compliance audits |
of individual and group plans and policies, including, but |
not limited to, reviews of: |
(A) nonquantitative treatment limitations, |
|
including, but not limited to, prior authorization |
requirements, concurrent review, retrospective review, |
step therapy, network admission standards, |
reimbursement rates, and geographic restrictions; |
(B) denials of authorization, payment, and |
coverage; and |
(C) other specific criteria as may be determined |
by the Department. |
The findings and the conclusions of the parity compliance |
market conduct examinations and audits shall be made public. |
The Director may adopt rules to effectuate any provisions |
of the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity |
and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 that relate to the business of |
insurance. |
(e) Availability of plan information. |
(1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations |
made under a group health plan, an individual policy of |
accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan |
offered through the health insurance marketplace with |
respect to mental health or substance use disorder |
benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in |
connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) |
must be made available by the plan administrator (or the |
health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any |
current or potential participant, beneficiary, or |
contracting provider upon request. |
|
(2) The reason for any denial under a group health |
benefit plan, an individual policy of accident and health |
insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the |
health insurance marketplace (or health insurance coverage |
offered in connection with such plan or policy) of |
reimbursement or payment for services with respect to |
mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or |
conditions benefits in the case of any participant or |
beneficiary must be made available within a reasonable |
time and in a reasonable manner and in readily |
understandable language by the plan administrator (or the |
health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the |
participant or beneficiary upon request. |
(f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and |
health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) |
State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance |
plans written in Illinois or which purport to provide coverage |
for a resident of this State; and (2) State employee health |
plans. |
(g) (1) As used in this subsection: |
"Benefits", with respect to insurers, means
the benefits |
provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient |
treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American |
Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 |
(Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.1 |
(Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential), 3.3 |
|
(Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity |
Residential), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity |
Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive |
Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services. |
"Benefits", with respect to managed care organizations, |
means the benefits provided for treatment services for |
inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders |
or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels |
of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial |
Hospitalization), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity |
Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive |
Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services. |
"Substance use disorder treatment provider or facility" |
means a licensed physician, licensed psychologist, licensed |
psychiatrist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or |
licensed, certified, or otherwise State-approved facility or |
provider of substance use disorder treatment. |
(2) A group health insurance policy, an individual health |
benefit plan, or qualified health plan that is offered through |
the health insurance marketplace, small employer group health |
plan, and large employer group health plan that is amended, |
delivered, issued, executed, or renewed in this State, or |
approved for issuance or renewal in this State, on or after |
January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1023) |
shall comply with the requirements of this Section and Section |
370c.1. The services for the treatment and the ongoing |
|
assessment of the patient's progress in treatment shall follow |
the requirements of 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060. |
(3) Prior authorization shall not be utilized for the |
benefits under this subsection. The substance use disorder |
treatment provider or facility shall notify the insurer of the |
initiation of treatment. For an insurer that is not a managed |
care organization, the substance use disorder treatment |
provider or facility notification shall occur for the |
initiation of treatment of the covered person within 2 |
business days. For managed care organizations, the substance |
use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall |
occur in accordance with the protocol set forth in the |
provider agreement for initiation of treatment within 24 |
hours. If the managed care organization is not capable of |
accepting the notification in accordance with the contractual |
protocol during the 24-hour period following admission, the |
substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall |
have one additional business day to provide the notification |
to the appropriate managed care organization. Treatment plans |
shall be developed in accordance with the requirements and |
timeframes established in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060. If the |
substance use disorder treatment provider or facility fails to |
notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment in |
accordance with these provisions, the insurer may follow its |
normal prior authorization processes. |
(4) For an insurer that is not a managed care |
|
organization, if an insurer determines that benefits are no |
longer medically necessary, the insurer shall notify the |
covered person, the covered person's authorized |
representative, if any, and the covered person's health care |
provider in writing of the covered person's right to request |
an external review pursuant to the Health Carrier External |
Review Act. The notification shall occur within 24 hours |
following the adverse determination. |
Pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier |
External Review Act, the covered person or the covered |
person's authorized representative may request an expedited |
external review.
An expedited external review may not occur if |
the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility |
determines that continued treatment is no longer medically |
necessary. Under this subsection, a request for expedited |
external review must be initiated within 24 hours following |
the adverse determination notification by the insurer. Failure |
to request an expedited external review within 24 hours shall |
preclude a covered person or a covered person's authorized |
representative from requesting an expedited external review. |
If an expedited external review request meets the criteria |
of the Health Carrier External Review Act, an independent |
review organization shall make a final determination of |
medical necessity within 72 hours. If an independent review |
organization upholds an adverse determination, an insurer |
shall remain responsible to provide coverage of benefits |
|
through the day following the determination of the independent |
review organization. A decision to reverse an adverse |
determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External |
Review Act. |
(5) The substance use disorder treatment provider or |
facility shall provide the insurer with 7 business days' |
advance notice of the planned discharge of the patient from |
the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility and |
notice on the day that the patient is discharged from the |
substance use disorder treatment provider or facility. |
(6) The benefits required by this subsection shall be |
provided to all covered persons with a diagnosis of substance |
use disorder or conditions. The presence of additional related |
or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny |
the benefits required by this subsection. |
(7) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to |
require an insurer to provide coverage for any of the benefits |
in this subsection. |
(h) As used in this Section: |
"Generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care" means |
standards of care and clinical practice that are generally |
recognized by health care providers practicing in relevant |
clinical specialties such as psychiatry, psychology, clinical |
sociology, social work, addiction medicine and counseling, and |
behavioral health treatment. Valid, evidence-based sources |
|
reflecting generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care include |
peer-reviewed scientific studies and medical literature, |
recommendations of nonprofit health care provider professional |
associations and specialty societies, including, but not |
limited to, patient placement criteria and clinical practice |
guidelines, recommendations of federal government agencies, |
and drug labeling approved by the United States Food and Drug |
Administration. |
"Medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, |
nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions" means a |
service or product addressing the specific needs of that |
patient, for the purpose of screening, preventing, diagnosing, |
managing, or treating an illness, injury, or condition or its |
symptoms and comorbidities, including minimizing the |
progression of an illness, injury, or condition or its |
symptoms and comorbidities in a manner that is all of the |
following: |
(1) in accordance with the generally accepted |
standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
disorder or condition care; |
(2) clinically appropriate in terms of type, |
frequency, extent, site, and duration; and |
(3) not primarily for the economic benefit of the |
insurer, purchaser, or for the convenience of the patient, |
treating physician, or other health care provider. |
|
"Utilization review" means either of the following: |
(1) prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently |
reviewing and approving, modifying, delaying, or denying, |
based in whole or in part on medical necessity, requests |
by health care providers, insureds, or their authorized |
representatives for coverage of health care services |
before, retrospectively, or concurrently with the |
provision of health care services to insureds. |
(2) evaluating the medical necessity, appropriateness, |
level of care, service intensity, efficacy, or efficiency |
of health care services, benefits, procedures, or |
settings, under any circumstances, to determine whether a |
health care service or benefit subject to a medical |
necessity coverage requirement in an insurance policy is |
covered as medically necessary for an insured. |
"Utilization review criteria" means patient placement |
criteria or any criteria, standards, protocols, or guidelines |
used by an insurer to conduct utilization review. |
(i)(1) Every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or |
renews a group or individual policy of accident and health |
insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the |
health insurance marketplace in this State and Medicaid |
managed care organizations providing coverage for hospital or |
medical treatment on or after January 1, 2023 shall, pursuant |
to subsections (h) through (s), provide coverage for medically |
necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or |
|
substance use disorders or conditions. |
(2) An insurer shall not set a specific limit on the |
duration of benefits or coverage of medically necessary |
treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
disorders or conditions or limit coverage only to alleviation |
of the insured's current symptoms. |
(3) All medical necessity determinations made by the |
insurer concerning service intensity, level of care placement, |
continued stay, and transfer or discharge of insureds |
diagnosed with mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
disorders or conditions shall be conducted in accordance with |
the requirements of subsections (k) through (u). |
(4) An insurer that authorizes a specific type of |
treatment by a provider pursuant to this Section shall not |
rescind or modify the authorization after that provider |
renders the health care service in good faith and pursuant to |
this authorization for any reason, including, but not limited |
to, the insurer's subsequent cancellation or modification of |
the insured's or policyholder's contract, or the insured's or |
policyholder's eligibility. Nothing in this Section shall |
require the insurer to cover a treatment when the |
authorization was granted based on a material |
misrepresentation by the insured, the policyholder, or the |
provider. Nothing in this Section shall require Medicaid |
managed care organizations to pay for services if the |
individual was not eligible for Medicaid at the time the |
|
service was rendered. Nothing in this Section shall require an |
insurer to pay for services if the individual was not the |
insurer's enrollee at the time services were rendered. As used |
in this paragraph, "material" means a fact or situation that |
is not merely technical in nature and results in or could |
result in a substantial change in the situation. |
(j) An insurer shall not limit benefits or coverage for |
medically necessary services on the basis that those services |
should be or could be covered by a public entitlement program, |
including, but not limited to, special education or an |
individualized education program, Medicaid, Medicare, |
Supplemental Security Income, or Social Security Disability |
Insurance, and shall not include or enforce a contract term |
that excludes otherwise covered benefits on the basis that |
those services should be or could be covered by a public |
entitlement program. Nothing in this subsection shall be |
construed to require an insurer to cover benefits that have |
been authorized and provided for a covered person by a public |
entitlement program. Medicaid managed care organizations are |
not subject to this subsection. |
(k) An insurer shall base any medical necessity |
determination or the utilization review criteria that the |
insurer, and any entity acting on the insurer's behalf, |
applies to determine the medical necessity of health care |
services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and |
treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
|
disorders or conditions on current generally accepted |
standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
disorder or condition care. All denials and appeals shall be |
reviewed by a professional with experience or expertise |
comparable to the provider requesting the authorization. |
(l) For medical necessity determinations relating to level |
of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge |
of insureds diagnosed with mental, emotional, and nervous |
disorders or conditions, an insurer shall apply the patient |
placement criteria set forth in the most recent version of the |
treatment criteria developed by an unaffiliated nonprofit |
professional association for the relevant clinical specialty |
or, for Medicaid managed care organizations, patient placement |
criteria determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services that are consistent with generally accepted standards |
of mental, emotional, nervous or substance use disorder or |
condition care. Pursuant to subsection (b), in conducting |
utilization review of all covered services and benefits for |
the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of substance use |
disorders an insurer shall use the most recent edition of the |
patient placement criteria established by the American Society |
of Addiction Medicine. |
(m) For medical necessity determinations relating to level |
of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge |
that are within the scope of the sources specified in |
subsection (l), an insurer shall not apply different, |
|
additional, conflicting, or more restrictive utilization |
review criteria than the criteria set forth in those sources. |
For all level of care placement decisions, the insurer shall |
authorize placement at the level of care consistent with the |
assessment of the insured using the relevant patient placement |
criteria as specified in subsection (l). If that level of |
placement is not available, the insurer shall authorize the |
next higher level of care. In the event of disagreement, the |
insurer shall provide full detail of its assessment using the |
relevant criteria as specified in subsection (l) to the |
provider of the service and the patient. |
Nothing in this subsection or subsection (l) prohibits an |
insurer from applying utilization review criteria that were |
developed in accordance with subsection (k) to health care |
services and benefits for mental, emotional, and nervous |
disorders or conditions that are not related to medical |
necessity determinations for level of care placement, |
continued stay, and transfer or discharge. If an insurer |
purchases or licenses utilization review criteria pursuant to |
this subsection, the insurer shall verify and document before |
use that the criteria were developed in accordance with |
subsection (k). |
(n) In conducting utilization review that is outside the |
scope of the criteria as specified in subsection (l) or |
relates to the advancements in technology or in the types or |
levels of care that are not addressed in the most recent |
|
versions of the sources specified in subsection (l), an |
insurer shall conduct utilization review in accordance with |
subsection (k). |
(o) This Section does not in any way limit the rights of a |
patient under the Medical Patient Rights Act. |
(p) This Section does not in any way limit early and |
periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment benefits as |
defined under 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r). |
(q) To ensure the proper use of the criteria described in |
subsection (l), every insurer shall do all of the following: |
(1) Educate the insurer's staff, including any third |
parties contracted with the insurer to review claims, |
conduct utilization reviews, or make medical necessity |
determinations about the utilization review criteria. |
(2) Make the educational program available to other |
stakeholders, including the insurer's participating or |
contracted providers and potential participants, |
beneficiaries, or covered lives. The education program |
must be provided at least once a year, in-person or |
digitally, or recordings of the education program must be |
made available to the aforementioned stakeholders. |
(3) Provide, at no cost, the utilization review |
criteria and any training material or resources to |
providers and insured patients upon request. For |
utilization review criteria not concerning level of care |
placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge used |
|
by the insurer pursuant to subsection (m), the insurer may |
place the criteria on a secure, password-protected website |
so long as the access requirements of the website do not |
unreasonably restrict access to insureds or their |
providers. No restrictions shall be placed upon the |
insured's or treating provider's access right to |
utilization review criteria obtained under this paragraph |
at any point in time, including before an initial request |
for authorization. |
(4) Track, identify, and analyze how the utilization |
review criteria are used to certify care, deny care, and |
support the appeals process. |
(5) Conduct interrater reliability testing to ensure |
consistency in utilization review decision making that |
covers how medical necessity decisions are made; this |
assessment shall cover all aspects of utilization review |
as defined in subsection (h). |
(6) Run interrater reliability reports about how the |
clinical guidelines are used in conjunction with the |
utilization review process and parity compliance |
activities. |
(7) Achieve interrater reliability pass rates of at |
least 90% and, if this threshold is not met, immediately |
provide for the remediation of poor interrater reliability |
and interrater reliability testing for all new staff |
before they can conduct utilization review without |
|
supervision. |
(8) Maintain documentation of interrater reliability |
testing and the remediation actions taken for those with |
pass rates lower than 90% and submit to the Department of |
Insurance or, in the case of Medicaid managed care |
organizations, the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services the testing results and a summary of remedial |
actions as part of parity compliance reporting set forth |
in subsection (k) of Section 370c.1. |
(r) This Section applies to all health care services and |
benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of |
mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or |
conditions covered by an insurance policy, including |
prescription drugs. |
(s) This Section applies to an insurer that amends, |
delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of |
accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan |
offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State |
providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and |
conducts utilization review as defined in this Section, |
including Medicaid managed care organizations, and any entity |
or contracting provider that performs utilization review or |
utilization management functions on an insurer's behalf. |
(t) If the Director determines that an insurer has |
violated this Section, the Director may, after appropriate |
notice and opportunity for hearing, by order, assess a civil |
|
penalty between $1,000 and $5,000 for each violation. Moneys |
collected from penalties shall be deposited into the Parity |
Advancement Fund established in subsection (i) of Section |
370c.1. |
(u) An insurer shall not adopt, impose, or enforce terms |
in its policies or provider agreements, in writing or in |
operation, that undermine, alter, or conflict with the |
requirements of this Section. |
(v) The provisions of this Section are severable. If any |
provision of this Section or its application is held invalid, |
that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or |
applications that can be given effect without the invalid |
provision or application. |
(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-386, eff. 8-16-19; |
102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-579, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. |
5-13-22.)
|
(215 ILCS 5/412) (from Ch. 73, par. 1024)
|
Sec. 412. Refunds; penalties; collection.
|
(1)(a) Whenever it appears to
the satisfaction of the |
Director that because of some mistake of fact,
error in |
calculation, or erroneous interpretation of a statute of this
|
or any other state, any authorized company, surplus line |
producer, or industrial insured has paid to him, pursuant to
|
any provision of law, taxes, fees, or other charges
in excess |
of the
amount legally chargeable against it, during the 6 year |
|
period
immediately preceding the discovery of such |
overpayment, he shall have
power to refund to such company, |
surplus line producer, or industrial insured the amount of the |
excess or excesses by
applying the amount or amounts thereof |
toward
the payment of taxes, fees, or other charges already |
due, or which may
thereafter become due from that company |
until such excess or excesses have been
fully
refunded, or |
upon a written request from the authorized company, surplus |
line producer, or industrial insured, the
Director shall |
provide a cash refund within
120 days after receipt of the |
written request if all necessary information has
been filed |
with the Department in order for it to perform an audit of the
|
tax report for the transaction or period or annual return for |
the year in which the overpayment occurred or within 120 days
|
after the date the Department receives all the necessary |
information to perform
such audit. The Director shall not |
provide a cash refund if there are
insufficient funds in the |
Insurance Premium Tax Refund Fund to provide a cash
refund, if |
the amount of the overpayment is less than $100, or if the |
amount of
the overpayment can be fully offset against the |
taxpayer's estimated liability
for the year following the year |
of the cash refund request. Any cash refund
shall be paid from |
the Insurance Premium Tax Refund Fund, a special fund hereby
|
created in the
State treasury.
|
(b) As determined by the Director pursuant to paragraph |
(a) of this subsection, the Department shall deposit an amount |
|
of cash refunds approved by the Director for payment as a |
result of overpayment of tax liability
collected under |
Sections 121-2.08, 409, 444, 444.1, and 445 of
this
Code into |
the Insurance Premium Tax Refund Fund.
|
(c) Beginning July 1, 1999, moneys in the Insurance |
Premium Tax Refund
Fund
shall be expended exclusively for the |
purpose of paying cash refunds resulting
from overpayment of |
tax liability under Sections 121-2.08, 409, 444, 444.1, and |
445 of this
Code
as
determined by the Director pursuant to |
subsection 1(a) of this Section. Cash
refunds made in |
accordance with this Section may be made from the Insurance
|
Premium Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts have |
been deposited and
retained in the Insurance Premium Tax |
Refund Fund.
|
(d) This Section shall constitute an irrevocable and |
continuing
appropriation from the Insurance Premium Tax Refund |
Fund for the purpose of
paying cash refunds pursuant to the |
provisions of this Section.
|
(2)(a) When any insurance company fails to
file any tax |
return required under Sections 408.1, 409, 444, and 444.1 of
|
this Code or Section 12 of the Fire Investigation Act on the |
date
prescribed, including any extensions, there shall be |
added as a penalty
$400 or 10% of the amount of such tax, |
whichever is
greater, for each month
or part of a month of |
failure to file, the entire penalty not to exceed
$2,000 or 50% |
of the tax due, whichever is greater.
|
|
(b) When any industrial insured or surplus line producer |
fails to file any tax return or report required under Sections |
121-2.08 and 445 of this Code or Section 12 of the Fire |
Investigation Act on the date prescribed, including any |
extensions, there shall be added: |
(i) as a late fee, if the return or report is received |
at least one day but not more than 15 7 days after the |
prescribed due date, $50 $400 or 5% 10% of the tax due, |
whichever is greater, the entire fee not to exceed $1,000; |
(ii) as a late fee, if the return or report is received |
at least 8 days but not more than 14 days after the |
prescribed due date, $400 or 10% of the tax due, whichever |
is greater, the entire fee not to exceed $1,500; |
(ii) (iii) as a late fee, if the return or report is |
received at least 16 15 days but not more than 30 21 days |
after the prescribed due date, $100 $400 or 5% 10% of the |
tax due, whichever is greater, the entire fee not to |
exceed $2,000; or |
(iii) (iv) as a penalty, if the return or report is |
received more than 30 21 days after the prescribed due |
date, $100 $400 or 5% 10% of the tax due, whichever is |
greater, for each month or part of a month of failure to |
file, the entire penalty not to exceed $500 $2,000 or 30% |
50% of the tax due, whichever is greater. |
A tax return or report shall be deemed received as of the |
date mailed as evidenced by a postmark, proof of mailing on a |
|
recognized United States Postal Service form or a form |
acceptable to the United States Postal Service or other |
commercial mail delivery service, or other evidence acceptable |
to the Director.
|
(3)(a) When any insurance company
fails to pay the full |
amount due under the provisions of this Section,
Sections |
408.1, 409, 444, or 444.1 of this Code, or Section 12 of the
|
Fire Investigation Act, there shall be added to the amount due |
as a penalty
an amount equal to 10% of the deficiency.
|
(a-5) When any industrial insured or surplus line producer |
fails to pay the full amount due under the provisions of this |
Section, Sections 121-2.08 or 445 of this Code, or Section 12 |
of the Fire Investigation Act on the date prescribed, there |
shall be added: |
(i) as a late fee, if the payment is received at least |
one day but not more than 7 days after the prescribed due |
date, 10% of the tax due, the entire fee not to exceed |
$1,000; |
(ii) as a late fee, if the payment is received at least |
8 days but not more than 14 days after the prescribed due |
date, 10% of the tax due, the entire fee not to exceed |
$1,500; |
(iii) as a late fee, if the payment is received at |
least 15 days but not more than 21 days after the |
prescribed due date, 10% of the tax due, the entire fee not |
to exceed $2,000; or |
|
(iv) as a penalty, if the return or report is received |
more than 21 days after the prescribed due date, 10% of the |
tax due. |
A tax payment shall be deemed received as of the date |
mailed as evidenced by a postmark, proof of mailing on a |
recognized United States Postal Service form or a form |
acceptable to the United States Postal Service or other |
commercial mail delivery service, or other evidence acceptable |
to the Director.
|
(b) If such failure to pay is determined by the Director to |
be wilful,
after a hearing under Sections 402 and 403, there |
shall be added to the tax
as a penalty an amount equal to the |
greater of 50% of the
deficiency or 10%
of the amount due and |
unpaid for each month or part of a month that the
deficiency |
remains unpaid commencing with the date that the amount |
becomes
due. Such amount shall be in lieu of any determined |
under paragraph (a) or (a-5).
|
(4) Any insurance company, industrial insured, or surplus |
line producer that
fails to pay the full amount due under this |
Section or Sections 121-2.08, 408.1, 409,
444, 444.1, or 445 |
of this Code, or Section 12 of the Fire Investigation
Act is |
liable, in addition to the tax and any late fees and penalties, |
for interest
on such deficiency at the rate of 12% per annum, |
or at such higher adjusted
rates as are or may be established |
under subsection (b) of Section 6621
of the Internal Revenue |
Code, from the date that payment of any such tax
was due, |
|
determined without regard to any extensions, to the date of |
payment
of such amount.
|
(5) The Director, through the Attorney
General, may |
institute an action in the name of the People of the State
of |
Illinois, in any court of competent jurisdiction, for the |
recovery of
the amount of such taxes, fees, and penalties due, |
and prosecute the same to
final judgment, and take such steps |
as are necessary to collect the same.
|
(6) In the event that the certificate of authority of a |
foreign or
alien company is revoked for any cause or the |
company withdraws from
this State prior to the renewal date of |
the certificate of authority as
provided in Section 114, the |
company may recover the amount of any such
tax paid in advance. |
Except as provided in this subsection, no
revocation or |
withdrawal excuses payment of or constitutes grounds for
the |
recovery of any taxes or penalties imposed by this Code.
|
(7) When an insurance company or domestic affiliated group |
fails to pay
the full amount of any fee of $200 or more due |
under
Section 408 of this Code, there shall be added to the |
amount due as
a penalty the greater of $100 or an amount equal |
to 10%
of the deficiency for
each month or part of
a month that |
the deficiency remains unpaid.
|
(8) The Department shall have a lien for the taxes, fees, |
charges, fines, penalties, interest, other charges, or any |
portion thereof, imposed or assessed pursuant to this Code, |
upon all the real and personal property of any company or |
|
person to whom the assessment or final order has been issued or |
whenever a tax return is filed without payment of the tax or |
penalty shown therein to be due, including all such property |
of the company or person acquired after receipt of the |
assessment, issuance of the order, or filing of the return. |
The company or person is liable for the filing fee incurred by |
the Department for filing the lien and the filing fee incurred |
by the Department to file the release of that lien. The filing |
fees shall be paid to the Department in addition to payment of |
the tax, fee, charge, fine, penalty, interest, other charges, |
or any portion thereof, included in the amount of the lien. |
However, where the lien arises because of the issuance of a |
final order of the Director or tax assessment by the |
Department, the lien shall not attach and the notice referred |
to in this Section shall not be filed until all administrative |
proceedings or proceedings in court for review of the final |
order or assessment have terminated or the time for the taking |
thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. |
Upon the granting of Department review after a lien has |
attached, the lien shall remain in full force except to the |
extent to which the final assessment may be reduced by a |
revised final assessment following the rehearing or review. |
The lien created by the issuance of a final assessment shall |
terminate, unless a notice of lien is filed, within 3 years |
after the date all proceedings in court for the review of the |
final assessment have terminated or the time for the taking |
|
thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted, |
or (in the case of a revised final assessment issued pursuant |
to a rehearing or review by the Department) within 3 years |
after the date all proceedings in court for the review of such |
revised final assessment have terminated or the time for the |
taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being |
instituted. Where the lien results from the filing of a tax |
return without payment of the tax or penalty shown therein to |
be due, the lien shall terminate, unless a notice of lien is |
filed, within 3 years after the date when the return is filed |
with the Department. |
The time limitation period on the Department's right to |
file a notice of lien shall not run during any period of time |
in which the order of any court has the effect of enjoining or |
restraining the Department from filing such notice of lien. If |
the Department finds that a company or person is about to |
depart from the State, to conceal himself or his property, or |
to do any other act tending to prejudice or to render wholly or |
partly ineffectual proceedings to collect the amount due and |
owing to the Department unless such proceedings are brought |
without delay, or if the Department finds that the collection |
of the amount due from any company or person will be |
jeopardized by delay, the Department shall give the company or |
person notice of such findings and shall make demand for |
immediate return and payment of the amount, whereupon the |
amount shall become immediately due and payable. If the |
|
company or person, within 5 days after the notice (or within |
such extension of time as the Department may grant), does not |
comply with the notice or show to the Department that the |
findings in the notice are erroneous, the Department may file |
a notice of jeopardy assessment lien in the office of the |
recorder of the county in which any property of the company or |
person may be located and shall notify the company or person of |
the filing. The jeopardy assessment lien shall have the same |
scope and effect as the statutory lien provided for in this |
Section. If the company or person believes that the company or |
person does not owe some or all of the tax for which the |
jeopardy assessment lien against the company or person has |
been filed, or that no jeopardy to the revenue in fact exists, |
the company or person may protest within 20 days after being |
notified by the Department of the filing of the jeopardy |
assessment lien and request a hearing, whereupon the |
Department shall hold a hearing in conformity with the |
provisions of this Code and, pursuant thereto, shall notify |
the company or person of its findings as to whether or not the |
jeopardy assessment lien will be released. If not, and if the |
company or person is aggrieved by this decision, the company |
or person may file an action for judicial review of the final |
determination of the Department in accordance with the |
Administrative Review Law. If, pursuant to such hearing (or |
after an independent determination of the facts by the |
Department without a hearing), the Department determines that |
|
some or all of the amount due covered by the jeopardy |
assessment lien is not owed by the company or person, or that |
no jeopardy to the revenue exists, or if on judicial review the |
final judgment of the court is that the company or person does |
not owe some or all of the amount due covered by the jeopardy |
assessment lien against them, or that no jeopardy to the |
revenue exists, the Department shall release its jeopardy |
assessment lien to the extent of such finding of nonliability |
for the amount, or to the extent of such finding of no jeopardy |
to the revenue. The Department shall also release its jeopardy |
assessment lien against the company or person whenever the |
amount due and owing covered by the lien, plus any interest |
which may be due, are paid and the company or person has paid |
the Department in cash or by guaranteed remittance an amount |
representing the filing fee for the lien and the filing fee for |
the release of that lien. The Department shall file that |
release of lien with the recorder of the county where that lien |
was filed. |
Nothing in this Section shall be construed to give the |
Department a preference over the rights of any bona fide |
purchaser, holder of a security interest, mechanics |
lienholder, mortgagee, or judgment lien creditor arising prior |
to the filing of a regular notice of lien or a notice of |
jeopardy assessment lien in the office of the recorder in the |
county in which the property subject to the lien is located. |
For purposes of this Section, "bona fide" shall not include |
|
any mortgage of real or personal property or any other credit |
transaction that results in the mortgagee or the holder of the |
security acting as trustee for unsecured creditors of the |
company or person mentioned in the notice of lien who executed |
such chattel or real property mortgage or the document |
evidencing such credit transaction. The lien shall be inferior |
to the lien of general taxes, special assessments, and special |
taxes levied by any political subdivision of this State. In |
case title to land to be affected by the notice of lien or |
notice of jeopardy assessment lien is registered under the |
provisions of the Registered Titles (Torrens) Act, such notice |
shall be filed in the office of the Registrar of Titles of the |
county within which the property subject to the lien is |
situated and shall be entered upon the register of titles as a |
memorial or charge upon each folium of the register of titles |
affected by such notice, and the Department shall not have a |
preference over the rights of any bona fide purchaser, |
mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lienholder arising |
prior to the registration of such notice. The regular lien or |
jeopardy assessment lien shall not be effective against any |
purchaser with respect to any item in a retailer's stock in |
trade purchased from the retailer in the usual course of the |
retailer's business. |
(Source: P.A. 102-775, eff. 5-13-22.)
|
(215 ILCS 5/500-140)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)
|
Sec. 500-140. Injunctive relief. A person required to be |
licensed under
this Article but failing to
obtain a valid and |
current license under this Article constitutes a public
|
nuisance. The Director
may report the failure to obtain a |
license to the Attorney General, whose duty
it is to apply
|
forthwith by complaint on relation of the Director in the name |
of the people of
the State of
Illinois, for injunctive relief |
in the circuit court of the county where the
failure to obtain |
a license
occurred to enjoin that person from acting in any |
capacity that requires such a license failing to obtain a |
license . Upon the
filing of a verified
petition in the court, |
the court, if satisfied by affidavit or otherwise that
the |
person is required to
have a license and does not
have a valid |
and current license, may enter a temporary restraining
order |
without notice or bond,
enjoining the defendant from acting in |
any capacity that requires such
license. A copy of the |
verified
complaint shall be served upon the defendant, and the
|
proceedings shall thereafter be
conducted as in other civil |
cases. If it is established that the
defendant has been, or is |
engaged
in any unlawful practice, the court may enter an order |
or
judgment perpetually enjoining the
defendant from further |
engaging in such practice. In all
proceedings brought under |
this Section,
the court, in its discretion, may apportion the |
costs
among the parties, including the cost of
filing the |
complaint, service of process, witness fees and
expenses, |
|
court reporter charges, and
reasonable attorney fees. In case |
of the violation of any
injunctive order entered under the |
provisions of this Section,
the court may summarily try and
|
punish the offender for contempt of court. The injunctive |
relief
available
under this Section is in
addition to and not |
in lieu of all other penalties and remedies provided in
this |
Code.
|
(Source: P.A. 92-386, eff. 1-1-02 .)
|
(215 ILCS 5/1204) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.904)
|
(Text of Section WITHOUT the changes made by P.A. 94-677, |
which has been held
unconstitutional) |
Sec. 1204. (A) The Director shall promulgate rules and |
regulations
which shall require each insurer licensed to write |
property or casualty
insurance in the State and each syndicate |
doing business on the Illinois
Insurance Exchange to record |
and report its loss and expense experience
and other data as |
may be necessary to assess the relationship of
insurance |
premiums and related income as compared to insurance costs and
|
expenses. The Director may designate one or more rate service
|
organizations or advisory organizations to gather and compile |
such
experience and data. The Director shall require each |
insurer licensed to
write property or casualty insurance in |
this State and each syndicate doing
business on the Illinois |
Insurance Exchange to submit a report, on
a form furnished by |
the Director, showing its direct writings in this
State and |
|
companywide.
|
(B) Such report required by subsection (A) of this Section |
may include,
but not be limited to, the following specific |
types of insurance written by
such insurer:
|
(1) Political subdivision liability insurance reported |
separately in the
following categories:
|
(a) municipalities;
|
(b) school districts;
|
(c) other political subdivisions;
|
(2) Public official liability insurance;
|
(3) Dram shop liability insurance;
|
(4) Day care center liability insurance;
|
(5) Labor, fraternal or religious organizations |
liability insurance;
|
(6) Errors and omissions liability insurance;
|
(7) Officers and directors liability insurance |
reported separately as
follows:
|
(a) non-profit entities;
|
(b) for-profit entities;
|
(8) Products liability insurance;
|
(9) Medical malpractice insurance;
|
(10) Attorney malpractice insurance;
|
(11) Architects and engineers malpractice insurance; |
and
|
(12) Motor vehicle insurance reported separately for |
commercial and
private passenger vehicles as follows:
|
|
(a) motor vehicle physical damage insurance;
|
(b) motor vehicle liability insurance.
|
(C) Such report may include, but need not be limited to the |
following data,
both
specific to this State and companywide, |
in the aggregate or by type of
insurance for the previous year |
on a calendar year basis:
|
(1) Direct premiums written;
|
(2) Direct premiums earned;
|
(3) Number of policies;
|
(4) Net investment income, using appropriate estimates |
where necessary;
|
(5) Losses paid;
|
(6) Losses incurred;
|
(7) Loss reserves:
|
(a) Losses unpaid on reported claims;
|
(b) Losses unpaid on incurred but not reported |
claims;
|
(8) Number of claims:
|
(a) Paid claims;
|
(b) Arising claims;
|
(9) Loss adjustment expenses:
|
(a) Allocated loss adjustment expenses;
|
(b) Unallocated loss adjustment expenses;
|
(10) Net underwriting gain or loss;
|
(11) Net operation gain or loss, including net |
investment income;
|
|
(12) Any other information requested by the Director.
|
(C-3) Additional information by an advisory organization |
as defined in Section 463 of this Code. |
(1) An advisory organization as defined in Section 463 |
of this Code shall report annually the following |
information in such format as may be prescribed by the |
Secretary: |
(a) paid and incurred losses for each of the past |
10 years; |
(b) medical payments and medical charges, if |
collected, for each of the past 10 years; |
(c) the following indemnity payment information:
|
cumulative payments by accident year by calendar year |
of
development. This array will show payments made and |
frequency of claims in the following categories: |
medical only, permanent partial disability (PPD), |
permanent total
disability (PTD), temporary total |
disability (TTD), and fatalities; |
(d) injuries by frequency and severity; |
(e) by class of employee. |
(2) The report filed with the Secretary of Financial |
and Professional Regulation under paragraph (1) of this
|
subsection (C-3) shall be made available, on an aggregate |
basis, to the General
Assembly and to the general public. |
The identity of the petitioner, the respondent, the |
attorneys, and the insurers shall not be disclosed.
|
|
(3) Reports required under this
subsection (C-3) shall |
be filed with the Secretary no later than September 1 in |
2006 and no later than September 1 of each year |
thereafter.
|
(D) In addition to the information which may be requested |
under
subsection (C), the Director may also request on a |
companywide, aggregate
basis, Federal Income Tax recoverable, |
net realized capital gain or loss,
net unrealized capital gain |
or loss, and all other expenses not requested
in subsection |
(C) above.
|
(E) Violations - Suspensions - Revocations.
|
(1) Any company or person
subject to this Article, who |
willfully or repeatedly fails to observe or who
otherwise |
violates any of the provisions of this Article or any rule |
or
regulation promulgated by the Director under authority |
of this Article or any
final order of the Director entered |
under the authority of this Article shall
by civil penalty |
forfeit to the State of Illinois a sum not to exceed
|
$2,000. Each day during which a violation occurs |
constitutes a
separate
offense.
|
(2) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of |
this subsection may
attach unless a written notice of |
apparent liability has been issued by the
Director and |
received by the respondent, or the Director sends written
|
notice of apparent liability by registered or certified |
mail, return
receipt requested, to the last known address |
|
of the respondent. Any
respondent so notified must be |
granted an opportunity to request a hearing
within 10 days |
from receipt of notice, or to show in writing, why he |
should
not be held liable. A notice issued under this |
Section must set forth the
date, facts and nature of the |
act or omission with which the respondent is
charged and |
must specifically identify the particular provision of |
this
Article, rule, regulation or order of which a |
violation is charged.
|
(3) No forfeiture liability under paragraph (1) of |
this subsection may
attach for any violation occurring |
more than 2 years prior to the date of
issuance of the |
notice of apparent liability and in no event may the total
|
civil penalty forfeiture imposed for the acts or omissions |
set forth in any
one notice of apparent liability exceed |
$100,000.
|
(4) All administrative hearings conducted pursuant to |
this Article are
subject to 50 Ill. Adm. Code 2402 and all |
administrative hearings are
subject to the Administrative |
Review Law.
|
(5) The civil penalty forfeitures provided for in this |
Section are
payable to the General Revenue Fund of the |
State of Illinois, and may be
recovered in a civil suit in |
the name of the State of Illinois brought in
the Circuit |
Court in Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of the |
county
where the respondent is domiciled or has its |
|
principal operating office.
|
(6) In any case where the Director issues a notice of |
apparent liability
looking toward the imposition of a |
civil penalty forfeiture under this
Section that fact may |
not be used in any other proceeding before the
Director to |
the prejudice of the respondent to whom the notice was |
issued,
unless (a) the civil penalty forfeiture has been |
paid, or (b) a court has
ordered payment of the civil |
penalty forfeiture and that order has become
final.
|
(7) When any person or company has a license or |
certificate of authority
under this Code and knowingly |
fails or refuses to comply with a lawful
order of the |
Director requiring compliance with this Article, entered |
after
notice and hearing, within the period of time |
specified in the order, the
Director may, in addition to |
any other penalty or authority
provided, revoke or refuse |
to renew the license or certificate of authority
of such |
person
or company, or may suspend the license or |
certificate of authority
of such
person or company until |
compliance with such order has been obtained.
|
(8) When any person or company has a license or |
certificate of authority
under this Code and knowingly |
fails or refuses to comply with any
provisions of this |
Article, the Director may, after notice and hearing, in
|
addition to any other penalty provided, revoke or refuse |
to renew the
license or certificate of authority of such |
|
person or company, or may
suspend the license or |
certificate of authority of such person or company,
until |
compliance with such provision of this Article has been |
obtained.
|
(9) No suspension or revocation under this Section may |
become effective
until 5 days from the date that the |
notice of suspension or revocation has
been personally |
delivered or delivered by registered or certified mail to
|
the company or person. A suspension or revocation under |
this Section is
stayed upon the filing, by the company or |
person, of a petition for
judicial review under the |
Administrative Review Law.
|
(Source: P.A. 94-277, eff. 7-20-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.) |
(215 ILCS 5/155.18a rep.) |
Section 15. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
repealing Section 155.18a. |
Section 20. The Small Employer Health Insurance Rating Act |
is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 93/15)
|
Sec. 15. Applicability and scope. |
(a) This Act shall apply to each
health benefit plan for a |
small employer that is delivered, issued for
delivery, |
renewed, or continued in this State after July 1, 2000. For
|
|
purposes of this Section, the date a plan is continued shall be |
the first
rating period which commences after July 1, 2000. |
The Act shall apply to
any such health benefit plan which |
provides coverage to employees of a small
employer, except |
that the Act shall not apply to individual health insurance
|
policies. |
(b) This Act shall not apply to any health benefit plan for |
a small employer that is delivered, issued, renewed, or |
continued in this State on or after January 1, 2022. However, |
if 42 U.S.C. 18032(c)(2) or any successor law is repealed, |
then this Act shall apply to each health benefit plan for a |
small employer that is delivered, issued, renewed, or |
continued in this State on or after the date that law ceases to |
apply to such plans.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-510, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01.)
|
Section 22. The Dental Service Plan Act is amended by |
changing Section 25 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 110/25) (from Ch. 32, par. 690.25)
|
Sec. 25. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Dental |
service
plan corporations and all persons interested therein |
or dealing therewith
shall be subject to the provisions of |
Articles IIA, XI, and XII 1/2
and
Sections 3.1,
133, 136, 139, |
140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.49, 355.2, 355.3, 367.2, 401, 401.1, |
402, 403, 403A, 408,
408.2, and 412, and subsection (15) of |
|
Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance
Code.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-151, eff. 7-28-15.)
|
Section 25. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is |
amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)
|
Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.
|
(a) Health Maintenance Organizations
shall be subject to |
the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, |
141.1,
141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151,
152, 153, |
154, 154.5, 154.6,
154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 155.49, |
355.2, 355.3, 355b, 355c, 356f, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356v, |
356w, 356x, 356y,
356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, |
356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, |
356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.20, 356z.21, |
356z.22, 356z.23, 356z.24, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.28, 356z.29, |
356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.31, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, |
356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.37, 356z.38, 356z.39, 356z.40, 356z.41, |
356z.44, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.49, 356z.50, |
356z.51, 356z.53 256z.53 , 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, |
356z.58, 356z.59, 356z.60, 364, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 367.2-5, |
367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c,
370c.1, 401, 401.1, |
402, 403, 403A,
408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444,
and
444.1,
|
paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles |
IIA, VIII 1/2,
XII,
XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and |
|
XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.
|
(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except |
for Sections 444
and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, |
Health Maintenance Organizations in
the following categories |
are deemed to be "domestic companies":
|
(1) a corporation authorized under the
Dental Service |
Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;
|
(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this |
State; or
|
(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another |
state, 30% or more
of the enrollees of which are residents |
of this State, except a
corporation subject to |
substantially the same requirements in its state of
|
organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII |
1/2 of the
Illinois Insurance Code.
|
(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other |
acquisition of
control of a Health Maintenance Organization |
pursuant to Article VIII 1/2
of the Illinois Insurance Code,
|
(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to |
the continuation of
benefits to enrollees and the |
financial conditions of the acquired Health
Maintenance |
Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other
|
acquisition of control takes effect;
|
(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of |
Section 131.8 of
the Illinois Insurance Code shall not |
apply and (ii) the Director, in making
his determination |
|
with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other
|
acquisition of control, need not take into account the |
effect on
competition of the merger, consolidation, or |
other acquisition of control;
|
(3) the Director shall have the power to require the |
following
information:
|
(A) certification by an independent actuary of the |
adequacy
of the reserves of the Health Maintenance |
Organization sought to be acquired;
|
(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the |
combined balance
sheets of the acquiring company and |
the Health Maintenance Organization sought
to be |
acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of |
a date 90 days
prior to the acquisition, as well as pro |
forma financial statements
reflecting projected |
combined operation for a period of 2 years;
|
(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an |
acquiring party's plans with
respect to the operation |
of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to
be |
acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and
|
(D) such other information as the Director shall |
require.
|
(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois |
Insurance Code
and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by |
any health maintenance
organization of greater than 10% of its
|
enrollee population (including without limitation the health |
|
maintenance
organization's right, title, and interest in and |
to its health care
certificates).
|
(e) In considering any management contract or service |
agreement subject
to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance |
Code, the Director (i) shall, in
addition to the criteria |
specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois
Insurance Code, |
take into account the effect of the management contract or
|
service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees |
and the
financial condition of the health maintenance |
organization to be managed or
serviced, and (ii) need not take |
into account the effect of the management
contract or service |
agreement on competition.
|
(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the |
Small Employer
Rating, Renewability and Portability Health |
Insurance Act and except for
medicare supplement policies as |
defined in Section 363 of the Illinois
Insurance Code, a |
Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a
|
group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge |
additional premiums
under the following terms and conditions:
|
(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with |
respect to, the
refund or additional premium are set forth |
in the group or enrollment unit
contract agreed in advance |
of the period for which a refund is to be paid or
|
additional premium is to be charged (which period shall |
not be less than one
year); and
|
(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium |
|
shall not exceed 20%
of the Health Maintenance |
Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience
with |
respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the |
period (and, for
purposes of a refund or additional |
premium, the profitable or unprofitable
experience shall |
be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the
|
Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and |
marketing expenses, but
shall not include any refund to be |
made or additional premium to be paid
pursuant to this |
subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and |
the
group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable |
or unprofitable
experience may be calculated taking into |
account the refund period and the
immediately preceding 2 |
plan years.
|
The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a |
statement in the
evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee |
describing the possibility of a
refund or additional premium, |
and upon request of any group or enrollment unit,
provide to |
the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used |
to
calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's |
profitable experience with
respect to the group or enrollment |
unit and the resulting refund to the group
or enrollment unit |
or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable
|
experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and |
the resulting
additional premium to be paid by the group or |
enrollment unit.
|
|
In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance |
Organization
Guaranty Association be liable to pay any |
contractual obligation of an
insolvent organization to pay any |
refund authorized under this Section.
|
(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, |
if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in |
accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint |
Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so |
adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; |
101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-371, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. |
1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, |
eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; |
102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. |
1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, |
eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; |
102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. |
1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, |
eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; revised 1-22-23.) |
Section 27. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is |
amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)
|
Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited |
|
health service
organizations shall be subject to the |
provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139,
140, 141.1, |
141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, |
154.5,
154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 155.49, 355.2, |
355.3, 355b, 356q, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, |
356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.41, |
356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.57, 356z.59, |
364.3, 368a, 401, 401.1,
402,
403, 403A, 408,
408.2, 409, 412, |
444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2,
XIII,
|
XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For |
purposes of the
Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections |
444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII
and XIII 1/2, limited health |
service organizations in the following categories
are deemed |
to be domestic companies:
|
(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or
|
(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another |
state, 30% or more
of the enrollees of which are residents |
of this State, except a corporation
subject to |
substantially the same requirements in its state of |
organization as
is a domestic company under Article VIII |
1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; |
101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. |
1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, |
eff. 1-1-22; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; |
102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. |
|
1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-22.) |
Section 30. The Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act |
is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
(215 ILCS 134/10)
|
Sec. 10. Definitions.
|
"Adverse determination" means a determination by a health |
care plan under
Section 45 or by a utilization review program |
under Section
85 that
a health care service is not medically |
necessary.
|
"Clinical peer" means a health care professional who is in |
the same
profession and the same or similar specialty as the |
health care provider who
typically manages the medical |
condition, procedures, or treatment under
review.
|
"Department" means the Department of Insurance.
|
"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition |
manifesting itself by
acute symptoms of sufficient severity, |
regardless of the final diagnosis given, such that a prudent
|
layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and |
medicine, could
reasonably expect the absence of immediate |
medical attention to result in:
|
(1) placing the health of the individual (or, with |
respect to a pregnant
woman, the
health of the woman or her |
unborn child) in serious jeopardy;
|
(2) serious
impairment to bodily functions;
|
|
(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ
or part;
|
(4) inadequately controlled pain; or |
(5) with respect to a pregnant woman who is having |
contractions: |
(A) inadequate time to complete a safe transfer to |
another hospital before delivery; or |
(B) a transfer to another hospital may pose a |
threat to the health or safety of the woman or unborn |
child. |
"Emergency medical screening examination" means a medical |
screening
examination and
evaluation by a physician licensed |
to practice medicine in all its branches, or
to the extent |
permitted
by applicable laws, by other appropriately licensed |
personnel under the
supervision of or in
collaboration with a |
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches to |
determine whether
the need for emergency services exists.
|
"Emergency services" means, with respect to an enrollee of |
a health care
plan,
transportation services, including but not |
limited to ambulance services, and
covered inpatient and |
outpatient hospital services
furnished by a provider
qualified |
to furnish those services that are needed to evaluate or |
stabilize an
emergency medical condition. "Emergency services" |
does not
refer to post-stabilization medical services.
|
"Enrollee" means any person and his or her dependents |
enrolled in or covered
by a health care plan.
|
"Health care plan" means a plan, including, but not |
|
limited to, a health maintenance organization, a managed care |
community network as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code, |
or an accountable care entity as defined in the Illinois |
Public Aid Code that receives capitated payments to cover |
medical services from the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services, that establishes, operates, or maintains a
network |
of health care providers that has entered into an agreement |
with the
plan to provide health care services to enrollees to |
whom the plan has the
ultimate obligation to arrange for the |
provision of or payment for services
through organizational |
arrangements for ongoing quality assurance,
utilization review |
programs, or dispute resolution.
Nothing in this definition |
shall be construed to mean that an independent
practice |
association or a physician hospital organization that |
subcontracts
with
a health care plan is, for purposes of that |
subcontract, a health care plan.
|
For purposes of this definition, "health care plan" shall |
not include the
following:
|
(1) indemnity health insurance policies including |
those using a contracted
provider network;
|
(2) health care plans that offer only dental or only |
vision coverage;
|
(3) preferred provider administrators, as defined in |
Section 370g(g) of
the
Illinois Insurance Code;
|
(4) employee or employer self-insured health benefit |
plans under the
federal Employee Retirement Income |
|
Security Act of 1974;
|
(5) health care provided pursuant to the Workers' |
Compensation Act or the
Workers' Occupational Diseases |
Act; and
|
(6) except with respect to subsections (a) and (b) of |
Section 65 and subsection (a-5) of Section 70, |
not-for-profit voluntary health services plans with health |
maintenance
organization
authority in existence as of |
January 1, 1999 that are affiliated with a union
and that
|
only extend coverage to union members and their |
dependents.
|
"Health care professional" means a physician, a registered |
professional
nurse,
or other individual appropriately licensed |
or registered
to provide health care services.
|
"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital |
facility, facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, |
long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the |
Nursing Home Care Act, or other
person that is licensed or |
otherwise authorized to deliver health care
services. Nothing |
in this
Act shall be construed to define Independent Practice |
Associations or
Physician-Hospital Organizations as health |
care providers.
|
"Health care services" means any services included in the |
furnishing to any
individual of medical care, or the
|
hospitalization incident to the furnishing of such care, as |
well as the
furnishing to any person of
any and all other |
|
services for the purpose of preventing,
alleviating, curing, |
or healing human illness or injury including behavioral |
health, mental health, home health,
and pharmaceutical |
services and products.
|
"Medical director" means a physician licensed in any state |
to practice
medicine in all its
branches appointed by a health |
care plan.
|
"Person" means a corporation, association, partnership,
|
limited liability company, sole proprietorship, or any other |
legal entity.
|
"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical
|
Practice Act of 1987.
|
"Post-stabilization medical services" means health care |
services
provided to an enrollee that are furnished in a |
licensed hospital by a provider
that is qualified to furnish |
such services, and determined to be medically
necessary and |
directly related to the emergency medical condition following
|
stabilization.
|
"Stabilization" means, with respect to an emergency |
medical condition, to
provide such medical treatment of the |
condition as may be necessary to assure,
within reasonable |
medical probability, that no material deterioration
of the |
condition is likely to result.
|
"Utilization review" means the evaluation of the medical |
necessity,
appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of |
health care services, procedures,
and facilities.
|