Public Act 0328 96TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB1549 Enrolled LRB096 03048 NHT 13063 b

Public Act 096-0328

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2009 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 95-703 through 95-1003 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of these combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.28 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.28)

Sec. 4.28. Acts repealed on January 1, 2018. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2018:

The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act.

The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Acupuncture Practice Act.

The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act.

The Interpreter for the Deaf Licensure Act of 2007.

The Nurse Practice Act.

The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

The Pharmacy Practice Act.

The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act.

The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act.

The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-187, eff. 8-16-07; 95-235, eff. 8-17-07; 95-450, eff. 8-27-07; 95-465, eff. 8-27-07; 95-617, eff. 9-12-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 9-25-08.)

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 10-65 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/10-65) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-65)

Sec. 10-65. Licenses.

(a) When any licensing is required by law to be preceded by notice and an opportunity for a hearing, the provisions of this Act concerning contested cases shall apply.

(b) When a licensee has made timely and sufficient application for the renewal of a license or a new license with reference to any activity of a continuing nature, the existing license shall continue in full force and effect until the final agency decision on the application has been made unless a later date is fixed by order of a reviewing court.

(c) Except as provided in Section 1-17 1-27 of the Department of Natural Resources Act, an application for the renewal of a license or a new license shall include the applicant's social security number. Each agency shall require the licensee to certify on the application form, under penalty of perjury, that he or she is not more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order. Every application shall state that failure to so certify shall result in disciplinary action, and that making a false statement may subject the licensee to contempt of court. The agency shall notify each applicant or licensee who acknowledges a delinquency or who, contrary to his or her certification, is found to be delinquent or who after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or a child support proceeding, that the agency intends to take disciplinary action. Accordingly, the agency shall provide written notice of the facts or conduct upon which the agency will rely to support its proposed action and the applicant or licensee shall be given an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with the provisions of the Act concerning contested cases. Any delinquency in complying with a child support order can be remedied by arranging for payment of past due and current support. Any failure to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding can be remedied by complying with the subpoena or warrant. Upon a final finding of delinquency or failure to comply with a subpoena or warrant, the agency shall suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license. In cases in which the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that an applicant or a licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the licensing agency, and in cases in which a court has previously determined that an applicant or licensee has been in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days, the licensing agency shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's license based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the certification of violation made by the court. Further process, hearings, or redetermination of the delinquency or violation by the licensing agency shall not be required. The licensing agency may issue or renew a license if the licensee has arranged for payment of past and current child support obligations in a manner satisfactory to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the court. The licensing agency may impose conditions, restrictions, or disciplinary action upon that license.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (c), no agency shall revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, amend materially, or refuse to renew any valid license without first giving written notice to the licensee of the facts or conduct upon which the agency will rely to support its proposed action and an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with the provisions of this Act concerning contested cases. At the hearing, the licensee shall have the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for the retention, continuation, or renewal of the license. If, however, the agency finds that the public interest, safety, or welfare imperatively requires emergency action, and if the agency incorporates a finding to that effect in its order, summary suspension of a license may be ordered pending proceedings for revocation or other action. Those proceedings shall be promptly instituted and determined.

(e) Any application for renewal of a license that contains required and relevant information, data, material, or circumstances that were not contained in an application for the existing license shall be subject to the provisions of subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 94-40, eff. 1-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-988)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) The following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations adopted under federal or State law.

(b) Information that, if disclosed, would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy. Information exempted under this subsection (b) shall include but is not limited to:

(i) files and personal information maintained with respect to clients, patients, residents, students or other individuals receiving social, medical, educational, vocational, financial, supervisory or custodial care or services directly or indirectly from federal agencies or public bodies;

(ii) personnel files and personal information maintained with respect to employees, appointees or elected officials of any public body or applicants for those positions;

(iii) files and personal information maintained with respect to any applicant, registrant or licensee by any public body cooperating with or engaged in professional or occupational registration, licensure or discipline;

(iv) information required of any taxpayer in connection with the assessment or collection of any tax unless disclosure is otherwise required by State statute;

(v) information revealing the identity of persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement or penal agencies; provided, however, that identification of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports may be provided by agencies of local government, except in a case for which a criminal investigation is ongoing, without constituting a clearly unwarranted per se invasion of personal privacy under this subsection; and

(vi) the names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in park district, forest preserve district, and conservation district programs.

(c) Records compiled by any public body for administrative enforcement proceedings and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes or for internal matters of a public body, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency;

(ii) interfere with pending administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by any public body;

(iii) deprive a person of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source or confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct;

(vi) constitute an invasion of personal privacy under subsection (b) of this Section;

(vii) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(viii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation.

(d) Criminal history record information maintained by State or local criminal justice agencies, except the following which shall be open for public inspection and copying:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

"Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or information are proprietary, privileged or confidential, or where disclosure of the trade secrets or information may cause competitive harm, including:

(i) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(ii) All trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) Test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination or determined the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security, including but not limited to water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings.

(l) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials.

(m) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(n) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(o) Information received by a primary or secondary school, college or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers.

(p) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(q) Documents or materials relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(r) Drafts, notes, recommendations and memoranda pertaining to the financing and marketing transactions of the public body. The records of ownership, registration, transfer, and exchange of municipal debt obligations, and of persons to whom payment with respect to these obligations is made.

(s) The records, documents and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(t) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool.

(u) Information concerning a university's adjudication of student or employee grievance or disciplinary cases, to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of the student or employee and information concerning any public body's adjudication of student or employee grievances or disciplinary cases, except for the final outcome of the cases.

(v) Course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(w) Information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of a public body.

(x) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(y) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(z) Manuals or instruction to staff that relate to establishment or collection of liability for any State tax or that relate to investigations by a public body to determine violation of any criminal law.

(aa) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(bb) Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(cc) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(dd) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(ee) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(ff) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(gg) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(hh) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(ii) Beginning July 1, 1999, information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(jj) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(kk) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(ll) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(mm) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(nn) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(oo) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(pp) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(qq) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (qq) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(rr) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(ss) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(2) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-508, eff. 1-1-06; 94-664, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; 94-953, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-941, eff. 8-29-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-988)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) The following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations adopted under federal or State law.

(b) Information that, if disclosed, would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy. Information exempted under this subsection (b) shall include but is not limited to:

(i) files and personal information maintained with respect to clients, patients, residents, students or other individuals receiving social, medical, educational, vocational, financial, supervisory or custodial care or services directly or indirectly from federal agencies or public bodies;

(ii) personnel files and personal information maintained with respect to employees, appointees or elected officials of any public body or applicants for those positions;

(iii) files and personal information maintained with respect to any applicant, registrant or licensee by any public body cooperating with or engaged in professional or occupational registration, licensure or discipline;

(iv) information required of any taxpayer in connection with the assessment or collection of any tax unless disclosure is otherwise required by State statute;

(v) information revealing the identity of persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement or penal agencies; provided, however, that identification of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports may be provided by agencies of local government, except in a case for which a criminal investigation is ongoing, without constituting a clearly unwarranted per se invasion of personal privacy under this subsection;

(vi) the names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in park district, forest preserve district, and conservation district programs; and

(vii) the Notarial Record or other medium containing the thumbprint or fingerprint required by Section 3-102(c)(6) of the Illinois Notary Public Act.

(c) Records compiled by any public body for administrative enforcement proceedings and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes or for internal matters of a public body, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency;

(ii) interfere with pending administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by any public body;

(iii) deprive a person of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source or confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct;

(vi) constitute an invasion of personal privacy under subsection (b) of this Section;

(vii) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(viii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation.

(d) Criminal history record information maintained by State or local criminal justice agencies, except the following which shall be open for public inspection and copying:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

"Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individuals are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or information are proprietary, privileged or confidential, or where disclosure of the trade secrets or information may cause competitive harm, including:

(i) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(ii) All trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) Test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination or determined the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security, including but not limited to water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings.

(l) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials.

(m) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(n) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(o) Information received by a primary or secondary school, college or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers.

(p) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(q) Documents or materials relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(r) Drafts, notes, recommendations and memoranda pertaining to the financing and marketing transactions of the public body. The records of ownership, registration, transfer, and exchange of municipal debt obligations, and of persons to whom payment with respect to these obligations is made.

(s) The records, documents and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(t) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool.

(u) Information concerning a university's adjudication of student or employee grievance or disciplinary cases, to the extent that disclosure would reveal the identity of the student or employee and information concerning any public body's adjudication of student or employee grievances or disciplinary cases, except for the final outcome of the cases.

(v) Course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(w) Information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of a public body.

(x) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(y) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(z) Manuals or instruction to staff that relate to establishment or collection of liability for any State tax or that relate to investigations by a public body to determine violation of any criminal law.

(aa) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(bb) Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(cc) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(dd) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(ee) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(ff) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(gg) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(hh) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(ii) Beginning July 1, 1999, information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(jj) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(kk) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(ll) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(mm) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(nn) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(oo) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(pp) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(qq) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (qq) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(rr) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(ss) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(2) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-508, eff. 1-1-06; 94-664, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06; 94-953, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-941, eff. 8-29-08; 95-988, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-20-08.)

Section 20. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Section 155.37 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, and 356z.12, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Section 155.37 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

Section 25. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 13-4 and 14-1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/13-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 13-4)

Sec. 13-4. Qualifications.

(a) All persons elected or chosen judge of election must: (1) be citizens of the United States and entitled to vote at the next election, except as provided in subsection (b) or (c); (2) be of good repute and character and not subject to the registration requirement of the Sex Offender Registration Act; (3) be able to speak, read and write the English language; (4) be skilled in the four fundamental rules of arithmetic; (5) be of good understanding and capable; (6) not be candidates for any office at the election and not be elected committeemen; and (7) reside in the precinct in which they are selected to act, except that in each precinct, not more than one judge of each party may be appointed from outside such precinct. Any judge selected to serve in any precinct in which he is not entitled to vote must reside within and be entitled to vote elsewhere within the county which encompasses the precinct in which such judge is appointed, except as provided in subsection (b) or (c). Such judge must meet the other qualifications of this Section.

(b) An election authority may establish a program to permit a person who is not entitled to vote to be appointed as an election judge if, as of the date of the election at which the person serves as a judge, he or she:

(1) is a U.S. citizen;

(2) is a junior or senior in good standing enrolled in a public or private secondary school;

(3) has a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale;

(4) has the written approval of the principal of the secondary school he or she attends at the time of appointment;

(5) has the written approval of his or her parent or legal guardian;

(6) has satisfactorily completed the training course for judges of election described in Sections 13-2.1 and 13-2.2; and

(7) meets all other qualifications for appointment and service as an election judge.

No more than one election judge qualifying under this subsection may serve per political party per precinct. Prior to appointment, a judge qualifying under this subsection must certify in writing to the election authority the political party the judge chooses to affiliate with.

Students appointed as election judges under this subsection shall not be counted as absent from school on the day they serve as judges.

(c) An election authority may establish a program to permit a person who is not entitled to vote in that precinct or county to be appointed as an election judge if, as of the date of the election at which the person serves as a judge, he or she:

(1) is a U.S. citizen;

(2) is currently enrolled in a community college, as defined in the Public Community College Act, or a public or private Illinois university or college;

(3) has a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale;

(4) has satisfactorily completed the training course for judges of election described in Sections 13-2.1 and 13-2.2; and

(5) meets all other qualifications for appointment and service as an election judge.

No more than one election judge qualifying under this subsection may serve per political party per precinct. Prior to appointment, a judge qualifying under this subsection must certify in writing to the election authority the political party the judge chooses to affiliate with.

Students appointed as election judges under this subsection shall not be counted as absent from school on the day they serve as judges.

(Source: P.A. 95-699, eff. 11-9-07; 95-818, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(10 ILCS 5/14-1) (from Ch. 46, par. 14-1)

Sec. 14-1. (a) The board of election commissioners established or existing under Article 6 shall, at the time and in the manner provided in Section 14-3.1, select and choose 5 persons, men or women, as judges of election for each precinct in such city, village or incorporated town.

Where neither voting machines nor electronic, mechanical or electric voting systems are used, the board of election commissioners may, for any precinct with respect to which the board considers such action necessary or desirable in view of the number of voters, and shall for general elections for any precinct containing more than 600 registered voters, appoint in addition to the 5 judges of election a team of 5 tally judges. In such precincts the judges of election shall preside over the election during the hours the polls are open, and the tally judges, with the assistance of the holdover judges designated pursuant to Section 14-5.2, shall count the vote after the closing of the polls. The tally judges shall possess the same qualifications and shall be appointed in the same manner and with the same division between political parties as is provided for judges of election. The foregoing provisions relating to the appointment of tally judges are inapplicable in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or more.

(b) To qualify as judges the persons must:

(1) be citizens of the United States;

(2) be of good repute and character and not subject to the registration requirement of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) be able to speak, read and write the English language;

(4) be skilled in the 4 fundamental rules of arithmetic;

(5) be of good understanding and capable;

(6) not be candidates for any office at the election and not be elected committeemen;

(7) reside and be entitled to vote in the precinct in which they are selected to serve, except that in each precinct not more than one judge of each party may be appointed from outside such precinct. Any judge so appointed to serve in any precinct in which he is not entitled to vote must be entitled to vote elsewhere within the county which encompasses the precinct in which such judge is appointed and such judge must otherwise meet the qualifications of this Section, except as provided in subsection (c) or (c-5).

(c) An election authority may establish a program to permit a person who is not entitled to vote to be appointed as an election judge if, as of the date of the election at which the person serves as a judge, he or she:

(1) is a U.S. citizen;

(2) is a junior or senior in good standing enrolled in a public or private secondary school;

(3) has a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale;

(4) has the written approval of the principal of the secondary school he or she attends at the time of appointment;

(5) has the written approval of his or her parent or legal guardian;

(6) has satisfactorily completed the training course for judges of election described in Sections 13-2.1, 13-2.2, and 14-4.1; and

(7) meets all other qualifications for appointment and service as an election judge.

No more than one election judge qualifying under this subsection may serve per political party per precinct. Prior to appointment, a judge qualifying under this subsection must certify in writing to the election authority the political party the judge chooses to affiliate with.

Students appointed as election judges under this subsection shall not be counted as absent from school on the day they serve as judges.

(c-5) An election authority may establish a program to permit a person who is not entitled to vote in that precinct or county to be appointed as an election judge if, as of the date of the election at which the person serves as a judge, he or she:

(1) is a U.S. citizen;

(2) is currently enrolled in a community college, as defined in the Public Community College Act, or a public or private Illinois university or college;

(3) has a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale;

(4) has satisfactorily completed the training course for judges of election described in Sections 13-2.1, 13-2.2, and 14-4.1; and

(5) meets all other qualifications for appointment and service as an election judge.

No more than one election judge qualifying under this subsection may serve per political party per precinct. Prior to appointment, a judge qualifying under this subsection must certify in writing to the election authority the political party the judge chooses to affiliate with.

Students appointed as election judges under this subsection shall not be counted as absent from school on the day they serve as judges.

(d) The board of election commissioners may select 2 additional judges of election, one from each of the major political parties, for each 200 voters in excess of 600 in any precinct having more than 600 voters as authorized by Section 11--3. These additional judges must meet the qualifications prescribed in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-699, eff. 11-9-07; 95-818, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 30. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-14-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph of the applicant. The applicant, upon receipt of a card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall affix his signature thereon in the space provided therefor. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a disabled person as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Disabled Person Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. The applicant, upon receipt of such a card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this determination by his or her supervising physician, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) Beginning January 1, 1986, the Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21, shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Beginning January 1, 2003, each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 95-762, eff. 1-1-09; 95-779, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 35. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 5-15, and 5-20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Articles. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois consists of the following Articles:

Article 1. General Provisions (20 ILCS 5/1-1 and following).

Article 5. Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-1 and following).

Article 50. State Budget Law (15 ILCS 20/).

Article 110. Department on Aging Law (20 ILCS 110/).

Article 205. Department of Agriculture Law (20 ILCS 205/).

Article 250. State Fair Grounds Title Law (5 ILCS 620/).

Article 310. Department of Human Services (Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) Law (20 ILCS 310/).

Article 405. Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/).

Article 510. Department of Children and Family Services Powers Law (20 ILCS 510/).

Article 605. Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law (20 ILCS 605/).

Article 805. Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/).

Article 1005. Department of Employment Security Law (20 ILCS 1005/).

Article 1405. Department of Insurance Law (20 ILCS 1405/).

Article 1505. Department of Labor Law (20 ILCS 1505/).

Article 1710. Department of Human Services (Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) Law (20 ILCS 1710/).

Article 1905. Department of Natural Resources (Mines and Minerals) Law (20 ILCS 1905/).

Article 2005. Department of Nuclear Safety Law (20 ILCS 2005/).

Article 2105. Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/).

Article 2205. Department of Healthcare and Family Services Law (20 ILCS 2205/).

Article 2310. Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law (20 ILCS 2310/).

Article 2505. Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/).

Article 2510. Certified Audit Program Law (20 ILCS 2510/).

Article 2605. Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/).

Article 2705. Department of Transportation Law (20 ILCS 2705/).

Article 3000. University of Illinois Exercise of Functions and Duties Law (110 ILCS 355/).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 11-6-08.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-15) (was 20 ILCS 5/3)

Sec. 5-15. Departments of State government. The Departments of State government are created as follows:

The Department on Aging.

The Department of Agriculture.

The Department of Central Management Services.

The Department of Children and Family Services.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

The Department of Corrections.

The Department of Employment Security.

The Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

The Department of Financial Institutions.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

The Department of Human Rights.

The Department of Human Services.

The Illinois Power Agency.

The Department of Insurance.

The Department of Juvenile Justice.

The Department of Labor.

The Department of the Lottery.

The Department of Natural Resources.

The Department of Professional Regulation.

The Department of Public Health.

The Department of Revenue.

The Department of State Police.

The Department of Transportation.

The Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-777, eff. 8-4-08; revised 10-23-08.)

(20 ILCS 5/5-20) (was 20 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 5-20. Heads of departments. Each department shall have an officer as its head who shall be known as director or secretary and who shall, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, execute the powers and discharge the duties vested by law in his or her respective department.

The following officers are hereby created:

Director of Aging, for the Department on Aging.

Director of Agriculture, for the Department of Agriculture.

Director of Central Management Services, for the Department of Central Management Services.

Director of Children and Family Services, for the Department of Children and Family Services.

Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, for the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

Director of Corrections, for the Department of Corrections.

Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, for the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

Director of Employment Security, for the Department of Employment Security.

Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, for the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Director of Financial Institutions, for the Department of Financial Institutions.

Director of Healthcare and Family Services, for the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Director of Human Rights, for the Department of Human Rights.

Secretary of Human Services, for the Department of Human Services.

Director of the Illinois Power Agency, for the Illinois Power Agency.

Director of Insurance, for the Department of Insurance.

Director of Juvenile Justice, for the Department of Juvenile Justice.

Director of Labor, for the Department of Labor.

Director of the Lottery, for the Department of the Lottery.

Director of Natural Resources, for the Department of Natural Resources.

Director of Professional Regulation, for the Department of Professional Regulation.

Director of Public Health, for the Department of Public Health.

Director of Revenue, for the Department of Revenue.

Director of State Police, for the Department of State Police.

Secretary of Transportation, for the Department of Transportation.

Director of Veterans' Affairs, for the Department of Veterans' Affairs.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-777, eff. 8-4-08; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 40. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Sections 4.03 and 4.04 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.03) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.03)

Sec. 4.03. The Department on Aging, in cooperation with the Department of Human Services and any other appropriate State, local or federal agency, shall, without regard to income guidelines, establish a nursing home prescreening program to determine whether Alzheimer's Disease and related disorders victims, and persons who are deemed as blind or disabled as defined by the Social Security Act and who are in need of long term care, may be satisfactorily cared for in their homes through the use of home and community based services. Responsibility for prescreening shall be vested with case coordination units. Prescreening shall occur: (i) when hospital discharge planners have advised the case coordination unit of the imminent risk of nursing home placement of a patient who meets the above criteria and in advance of discharge of the patient; or (ii) when a case coordination unit has been advised of the imminent risk of nursing home placement of an individual in the community. The individual who is prescreened shall be informed of all appropriate options, including placement in a nursing home and the availability of in-home and community-based services and shall be advised of her or his right to refuse nursing home, in-home, community-based, or all services. Case coordination units under contract with the Department may charge a fee for the prescreening provided under this Section and the fee shall be no greater than the cost of such services to the case coordination unit. At the time of each prescreening, case coordination units shall provide information regarding the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman's Residents Right to Know database as authorized in subsection (c-5) of Section 4.04.

(Source: P.A. 95-80, eff. 8-13-07; 95-823, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.04)

Sec. 4.04. Long Term Care Ombudsman Program.

(a) Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The Department shall establish a Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, through the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman ("the Office"), in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Access" has the same meaning as in Section 1-104 of the Nursing Home Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; that is, it means the right to:

(i) Enter any long term care facility or assisted living or shared housing establishment or supportive living facility;

(ii) Communicate privately and without restriction with any resident, regardless of age, who consents to the communication;

(iii) Seek consent to communicate privately and without restriction with any resident, regardless of age;

(iv) Inspect the clinical and other records of a resident, regardless of age, with the express written consent of the resident;

(v) Observe all areas of the long term care facility or supportive living facilities, assisted living or shared housing establishment except the living area of any resident who protests the observation.

(2) "Long Term Care Facility" means (i) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) any skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility which meets the requirements of Section 1819(a), (b), (c), and (d) or Section 1919(a), (b), (c), and (d) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a), (b), (c), and (d) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r(a), (b), (c), and (d)).

(2.5) "Assisted living establishment" and "shared housing establishment" have the meanings given those terms in Section 10 of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(2.7) "Supportive living facility" means a facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(3) "State Long Term Care Ombudsman" means any person employed by the Department to fulfill the requirements of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman as required under the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, and Departmental policy.

(3.1) "Ombudsman" means any designated representative of a regional long term care ombudsman program; provided that the representative, whether he is paid for or volunteers his ombudsman services, shall be qualified and designated by the Office to perform the duties of an ombudsman as specified by the Department in rules and in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended.

(c) Ombudsman; rules. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall be composed of at least one full-time ombudsman and shall include a system of designated regional long term care ombudsman programs. Each regional program shall be designated by the State Long Term Care Ombudsman as a subdivision of the Office and any representative of a regional program shall be treated as a representative of the Office.

The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall promulgate administrative rules in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, to establish the responsibilities of the Department and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the designated regional Ombudsman programs. The administrative rules shall include the responsibility of the Office and designated regional programs to investigate and resolve complaints made by or on behalf of residents of long term care facilities, supportive living facilities, and assisted living and shared housing establishments, including the option to serve residents under the age of 60, relating to actions, inaction, or decisions of providers, or their representatives, of long term care facilities, of supported living facilities, of assisted living and shared housing establishments, of public agencies, or of social services agencies, which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such residents. The Office and designated regional programs may represent all residents, but are not required by this Act to represent persons under 60 years of age, except to the extent required by federal law. When necessary and appropriate, representatives of the Office shall refer complaints to the appropriate regulatory State agency. The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services and other State agencies in providing information and training to designated regional long term care ombudsman programs about the appropriate assessment and treatment (including information about appropriate supportive services, treatment options, and assessment of rehabilitation potential) of the residents they serve, including children, persons with mental illness (other than Alzheimer's disease and related disorders), and persons with developmental disabilities.

The State Long Term Care Ombudsman and all other ombudsmen, as defined in paragraph (3.1) of subsection (b) must submit to background checks under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and receive training, as prescribed by the Illinois Department on Aging, before visiting facilities. The training must include information specific to assisted living establishments, supportive living facilities, and shared housing establishments and to the rights of residents guaranteed under the corresponding Acts and administrative rules.

(c-5) Consumer Choice Information Reports. The Office shall:

(1) In collaboration with the Attorney General, create a Consumer Choice Information Report form to be completed by all licensed long term care facilities to aid Illinoisans and their families in making informed choices about long term care. The Office shall create a Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility.

(2) Develop a database of Consumer Choice Information Reports completed by licensed long term care facilities that includes information in the following consumer categories:

(A) Medical Care, Services, and Treatment.

(B) Special Services and Amenities.

(C) Staffing.

(D) Facility Statistics and Resident Demographics.

(E) Ownership and Administration.

(F) Safety and Security.

(G) Meals and Nutrition.

(H) Rooms, Furnishings, and Equipment.

(I) Family, Volunteer, and Visitation Provisions.

(3) Make this information accessible to the public, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Resident's Right to Know" on the Office's World Wide Web home page.

(4) Have the authority, with the Attorney General, to verify that information provided by a facility is accurate.

(5) Request a new report from any licensed facility whenever it deems necessary.

(d) Access and visitation rights.

(1) In accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1819 and subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1919 of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 (c)(3)(A) and (E) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r (c)(3)(A) and (E)), and Section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 3058f), a long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment must:

(i) permit immediate access to any resident, regardless of age, by a designated ombudsman; and

(ii) permit representatives of the Office, with the permission of the resident's legal representative or legal guardian, to examine a resident's clinical and other records, regardless of the age of the resident, and if a resident is unable to consent to such review, and has no legal guardian, permit representatives of the Office appropriate access, as defined by the Department, in consultation with the Office, in administrative rules, to the resident's records.

(2) Each long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment shall display, in multiple, conspicuous public places within the facility accessible to both visitors and residents and in an easily readable format, the address and phone number of the Office of the Long Term Care Ombudsman, in a manner prescribed by the Office.

(e) Immunity. An ombudsman or any representative of the Office participating in the good faith performance of his or her official duties shall have immunity from any liability (civil, criminal or otherwise) in any proceedings (civil, criminal or otherwise) brought as a consequence of the performance of his official duties.

(f) Business offenses.

(1) No person shall:

(i) Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any representative of the Office in the performance of his official duties under this Act and the Older Americans Act of 1965; or

(ii) Intentionally retaliate, discriminate against, or effect reprisals against any long term care facility resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any representative of the Office.

(2) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $501.

(3) The Director of Aging, in consultation with the Office, shall notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the long term care facility, supportive living facility, or assisted living or shared housing establishment is located, or the Attorney General, of any violations of this Section.

(g) Confidentiality of records and identities. The Department shall establish procedures for the disclosure by the State Ombudsman or the regional ombudsmen entities of files maintained by the program. The procedures shall provide that the files and records may be disclosed only at the discretion of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman or the person designated by the State Ombudsman to disclose the files and records, and the procedures shall prohibit the disclosure of the identity of any complainant, resident, witness, or employee of a long term care provider unless:

(1) the complainant, resident, witness, or employee of a long term care provider or his or her legal representative consents to the disclosure and the consent is in writing;

(2) the complainant, resident, witness, or employee of a long term care provider gives consent orally; and the consent is documented contemporaneously in writing in accordance with such requirements as the Department shall establish; or

(3) the disclosure is required by court order.

(h) Legal representation. The Attorney General shall provide legal representation to any representative of the Office against whom suit or other legal action is brought in connection with the performance of the representative's official duties, in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(i) Treatment by prayer and spiritual means. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize or require the medical supervision, regulation or control of remedial care or treatment of any resident in a long term care facility operated exclusively by and for members or adherents of any church or religious denomination the tenets and practices of which include reliance solely upon spiritual means through prayer for healing.

(Source: P.A. 95-620, eff. 9-17-07; 95-823, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 45. The Child Death Review Team Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 515/20)

Sec. 20. Reviews of child deaths.

(a) Every child death shall be reviewed by the team in the subregion which has primary case management responsibility. The deceased child must be one of the following:

(1) A ward of the Department.

(2) The subject of an open service case maintained by the Department.

(3) The subject of a pending child abuse or neglect investigation.

(4) A child who was the subject of an abuse or neglect investigation at any time during the 12 months preceding the child's death.

(5) Any other child whose death is reported to the State central register as a result of alleged child abuse or neglect which report is subsequently indicated.

A child death review team may, at its discretion, review other sudden, unexpected, or unexplained child deaths, and cases of serious or fatal injuries to a child identified under the Children's Child Advocacy Center Act.

(b) A child death review team's purpose in conducting reviews of child deaths is to do the following:

(1) Assist in determining the cause and manner of the child's death, when requested.

(2) Evaluate means by which the death might have been prevented.

(3) Report its findings to appropriate agencies and make recommendations that may help to reduce the number of child deaths caused by abuse or neglect.

(4) Promote continuing education for professionals involved in investigating, treating, and preventing child abuse and neglect as a means of preventing child deaths due to abuse or neglect.

(5) Make specific recommendations to the Director and the Inspector General of the Department concerning the prevention of child deaths due to abuse or neglect and the establishment of protocols for investigating child deaths.

(c) A child death review team shall review a child death as soon as practical and not later than 90 days following the completion by the Department of the investigation of the death under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. When there has been no investigation by the Department, the child death review team shall review a child's death within 90 days after obtaining the information necessary to complete the review from the coroner, pathologist, medical examiner, or law enforcement agency, depending on the nature of the case. A child death review team shall meet at least once in each calendar quarter.

(d) The Director shall, within 90 days, review and reply to recommendations made by a team under item (5) of subsection (b). With respect to each recommendation made by a team, the Director shall submit his or her reply both to the chairperson of that team and to the chairperson of the Executive Council. The Director's reply to each recommendation must include a statement as to whether the Director intends to implement the recommendation.

The Director shall implement recommendations as feasible and appropriate and shall respond in writing to explain the implementation or nonimplementation of the recommendations.

(e) Within 90 days after the Director submits a reply with respect to a recommendation as required by subsection (d), the Director must submit an additional report that sets forth in detail the way, if any, in which the Director will implement the recommendation and the schedule for implementing the recommendation. The Director shall submit this report to the chairperson of the team that made the recommendation and to the chairperson of the Executive Council.

(f) Within 180 days after the Director submits a report under subsection (e) concerning the implementation of a recommendation, the Director shall submit a further report to the chairperson of the team that made the recommendation and to the chairperson of the Executive Council. This report shall set forth the specific changes in the Department's policies and procedures that have been made in response to the recommendation.

(Source: P.A. 95-405, eff. 6-1-08; 95-527, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 50. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-76 and 2310-90 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-76)

Sec. 2310-76. Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion Task Force.

(a) In Illinois, as well as in other parts of the United States, chronic diseases are a significant health and economic problem for our citizens and State government. Chronic diseases such as cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and arthritis are largely preventable non-communicable conditions associated with risk factors such as poor nutrition, physical inactivity, tobacco or alcohol abuse, as well as other social determinants of chronic illness. It is fully documented by national and State data that significant disparity exists between racial, ethnic, and socioeconomic groups and that the incidence and impact of many of these conditions disproportionately affect these populations.

Chronic diseases can take away a person's quality of life or his or her ability to work. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports that 7 out of 10 Americans who die each year, or more than 1.7 million people, die of a chronic disease. In Illinois, studies have indicated that during the study period the State has spent more than $12.5 billion in health care dollars to treat chronic diseases in our State. The financial burden for Illinois from the impact of lost work days and lower employee productivity during the same time period related to chronic diseases resulted in an annual economic loss of $43.6 billion. These same studies have concluded that improvements in preventing and managing chronic diseases could drastically reduce future costs associated with chronic disease in Illinois and that the most effective way to trim healthcare spending in Illinois and across the U.S. is to take measures aimed at preventing diseases before we have to treat them. Furthermore, by addressing health disparities and by targeting chronic disease prevention and health promotion services toward the highest risk groups, especially in communities where racial, ethnic, and socioeconomic factors indicate high rates of these diseases, the goals of improving the overall health status for all Illinois residents can be achieved. Health promotion and prevention programs and activities are scattered throughout a number of State agencies with various streams of funding and little coordination. While the State has been looking at making significant changes to healthcare coverage for a portion of the population, in order to have the most effective impact, any changes to the healthcare delivery system in Illinois should take into consideration and integrate the role of prevention and health promotion in that system.

(b) Subject to appropriation, within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, a Task Force on Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion shall be convened to study and make recommendations regarding the structure of the chronic disease prevention and health promotion system in Illinois, as well as changes that should be made to the system in order to integrate and coordinate efforts in the State and ensure continuity and consistency of purpose and the elimination of disparity in the delivery of this care in Illinois.

(c) The Department of Public Health shall have primary responsibility for, and shall provide staffing and technical and administrative support for the Task Force in its efforts. The other State agencies represented on the Task Force shall work cooperatively with the Department of Public Health to provide administrative and technical support to the Task Force in its efforts. Membership of the Task Force shall consist of 18 members as follows: the Director of Public Health, who shall serve as Chair; the Secretary of Human Services or his or her designee; the Director of Aging or his or her designee; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee; 4 members of the General Assembly, one from the State Senate appointed by the President of the Senate, one from the State Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, one from the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House, and one from the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House; and 10 members appointed by the Director of Public Health and who shall be representative of State associations and advocacy organizations with a primary focus that includes chronic disease prevention, public health delivery, medicine, health care and disease management, or community health.

(d) The Task Force shall seek input from interested parties and shall hold a minimum of 3 public hearings across the State, including one in northern Illinois, one in central Illinois, and one in southern Illinois.

(e) On or before July 1, 2010, the Task Force shall, at a minimum, make recommendations to the Director of Public Health on the following: reforming the delivery system for chronic disease prevention and health promotion in Illinois; ensuring adequate funding for infrastructure and delivery of programs; addressing health disparity; and the role of health promotion and chronic disease prevention in support of State spending on health care.

(Source: P.A. 95-900, eff. 8-25-08; revised 9-10-08.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-90) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.09)

Sec. 2310-90. Laboratories; fees; Public Health Laboratory Services Revolving Fund. To maintain physical, chemical, bacteriological, and biological laboratories; to make examinations of milk, water, atmosphere, sewage, wastes, and other substances, and equipment and processes relating thereto; to make diagnostic tests for diseases and tests for the evaluation of health hazards considered necessary for the protection of the people of the State; and to assess a reasonable fee for services provided as established by regulation, under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which shall not exceed the Department's actual costs to provide these services.

Excepting fees collected under the Newborn Metabolic Screening Phenylketonuria Testing Act and the Lead Poisoning Prevention Act, all fees shall be deposited into the Public Health Laboratory Services Revolving Fund. Other State and federal funds related to laboratory services may also be deposited into the Fund, and all interest that accrues on the moneys in the Fund shall be deposited into the Fund.

Moneys shall be appropriated from the Fund solely for the purposes of testing specimens submitted in support of Department programs established for the protection of human health, welfare, and safety, and for testing specimens submitted by physicians and other health care providers, to determine whether chemically hazardous, biologically infectious substances, or other disease causing conditions are present.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 55. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-5)

Sec. 5. Arrest reports; expungement.

(a) All policing bodies of this State shall furnish to the Department, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, fingerprints and descriptions of all persons who are arrested on charges of violating any penal statute of this State for offenses that are classified as felonies and Class A or B misdemeanors and of all minors of the age of 10 and over who have been arrested for an offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, and may forward such fingerprints and descriptions for minors arrested for Class A or B misdemeanors. Moving or nonmoving traffic violations under the Illinois Vehicle Code shall not be reported except for violations of Chapter 4, Section 11-204.1, or Section 11-501 of that Code. In addition, conservation offenses, as defined in the Supreme Court Rule 501(c), that are classified as Class B misdemeanors shall not be reported.

Whenever an adult or minor prosecuted as an adult, not having previously been convicted of any criminal offense or municipal ordinance violation, charged with a violation of a municipal ordinance or a felony or misdemeanor, is acquitted or released without being convicted, whether the acquittal or release occurred before, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, the Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial may upon verified petition of the defendant order the record of arrest expunged from the official records of the arresting authority and the Department and order that the records of the clerk of the circuit court be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the defendant obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal the records, and the fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The records of those arrests, however, that result in a disposition of supervision for any offense shall not be expunged from the records of the arresting authority or the Department nor impounded by the court until 2 years after discharge and dismissal of supervision. Those records that result from a supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Section 12-3.2, 12-15 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act when the judgment of conviction has been vacated, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act when the judgment of conviction has been vacated, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act shall not be expunged from the records of the arresting authority nor impounded by the court until 5 years after termination of probation or supervision. Those records that result from a supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be expunged. All records set out above may be ordered by the court to be expunged from the records of the arresting authority and impounded by the court after 5 years, but shall not be expunged by the Department, but shall, on court order be sealed by the Department and may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual.

(a-5) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(b) Whenever a person has been convicted of a crime or of the violation of a municipal ordinance, in the name of a person whose identity he has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the chief judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the clerk of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used. For purposes of this Section, convictions for moving and nonmoving traffic violations other than convictions for violations of Chapter 4, Section 11-204.1 or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall not be a bar to expunging the record of arrest and court records for violation of a misdemeanor or municipal ordinance.

(c) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, may have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the clerk of the circuit court and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the clerk of the circuit court shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(c-5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the clerk of the circuit court in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the clerk of the circuit court in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(c-6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant was factually innocent of the charge, the court shall enter an expungement order as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) Notice of the petition for subsections (a), (b), and (c) shall be served by the clerk upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government affecting the arrest. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency or such chief legal officer objects to the petition within 30 days from the date of the notice, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition. The clerk of the court shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person, the arresting agency, the prosecutor, the Department of State Police and such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the judge.

(e) Nothing herein shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(f) No court order issued under the expungement provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after notice is received by the Department. Any court order contrary to the provisions of this Section is void.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, the court shall not order the sealing or expungement of the arrest records and records of the circuit court clerk of any person granted supervision for or convicted of any sexual offense committed against a minor under 18 years of age. For the purposes of this Section, "sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(h) (1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Sealable offenses. The following offenses may be sealed:

(A) All municipal ordinance violations and misdemeanors, with the exception of the following:

(i) violations of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) violations of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 as provided in clause B(i) of this subsection (h);

(iii) violations of Section 12-15, 12-30, or 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) violations that are a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(v) Class A misdemeanor violations of the Humane Care for Animals Act; and

(vi) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(B) Misdemeanor and Class 4 felony violations of:

(i) Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(ii) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; and

(iv) Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

However, for purposes of this subsection (h), a sentence of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall be treated as a Class 4 felony conviction.

(3) Requirements for sealing. Records identified as sealable under clause (h) (2) may be sealed when the individual was:

(A) Acquitted of the offense or offenses or released without being convicted.

(B) Convicted of the offense or offenses and the conviction or convictions were reversed.

(C) Placed on misdemeanor supervision for an offense or offenses; and

(i) at least 3 years have elapsed since the completion of the term of supervision, or terms of supervision, if more than one term has been ordered; and

(ii) the individual has not been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor or felony during the period specified in clause (i).

(D) Convicted of an offense or offenses; and

(i) at least 4 years have elapsed since the last such conviction or term of any sentence, probation, parole, or supervision, if any, whichever is last in time; and

(ii) the individual has not been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or placed on supervision for a misdemeanor or felony during the period specified in clause (i).

(4) Requirements for sealing of records when more than one charge and disposition have been filed. When multiple offenses are petitioned to be sealed under this subsection (h), the requirements of the relevant provisions of clauses (h)(3)(A) through (D) each apply. In instances in which more than one waiting period is applicable under clauses (h)(C)(i) and (ii) and (h)(D)(i) and (ii), the longer applicable period applies, and the requirements of clause (h) (3) shall be considered met when the petition is filed after the passage of the longer applicable waiting period. That period commences on the date of the completion of the last sentence or the end of supervision, probation, or parole, whichever is last in time.

(5) Subsequent convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (h) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony records as provided in this subsection (h).

(6) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon acquittal, release without conviction, or being placed on supervision for a sealable offense, or upon conviction of a sealable offense, the person shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(7) Procedure. Upon becoming eligible for the sealing of records under this subsection (h), the person who seeks the sealing of his or her records shall file a petition requesting the sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the charge or charges were brought. The records may be sealed by the Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, if any. If charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(A) Contents of petition. The petition shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, each charge, each case number, the date of each charge, the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the clerk of the court of any change of address.

(B) Drug test. A person filing a petition to have his or her records sealed for a Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or for a Class 4 felony violation of Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within the previous 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances in violation of either the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act.

(C) Service of petition. The clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(D) Entry of order. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency or such chief legal officer objects to sealing of the records within 90 days of notice the court shall enter an order sealing the defendant's records.

(E) Hearing upon objection. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and the parties on whom the petition had been served, and shall hear evidence on whether the sealing of the records should or should not be granted, and shall make a determination on whether to issue an order to seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing.

(F) Service of order. After entering the order to seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(8) Fees. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerk of the Courts Act to the contrary, and subject to the approval of the county board, the clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing of records by the clerk and the Department of State Police. The clerk shall forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund.

(i) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211, in accordance to rules adopted by the Department. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2006.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the Petition to seal or expunge, the clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the Petition to Seal or Expunge on all parties. The clerk shall also charge a filing fee equivalent to the cost of sealing or expunging the record by the Department of State Police. The clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-955, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 60. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.675, 5.676, 5.677, 5.678, 5.701, 5.708, 5.710, and 6z-69 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.675)

Sec. 5.675. The Employee Classification Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-26, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.676)

Sec. 5.676. The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-400, eff. 1-1-09.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.677)

Sec. 5.677. The Sheet Metal Workers International Association of Illinois Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-531, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.678)

Sec. 5.678. The Agriculture in the Classroom Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-94, eff. 8-13-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.701)

Sec. 5.701. Comprehensive Regional Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-677, eff. 10-11-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.703)

Sec. 5.703 5.675. The Human Services Priority Capital Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.704)

Sec. 5.704 5.676. The Predatory Lending Database Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.705)

Sec. 5.705 5.677. The Secretary of State Identification Security and Theft Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.706)

Sec. 5.706 5.678. The Franchise Tax and License Fee Amnesty Administration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.707)

Sec. 5.707 5.675. The Married Families Domestic Violence Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-711, eff. 6-1-08; revised 10-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.708)

Sec. 5.708. The Downstate Transit Improvement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-708, eff. 1-18-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.709)

Sec. 5.709 5.676. The Illinois Affordable Housing Capital Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-710, eff. 6-1-08; revised 10-21-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.710)

Sec. 5.710. The Money Follows the Person Budget Transfer Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-744, eff. 7-18-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.711)

Sec. 5.711 5.710. The Domestic Violence Surveillance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.712)

Sec. 5.712 5.675. The Fire Service and Small Equipment Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-717, eff. 4-8-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.713)

Sec. 5.713 5.675. Healthy Smiles Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-940, eff. 8-29-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.714)

Sec. 5.714 5.708. The Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-787, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.715)

Sec. 5.715 5.708. The Illinois Police Association Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-795, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.716)

Sec. 5.716 5.708. The Electronics Recycling Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-959, eff. 9-17-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.717)

Sec. 5.717 5.701. The Responsible Fathers Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-960, eff. 9-23-08; revised 10-14-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.718)

Sec. 5.718 5.710. The FY09 Budget Relief Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-1000, eff. 10-7-08; revised 10-22-08.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-69)

Sec. 6z-69. Comprehensive Regional Planning Fund.

(a) As soon as possible after July 1, 2007, and on each July 1 thereafter, the State Treasurer shall transfer $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Comprehensive Regional Planning Fund.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Illinois Department of Transportation shall make lump sum distributions from the Comprehensive Regional Planning Fund as soon as possible after each July 1 to the recipients and in the amounts specified in subsection (c). The recipients must use the moneys for comprehensive regional planning purposes.

(c) Each year's distribution under subsection (b) shall be as follows: (i) 70% to the Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning (CMAP); (ii) 25% to the State's other Metropolitan Planning Organizations (exclusive of CMAP), each Organization receiving a percentage equal to the percent its area population represents to the total population of the areas of all the State's Metropolitan Planning Organizations (exclusive of CMAP); and (iii) 5% to the State's Rural Planning Agencies, each Agency receiving a percentage equal to the percent its area population represents to the total population of the areas of all the State's Rural Planning Agencies.

(Source: P.A. 95-677, eff. 10-11-07.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-72)

Sec. 6z-72 6z-69. Married Families Domestic Violence Fund. The Married Families Domestic Violence Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation and subject to approval by the Attorney General, the moneys in the Fund shall be paid as grants to public or private nonprofit agencies solely for the purposes of facilitating or providing free domestic violence legal advocacy, assistance, or services to married or formerly married victims of domestic violence related to order of protection proceedings, dissolution of marriage proceedings, declaration of invalidity of marriage proceedings, legal separation proceedings, child custody proceedings, visitation proceedings, or other proceedings for civil remedies for domestic violence. The Attorney General shall adopt rules concerning application for and disbursement of the moneys in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-711, eff. 6-1-08; revised 10-21-08.)

Section 65. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.31 and 8.32 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.31)

Sec. 8.31. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 95-9, 95-17, 95-148, 95-151, 95-194, 95-232, 95-241, 95-279, 95-349, 95-369, 95-483, 95-486, 95-504, 95-521, 95-530, 95-586, 95-644, 95-654, 95-671, 95-677, or 95-681, or 95-764 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Green Cleaning Schools Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-9, eff. 6-30-07; 95-17, eff. 1-1-08; 95-84, eff. 8-13-07; 95-148, eff. 8-14-07; 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 95-194, eff. 1-1-08; 95-232, eff. 8-16-07; 95-241, eff. 8-17-07; 95-279, eff. 1-1-08; 95-349, eff. 8-23-07; 95-369, eff. 8-23-07; 95-483, eff. 8-28-07; 95-486, eff. 8-28-07; 95-504, eff. 8-28-07; 95-521, eff. 8-28-07; 95-530, eff. 8-28-07; 95-586, eff. 8-31-07; 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-654, eff. 1-1-08; 95-671, eff. 1-1-08; 95-677, eff. 10-11-07; 95-681, eff. 10-11-07; 95-764, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 9-5-08.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.32)

Sec. 8.32. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 95-741, 95-812, 95-875, 95-910, 95-950, or 95-978 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 95-741, eff. 7-18-08; 95-812, eff. 8-13-08; 95-875, eff. 1-1-09; 95-910, eff. 8-26-08; 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

Section 70. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 203, 509, 510, and 901 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 507PP as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act.

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b) (5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the Enterprise Zone Investment Credit or the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504 (b) (3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250. (Y)

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2) (A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or Zones or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250. (W)

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348 (b) (1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a) (2), and 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as now or hereafter amended, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in an Enterprise Zone or zones created under the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, enacted by the 82nd General Assembly, or a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in an Enterprise Zone or Zones or from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250; and

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250. (T)

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b) (3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b) (2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a) (2) (G), (c) (2) (I) and (d)(2) (E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a) (2) (F) or (c) (2) (H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 94-776, eff. 5-19-06; 94-789, eff. 5-19-06; 94-1021, eff. 7-12-06; 94-1074, eff. 12-26-06; 95-23, eff. 8-3-07; 95-233, eff. 8-16-07; 95-286, eff. 8-20-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-15-08.)

(35 ILCS 5/507PP)

Sec. 507PP. The lung cancer research checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the Department shall print, on its standard individual income tax form, a provision indicating that, if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Lung Cancer Research Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, then he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and indicating that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. The taxpayer's failure to remit any amount of the increased payment reduces the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 95-434, eff. 8-27-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(35 ILCS 5/507RR)

Sec. 507RR 507PP. The Healthy Smiles Fund checkoff. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the Department must print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Healthy Smiles Fund, as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section does not apply to any amended return.

(Source: P.A. 95-940, eff. 8-29-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(35 ILCS 5/509) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-509)

Sec. 509. Tax checkoff explanations. All individual income tax return forms shall contain appropriate explanations and spaces to enable the taxpayers to designate contributions to the funds to which contributions may be made under this Article 5. the Healthy Smiles Fund,

Each form shall contain a statement that the contributions will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly.

If, on October 1 of any year, the total contributions to any one of the funds made under this Article 5 do not equal $100,000 or more, the explanations and spaces for designating contributions to the fund shall be removed from the individual income tax return forms for the following and all subsequent years and all subsequent contributions to the fund shall be refunded to the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; 94-876, eff. 6-19-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-434, eff. 8-27-07; 95-435, eff. 8-27-07; 95-940, eff. 8-29-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(35 ILCS 5/510) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-510)

Sec. 510. Determination of amounts contributed. The Department shall determine the total amount contributed to each of the funds under this Article 5 the Healthy Smiles Fund, and shall notify the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer of the amounts to be transferred from the General Revenue Fund to each fund, and upon receipt of such notification the State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts.

(Source: P.A. 94-73, eff. 6-23-05; 94-107, eff. 7-1-05; 94-141, eff. 1-1-06; 94-142, eff. 1-1-06; 94-442, eff. 8-4-05; 94-602, eff. 8-16-05; 94-649, eff. 8-22-05; 94-876, eff. 6-19-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-434, eff. 8-27-07; 95-435, eff. 8-27-07; 95-940, eff. 8-29-08; revised 9-25-08.)

(35 ILCS 5/901) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-901)

Sec. 901. Collection Authority.

(a) In general.

The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650). Except as provided in subsections (c) and (e) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650) shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Governmental Distributive Fund.

Beginning August 1, 1969, and continuing through June 30, 1994, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the "Local Government Distributive Fund", an amount equal to 1/12 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1994, and continuing through June 30, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to 1/11 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the net of (i) 1/10 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act during the preceding month (ii) minus, beginning July 1, 2003 and ending June 30, 2004, $6,666,666, and beginning July 1, 2004, zero. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Educational Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3), of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 6% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999 through 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.1%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 8%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 11.7%. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 10% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.75%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 18% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999, 2000, and 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 19%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 27%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 32%. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 24% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 20%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act, for paying rebates under Section 208.1 in the event that the amounts in the Homeowners' Tax Relief Fund are insufficient for that purpose, and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d).

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund.

On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(Source: P.A. 94-91, eff. 7-1-05; 94-839, eff. 6-6-06; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 75. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2-45 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-45) (from Ch. 120, par. 441-45)

Sec. 2-45. Manufacturing and assembly exemption. The manufacturing and assembly machinery and equipment exemption includes machinery and equipment that replaces machinery and equipment in an existing manufacturing facility as well as machinery and equipment that are for use in an expanded or new manufacturing facility.

The machinery and equipment exemption also includes machinery and equipment used in the general maintenance or repair of exempt machinery and equipment or for in-house manufacture of exempt machinery and equipment. For the purposes of this exemption, terms have the following meanings:

(1) "Manufacturing process" means the production of an article of tangible personal property, whether the article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by a procedure commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabricating, or refining that changes some existing material or materials into a material with a different form, use, or name. In relation to a recognized integrated business composed of a series of operations that collectively constitute manufacturing, or individually constitute manufacturing operations, the manufacturing process commences with the first operation or stage of production in the series and does not end until the completion of the final product in the last operation or stage of production in the series. For purposes of this exemption, photoprocessing is a manufacturing process of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale.

(2) "Assembling process" means the production of an article of tangible personal property, whether the article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by the combination of existing materials in a manner commonly regarded as assembling that results in a material of a different form, use, or name.

(3) "Machinery" means major mechanical machines or major components of those machines contributing to a manufacturing or assembling process.

(4) "Equipment" includes an independent device or tool separate from machinery but essential to an integrated manufacturing or assembly process; including computers used primarily in a manufacturer's computer assisted design, computer assisted manufacturing (CAD/CAM) system; any subunit or assembly comprising a component of any machinery or auxiliary, adjunct, or attachment parts of machinery, such as tools, dies, jigs, fixtures, patterns, and molds; and any parts that require periodic replacement in the course of normal operation; but does not include hand tools. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a product being manufactured or assembled for wholesale or retail sale or lease.

(5) "Production related tangible personal property" means all tangible personal property that is used or consumed by the purchaser in a manufacturing facility in which a manufacturing process takes place and includes, without limitation, tangible personal property that is purchased for incorporation into real estate within a manufacturing facility and tangible personal property that is used or consumed in activities such as research and development, preproduction material handling, receiving, quality control, inventory control, storage, staging, and packaging for shipping and transportation purposes. "Production related tangible personal property" does not include (i) tangible personal property that is used, within or without a manufacturing facility, in sales, purchasing, accounting, fiscal management, marketing, personnel recruitment or selection, or landscaping or (ii) tangible personal property that is required to be titled or registered with a department, agency, or unit of federal, State, or local government.

The manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption includes production related tangible personal property that is purchased on or after July 1, 2007 and on or before June 30, 2008. The exemption for production related tangible personal property is subject to both of the following limitations:

(1) The maximum amount of the exemption for any one taxpayer may not exceed 5% of the purchase price of production related tangible personal property that is purchased on or after July 1, 2007 and on or before June 30, 2008. A credit under Section 3-85 of this Act may not be earned by the purchase of production related tangible personal property for which an exemption is received under this Section.

(2) The maximum aggregate amount of the exemptions for production related tangible personal property awarded under this Act and the Use Retailers' Occupation Tax Act to all taxpayers may not exceed $10,000,000. If the claims for the exemption exceed $10,000,000, then the Department shall reduce the amount of the exemption to each taxpayer on a pro rata basis. The Department may adopt rules to implement and administer the exemption for production related tangible personal property.

The manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption includes the sale of materials to a purchaser who produces exempted types of machinery, equipment, or tools and who rents or leases that machinery, equipment, or tools to a manufacturer of tangible personal property. This exemption also includes the sale of materials to a purchaser who manufactures those materials into an exempted type of machinery, equipment, or tools that the purchaser uses himself or herself in the manufacturing of tangible personal property. The purchaser of the machinery and equipment who has an active resale registration number shall furnish that number to the seller at the time of purchase. A purchaser of the machinery, equipment, and tools without an active resale registration number shall furnish to the seller a certificate of exemption for each transaction stating facts establishing the exemption for that transaction, and that certificate shall be available to the Department for inspection or audit. Informal rulings, opinions, or letters issued by the Department in response to an inquiry or request for an opinion from any person regarding the coverage and applicability of this exemption to specific devices shall be published, maintained as a public record, and made available for public inspection and copying. If the informal ruling, opinion, or letter contains trade secrets or other confidential information, where possible, the Department shall delete that information before publication. Whenever informal rulings, opinions, or letters contain a policy of general applicability, the Department shall formulate and adopt that policy as a rule in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 80. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing the heading of Division 8 of Article 22 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/Art. 22 Div. 8 heading)

DIVISION 8. COMMISSION ON GOVERNMENT

FORECASTING AND ACCOUNTABILITY

PENSION LAWS COMMISSION

Section 85. The Contractor Unified License and Permit Bond Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 830/20)

Sec. 20. Unified license and permit bond.

(a) A contractor seeking to do work or doing work in a county or municipality may obtain a unified license and permit bond. This unified license and permit bond may be used by the contractor, at the contractor's discretion, instead of any other license or permit bond, or both, required of a contractor by the county or a municipality within that county. The bond shall be in the amount of at least $50,000 for counties included within the provisions of the Northeastern Illinois Planning Act (now repealed) and in the amount of at least $25,000 for all other counties.

(b) The unified license and permit bond shall be held for compliance with the ordinances and regulations governing contractors in the county or any municipality within that county where the contractor seeks to do work or is doing work. The unified bond required by this Act shall be filed by the contractor with the county clerk. At the time of filing, the county clerk may charge a reasonable administration fee, determined by the county board or board of county commissioners.

(c) If a contractor elects to use a unified license and permit bond under this Act and the territory of a municipality where a contractor seeks to do or is doing work is included within more than one county, then the contractor shall obtain a unified license and permit bond from each county and shall file a unified bond with each of the respective county clerks whether or not the contractor seeks to do or is doing work in that part of the municipality included in only one of the counties.

In addition, the contractor shall file a certified copy of the unified bond with the clerk in the municipality within that county where the contractor seeks to do work or is doing work. At the time of the filing, the clerk may charge a reasonable administration fee, determined by the corporate authorities of the municipality.

(Source: P.A. 90-712, eff. 8-7-98; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 90. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-6038, 4-4001, 5-1069.3, and 5-1101, by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5-1129, by adding Division headings 4-8, 5-42, and 6-34, and by renumbering Sections 5-29 and 42000 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-6038)

Sec. 3-6038. County impact incarceration program.

(a) With the approval of the county board, the sheriff in any county with 3,000,000 or fewer inhabitants may operate an impact incarceration program for persons who would otherwise be sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment. In order to be eligible to participate in the impact incarceration program, a person convicted of a felony or a misdemeanor must meet the requirements set forth in subsection (b) of Section 5-8-1.1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) The impact incarceration program shall include, among other matters, mandatory physical training and labor, military formation and drills, regimented activities, uniformity of dress and appearance, and drug or other counseling where appropriate.

(c) Participation in the impact incarceration program by a committed person serving a sentence for a misdemeanor shall be for a period of at least 7 days for each 30 days of his or her term of imprisonment as set forth by the court in its sentencing order. If the sentence of imprisonment is less than 30 days, participation in the impact incarceration program shall be for a period as determined by the court.

Participation in the impact incarceration program by a committed person serving a sentence for a felony, including a person transferred from the Illinois Department of Corrections under subsection (f), shall be for a period of 120 to 180 days.

The period of time a committed person shall serve in the impact incarceration program shall not be reduced by the accumulation of good time.

(d) The committed person shall serve a term of mandatory supervised release as set forth in subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, if otherwise applicable.

(e) If the sheriff accepts the offender in the program and determines that the offender has successfully completed the impact incarceration program, the sentence shall be reduced to time considered served upon certification to the court by the sheriff that the offender has successfully completed the program. In the event the offender is not accepted for placement in the impact incarceration program or the offender does not successfully complete the program, his or her term of imprisonment shall be as set forth by the court in its sentencing order.

(f) The sheriff, with the approval of the county board, shall have the power to enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements with the Illinois Department of Corrections under which persons in the custody of the Illinois Department may participate in the county impact incarceration program. No person shall be eligible for participation who does not meet the criteria set forth in subsection (b) of Section 5-8-1.1 of the Unified Code of Corrections. An offender who successfully completes the county impact incarceration program shall have his or her sentence reduced to time considered served upon certification to the court by the Illinois Department of Corrections that the offender has successfully completed the program.

(g) The sheriff, with the approval of the county board, shall have the power to enter into intergovernmental agreements with the Illinois Department of Corrections to receive funding, land, services, equipment, or any other form of economic contribution for construction, operation, and maintenance of a regional impact incarceration program that serves 2 or more counties.

(Source: P.A. 89-110, eff. 1-1-96; 89-258, eff. 1-1-96; 89-626, eff. 8-9-96; revised 10-23-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-4001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-4001)

Sec. 4-4001. County Clerks; counties of first and second class. The fees of the county clerk in counties of the first and second class, except when increased by county ordinance pursuant to the provisions of this Section, shall be:

For each official copy of any process, file, record or other instrument of and pertaining to his office, 50¢ for each 100 words, and $1 additional for certifying and sealing the same.

For filing any paper not herein otherwise provided for, $1, except that no fee shall be charged for filing a Statement of economic interest pursuant to the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act or reports made pursuant to Article 9 of The Election Code.

For issuance of fireworks permits, $2.

For issuance of liquor licenses, $5.

For filing and recording of the appointment and oath of each public official, $3.

For officially certifying and sealing each copy of any process, file, record or other instrument of and pertaining to his office, $1.

For swearing any person to an affidavit, $1.

For issuing each license in all matters except where the fee for the issuance thereof is otherwise fixed, $4.

For issuing each marriage license, the certificate thereof, and for recording the same, including the recording of the parent's or guardian's consent where indicated, $20. $5 from all marriage license fees shall be remitted by the clerk to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Married Families Domestic Violence Fund.

For taking and certifying acknowledgments to any instrument, except where herein otherwise provided for, $1.

For issuing each certificate of appointment or commission, the fee for which is not otherwise fixed by law, $1.

For cancelling tax sale and issuing and sealing certificates of redemption, $3.

For issuing order to county treasurer for redemption of forfeited tax, $2.

For trying and sealing weights and measures by county standard, together with all actual expenses in connection therewith, $1.

For services in case of estrays, $2.

The following fees shall be allowed for services attending the sale of land for taxes, and shall be charged as costs against the delinquent property and be collected with the taxes thereon:

For services in attending the tax sale and issuing certificate of sale and sealing the same, for each tract or town lot sold, $4.

For making list of delinquent lands and town lots sold, to be filed with the Comptroller, for each tract or town lot sold, 10¢.

The foregoing fees allowed by this Section are the maximum fees that may be collected from any officer, agency, department or other instrumentality of the State. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section and collect such increased fees from all persons and entities other than officers, agencies, departments and other instrumentalities of the State if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the cost of providing the service.

A Statement of the costs of providing each service, program and activity shall be prepared by the county board. All supporting documents shall be public record and subject to public examination and audit. All direct and indirect costs, as defined in the United States Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87, may be included in the determination of the costs of each service, program and activity.

The county clerk in all cases may demand and receive the payment of all fees for services in advance so far as the same can be ascertained.

The county board of any county of the first or second class may by ordinance authorize the county clerk to impose an additional $2 charge for certified copies of vital records as defined in Section 1 of the Vital Records Act, for the purpose of developing, maintaining, and improving technology in the office of the County Clerk.

The county board of any county of the first or second class may by ordinance authorize the county treasurer to establish a special fund for deposit of the additional charge. Moneys in the special fund shall be used solely to provide the equipment, material and necessary expenses incurred to help defray the cost of implementing and maintaining such document storage system.

(Source: P.A. 95-711, eff. 6-1-08; 95-837, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 4-8 heading)

Division 4-8. Officers' Salaries in Cook County

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, and 356z.12, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1101) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1101)

Sec. 5-1101. Additional fees to finance court system. A county board may enact by ordinance or resolution the following fees:

(a) A $5 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code other than Section 11-501 or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county, and up to a $30 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a violation of a similar provision contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county.

(b) In the case of a county having a population of 1,000,000 or less, a $5 fee to be collected in all civil cases by the clerk of the circuit court.

(c) A fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as follows:

(1) for a felony, $50;

(2) for a class A misdemeanor, $25;

(3) for a class B or class C misdemeanor, $15;

(4) for a petty offense, $10;

(5) for a business offense, $10.

(d) A $100 fee for the second and subsequent violations of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county. The proceeds of this fee shall be placed in the county general fund and used to finance education programs related to driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

(d-5) A $10 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections to be placed in the county general fund and used to finance the county mental health court, the county drug court, or both.

(e) In each county in which a teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program has been created, a county may adopt a mandatory fee of up to $5 to be assessed as provided in this subsection. Assessments collected by the clerk of the circuit court pursuant to this subsection must be deposited into an account specifically for the operation and administration of a teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fees established in this subsection and must remit the fees to the teen court, peer court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program monthly, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court. The fees are to be paid as follows:

(1) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or violations of similar provisions contained in county or municipal ordinances committed in the county;

(2) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a felony; for a Class A, Class B, or Class C misdemeanor; for a petty offense; and for a business offense.

(f) In each county in which a drug court has been created, the county may adopt a mandatory fee of up to $5 to be assessed as provided in this subsection. Assessments collected by the clerk of the circuit court pursuant to this subsection must be deposited into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the drug court. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fees established in this subsection and must remit the fees to the drug court, less 5%, which is to be retained as fee income to the office of the clerk of the circuit court. The fees are to be paid as follows:

(1) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a violation of a similar provision contained in a county or municipal ordinance committed in the county; or

(2) a fee of up to $5 paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a felony; for a Class A, Class B, or Class C misdemeanor; for a petty offense; and for a business offense.

The clerk of the circuit court shall deposit the 5% retained under this subsection into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray the costs of collection and disbursement of the drug court fee.

(f-5) In each county in which a Children's Advocacy Center provides services, the county board may adopt a mandatory fee of between $5 and $30 to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision under Section 5-9-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a felony; for a Class A, Class B, or Class C misdemeanor; for a petty offense; and for a business offense. Assessments shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court and must be deposited into an account specifically for the operation and administration of the Children's Advocacy Center. The clerk of the circuit court shall collect the fees as provided in this subsection, and must remit the fees to the Children's Advocacy Center.

(g) The proceeds of all fees enacted under this Section must, except as provided in subsections (d), (d-5), (e), and (f), be placed in the county general fund and used to finance the court system in the county, unless the fee is subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-862, eff. 6-16-06; 94-980, eff. 6-30-06; 95-103, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-28-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1129)

Sec. 5-1129. Annexation agreements. The county board of a county referenced in subsection (c) of Section 11-15.1-2.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code may, in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 11-15.1-2.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code, retain jurisdiction over land that is the subject of an annexation agreement and is located more than 1.5 miles from the corporate boundaries of the municipality.

(Source: P.A. 95-175, eff. 1-1-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1130)

Sec. 5-1130 5-1129. Leases of equipment and machinery. The county board of each county may, upon the affirmative vote of two-thirds of its members, enter into one or more leases for a period of not to exceed 5 years for computer equipment, data processing machinery, and software, as may be required for its corporate purposes.

(Source: P.A. 95-810, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-29001) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-29001)

Sec. 5-29001 5-29. Authorization. A county board may, by resolution, authorize the compilation, publication and maintenance of a county code consisting of ordinances and regulations duly adopted by the county board.

(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 10-23-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 5-42 heading)

DIVISION 5-42. WIND FARMS

(55 ILCS 5/5-42000)

Sec. 5-42000 42000. Wind farms. A county may own and operate a wind generation turbine farm, either individually or jointly with another unit of local government, school district, or community college district that is authorized to own and operate a wind generation turbine farm, that directly or indirectly reduces the energy or other operating costs of the county. The county may ask for the assistance of any State agency, including without limitation the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Illinois Power Agency, or the Environmental Protection Agency, in obtaining financing options for a wind generation turbine farm.

(Source: P.A. 95-805, eff. 8-12-08; revised 9-16-08.)

(55 ILCS 5/Div. 6-34 heading)

DIVISION 6-34. REPORT OF RTA OCCUPATION TAXES

Section 95. The Township Code is amended by changing Section 105-40 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/105-40)

Sec. 105-40. Clean indoor air. Every public enclosed indoor area in the township shall be subject to the Smoke Free Illinois Act Illinois Clean Indoor Air Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-62; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 100. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-4-2.3, 11-74.4-3, 11-74.4-3.5, and 11-74.4-7 and by adding Division heading 15.3 of Article 11 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, and 356z.12, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(65 ILCS 5/Art. 11 Div. 15.3 heading)

DIVISION 15.3. WIND FARMS

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-3)

Sec. 11-74.4-3. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Division 74.4 shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context.

(a) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "blighted area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "blighted area" means any improved or vacant area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality where:

(1) If improved, industrial, commercial, and residential buildings or improvements are detrimental to the public safety, health, or welfare because of a combination of 5 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the improved part of the redevelopment project area:

(A) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(B) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(C) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(D) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(E) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(F) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(G) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(H) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(I) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: (i) the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and (ii) the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(J) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(K) Environmental clean-up. The proposed redevelopment project area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(L) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(M) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(2) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by a combination of 2 or more of the following factors, each of which is (i) present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) Obsolete platting of vacant land that results in parcels of limited or narrow size or configurations of parcels of irregular size or shape that would be difficult to develop on a planned basis and in a manner compatible with contemporary standards and requirements, or platting that failed to create rights-of-ways for streets or alleys or that created inadequate right-of-way widths for streets, alleys, or other public rights-of-way or that omitted easements for public utilities.

(B) Diversity of ownership of parcels of vacant land sufficient in number to retard or impede the ability to assemble the land for development.

(C) Tax and special assessment delinquencies exist or the property has been the subject of tax sales under the Property Tax Code within the last 5 years.

(D) Deterioration of structures or site improvements in neighboring areas adjacent to the vacant land.

(E) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(F) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years prior to the year in which the redevelopment project area is designated.

(3) If vacant, the sound growth of the redevelopment project area is impaired by one of the following factors that (i) is present, with that presence documented, to a meaningful extent so that a municipality may reasonably find that the factor is clearly present within the intent of the Act and (ii) is reasonably distributed throughout the vacant part of the redevelopment project area to which it pertains:

(A) The area consists of one or more unused quarries, mines, or strip mine ponds.

(B) The area consists of unused rail yards, rail tracks, or railroad rights-of-way.

(C) The area, prior to its designation, is subject to (i) chronic flooding that adversely impacts on real property in the area as certified by a registered professional engineer or appropriate regulatory agency or (ii) surface water that discharges from all or a part of the area and contributes to flooding within the same watershed, but only if the redevelopment project provides for facilities or improvements to contribute to the alleviation of all or part of the flooding.

(D) The area consists of an unused or illegal disposal site containing earth, stone, building debris, or similar materials that were removed from construction, demolition, excavation, or dredge sites.

(E) Prior to November 1, 1999, the area is not less than 50 nor more than 100 acres and 75% of which is vacant (notwithstanding that the area has been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area), and the area meets at least one of the factors itemized in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the area has been designated as a town or village center by ordinance or comprehensive plan adopted prior to January 1, 1982, and the area has not been developed for that designated purpose.

(F) The area qualified as a blighted improved area immediately prior to becoming vacant, unless there has been substantial private investment in the immediately surrounding area.

(b) For any redevelopment project area that has been designated pursuant to this Section by an ordinance adopted prior to November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), "conservation area" shall have the meaning set forth in this Section prior to that date.

On and after November 1, 1999, "conservation area" means any improved area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of the municipality in which 50% or more of the structures in the area have an age of 35 years or more. Such an area is not yet a blighted area but because of a combination of 3 or more of the following factors is detrimental to the public safety, health, morals or welfare and such an area may become a blighted area:

(1) Dilapidation. An advanced state of disrepair or neglect of necessary repairs to the primary structural components of buildings or improvements in such a combination that a documented building condition analysis determines that major repair is required or the defects are so serious and so extensive that the buildings must be removed.

(2) Obsolescence. The condition or process of falling into disuse. Structures have become ill-suited for the original use.

(3) Deterioration. With respect to buildings, defects including, but not limited to, major defects in the secondary building components such as doors, windows, porches, gutters and downspouts, and fascia. With respect to surface improvements, that the condition of roadways, alleys, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, off-street parking, and surface storage areas evidence deterioration, including, but not limited to, surface cracking, crumbling, potholes, depressions, loose paving material, and weeds protruding through paved surfaces.

(4) Presence of structures below minimum code standards. All structures that do not meet the standards of zoning, subdivision, building, fire, and other governmental codes applicable to property, but not including housing and property maintenance codes.

(5) Illegal use of individual structures. The use of structures in violation of applicable federal, State, or local laws, exclusive of those applicable to the presence of structures below minimum code standards.

(6) Excessive vacancies. The presence of buildings that are unoccupied or under-utilized and that represent an adverse influence on the area because of the frequency, extent, or duration of the vacancies.

(7) Lack of ventilation, light, or sanitary facilities. The absence of adequate ventilation for light or air circulation in spaces or rooms without windows, or that require the removal of dust, odor, gas, smoke, or other noxious airborne materials. Inadequate natural light and ventilation means the absence or inadequacy of skylights or windows for interior spaces or rooms and improper window sizes and amounts by room area to window area ratios. Inadequate sanitary facilities refers to the absence or inadequacy of garbage storage and enclosure, bathroom facilities, hot water and kitchens, and structural inadequacies preventing ingress and egress to and from all rooms and units within a building.

(8) Inadequate utilities. Underground and overhead utilities such as storm sewers and storm drainage, sanitary sewers, water lines, and gas, telephone, and electrical services that are shown to be inadequate. Inadequate utilities are those that are: (i) of insufficient capacity to serve the uses in the redevelopment project area, (ii) deteriorated, antiquated, obsolete, or in disrepair, or (iii) lacking within the redevelopment project area.

(9) Excessive land coverage and overcrowding of structures and community facilities. The over-intensive use of property and the crowding of buildings and accessory facilities onto a site. Examples of problem conditions warranting the designation of an area as one exhibiting excessive land coverage are: the presence of buildings either improperly situated on parcels or located on parcels of inadequate size and shape in relation to present-day standards of development for health and safety and the presence of multiple buildings on a single parcel. For there to be a finding of excessive land coverage, these parcels must exhibit one or more of the following conditions: insufficient provision for light and air within or around buildings, increased threat of spread of fire due to the close proximity of buildings, lack of adequate or proper access to a public right-of-way, lack of reasonably required off-street parking, or inadequate provision for loading and service.

(10) Deleterious land use or layout. The existence of incompatible land-use relationships, buildings occupied by inappropriate mixed-uses, or uses considered to be noxious, offensive, or unsuitable for the surrounding area.

(11) Lack of community planning. The proposed redevelopment project area was developed prior to or without the benefit or guidance of a community plan. This means that the development occurred prior to the adoption by the municipality of a comprehensive or other community plan or that the plan was not followed at the time of the area's development. This factor must be documented by evidence of adverse or incompatible land-use relationships, inadequate street layout, improper subdivision, parcels of inadequate shape and size to meet contemporary development standards, or other evidence demonstrating an absence of effective community planning.

(12) The area has incurred Illinois Environmental Protection Agency or United States Environmental Protection Agency remediation costs for, or a study conducted by an independent consultant recognized as having expertise in environmental remediation has determined a need for, the clean-up of hazardous waste, hazardous substances, or underground storage tanks required by State or federal law, provided that the remediation costs constitute a material impediment to the development or redevelopment of the redevelopment project area.

(13) The total equalized assessed value of the proposed redevelopment project area has declined for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the balance of the municipality for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available or is increasing at an annual rate that is less than the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the United States Department of Labor or successor agency for 3 of the last 5 calendar years for which information is available.

(c) "Industrial park" means an area in a blighted or conservation area suitable for use by any manufacturing, industrial, research or transportation enterprise, of facilities to include but not be limited to factories, mills, processing plants, assembly plants, packing plants, fabricating plants, industrial distribution centers, warehouses, repair overhaul or service facilities, freight terminals, research facilities, test facilities or railroad facilities.

(d) "Industrial park conservation area" means an area within the boundaries of a redevelopment project area located within the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality or within 1 1/2 miles of the territorial limits of a municipality that is a labor surplus municipality if the area is annexed to the municipality; which area is zoned as industrial no later than at the time the municipality by ordinance designates the redevelopment project area, and which area includes both vacant land suitable for use as an industrial park and a blighted area or conservation area contiguous to such vacant land.

(e) "Labor surplus municipality" means a municipality in which, at any time during the 6 months before the municipality by ordinance designates an industrial park conservation area, the unemployment rate was over 6% and was also 100% or more of the national average unemployment rate for that same time as published in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics publication entitled "The Employment Situation" or its successor publication. For the purpose of this subsection, if unemployment rate statistics for the municipality are not available, the unemployment rate in the municipality shall be deemed to be the same as the unemployment rate in the principal county in which the municipality is located.

(f) "Municipality" shall mean a city, village, incorporated town, or a township that is located in the unincorporated portion of a county with 3 million or more inhabitants, if the county adopted an ordinance that approved the township's redevelopment plan.

(g) "Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located in a State Sales Tax Boundary during the calendar year 1985.

(g-1) "Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts" means the amount of taxes paid under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act, Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places located within the State Sales Tax Boundary revised pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8a(9) of this Act.

(h) "Municipal Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid to a municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen within the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, for as long as the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, exist over and above the aggregate amount of taxes as certified by the Illinois Department of Revenue and paid under the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act by retailers and servicemen, on transactions at places of business located in the redevelopment project area or State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall determine the Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts". For purposes of determining the Municipal Sales Tax Increment, the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the amount paid to the municipality from the Local Government Tax Fund arising from sales by retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the redevelopment project area or the State Sales Tax Boundary, as the case may be, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, to June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen pursuant to the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax and the Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending June 30 to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, the Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts, as the case may be.

(i) "Net State Sales Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary. If, however, a municipality established a tax increment financing district in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 before January 1, 1986, and the municipality entered into a contract or issued bonds after January 1, 1986, but before December 31, 1986, to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, then the Net State Sales Tax Increment means, for the fiscal years beginning July 1, 1990, and July 1, 1991, 100% of the State Sales Tax Increment annually generated within a State Sales Tax Boundary; and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, for those fiscal years the Department of Revenue shall distribute to those municipalities 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment before any distribution to any other municipality and regardless of whether or not those other municipalities will receive 100% of their Net State Sales Tax Increment. For Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a State Sales Tax Boundary, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991, or that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988, shall continue to receive their proportional share of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund distribution until the date on which the redevelopment project is completed or terminated. If, however, a municipality that issued bonds in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area within the State Sales Tax Boundary prior to July 29, 1991 retires the bonds prior to June 30, 2007 or a municipality that entered into contracts in connection with a redevelopment project in a redevelopment project area before June 1, 1988 completes the contracts prior to June 30, 2007, then so long as the redevelopment project is not completed or is not terminated, the Net State Sales Tax Increment shall be calculated, beginning on the date on which the bonds are retired or the contracts are completed, as follows: By multiplying the Net State Sales Tax Increment by 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to July 29, 1991, shall not alter the Net State Sales Tax Increment.

(j) "State Utility Tax Increment Amount" means an amount equal to the aggregate increase in State electric and gas tax charges imposed on owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties located within the redevelopment project area under Section 9-222 of the Public Utilities Act, over and above the aggregate of such charges as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid by owners and tenants, other than residential customers, of properties within the redevelopment project area during the base year, which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year of the adoption of the ordinance authorizing tax increment allocation financing.

(k) "Net State Utility Tax Increment" means the sum of the following: (a) 80% of the first $100,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; (b) 60% of the amount in excess of $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 of the State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area; and (c) 40% of all amounts in excess of $500,000 of State Utility Tax Increment annually generated by a redevelopment project area. For the State Fiscal Year 1999, and every year thereafter until the year 2007, for any municipality that has not entered into a contract or has not issued bonds prior to June 1, 1988 to finance redevelopment project costs within a redevelopment project area, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in the State Fiscal Year 1999; 80% in the State Fiscal Year 2000; 70% in the State Fiscal Year 2001; 60% in the State Fiscal Year 2002; 50% in the State Fiscal Year 2003; 40% in the State Fiscal Year 2004; 30% in the State Fiscal Year 2005; 20% in the State Fiscal Year 2006; and 10% in the State Fiscal Year 2007. No payment shall be made for the State Fiscal Year 2008 and thereafter.

Municipalities that issue bonds in connection with the redevelopment project during the period from June 1, 1988 until 3 years after the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988 shall receive the Net State Utility Tax Increment, subject to appropriation, for 15 State Fiscal Years after the issuance of such bonds. For the 16th through the 20th State Fiscal Years after issuance of the bonds, the Net State Utility Tax Increment shall be calculated as follows: By multiplying the Net State Utility Tax Increment by 90% in year 16; 80% in year 17; 70% in year 18; 60% in year 19; and 50% in year 20. Refunding of any bonds issued prior to June 1, 1988, shall not alter the revised Net State Utility Tax Increment payments set forth above.

(l) "Obligations" mean bonds, loans, debentures, notes, special certificates or other evidence of indebtedness issued by the municipality to carry out a redevelopment project or to refund outstanding obligations.

(m) "Payment in lieu of taxes" means those estimated tax revenues from real property in a redevelopment project area derived from real property that has been acquired by a municipality which according to the redevelopment project or plan is to be used for a private use which taxing districts would have received had a municipality not acquired the real property and adopted tax increment allocation financing and which would result from levies made after the time of the adoption of tax increment allocation financing to the time the current equalized value of real property in the redevelopment project area exceeds the total initial equalized value of real property in said area.

(n) "Redevelopment plan" means the comprehensive program of the municipality for development or redevelopment intended by the payment of redevelopment project costs to reduce or eliminate those conditions the existence of which qualified the redevelopment project area as a "blighted area" or "conservation area" or combination thereof or "industrial park conservation area," and thereby to enhance the tax bases of the taxing districts which extend into the redevelopment project area. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting. Each redevelopment plan shall set forth in writing the program to be undertaken to accomplish the objectives and shall include but not be limited to:

(A) an itemized list of estimated redevelopment project costs;

(B) evidence indicating that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise;

(C) an assessment of any financial impact of the redevelopment project area on or any increased demand for services from any taxing district affected by the plan and any program to address such financial impact or increased demand;

(D) the sources of funds to pay costs;

(E) the nature and term of the obligations to be issued;

(F) the most recent equalized assessed valuation of the redevelopment project area;

(G) an estimate as to the equalized assessed valuation after redevelopment and the general land uses to apply in the redevelopment project area;

(H) a commitment to fair employment practices and an affirmative action plan;

(I) if it concerns an industrial park conservation area, the plan shall also include a general description of any proposed developer, user and tenant of any property, a description of the type, structure and general character of the facilities to be developed, a description of the type, class and number of new employees to be employed in the operation of the facilities to be developed; and

(J) if property is to be annexed to the municipality, the plan shall include the terms of the annexation agreement.

The provisions of items (B) and (C) of this subsection (n) shall not apply to a municipality that before March 14, 1994 (the effective date of Public Act 88-537) had fixed, either by its corporate authorities or by a commission designated under subsection (k) of Section 11-74.4-4, a time and place for a public hearing as required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5. No redevelopment plan shall be adopted unless a municipality complies with all of the following requirements:

(1) The municipality finds that the redevelopment project area on the whole has not been subject to growth and development through investment by private enterprise and would not reasonably be anticipated to be developed without the adoption of the redevelopment plan.

(2) The municipality finds that the redevelopment plan and project conform to the comprehensive plan for the development of the municipality as a whole, or, for municipalities with a population of 100,000 or more, regardless of when the redevelopment plan and project was adopted, the redevelopment plan and project either: (i) conforms to the strategic economic development or redevelopment plan issued by the designated planning authority of the municipality, or (ii) includes land uses that have been approved by the planning commission of the municipality.

(3) The redevelopment plan establishes the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs. Those dates may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5., or (DDD) (EEE), or (FFF), or (GGG), or (HHH), or (III), or (JJJ), (KKK), (LLL) (MMM), or (NNN) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville.

A municipality may by municipal ordinance amend an existing redevelopment plan to conform to this paragraph (3) as amended by Public Act 91-478, which municipal ordinance may be adopted without further hearing or notice and without complying with the procedures provided in this Act pertaining to an amendment to or the initial approval of a redevelopment plan and project and designation of a redevelopment project area.

(3.5) The municipality finds, in the case of an industrial park conservation area, also that the municipality is a labor surplus municipality and that the implementation of the redevelopment plan will reduce unemployment, create new jobs and by the provision of new facilities enhance the tax base of the taxing districts that extend into the redevelopment project area.

(4) If any incremental revenues are being utilized under Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(2) of this Act in redevelopment project areas approved by ordinance after January 1, 1986, the municipality finds: (a) that the redevelopment project area would not reasonably be developed without the use of such incremental revenues, and (b) that such incremental revenues will be exclusively utilized for the development of the redevelopment project area.

(5) If the redevelopment plan will not result in displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, and the municipality certifies in the plan that such displacement will not result from the plan, a housing impact study need not be performed. If, however, the redevelopment plan would result in the displacement of residents from 10 or more inhabited residential units, or if the redevelopment project area contains 75 or more inhabited residential units and no certification is made, then the municipality shall prepare, as part of the separate feasibility report required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5, a housing impact study.

Part I of the housing impact study shall include (i) data as to whether the residential units are single family or multi-family units, (ii) the number and type of rooms within the units, if that information is available, (iii) whether the units are inhabited or uninhabited, as determined not less than 45 days before the date that the ordinance or resolution required by subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-5 is passed, and (iv) data as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units. The data requirement as to the racial and ethnic composition of the residents in the inhabited residential units shall be deemed to be fully satisfied by data from the most recent federal census.

Part II of the housing impact study shall identify the inhabited residential units in the proposed redevelopment project area that are to be or may be removed. If inhabited residential units are to be removed, then the housing impact study shall identify (i) the number and location of those units that will or may be removed, (ii) the municipality's plans for relocation assistance for those residents in the proposed redevelopment project area whose residences are to be removed, (iii) the availability of replacement housing for those residents whose residences are to be removed, and shall identify the type, location, and cost of the housing, and (iv) the type and extent of relocation assistance to be provided.

(6) On and after November 1, 1999, the housing impact study required by paragraph (5) shall be incorporated in the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area.

(7) On and after November 1, 1999, no redevelopment plan shall be adopted, nor an existing plan amended, nor shall residential housing that is occupied by households of low-income and very low-income persons in currently existing redevelopment project areas be removed after November 1, 1999 unless the redevelopment plan provides, with respect to inhabited housing units that are to be removed for households of low-income and very low-income persons, affordable housing and relocation assistance not less than that which would be provided under the federal Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 and the regulations under that Act, including the eligibility criteria. Affordable housing may be either existing or newly constructed housing. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "low-income households", "very low-income households", and "affordable housing" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The municipality shall make a good faith effort to ensure that this affordable housing is located in or near the redevelopment project area within the municipality.

(8) On and after November 1, 1999, if, after the adoption of the redevelopment plan for the redevelopment project area, any municipality desires to amend its redevelopment plan to remove more inhabited residential units than specified in its original redevelopment plan, that change shall be made in accordance with the procedures in subsection (c) of Section 11-74.4-5.

(9) For redevelopment project areas designated prior to November 1, 1999, the redevelopment plan may be amended without further joint review board meeting or hearing, provided that the municipality shall give notice of any such changes by mail to each affected taxing district and registrant on the interested party registry, to authorize the municipality to expend tax increment revenues for redevelopment project costs defined by paragraphs (5) and (7.5), subparagraphs (E) and (F) of paragraph (11), and paragraph (11.5) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3, so long as the changes do not increase the total estimated redevelopment project costs set out in the redevelopment plan by more than 5% after adjustment for inflation from the date the plan was adopted.

(o) "Redevelopment project" means any public and private development project in furtherance of the objectives of a redevelopment plan. On and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no redevelopment plan may be approved or amended that includes the development of vacant land (i) with a golf course and related clubhouse and other facilities or (ii) designated by federal, State, county, or municipal government as public land for outdoor recreational activities or for nature preserves and used for that purpose within 5 years prior to the adoption of the redevelopment plan. For the purpose of this subsection, "recreational activities" is limited to mean camping and hunting.

(p) "Redevelopment project area" means an area designated by the municipality, which is not less in the aggregate than 1 1/2 acres and in respect to which the municipality has made a finding that there exist conditions which cause the area to be classified as an industrial park conservation area or a blighted area or a conservation area, or a combination of both blighted areas and conservation areas.

(q) "Redevelopment project costs" mean and include the sum total of all reasonable or necessary costs incurred or estimated to be incurred, and any such costs incidental to a redevelopment plan and a redevelopment project. Such costs include, without limitation, the following:

(1) Costs of studies, surveys, development of plans, and specifications, implementation and administration of the redevelopment plan including but not limited to staff and professional service costs for architectural, engineering, legal, financial, planning or other services, provided however that no charges for professional services may be based on a percentage of the tax increment collected; except that on and after November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), no contracts for professional services, excluding architectural and engineering services, may be entered into if the terms of the contract extend beyond a period of 3 years. In addition, "redevelopment project costs" shall not include lobbying expenses. After consultation with the municipality, each tax increment consultant or advisor to a municipality that plans to designate or has designated a redevelopment project area shall inform the municipality in writing of any contracts that the consultant or advisor has entered into with entities or individuals that have received, or are receiving, payments financed by tax increment revenues produced by the redevelopment project area with respect to which the consultant or advisor has performed, or will be performing, service for the municipality. This requirement shall be satisfied by the consultant or advisor before the commencement of services for the municipality and thereafter whenever any other contracts with those individuals or entities are executed by the consultant or advisor;

(1.5) After July 1, 1999, annual administrative costs shall not include general overhead or administrative costs of the municipality that would still have been incurred by the municipality if the municipality had not designated a redevelopment project area or approved a redevelopment plan;

(1.6) The cost of marketing sites within the redevelopment project area to prospective businesses, developers, and investors;

(2) Property assembly costs, including but not limited to acquisition of land and other property, real or personal, or rights or interests therein, demolition of buildings, site preparation, site improvements that serve as an engineered barrier addressing ground level or below ground environmental contamination, including, but not limited to parking lots and other concrete or asphalt barriers, and the clearing and grading of land;

(3) Costs of rehabilitation, reconstruction or repair or remodeling of existing public or private buildings, fixtures, and leasehold improvements; and the cost of replacing an existing public building if pursuant to the implementation of a redevelopment project the existing public building is to be demolished to use the site for private investment or devoted to a different use requiring private investment;

(4) Costs of the construction of public works or improvements, except that on and after November 1, 1999, redevelopment project costs shall not include the cost of constructing a new municipal public building principally used to provide offices, storage space, or conference facilities or vehicle storage, maintenance, or repair for administrative, public safety, or public works personnel and that is not intended to replace an existing public building as provided under paragraph (3) of subsection (q) of Section 11-74.4-3 unless either (i) the construction of the new municipal building implements a redevelopment project that was included in a redevelopment plan that was adopted by the municipality prior to November 1, 1999 or (ii) the municipality makes a reasonable determination in the redevelopment plan, supported by information that provides the basis for that determination, that the new municipal building is required to meet an increase in the need for public safety purposes anticipated to result from the implementation of the redevelopment plan;

(5) Costs of job training and retraining projects, including the cost of "welfare to work" programs implemented by businesses located within the redevelopment project area;

(6) Financing costs, including but not limited to all necessary and incidental expenses related to the issuance of obligations and which may include payment of interest on any obligations issued hereunder including interest accruing during the estimated period of construction of any redevelopment project for which such obligations are issued and for not exceeding 36 months thereafter and including reasonable reserves related thereto;

(7) To the extent the municipality by written agreement accepts and approves the same, all or a portion of a taxing district's capital costs resulting from the redevelopment project necessarily incurred or to be incurred within a taxing district in furtherance of the objectives of the redevelopment plan and project.

(7.5) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after November 1, 1999, an elementary, secondary, or unit school district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act, and which costs shall be paid by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units and shall be calculated annually as follows:

(A) for foundation districts, excluding any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general State aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 25% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 17% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge of less than $5,900, no more than 8% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(B) For alternate method districts, flat grant districts, and foundation districts with a district average 1995-96 Per Capita Tuition Charge equal to or more than $5,900, excluding any school district with a population in excess of 1,000,000, by multiplying the district's increase in attendance resulting from the net increase in new students enrolled in that school district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by the most recently available per capita tuition cost as defined in Section 10-20.12a of the School Code less any increase in general state aid as defined in Section 18-8.05 of the School Code attributable to these added new students subject to the following annual limitations:

(i) for unit school districts, no more than 40% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act;

(ii) for elementary school districts, no more than 27% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act; and

(iii) for secondary school districts, no more than 13% of the total amount of property tax increment revenue produced by those housing units that have received tax increment finance assistance under this Act.

(C) For any school district in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000, the following restrictions shall apply to the reimbursement of increased costs under this paragraph (7.5):

(i) no increased costs shall be reimbursed unless the school district certifies that each of the schools affected by the assisted housing project is at or over its student capacity;

(ii) the amount reimbursable shall be reduced by the value of any land donated to the school district by the municipality or developer, and by the value of any physical improvements made to the schools by the municipality or developer; and

(iii) the amount reimbursed may not affect amounts otherwise obligated by the terms of any bonds, notes, or other funding instruments, or the terms of any redevelopment agreement.

Any school district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.5) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with reasonable evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the school district. If the school district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. School districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.5). By acceptance of this reimbursement the school district waives the right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(7.7) For redevelopment project areas designated (or redevelopment project areas amended to add or increase the number of tax-increment-financing assisted housing units) on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-961), a public library district's increased costs attributable to assisted housing units located within the redevelopment project area for which the developer or redeveloper receives financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the assisted housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act shall be paid to the library district by the municipality from the Special Tax Allocation Fund when the tax increment revenue is received as a result of the assisted housing units. This paragraph (7.7) applies only if (i) the library district is located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law or (ii) the library district is not located in a county that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law but the district is prohibited by any other law from increasing its tax levy rate without a prior voter referendum.

The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be calculated by multiplying (i) the net increase in the number of persons eligible to obtain a library card in that district who reside in housing units within the redevelopment project area that have received financial assistance through an agreement with the municipality or because the municipality incurs the cost of necessary infrastructure improvements within the boundaries of the housing sites necessary for the completion of that housing as authorized by this Act since the designation of the redevelopment project area by (ii) the per-patron cost of providing library services so long as it does not exceed $120. The per-patron cost shall be the Total Operating Expenditures Per Capita as stated in the most recent Illinois Public Library Statistics produced by the Library Research Center at the University of Illinois. The municipality may deduct from the amount that it must pay to a library district under this paragraph any amount that it has voluntarily paid to the library district from the tax increment revenue. The amount paid to a library district under this paragraph (7.7) shall be no more than 2% of the amount produced by the assisted housing units and deposited into the Special Tax Allocation Fund.

A library district is not eligible for any payment under this paragraph (7.7) unless the library district has experienced an increase in the number of patrons from the municipality that created the tax-increment-financing district since the designation of the redevelopment project area.

Any library district seeking payment under this paragraph (7.7) shall, after July 1 and before September 30 of each year, provide the municipality with convincing evidence to support its claim for reimbursement before the municipality shall be required to approve or make the payment to the library district. If the library district fails to provide the information during this period in any year, it shall forfeit any claim to reimbursement for that year. Library districts may adopt a resolution waiving the right to all or a portion of the reimbursement otherwise required by this paragraph (7.7). By acceptance of such reimbursement, the library district shall forfeit any right to directly or indirectly set aside, modify, or contest in any manner whatsoever the establishment of the redevelopment project area or projects;

(8) Relocation costs to the extent that a municipality determines that relocation costs shall be paid or is required to make payment of relocation costs by federal or State law or in order to satisfy subparagraph (7) of subsection (n);

(9) Payment in lieu of taxes;

(10) Costs of job training, retraining, advanced vocational education or career education, including but not limited to courses in occupational, semi-technical or technical fields leading directly to employment, incurred by one or more taxing districts, provided that such costs (i) are related to the establishment and maintenance of additional job training, advanced vocational education or career education programs for persons employed or to be employed by employers located in a redevelopment project area; and (ii) when incurred by a taxing district or taxing districts other than the municipality, are set forth in a written agreement by or among the municipality and the taxing district or taxing districts, which agreement describes the program to be undertaken, including but not limited to the number of employees to be trained, a description of the training and services to be provided, the number and type of positions available or to be available, itemized costs of the program and sources of funds to pay for the same, and the term of the agreement. Such costs include, specifically, the payment by community college districts of costs pursuant to Sections 3-37, 3-38, 3-40 and 3-40.1 of the Public Community College Act and by school districts of costs pursuant to Sections 10-22.20a and 10-23.3a of The School Code;

(11) Interest cost incurred by a redeveloper related to the construction, renovation or rehabilitation of a redevelopment project provided that:

(A) such costs are to be paid directly from the special tax allocation fund established pursuant to this Act;

(B) such payments in any one year may not exceed 30% of the annual interest costs incurred by the redeveloper with regard to the redevelopment project during that year;

(C) if there are not sufficient funds available in the special tax allocation fund to make the payment pursuant to this paragraph (11) then the amounts so due shall accrue and be payable when sufficient funds are available in the special tax allocation fund;

(D) the total of such interest payments paid pursuant to this Act may not exceed 30% of the total (i) cost paid or incurred by the redeveloper for the redevelopment project plus (ii) redevelopment project costs excluding any property assembly costs and any relocation costs incurred by a municipality pursuant to this Act; and

(E) the cost limits set forth in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11) shall be modified for the financing of rehabilitated or new housing units for low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The percentage of 75% shall be substituted for 30% in subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11).

(F) Instead of the eligible costs provided by subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (11), as modified by this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the municipality may pay from tax increment revenues up to 50% of the cost of construction of new housing units to be occupied by low-income households and very low-income households as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act. The cost of construction of those units may be derived from the proceeds of bonds issued by the municipality under this Act or other constitutional or statutory authority or from other sources of municipal revenue that may be reimbursed from tax increment revenues or the proceeds of bonds issued to finance the construction of that housing.

The eligible costs provided under this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be an eligible cost for the construction, renovation, and rehabilitation of all low and very low-income housing units, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, within the redevelopment project area. If the low and very low-income units are part of a residential redevelopment project that includes units not affordable to low and very low-income households, only the low and very low-income units shall be eligible for benefits under subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11). The standards for maintaining the occupancy by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, of those units constructed with eligible costs made available under the provisions of this subparagraph (F) of paragraph (11) shall be established by guidelines adopted by the municipality. The responsibility for annually documenting the initial occupancy of the units by low-income households and very low-income households, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Affordable Housing Act, shall be that of the then current owner of the property. For ownership units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for a reasonable recapture of funds, or other appropriate methods designed to preserve the original affordability of the ownership units. For rental units, the guidelines will provide, at a minimum, for the affordability of rent to low and very low-income households. As units become available, they shall be rented to income-eligible tenants. The municipality may modify these guidelines from time to time; the guidelines, however, shall be in effect for as long as tax increment revenue is being used to pay for costs associated with the units or for the retirement of bonds issued to finance the units or for the life of the redevelopment project area, whichever is later.

(11.5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a municipality with a population of more than 100,000, the cost of day care services for children of employees from low-income families working for businesses located within the redevelopment project area and all or a portion of the cost of operation of day care centers established by redevelopment project area businesses to serve employees from low-income families working in businesses located in the redevelopment project area. For the purposes of this paragraph, "low-income families" means families whose annual income does not exceed 80% of the municipal, county, or regional median income, adjusted for family size, as the annual income and municipal, county, or regional median income are determined from time to time by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(12) Unless explicitly stated herein the cost of construction of new privately-owned buildings shall not be an eligible redevelopment project cost.

(13) After November 1, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-478), none of the redevelopment project costs enumerated in this subsection shall be eligible redevelopment project costs if those costs would provide direct financial support to a retail entity initiating operations in the redevelopment project area while terminating operations at another Illinois location within 10 miles of the redevelopment project area but outside the boundaries of the redevelopment project area municipality. For purposes of this paragraph, termination means a closing of a retail operation that is directly related to the opening of the same operation or like retail entity owned or operated by more than 50% of the original ownership in a redevelopment project area, but it does not mean closing an operation for reasons beyond the control of the retail entity, as documented by the retail entity, subject to a reasonable finding by the municipality that the current location contained inadequate space, had become economically obsolete, or was no longer a viable location for the retailer or serviceman.

(14) No cost shall be a redevelopment project cost in a redevelopment project area if used to demolish, remove, or substantially modify a historic resource, after August 26, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-934) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, unless no prudent and feasible alternative exists. "Historic resource" for the purpose of this item (14) means (i) a place or structure that is included or eligible for inclusion on the National Register of Historic Places or (ii) a contributing structure in a district on the National Register of Historic Places. This item (14) does not apply to a place or structure for which demolition, removal, or modification is subject to review by the preservation agency of a Certified Local Government designated as such by the National Park Service of the United States Department of the Interior.

If a special service area has been established pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law, then any tax increment revenues derived from the tax imposed pursuant to the Special Service Area Tax Act or Special Service Area Tax Law may be used within the redevelopment project area for the purposes permitted by that Act or Law as well as the purposes permitted by this Act.

(r) "State Sales Tax Boundary" means the redevelopment project area or the amended redevelopment project area boundaries which are determined pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a of this Act. The Department of Revenue shall certify pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 11-74.4-8a the appropriate boundaries eligible for the determination of State Sales Tax Increment.

(s) "State Sales Tax Increment" means an amount equal to the increase in the aggregate amount of taxes paid by retailers and servicemen, other than retailers and servicemen subject to the Public Utilities Act, on transactions at places of business located within a State Sales Tax Boundary pursuant to the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act, except such portion of such increase that is paid into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, the Local Government Distributive Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund and the County and Mass Transit District Fund, for as long as State participation exists, over and above the Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for such taxes as certified by the Department of Revenue and paid under those Acts by retailers and servicemen on transactions at places of business located within the State Sales Tax Boundary during the base year which shall be the calendar year immediately prior to the year in which the municipality adopted tax increment allocation financing, less 3.0% of such amounts generated under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Use Tax Act and Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act, which sum shall be appropriated to the Department of Revenue to cover its costs of administering and enforcing this Section. For purposes of computing the aggregate amount of such taxes for base years occurring prior to 1985, the Department of Revenue shall compute the Initial Sales Tax Amount for such taxes and deduct therefrom an amount equal to 4% of the aggregate amount of taxes per year for each year the base year is prior to 1985, but not to exceed a total deduction of 12%. The amount so determined shall be known as the "Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amount". For purposes of determining the State Sales Tax Increment the Department of Revenue shall for each period subtract from the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen on transactions located in the State Sales Tax Boundary, the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts for the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act and the Service Occupation Tax Act. For the State Fiscal Year 1989 this calculation shall be made by utilizing the calendar year 1987 to determine the tax amounts received. For the State Fiscal Year 1990, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from January 1, 1988, until September 30, 1988, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For the State Fiscal Year 1991, this calculation shall be made by utilizing the period from October 1, 1988, until June 30, 1989, to determine the tax amounts received from retailers and servicemen, which shall have deducted therefrom nine-twelfths of the certified Initial State Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts as appropriate. For every State Fiscal Year thereafter, the applicable period shall be the 12 months beginning July 1 and ending on June 30, to determine the tax amounts received which shall have deducted therefrom the certified Initial Sales Tax Amounts, Adjusted Initial Sales Tax Amounts or the Revised Initial Sales Tax Amounts. Municipalities intending to receive a distribution of State Sales Tax Increment must report a list of retailers to the Department of Revenue by October 31, 1988 and by July 31, of each year thereafter.

(t) "Taxing districts" means counties, townships, cities and incorporated towns and villages, school, road, park, sanitary, mosquito abatement, forest preserve, public health, fire protection, river conservancy, tuberculosis sanitarium and any other municipal corporations or districts with the power to levy taxes.

(u) "Taxing districts' capital costs" means those costs of taxing districts for capital improvements that are found by the municipal corporate authorities to be necessary and directly result from the redevelopment project.

(v) As used in subsection (a) of Section 11-74.4-3 of this Act, "vacant land" means any parcel or combination of parcels of real property without industrial, commercial, and residential buildings which has not been used for commercial agricultural purposes within 5 years prior to the designation of the redevelopment project area, unless the parcel is included in an industrial park conservation area or the parcel has been subdivided; provided that if the parcel was part of a larger tract that has been divided into 3 or more smaller tracts that were accepted for recording during the period from 1950 to 1990, then the parcel shall be deemed to have been subdivided, and all proceedings and actions of the municipality taken in that connection with respect to any previously approved or designated redevelopment project area or amended redevelopment project area are hereby validated and hereby declared to be legally sufficient for all purposes of this Act. For purposes of this Section and only for land subject to the subdivision requirements of the Plat Act, land is subdivided when the original plat of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly certified, acknowledged, approved, and recorded or filed in accordance with the Plat Act and a preliminary plat, if any, for any subsequent phases of the proposed Redevelopment Project Area or relevant portion thereof has been properly approved and filed in accordance with the applicable ordinance of the municipality.

(w) "Annual Total Increment" means the sum of each municipality's annual Net Sales Tax Increment and each municipality's annual Net Utility Tax Increment. The ratio of the Annual Total Increment of each municipality to the Annual Total Increment for all municipalities, as most recently calculated by the Department, shall determine the proportional shares of the Illinois Tax Increment Fund to be distributed to each municipality.

(Source: P.A. 94-260, eff. 7-19-05; 94-268, eff. 7-19-05; 94-297, eff. 7-21-05; 94-302, eff. 7-21-05; 94-702, eff. 6-1-06; 94-704, eff. 12-5-05; 94-711, eff. 6-1-06; 94-778, eff. 5-19-06; 94-782, eff. 5-19-06; 94-783, eff. 5-19-06; 94-810, eff. 5-26-06; 94-903, eff. 6-22-06; 94-1091, eff. 1-26-07; 94-1092, eff. 1-26-07; 95-15, eff. 7-16-07; 95-164, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-346, eff. 8-21-07; 95-459, eff. 8-27-07; 95-653, eff. 1-1-08; 95-662, eff. 10-11-07; 95-683, eff. 10-19-07; 95-709, eff. 1-29-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-934, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; 95-977, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-16-08.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted, if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) if the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981;

(2) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989;

(3) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport;

(4) if the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County;

(5) if the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law;

(6) if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont;

(7) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997;

(8) if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis;

(9) if the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget;

(10) if the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island;

(11) if the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline;

(12) if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village;

(13) if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village;

(14) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva;

(15) if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville;

(16) if the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis;

(17) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo;

(18) if the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton;

(19) if the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport;

(20) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola;

(21) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta;

(22) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown;

(23) if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville;

(24) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville;

(25) if the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton;

(26) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington;

(27) if the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy;

(28) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham;

(29) if the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin;

(30) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign;

(31) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana;

(32) if the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth;

(33) if the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth;

(34) if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth;

(35) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero;

(36) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham;

(37) if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton;

(38) if the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst;

(39) if the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan;

(40) if the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan;

(41) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan;

(42) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan;

(43) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby;

(44) if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion;

(45) if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion;

(46) if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect;

(47) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull;

(48) if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville;

(49) if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City;

(50) if the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard;

(51) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner;

(52) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw;

(53) if the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park;

(54) if the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland;

(55) if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale;

(56) if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg;

(57) if the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg;

(58) if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago;

(59) if the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest;

(60) if the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove;

(61) if the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion;

(62) if the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno;

(63) if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights;

(64) if the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont;

(65) if the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park;

(66) if the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb; or

(67) if the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora; .

(68) (67) if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan; or

(69) (68) if the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort; or .

(70) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the 95th General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates date for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, and the City of West Frankfort, and the Village of Libertyville set forth under items item (67), and (68), (69), and (70) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; incorporates P.A. 95-777, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-14-08.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-74.4-7)

Sec. 11-74.4-7. Obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund set forth in Section 11-74.4-8 for the redevelopment project area may be issued to provide for redevelopment project costs. Such obligations, when so issued, shall be retired in the manner provided in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations by the receipts of taxes levied as specified in Section 11-74.4-9 against the taxable property included in the area, by revenues as specified by Section 11-74.4-8a and other revenue designated by the municipality. A municipality may in the ordinance pledge all or any part of the funds in and to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund created pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 to the payment of the redevelopment project costs and obligations. Any pledge of funds in the special tax allocation fund shall provide for distribution to the taxing districts and to the Illinois Department of Revenue of moneys not required, pledged, earmarked, or otherwise designated for payment and securing of the obligations and anticipated redevelopment project costs and such excess funds shall be calculated annually and deemed to be "surplus" funds. In the event a municipality only applies or pledges a portion of the funds in the special tax allocation fund for the payment or securing of anticipated redevelopment project costs or of obligations, any such funds remaining in the special tax allocation fund after complying with the requirements of the application or pledge, shall also be calculated annually and deemed "surplus" funds. All surplus funds in the special tax allocation fund shall be distributed annually within 180 days after the close of the municipality's fiscal year by being paid by the municipal treasurer to the County Collector, to the Department of Revenue and to the municipality in direct proportion to the tax incremental revenue received as a result of an increase in the equalized assessed value of property in the redevelopment project area, tax incremental revenue received from the State and tax incremental revenue received from the municipality, but not to exceed as to each such source the total incremental revenue received from that source. The County Collector shall thereafter make distribution to the respective taxing districts in the same manner and proportion as the most recent distribution by the county collector to the affected districts of real property taxes from real property in the redevelopment project area.

Without limiting the foregoing in this Section, the municipality may in addition to obligations secured by the special tax allocation fund pledge for a period not greater than the term of the obligations towards payment of such obligations any part or any combination of the following: (a) net revenues of all or part of any redevelopment project; (b) taxes levied and collected on any or all property in the municipality; (c) the full faith and credit of the municipality; (d) a mortgage on part or all of the redevelopment project; or (e) any other taxes or anticipated receipts that the municipality may lawfully pledge.

Such obligations may be issued in one or more series bearing interest at such rate or rates as the corporate authorities of the municipality shall determine by ordinance. Such obligations shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times not exceeding 20 years from their respective dates, be in such denomination, carry such registration privileges, be executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment at such place or places, contain such covenants, terms and conditions, and be subject to redemption as such ordinance shall provide. Obligations issued pursuant to this Act may be sold at public or private sale at such price as shall be determined by the corporate authorities of the municipalities. No referendum approval of the electors shall be required as a condition to the issuance of obligations pursuant to this Division except as provided in this Section.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to the authority of this Division secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, which obligations are other than obligations which may be issued under home rule powers provided by Article VII, Section 6 of the Illinois Constitution, or pledges taxes pursuant to (b) or (c) of the second paragraph of this section, the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such obligations or pledging such taxes shall be published within 10 days after such ordinance has been passed in one or more newspapers, with general circulation within such municipality. The publication of the ordinance shall be accompanied by a notice of (1) the specific number of voters required to sign a petition requesting the question of the issuance of such obligations or pledging taxes to be submitted to the electors; (2) the time in which such petition must be filed; and (3) the date of the prospective referendum. The municipal clerk shall provide a petition form to any individual requesting one.

If no petition is filed with the municipal clerk, as hereinafter provided in this Section, within 30 days after the publication of the ordinance, the ordinance shall be in effect. But, if within that 30 day period a petition is filed with the municipal clerk, signed by electors in the municipality numbering 10% or more of the number of registered voters in the municipality, asking that the question of issuing obligations using full faith and credit of the municipality as security for the cost of paying for redevelopment project costs, or of pledging taxes for the payment of such obligations, or both, be submitted to the electors of the municipality, the corporate authorities of the municipality shall call a special election in the manner provided by law to vote upon that question, or, if a general, State or municipal election is to be held within a period of not less than 30 or more than 90 days from the date such petition is filed, shall submit the question at the next general, State or municipal election. If it appears upon the canvass of the election by the corporate authorities that a majority of electors voting upon the question voted in favor thereof, the ordinance shall be in effect, but if a majority of the electors voting upon the question are not in favor thereof, the ordinance shall not take effect.

The ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide that the obligations shall contain a recital that they are issued pursuant to this Division, which recital shall be conclusive evidence of their validity and of the regularity of their issuance.

In the event the municipality authorizes issuance of obligations pursuant to this Section secured by the full faith and credit of the municipality, the ordinance authorizing the obligations may provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all taxable property within the municipality sufficient to pay the principal thereof and interest thereon as it matures, which levy may be in addition to and exclusive of the maximum of all other taxes authorized to be levied by the municipality, which levy, however, shall be abated to the extent that monies from other sources are available for payment of the obligations and the municipality certifies the amount of said monies available to the county clerk.

A certified copy of such ordinance shall be filed with the county clerk of each county in which any portion of the municipality is situated, and shall constitute the authority for the extension and collection of the taxes to be deposited in the special tax allocation fund.

A municipality may also issue its obligations to refund in whole or in part, obligations theretofore issued by such municipality under the authority of this Act, whether at or prior to maturity, provided however, that the last maturity of the refunding obligations may not be later than the dates set forth under Section 11-74.4-3.5. DDD (EEE) (FFF) (GGG), (HHH) (III)(JJJ) (KKK) (LLL) (MMM), or (NNN) if the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville

In the event a municipality issues obligations under home rule powers or other legislative authority the proceeds of which are pledged to pay for redevelopment project costs, the municipality may, if it has followed the procedures in conformance with this division, retire said obligations from funds in the special tax allocation fund in amounts and in such manner as if such obligations had been issued pursuant to the provisions of this division.

All obligations heretofore or hereafter issued pursuant to this Act shall not be regarded as indebtedness of the municipality issuing such obligations or any other taxing district for the purpose of any limitation imposed by law.

(Source: P.A. 94-260, eff. 7-19-05; 94-297, eff. 7-21-05; 94-302, eff. 7-21-05; 94-702, eff. 6-1-06; 94-704, eff. 12-5-05; 94-711, eff. 6-1-06; 94-778, eff. 5-19-06; 94-782, eff. 5-19-06; 94-783, eff. 5-19-06; 94-810, eff. 5-26-06; 94-903, eff. 6-22-06; 94-1091, eff. 1-26-07; 94-1092, eff. 1-26-07; 95-15, eff. 7-16-07; 95-164, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-346, eff. 8-21-07; 95-459, eff. 8-27-07; 95-653, eff. 1-1-08; 95-662, eff. 10-11-07; 95-683, eff. 10-19-07; 95-709, eff. 1-29-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-932, eff. 8-26-08; 95-964, eff. 9-23-08; 95-977, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-16-08.)

Section 105. The Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(70 ILCS 503/25)

Sec. 25. Powers.

(a) The Commission possesses all the powers of a body corporate necessary and convenient to accomplish the purposes of this Act, including, but not limited to, the following powers:

(1) to sue and be sued in its corporate name;

(2) to apply for and accept gifts, grants, or loans of funds or property, financial, or other aid from any public agency or private entity;

(3) to acquire, hold, sell, lease as lessor or lessee, deal in, lend, transfer, convey, donate or otherwise dispose of real or personal property, or interests in the property, under procedures set by the Commission and for consideration in the best interests of the Rantoul National Aviation Center Airport and the community;

(4) to enter into loans, contracts, agreements, and mortgages in any matter connected with any of its corporate purposes and to invest its funds;

(5) to implement the comprehensive plan for the redevelopment of the area within the territorial jurisdiction of the Commission that is adopted by the Village and to assist the Village in updating the comprehensive plan;

(6) to create, develop, and implement redevelopment plans for the territorial jurisdiction of the Commission, which may include commercial and industrial uses;

(7) to prepare, submit, and administer plans, and to participate in projects or intergovernmental agreements, or both, and to create reserves for planning, constructing, reconstructing, acquiring, owning, managing, insuring, leasing, equipping, extending, improving, operating, maintaining, and repairing land and projects that the Commission owns or leases;

(8) to provide for the insurance, including self-insurance, of any property or operations of the Commission or its members, directors, and employees, against any risk or hazard, and to indemnify its members, agents, independent contractors, directors, and employees against any risk or hazard;

(9) to appoint, retain, employ, and set compensation rates for its agents, independent contractors, and employees to carry out its powers and functions; specifically the administrative officer of the Village shall serve as Executive Director of the Commission, and the Comptroller of the Village shall serve as the Financial Officer of the Commission;

(10) to acquire and accept by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise any property or rights from any persons, any municipal corporation, body politic, or agency of the State or of the federal government or directly from the State or the federal government, useful for the purposes of the Commission, and apply for and accept grants, matching grants, loans, or appropriations from the State or the federal government, or any agency or instrumentality of the State or the federal government to be used for any of the purposes of the Commission, and to enter into any agreement with the State or federal government in relation to those grants, matching grants, loans, or appropriations;

(11) to exercise the right of eminent domain by condemnation proceedings, in the manner provided by the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure, to acquire private property for the lawful purposes of the Commission or to carry out a comprehensive plan or redevelopment plan;

(12) to fix and collect just, reasonable, and nondiscriminatory charges and rents for the use of Commission property and services. The charges collected may be used to defray the reasonable expenses of the Commission and to pay the principal of and the interest on any bonds issued by the Commission;

(13) to install, repair, construct, reconstruct, or relocate streets, roads, alleys, sidewalks, utilities, and site improvements essential to the preparation of the area within the territorial jurisdiction of the Commission for use in accordance with the redevelopment plan;

(14) to enter into redevelopment agreements with other units of local government relating to sharing taxes and other revenues and sharing, limiting, and transferring land use planning, subdivision, and zoning powers; and

(15) to borrow money for the corporate purposes of the Commission and, in evidence of its obligations to repay the borrowing, issue its negotiable revenue bonds or notes for any of its corporate purposes, including, but not limited to, the following: paying for costs of planning, constructing, reconstructing, acquiring, owning, leasing, equipping, or improving any publicly-owned land within the territorial jurisdiction of the Commission, paying interest and principal on bonds, paying for legal, financial, and administrative consulting costs related to any debt financing, and creating reserves.

(b) Any financial arrangements made by the Commission must expressly benefit the operations in order to keep the Aviation Center a viable and financially stable entity of the Village of Rantoul.

(Source: P.A. 94-908, eff. 6-23-06; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 110. The Mid-Illinois Medical District Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(70 ILCS 925/90)

Sec. 90. Disposition of money; income fund. All money received by the Commission from the sale or lease of any property, in excess of the amount expended by the Commission for authorized purposes under this Act or as may be necessary to satisfy the obligation of any revenue bond issued pursuant to Section 35, shall be paid into the State treasury for deposit into the Mid-Illinois Illinois Medical District at Springfield Income Fund. The Commission is authorized to use all money received as rentals for the purposes of planning, acquisition, and development of property within the District, for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of property of the Commission, and for all purposes and powers set forth in this Act. All moneys held pursuant to this Section shall be maintained in a depository approved by the State Treasurer. The Auditor General shall, at least biennially, audit or cause to be audited all records and accounts of the Commission pertaining to the operation of the District.

(Source: P.A. 92-870, eff. 1-3-03; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 115. The Mid-America Medical District Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 80 as follows:

(70 ILCS 930/20)

Sec. 20. Property; acquisition. The Commission is authorized to acquire the fee simple title to real property lying within the District and personal property required for its purposes, by gift, purchase, or otherwise. Title shall be taken in the corporate name of the Commission. The Commission may acquire by lease any real property located within the District and personal property found by the Commission to be necessary for its purposes and to which the Commission finds that it need not acquire the fee simple title for carrying out of those purposes. All real and personal property within the District, except that owned and used for purposes authorized under this Act by medical institutions or allied educational institutions, hospitals, dispensaries, clinics, dormitories or homes for the nurses, doctors, students, instructors, or other officers or employees of those institutions located in the District, or any real property that is used for offices or for recreational purposes in connection with those institutions, or any improved residential property within a currently effective historical district properly designated under a federal statute or a State or local statute that has been certified by the Secretary of the Interior to the Secretary of the Treasury as containing criteria that will substantially achieve the purpose of preserving and rehabilitating buildings of historical significance to the district, may be acquired by the Commission in its corporate name under the provisions for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure. The Commission has no quick-take powers, no zoning powers, and no power to establish or enforce building codes. The Commission may not acquire any property pursuant to this Section before a comprehensive master plan has been approved under Section 65.

(Source: P.A. 94-1036, eff. 1-1-07; revised 1-30-08.)

(70 ILCS 930/80)

Sec. 80. Jurisdiction. This Act shall not be construed to limit the jurisdiction of the City of East St. Louis to territory outside the limits of the District nor to impair any power now possessed by or hereafter granted to the City of East St. Louis or to cities generally. Property owned by and exclusively used by the Commission shall be exempt from taxation and shall be subject to condemnation by the State and any municipal corporation or agency of the State for any State or municipal purpose under the provisions for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 94-1036, eff. 1-1-07; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 120. The Southwest Regional Port District Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1855/5) (from Ch. 19, par. 455)

Sec. 5. The District has power to acquire and accept by purchase, lease, gift, grant or otherwise any property and rights useful for its purposes and to provide for the development of channels, ports, harbors, airports, airfields, terminals, port facilities, terminal facilities, aquariums, museums, planetariums, climatrons and any other building or facility which the District has the power to acquire, construct, reconstruct, extend or improve, to serve the needs of commerce within the District. The District may acquire real or personal property or any rights therein in the manner, as near as may be, as is provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, as heretofore or hereafter amended; except that no rights or property of any kind or character now or hereafter owned, leased, controlled or operated and used by, or necessary for the actual operations of any common carrier engaged in interstate commerce, or of any other public utility subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission, shall be taken or appropriated by the District without first obtaining the approval of the Illinois Commerce Commission; and except that no property owned by any city within the District shall be taken or appropriated without first obtaining the consent of the governing body of such city.

Also, the District may lease to others for any period of time, not to exceed 99 years, upon such terms as its Board may determine, any of its real property, rights of way or privileges, or any interest therein, or any part thereof, for industrial, manufacturing, commercial or harbor purposes, which is in the opinion of the Port District Board no longer required for its primary purposes in the development of port and harbor facilities for the use of public transportation, or which may not be immediately needed for such purposes, but where such leases will in the opinion of the Port District Board aid and promote such purposes, and in conjunction with such leases, the District may grant rights of way and privileges across the property of the District, which rights of way and privileges may be assignable and irrevocable during the term of any such lease and may include the right to enter upon the property of the District to do such things as may be necessary for the enjoyment of such leases, rights of way and privileges, and such leases may contain such conditions and retain such interest therein as may be deemed for the best interest of the District by such Board.

Also, the District shall have the right to grant easements and permits for the use of any such real property, rights of way or privileges which in the opinion of the Board will not interfere with the use thereof by the District for its primary purposes and such easements and permits may contain such conditions and retain such interest therein as may be deemed for the best interest of the District by the Board.

With respect to any and all leases, easements, rights of way, privileges and permits made or granted by the Board, the Board may agree upon and collect the rentals, charges and fees that may be deemed for the best interest of the District. Such rentals, charges and fees shall be used to defray the reasonable expenses of the District and to pay the principal of and interest on any revenue bonds issued by the District.

(Source: P.A. 82-783; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 125. The Sanitary District Act of 1917 is amended by changing Sections 8 and 15 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2405/8) (from Ch. 42, par. 307)

Sec. 8. (a) The sanitary district may acquire by purchase, condemnation, or otherwise all real and personal property, right of way and privilege, either within or without its corporate limits that may be required for its corporate purposes. If real property is acquired by condemnation, the sanitary district may not sell or lease any portion of the property for a period of 10 years after acquisition by condemnation is completed. If, after such 10-year period, the sanitary district decides to sell or lease the property, it must first offer the property for sale or lease to the previous owner of the land from whom the sanitary district acquired the property. If the sanitary district and such previous owner do not execute a contract for purchase or lease of the property within 60 days from the initial offer, the sanitary district then may offer the property for sale or lease to any other person. If any district formed under this Act is unable to agree with any other sanitary district upon the terms whereby it shall be permitted to use the drains, channels or ditches of such other sanitary district, the right to such use may be acquired by condemnation in any circuit court by proceedings as provided in Section 4-17 of the Illinois Drainage Code. The compensation to be paid for such use may be a gross sum, or it may be in the form of an annual rental, to be paid in yearly installments as provided by the judgment of the court wherein such proceedings may be had. However, when such compensation is fixed at a gross sum all moneys for the purchase and condemnation of any property shall be paid before possession is taken or any work done on the premises damaged by the construction of such channel or outlet, and in case of an appeal from the circuit court taken by either party whereby the amount of damages is not finally determined, then possession may be taken, if the amount of judgment in such court is deposited at some bank or savings and loan association to be designated by the court, subject to the payment of such damages on orders signed by the circuit court, whenever the amount of damages is finally determined. The sanitary district may sell, convey, vacate and release the real or personal property, right of way and privileges acquired by it when no longer required for the purposes of the district.

(b) A sanitary district may exercise its powers of eminent domain to acquire a public utility only if the Illinois Commerce Commission, following petition by the sanitary district, has granted approval for the sanitary district to proceed in accordance with the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure. The following procedures must be followed when a sanitary district exercises its power of eminent domain to acquire a public utility.

(1) The sanitary district shall petition the Commission for approval of the acquisition of a public utility by the exercise of eminent domain powers. The petition filed by the sanitary district shall state the following:

(A) the caption of the case;

(B) the date of the filing of the application;

(C) the name and address of the condemnee;

(D) the name and address of the condemnor;

(E) a specific reference to the statute under which the condemnation action is authorized;

(F) a specific reference to the action, whether by ordinance, resolution, or otherwise, by which the declaration of taking was authorized, including the date when such action was taken, and the place where the record may be examined;

(G) a description of the purpose of the condemnation;

(H) a reasonable description of the property to be condemned;

(I) a statement of how just compensation will be made;

(J) a statement that, if the condemnee wishes to challenge the proceeding, the condemnee shall file objections within 45 days after its receipt of the notice.

(2) Within 30 days after the filing of a petition by the sanitary district of its intent to acquire by eminent domain all real and personal property, rights of way, and privileges of a public utility, the sanitary district shall serve a copy of the petition on the public utility and shall publish a notice of the filing of the petition in a newspaper of general circulation in the area served by the sanitary district. The sanitary district shall file a certificate of publication with the Commission as proof of publication.

(3) Within 45 days after being served with the notice required by this Section, the condemnee may file objections to the petition with the Commission. All objections shall state specifically the grounds relied upon. All objections shall be raised at one time and in one document. The condemnee shall serve a copy of the objections upon the condemnor within 72 hours after the objections are filed with the Commission.

(4) The Commission shall make a determination regarding the petition and any objections to the petition and shall make such orders and decrees as justice and law shall require. The Commission may take evidence by deposition or otherwise and shall entertain oral argument on all objections. The Commission shall make its determination within 105 days after its receipt of the objections of the condemnee, unless the Commission, in its discretion, extends the determination period for a further period not exceeding 6 months.

(c) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall approve the taking of any property by a sanitary district under subsection (b), within or outside its boundaries, if it is in the public interest. The taking shall be considered to be in the public interest if the sanitary district establishes by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) that the sanitary district has been in existence as the operator of a wastewater system for at least 20 years;

(2) that it will provide wastewater treatment service within the proposed area subject to condemnation at the same level of wastewater treatment service provided throughout the district;

(3) that it will provide the wastewater collection, treatment, and disposal at the same or less operational and maintenance volumetric or bulk rate as the public utility whose property is subject to condemnation; and

(4) that it is not financially impractical for the public utility to serve its remaining customers who are not in the area subject to condemnation.

(Source: P.A. 94-1106, eff. 2-9-07; revised 1-30-08.)

(70 ILCS 2405/15) (from Ch. 42, par. 314)

Sec. 15. Whenever the board of trustees of any sanitary district shall pass an ordinance for the making of any improvement which such district is authorized to make, the making of which will require that private property should be taken or damaged, such district may cause compensation therefor to be ascertained, and may condemn and acquire possession thereof in the same manner as nearly as may be as is provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act, as amended, except Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, and all amendments thereto: Provided, however, that (i) proceedings to ascertain the compensation to be paid for taking or damaging private property shall in all cases be instituted in the county where the property sought to be taken or damaged is situated, and (ii) : And, provided, that all damages to property, whether determined by agreement or by final judgment of court, shall be paid, prior to the payment of any other debt or obligation.

(Source: P.A. 82-783; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 130. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 7a and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 302 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/7a) (from Ch. 42, par. 326a)

Sec. 7a. Discharge into sewers of a sanitary district.

(a) The terms used in this Section are defined as follows:

"Board of Commissioners" means the Board of Commissioners of the sanitary district.

"Sewage" means water-carried human wastes or a combination of water-carried wastes from residences, buildings, businesses, industrial establishments, institutions, or other places together with any ground, surface, storm, or other water that may be present.

"Industrial Wastes" means all solids, liquids, or gaseous wastes resulting from any commercial, industrial, manufacturing, agricultural, trade, or business operation or process, or from the development, recovery, or processing of natural resources.

"Other Wastes" means decayed wood, sawdust, shavings, bark, lime, refuse, ashes, garbage, offal, oil, tar, chemicals, and all other substances except sewage and industrial wastes.

"Person" means any individual, firm, association, joint venture, sole proprietorship, company, partnership, estate copartnership, corporation, joint stock company, trust, school district, unit of local government, or private corporation organized or existing under the laws of this or any other state or country.

"Executive Director" means the executive director of the sanitary district.

(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to discharge sewage, industrial waste, or other wastes into the sewerage system of a sanitary district or into any sewer connected therewith, except upon the terms and conditions that the sanitary district might reasonably impose by way of ordinance, permit, or otherwise.

Any sanitary district, in addition to all other powers vested in it and in the interest of public health and safety, or as authorized by subsections (b) and (c) of Section 46 of the Environmental Protection Act, is hereby empowered to pass all ordinances, rules, or regulations necessary to implement this Section, including but not limited to, the imposition of charges based on factors that influence the cost of treatment, including strength and volume, and including the right of access during reasonable hours to the premises of a person for enforcement of adopted ordinances, rules, or regulations.

(c) Whenever the sanitary district acting through the executive director determines that sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes are being discharged into the sewerage system and when, in the opinion of the executive director the discharge is in violation of an ordinance, rules, or regulations adopted by the Board of Commissioners under this Section governing industrial wastes or other wastes, the executive director shall order the offending party to cease and desist. The order shall be served by certified mail or personally on the owner, officer, registered agent, or individual designated by permit.

In the event the offending party fails or refuses to discontinue the discharge within 90 days after notification of the cease and desist order, the executive director may order the offending party to show cause before the Board of Commissioners of the sanitary district why the discharge should not be discontinued. A notice shall be served on the offending party directing him, her, or it to show cause before the Board of Commissioners why an order should not be entered directing the discontinuance of the discharge. The notice shall specify the time and place where a hearing will be held and shall be served personally or by registered or certified mail at least 10 days before the hearing; and in the case of a unit of local government or a corporation the service shall be upon an officer or agent thereof. After reviewing the evidence, the Board of Commissioners may issue an order to the party responsible for the discharge, directing that within a specified period of time the discharge be discontinued. The Board of Commissioners may also order the party responsible for the discharge to pay a civil penalty in an amount specified by the Board of Commissioners that is not less than $100 nor more than $2,000 per day for each day of discharge of effluent in violation of this Act as provided in subsection (d). The Board of Commissioners may also order the party responsible for the violation to pay court reporter costs and hearing officer fees in a total amount not exceeding $3,000.

(d) The Board of Commissioners shall establish procedures for assessing civil penalties and issuing orders under subsection (c) as follows:

(1) In making its orders and determinations, the Board of Commissioners shall take into consideration all the facts and circumstances bearing on the activities involved and the assessment of civil penalties as shown by the record produced at the hearing.

(2) The Board of Commissioners shall establish a panel of independent hearing officers to conduct all hearings on the assessment of civil penalties and issuance of orders under subsection (c). The hearing officers shall be attorneys licensed to practice law in this State.

(3) The Board of Commissioners shall promulgate procedural rules governing the proceedings, the assessment of civil penalties, and the issuance of orders.

(4) All hearings shall be on the record, and testimony taken must be under oath and recorded stenographically. Transcripts so recorded must be made available to any member of the public or any party to the hearing upon payment of the usual charges for transcripts. At the hearing, the hearing officer may issue, in the name of the Board of Commissioners, notices of hearing requesting the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence relevant to any matter involved in the hearing and may examine witnesses.

(5) The hearing officer shall conduct a full and impartial hearing on the record, with an opportunity for the presentation of evidence and cross-examination of the witnesses. The hearing officer shall issue findings of fact, conclusions of law, a recommended civil penalty, and an order based solely on the record. The hearing officer may also recommend, as part of the order, that the discharge of industrial waste be discontinued within a specified time.

(6) The findings of fact, conclusions of law, recommended civil penalty, and order shall be transmitted to the Board of Commissioners along with a complete record of the hearing.

(7) The Board of Commissioners shall either approve or disapprove the findings of fact, conclusions of law, recommended civil penalty, and order. If the findings of fact, conclusions of law, recommended civil penalty, or order are rejected, the Board of Commissioners shall remand the matter to the hearing officer for further proceedings. If the order is accepted by the Board of Commissioners, it shall constitute the final order of the Board of Commissioners.

(8) (Blank).

(9) The civil penalty specified by the Board of Commissioners shall be paid within 35 days after the party on whom it is imposed receives a written copy of the order of the Board of Commissioners, unless the person or persons to whom the order is issued seeks judicial review under paragraph (8).

(10) If the respondent seeks judicial review of the order assessing civil penalties, the respondent shall, within 35 days after the date of the final order, pay the amount of the civil penalties into an escrow account maintained by the district for that purpose or file a bond guaranteeing payment of the civil penalties if the civil penalties are upheld on review.

(11) Civil penalties not paid by the times specified above shall be delinquent and subject to a lien recorded against the property of the person ordered to pay the penalty. The foregoing provisions for asserting liens against real estate by the sanitary district shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any other remedy or right of recovery, in law or equity, that the sanitary district may have with respect to the collection or recovery of penalties and charges imposed by the sanitary district. Judgment in a civil action brought by the sanitary district to recover or collect the charges shall not operate as a release and waiver of the lien upon the real estate for the amount of the judgment. Only satisfaction of the judgment or the filing of a release or satisfaction of lien shall release the lien.

(e) The executive director may order a person to cease the discharge of industrial waste upon a finding by the executive director that the final order of the Board of Commissioners entered after a hearing to show cause has been violated. The executive director shall serve the person with a copy of his or her order either by certified mail or personally by serving the owner, officer, registered agent, or individual designated by permit. The order of the executive director shall also schedule an expedited hearing before a hearing officer designated by the Board of Commissioners for the purpose of determining whether the company has violated the final order of the Board of Commissioners. The Board of Commissioners shall adopt rules of procedure governing expedited hearings. In no event shall the hearing be conducted less than 7 days after receipt by the person of the executive director's order.

At the conclusion of the expedited hearing, the hearing officer shall prepare a report with his or her findings and recommendations and transmit it to the Board of Commissioners. If the Board of Commissioners, after reviewing the findings and recommendations, and the record produced at the hearings, determines that the person has violated the Board of Commissioner's final order, the Board of Commissioners may authorize the plugging of the sewer. The executive director shall give not less than 10 days written notice of the Board of Commissioner's order to the owner, officer, registered agent, or individual designated by permit, as well as the owner of record of the real estate and other parties known to be affected, that the sewer will be plugged.

The foregoing provision for plugging a sewer shall be in addition to and not in derogation of any other remedy, in law or in equity, that the district may have to prevent violation of its ordinances and orders of its Board of Commissioners.

(f) A violation of the final order of the Board of Commissioners shall be considered a nuisance. If any person discharges sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes into any waters contrary to the final order of the Board of Commissioners, the sanitary district acting through the executive director has the power to commence an action or proceeding in the circuit court in and for the county in which the sanitary district is located for the purpose of having the discharge stopped either by mandamus or injunction, or to remedy the violation in any manner provided for in this Section.

The court shall specify a time, not exceeding 20 days after the service of the copy of the complaint, in which the party complained of must plead to the complaint, and in the meantime, the party may be restrained. In case of default or after pleading, the court shall immediately inquire into the facts and circumstances of the case and enter an appropriate judgment in respect to the matters complained of. Appeals may be taken as in other civil cases.

(g) The sanitary district, acting through the executive director, has the power to commence an action or proceeding for mandamus or injunction in the circuit court ordering a person to cease its discharge, when, in the opinion of the executive director, the person's discharge presents an imminent danger to the public health, welfare, or safety, presents or may present an endangerment to the environment, or threatens to interfere with the operation of the sewerage system or a water reclamation plant under the jurisdiction of the sanitary district. The initiation of a show cause hearing is not a prerequisite to the commencement by the sanitary district of an action or proceeding for mandamus or injunction in the circuit court. The court shall specify a time, not exceeding 20 days after the service of a copy of the petition, in which the party complained of must answer the petition, and in the meantime, the party may be restrained. In case of default in answer or after answer, the court shall immediately inquire into the facts and circumstances of the case and enter an appropriate judgment order in respect to the matters complained of. An appeal may be taken from the final judgment in the same manner and with the same effect as appeals are taken from judgment of the circuit court in other actions for mandamus or injunction.

(h) Whenever the sanitary district commences an action under subsection (f) of this Section, the court shall assess a civil penalty of not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 for each day the person violates a Board order. Whenever the sanitary district commences an action under subsection (g) of this Section, the court shall assess a civil penalty of not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 for each day the person violates the ordinance. Each day's continuance of the violation is a separate offense. The penalties provided in this Section plus interest at the rate set forth in the Interest Act on unpaid penalties, costs, and fees, imposed by the Board of Commissioners under subsection (d), the reasonable costs to the sanitary district of removal or other remedial action caused by discharges in violation of this Act, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, and other expenses of litigation together with costs for inspection, sampling, analysis, and administration related to the enforcement action against the offending party are recoverable by the sanitary district in a civil action.

(i) The Board of Commissioners may establish fees for late filing of reports with the sanitary district required by an ordinance governing discharges. The sanitary district shall provide by certified mail a written notice of the fee assessment that states the person has 30 days after the receipt of the notice to request a conference with the executive director's designee to discuss or dispute the appropriateness of the assessed fee. Unless a person objects to paying the fee for filing a report late by timely requesting in writing a conference with a designee of the executive director, that person waives his or her right to a conference and the sanitary district may impose a lien recorded against the property of the person for the amount of the unpaid fee.

If a person requests a conference and the matter is not resolved at the conference, the person subject to the fee may request an administrative hearing before an impartial hearing officer appointed under subsection (d) to determine the person's liability for and the amount of the fee.

If the hearing officer finds that the late filing fees are owed to the sanitary district, the sanitary district shall notify the responsible person or persons of the hearing officer's decision. If payment is not made within 30 days after the notice, the sanitary district may impose a lien on the property of the person or persons.

Any liens filed under this subsection shall apply only to the property to which the late filing fees are related. A claim for lien shall be filed in the office of the recorder of the county in which the property is located. The filing of a claim for lien by the district does not prevent the sanitary district from pursuing other means for collecting late filing fees. If a claim for lien is filed, the sanitary district shall notify the person whose property is subject to the lien, and the person may challenge the lien by filing an action in the circuit court. The action shall be filed within 90 days after the person receives the notice of the filing of the claim for lien. The court shall hear evidence concerning the underlying reasons for the lien only if an administrative hearing has not been held under this subsection.

(j) If the provisions of any paragraph of this Section are declared unconstitutional or invalid by the final decision of any court of competent jurisdiction, the provisions of the remaining paragraphs continue in effect.

(k) Nothing in this Section eliminates any of the powers now granted to municipalities having a population of 500,000 or more as to design, preparation of plans, and construction, maintenance, and operation of sewers and sewerage systems, or for the control and elimination or prevention of the pollution of their waters or waterways, in the Illinois Municipal Code or any other Act of the State of Illinois.

(l) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law and all amendments and rules adopted pursuant to that Law apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Board of Commissioners in the enforcement of any ordinance, rule, or regulation adopted under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-923, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-23-08.)

(70 ILCS 2605/302)

Sec. 302. District enlarged. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District are extended to include within those limits the following described tract of land and the tract is annexed to the District.

That part of Fractional Section 4, Township 41 North, Range 9 East of the Third Principal Meridian and that part of the Southeast 1/4 of Section 31, and that part of the Southwest 1/4 of Section 32, all in Township 42 North, Range 9, East of the Third Principal Meridian, described as follows:

Commencing at a point marking the Northeast corner of the Northeast 1/4 of Fractional Section 4, Township 41 North, Range 9, East of the Third Principal Meridian;

Thence North 89° 42'33" West along the North line thereof 175.06 feet to a point marking the intersection of said North line and the Westerly right-of-way line of Elgin, Joliet and Eastern Railway Company for a place of beginning;

Thence South 11° 12'47" West along said Westerly right-of-way line, a distance of 44.74 feet to a concrete monument marking the point of intersection of said Westerly railway right-of-way line and Northerly right-of-way line of Northern Illinois Toll Highway;

Thence North 87° 29'33" West along the Northerly line of property conveyed to the Illinois State Toll Highway Commission per Document No. 17,566,128 recorded June 11, 1959, a distance of 427.34 feet to an iron stake on the West line of North 10.82 chains (714.12 feet) of the East 9.25 chains (610.50 feet) of Fractional Section 4;

Thence South 0° 23'47" West along said West line, a distance of 1.63 feet to a point;

Thence North 89° 43'22" West, a distance of 208.43 feet to a point;

Thence South 0° 16'38" West, a distance of 30.00 feet to a point of intersection with the North line of property conveyed to the Illinois State Toll Highway Commission per Document No. 16,651,218 recorded July 26, 1956;

Thence North 89° 43'22" West along said North line, a distance of 2,125.27 feet along the North line of property conveyed to the Illinois State Toll Highway Commission per Document No. 16,646,806 recorded July 23, 1956 and Document No. 16,651,218 recorded July 26, 1956;

Thence North 0° 16'38" East, a distance of 60.01 feet to a point of intersection with the North line of Fractional Section 4, being also the South line of the Southwest 1/4 of Section 32;

Thence North 89° 41'27" West along said South line, a distance of 325.43 feet to a point;

Thence North 85° 21'24" West, a distance of 300.88 feet to a point;

Thence North 85° 27'21" West, a distance of 401.12 feet to a point;

Thence North 79° 49'07" West, a distance of 363.42 feet to a point of intersection with the property conveyed to the Illinois State Toll Highway Commission per Document No. 17,400,695 recorded December 10, 1958;

Thence along said property conveyed to the Illinois State Toll Highway Commission the following four courses:

(1) North 54° 08'29" East, a distance of 314.04 feet;

(2) South 89° 41'27" East, a distance of 550.00 feet;

(3) South 53° 26'13" East, a distance of 372.02 feet;

(4) South 73° 44'44" East, a distance of 291.20 feet to a point of intersection with the North line of Fractional Section 4;

Thence South 89° 41'27" East along said North line, a distance of 1,343.48 feet to the Southwest corner of the Southeast 1/4 of Section 32;

Thence South 89° 42'33" East along said North line of Fractional Section 4, a distance of 1,425.69 feet to the place of beginning;

Containing 385,295.6 square feet or 8.845 acres, more or less, all in Cook County, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 95-716, eff. 4-8-08.)

(70 ILCS 2605/304)

Sec. 304 302. District enlarged. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the corporate limits of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District are extended to include within those limits the following described tract of land and the tract is annexed to the District.

THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST 1/4 OF SECTION 32 AND OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 33, TOWNSHIP 42 NORTH, RANGE 9 EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN, BOUNDED AND DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SECTION 32: THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SECTION 33, FOR A DISTANCE OF 111.37 FEET TO A POINT IN THE EASTERLY LINE OF THE ELGIN, JOLIET AND EASTERN RAILWAY RIGHT OF WAY, FOR A PLACE OF BEGINNING; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SECTION 33 FOR A DISTANCE OF 1,208.29 FEET TO THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH 1/2 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 33, THENCE EAST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF THE SOUTH 1/2 OF THE NORTHWEST 1/4 OF SECTION 33 FOR A DISTANCE OF 1,291.45 FEET TO THE CENTER LINE OF SUTTON ROAD; THENCE SOUTH ALONG THE CENTER LINE OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY KNOWN AS SUTTON ROAD, TO THE INTERSECTION OF SAID CENTER LINE OF SUTTON ROAD WITH THE NORTH LINE OF THE RIGHT OF WAY OF THE ILLINOIS STATE ROUTE 72, AS NOW LOCATED; THENCE NORTHWESTERLY ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF STATE ROUTE 72 TO ITS INTERSECTION WITH THE EAST LINE OF RIGHT OF WAY OF THE ELGIN, JOLIET AND EASTERN RAILWAY AND THENCE NORTHERLY ALONG SAID EAST LINE OF THE RAILWAY RIGHT OF WAY, TO THE PLACE OF BEGINNING, IN COOK COUNTY, ILLINOIS.

(Source: P.A. 95-825, eff. 8-14-08; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 135. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Section 12a as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/12a) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 312a)

Sec. 12a. In addition to other powers provided in Section 12b, the Authority may issue its notes from time to time, in anticipation of tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority or of other revenues or receipts of the Authority, in order to provide money for the Authority to cover any cash flow deficit which the Authority anticipates incurring. Provided, however, that no such notes may be issued unless the annual cost thereof is incorporated in a budget or revised budget of the Authority which has been approved by the Regional Transportation Authority. Any such notes are referred to as "Working Cash Notes". Provided further that, the board shall not issue and have outstanding or demand and direct that the Board of the Regional Transportation Authority issue and have outstanding more than an aggregate of $40,000,000 in Working Cash Notes. No Working Cash Notes shall be issued for a term of longer than 18 months. Proceeds of Working Cash Notes may be used to pay day to day operating expenses of the Authority, consisting of wages, salaries and fringe benefits, professional and technical services (including legal, audit, engineering and other consulting services), office rental, furniture, fixtures and equipment, insurance premiums, claims for self-insured amounts under insurance policies, public utility obligations for telephone, light, heat and similar items, travel expenses, office supplies, postage, dues, subscriptions, public hearings and information expenses, fuel purchases, and payments of grants and payments under purchase of service agreements for operations of transportation agencies, prior to the receipt by the Authority from time to time of funds for paying such expenses. Proceeds of the Working Cash Notes shall not be used (i) to increase or provide a debt service reserve fund for any bonds or notes other than Working Cash Notes of the same Series, or (ii) to pay principal of or interest or redemption premium on any capital bonds or notes, whether as such amounts become due or by earlier redemption, issued by the Authority or a transportation agency to construct or acquire public transportation facilities, or to provide funds to purchase such capital bonds or notes.

(b) The ordinance providing for the issuance of any such notes shall fix the date or dates of maturity, the dates on which interest is payable, any sinking fund account or reserve fund account provisions and all other details of such notes and may provide for such covenants or agreements necessary or desirable with regard to the issue, sale and security of such notes. The Authority shall determine and fix the rate or rates of interest of its notes issued under this Act in an ordinance adopted by the Board prior to the issuance thereof, none of which rates of interest shall exceed that permitted in "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Interest may be payable annually or semi-annually, or at such other times as determined by the Board. Notes issued under this Section may be issued as serial or term obligations, shall be of such denomination or denominations and form, including interest coupons to be attached thereto, be executed in such manner, shall be payable at such place or places and bear such date as the Board shall fix by the ordinance authorizing such note and shall mature at such time or times, within a period not to exceed 18 months from the date of issue, and may be redeemable prior to maturity with or without premium, at the option of the Board, upon such terms and conditions as the Board shall fix by the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such notes. The Board may provide for the registration of notes in the name of the owner as to the principal alone or as to both principal and interest, upon such terms and conditions as the Board may determine. The ordinance authorizing notes may provide for the exchange of such notes which are fully registered, as to both principal and interest, with notes which are registerable as to principal only. All notes issued under this Section by the Board shall be sold at a price which may be at a premium or discount but such that the interest cost (excluding any redemption premium) to the Board of the proceeds of an issue of such notes, computed to stated maturity according to standard tables of bond values, shall not exceed that permitted in "An Act to authorize public corporations to issue bonds, other evidences of indebtedness and tax anticipation warrants subject to interest rate limitations set forth therein", approved May 26, 1970, as now or hereafter amended. Such notes shall be sold at such time or times as the Board shall determine. The notes may be sold either upon competitive bidding or by negotiated sale (without any requirement of publication of intention to negotiate the sale of such notes), as the Board shall determine by ordinance adopted with the affirmative votes of at least 4 Directors. In case any officer whose signature appears on any notes or coupons authorized pursuant to this Section shall cease to be such officer before delivery of such notes, such signature shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes, the same as if such officer had remained in office until such delivery. Neither the Directors of the Regional Transportation Authority, the Directors of the Authority nor any person executing any bonds or notes thereof shall be liable personally on any such bonds or notes or coupons by reason of the issuance thereof.

(c) All notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section shall be general obligations of the Authority to which shall be pledged the full faith and credit of the Authority, as provided in this Section. Such notes shall be secured as provided in the authorizing ordinance, which may, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, include in addition to any other security, a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any or all tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority and on any or all other revenues or moneys of the Authority from whatever source which may by law be utilized for debt service purposes and a specific pledge or assignment of and lien on or security interest in any funds or accounts established or provided for by the ordinance of the Board authorizing the issuance of such notes. Any such pledge, assignment, lien or security interest for the benefit of holders of notes of the Authority shall be valid and binding from the time the notes are issued without any physical delivery or further act, and shall be valid and binding as against and prior to the claims of all other parties having claims of any kind against the Authority or any other person irrespective of whether such other parties have notice of such pledge, assignment, lien or security interest. The obligations of the Authority incurred pursuant to this Section shall be superior to and have priority over any other obligations of the Authority except for obligations under Section 12. The Board may provide in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of any notes issued pursuant to this Section for the creation of, deposits in, and regulation and disposition of sinking fund or reserve accounts relating to such notes. The ordinance authorizing the issuance of any notes pursuant to this Section may contain provisions as part of the contract with the holders of the notes, for the creation of a separate fund to provide for the payment of principal and interest on such notes and for the deposit in such fund from any or all the tax receipts of the Regional Transportation Authority allocated to the Authority and from any or all such other moneys or revenues of the Authority from whatever source which may by law be utilized for debt service purposes, all as provided in such ordinance, of amounts to meet the debt service requirements on such notes, including principal and interest, and any sinking fund or reserve fund account requirements as may be provided by such ordinance, and all expenses incident to or in connection with such fund and accounts or the payment of such notes. Such ordinance may also provide limitations on the issuance of additional notes of the Authority. No such notes of the Authority shall constitute a debt of the State of Illinois.

(d) The ordinance of the Board authorizing the issuance of any notes may provide additional security for such notes by providing for appointment of a corporate trustee (which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within the State) with respect to such notes. The ordinance shall prescribe the rights, duties and powers of the trustee to be exercised for the benefit of the Authority and the protection of the holders of such notes. The ordinance may provide for the trustee to hold in and trust, invest and use amounts in funds and accounts created as provided by the ordinance with respect to the notes. The ordinance shall provide that amounts so paid to the trustee which are not required to be deposited, held or invested in funds and accounts created by the ordinance with respect to notes or used for paying notes to be paid by the trustee to the Authority.

(e) Any notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section shall constitute a contract between the Authority and the holders from time to time of such notes. In issuing any note, the Board may include in the ordinance authorizing such issue a covenant as part of the contract with the holders of the notes, that as long as such obligations are outstanding, it shall make such deposits, as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section. A certified copy of the ordinance authorizing the issuance of any such obligations shall be filed at or prior to the issuance of such obligations with the Regional Transportation Authority, Comptroller of the State of Illinois and the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(f) The State of Illinois pledges to and agrees with the holders of the notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the rights and powers vested in the Authority by this Act or in the Regional Transportation Authority by the "Regional Transportation Authority Act" so as to impair the terms of any contract made by the Authority with such holders or in any way impair the rights and remedies of such holders until such notes, together with interest thereon, with interest on any unpaid installments of interest, and all costs and expenses in connection with any action or proceedings by or on behalf of such holders, are fully met and discharged. In addition, the State pledges to and agrees with the holders of the notes of the Authority issued pursuant to this Section that the State will not limit or alter the basis on which State funds are to be paid to the Authority as provided in the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the use of such funds, so as to impair the terms of any such contract. The Board is authorized to include these pledges and agreements of the State in any contract with the holders of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this Section.

(g) The Board shall not at any time issue, sell or deliver any Interim Financing Notes pursuant to this Section which will cause it to have issued and outstanding at any time in excess of $40,000,000 of Working Cash Notes. Notes which are being paid or retired by such issuance, sale or delivery of notes, and notes for which sufficient funds have been deposited with the paying agency of such notes to provide for payment of principal and interest thereon or to provide for the redemption thereof, all pursuant to the ordinance authorizing the issuance of such notes, shall not be considered to be outstanding for the purposes of this paragraph.

(h) The Board, subject to the terms of any agreements with noteholders as may then exist, shall have power, out of any funds available therefor, to purchase notes of the Authority which shall thereupon be cancelled.

(i) In addition to any other authority granted by law, the State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest, at a price not to exceed par, any State money in the State Treasury which is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due in Interim Financing Notes.

(Source: P.A. 83-885; 83-886; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 140. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Section 5.01 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/5.01) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 355.01)

Sec. 5.01. Metro East Mass Transit District; use and occupation taxes.

(a) The Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may, by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of two-thirds of the then trustees, impose throughout the District any or all of the taxes and fees provided in this Section. All taxes and fees imposed under this Section shall be used only for public mass transportation systems, and the amount used to provide mass transit service to unserved areas of the District shall be in the same proportion to the total proceeds as the number of persons residing in the unserved areas is to the total population of the District. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes.

(b) The Board may impose a Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the district at a rate of 1/4 of 1%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business within the district. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (h) (g) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale, by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Metro East Mass Transit District to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the district, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the District, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. The tax rate shall be 1/4%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the district. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the Authority), 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the District), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the District), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (h) (g) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the District to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(d) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the district, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the district at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at a rate of 1/4%, or as authorized under subsection (d-5) of this Section, of the selling price of the tangible personal property within the District, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the District. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Metro East Mass Transit District. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, that are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metro East Mass Transit District tax fund established under paragraph (h) (g) of this Section.

(d-5) (A) The county board of any county participating in the Metro East Mass Transit District may authorize, by ordinance, a referendum on the question of whether the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax for the District should be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%. Upon adopting the ordinance, the county board shall certify the proposition to the proper election officials who shall submit the proposition to the voters of the District at the next election, in accordance with the general election law.

The proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

Shall the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%?

(B) Two thousand five hundred electors of any Metro East Mass Transit District may petition the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court, or any judge of that Circuit designated by the Chief Judge, in which that District is located to cause to be submitted to a vote of the electors the question whether the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax for the District should be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%.

Upon submission of such petition the court shall set a date not less than 10 nor more than 30 days thereafter for a hearing on the sufficiency thereof. Notice of the filing of such petition and of such date shall be given in writing to the District and the County Clerk at least 7 days before the date of such hearing.

If such petition is found sufficient, the court shall enter an order to submit that proposition at the next election, in accordance with general election law.

The form of the petition shall be in substantially the following form: To the Circuit Court of the County of (name of county):

We, the undersigned electors of the (name of transit district), respectfully petition your honor to submit to a vote of the electors of (name of transit district) the following proposition:

Shall the tax rates for the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax, the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax, and the Metro East Mass Transit District Use Tax be increased from 0.25% to 0.75%?

Name Address, with Street and Number.

(C) The votes shall be recorded as "YES" or "NO". If a majority of all votes cast on the proposition are for the increase in the tax rates, the Metro East Mass Transit District shall begin imposing the increased rates in the District, and the Department of Revenue shall begin collecting the increased amounts, as provided under this Section. An ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing, or on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing.

(D) If the voters have approved a referendum under this subsection, before November 1, 1994, to increase the tax rate under this subsection, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt by a majority vote an ordinance at any time before January 1, 1995 that excludes from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. The ordinance excluding titled or registered tangible personal property from the rate increase must be filed with the Department at least 15 days before its effective date. At any time after adopting an ordinance excluding from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt an ordinance applying the rate increase to that tangible personal property. The ordinance shall be adopted, and a certified copy of that ordinance shall be filed with the Department, on or before October 1, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the rate increase against tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government as of the following January 1. After December 31, 1995, any reimposed rate increase in effect under this subsection shall no longer apply to tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. Beginning January 1, 1996, the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may never reimpose a previously excluded tax rate increase on tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. After July 1, 2004, if the voters have approved a referendum under this subsection to increase the tax rate under this subsection, the Metro East Mass Transit District Board of Trustees may adopt by a majority vote an ordinance that excludes from the rate increase tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. The ordinance excluding titled or registered tangible personal property from the rate increase shall be adopted, and a certified copy of that ordinance shall be filed with the Department on or before October 1, whereupon the Department shall administer and enforce this exclusion from the rate increase as of the following January 1, or on or before April 1, whereupon the Department shall administer and enforce this exclusion from the rate increase as of the following July 1. The Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District may never reimpose a previously excluded tax rate increase on tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government.

(d-6) If the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District has imposed a rate increase under subsection (d-5) and filed an ordinance with the Department of Revenue excluding titled property from the higher rate, then that Board may, by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of two-thirds of the then trustees, impose throughout the District a fee. The fee on the excluded property shall not exceed $20 per retail transaction or an amount equal to the amount of tax excluded, whichever is less, on tangible personal property that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. Beginning July 1, 2004, the fee shall apply only to titled property that is subject to either the Metro East Mass Transit District Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Metro East Mass Transit District Service Occupation Tax. No fee shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(d-7) Until June 30, 2004, if a fee has been imposed under subsection (d-6), a fee shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the district, any item of tangible personal property that is titled or registered with any agency of this State's government, in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed under subsection (d-6).

(d-7.1) Beginning July 1, 2004, any fee imposed by the Board of Trustees of any Metro East Mass Transit District under subsection (d-6) and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the fees shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. Reference to "taxes" in this Section shall be construed to apply to the administration, payment, and remittance of all fees under this Section. For purposes of any fee imposed under subsection (d-6), 4% of the fee, penalty, and interest received by the Department in the first 12 months that the fee is collected and enforced by the Department and 2% of the fee, penalty, and interest following the first 12 months shall be deposited into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used by the Department, subject to appropriation, to cover the costs of the Department. No retailers' discount shall apply to any fee imposed under subsection (d-6).

(d-8) No item of titled property shall be subject to both the higher rate approved by referendum, as authorized under subsection (d-5), and any fee imposed under subsection (d-6) or (d-7).

(d-9) (Blank).

(d-10) (Blank).

(e) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Metro East Mass Transit District as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, except as provided in subsection (d-5) of this Section, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing, or, beginning January 1, 2004, on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (d-7.1), the State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the District. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois the amount to be paid to the District, which shall be the then balance in the fund, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amount to be paid to the District, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for payment for the amount in accordance with the direction in the certification.

(Source: P.A. 94-776, eff. 5-19-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 145. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 1A-2, 10-21.3a, 10-22.3f, 10-22.34c, 11E-135, 13-45, and 18-8.05 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 10-20.40 and 10-20.41 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/1A-2) (from Ch. 122, par. 1A-2)

Sec. 1A-2. Qualifications. The members of the State Board of Education shall be citizens of the United States and residents of the State of Illinois and shall be selected as far as may be practicable on the basis of their knowledge of, or interest and experience in, problems of public education. No member of the State Board of Education shall be gainfully employed or administratively connected with any school system, nor have any interest in or benefit from funds provided by the State Board of Education to an institution of higher learning, public or private, within Illinois, nor shall they be members of a school board or board of school trustees of a public or nonpublic school, college, university or technical institution within Illinois. No member shall be appointed to more than 2 4-year six year terms. Members shall be reimbursed for all ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in performing their duties as members of the Board. Expenses shall be approved by the Board and be consistent with the laws, policies, and requirements of the State of Illinois regarding such expenditures, plus any member may include in his claim for expenses $50 per day for meeting days.

(Source: P.A. 90-548, eff. 1-1-98; revised 10-23-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.40)

Sec. 10-20.40. Student biometric information.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "biometric information" means any information that is collected through an identification process for individuals based on their unique behavioral or physiological characteristics, including fingerprint, hand geometry, voice, or facial recognition or iris or retinal scans.

(b) School districts that collect biometric information from students shall adopt policies that require, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Written permission from the individual who has legal custody of the student, as defined in Section 10-20.12b of this Code, or from the student if he or she has reached the age of 18.

(2) The discontinuation of use of a student's biometric information under either of the following conditions:

(A) upon the student's graduation or withdrawal from the school district; or

(B) upon receipt in writing of a request for discontinuation by the individual having legal custody of the student or by the student if he or she has reached the age of 18.

(3) The destruction of all of a student's biometric information within 30 days after the use of the biometric information is discontinued in accordance with item (2) of this subsection (b).

(4) The use of biometric information solely for identification or fraud prevention.

(5) A prohibition on the sale, lease, or other disclosure of biometric information to another person or entity, unless:

(A) the individual who has legal custody of the student or the student, if he or she has reached the age of 18, consents to the disclosure; or

(B) the disclosure is required by court order.

(6) The storage, transmittal, and protection of all biometric information from disclosure.

(c) Failure to provide written consent under item (1) of subsection (b) of this Section by the individual who has legal custody of the student or by the student, if he or she has reached the age of 18, must not be the basis for refusal of any services otherwise available to the student.

(d) Student biometric information may be destroyed without notification to or the approval of a local records commission under the Local Records Act if destroyed within 30 days after the use of the biometric information is discontinued in accordance with item (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-232, eff. 8-16-07; 95-793, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.41)

Sec. 10-20.41. Use of facilities by community organizations. School boards are encouraged to allow community organizations to use school facilities during non-school hours. If a school board allows a community organization to use school facilities during non-school hours, the board must adopt a formal policy governing the use of school facilities by community organizations during non-school hours. The policy shall prohibit such use if it interferes with any school functions or the safety of students or school personnel or affects the property or liability of the school district.

(Source: P.A. 95-308, eff. 8-20-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.44)

Sec. 10-20.44 10-20.40. Report on contracts.

(a) This Section applies to all school districts, including a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(b) A school board must list on the district's Internet website, if any, all contracts over $25,000 and any contract that the school board enters into with an exclusive bargaining representative.

(c) Each year, in conjunction with the submission of the Statement of Affairs to the State Board of Education prior to December, 1, provided for in Section 10-17, each school district shall submit to the State Board of Education an annual report on all contracts over $25,000 awarded by the school district during the previous fiscal year. The report shall include at least the following:

(1) the total number of all contracts awarded by the school district;

(2) the total value of all contracts awarded;

(3) the number of contracts awarded to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities, as defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females and Persons with Disabilities Act, and locally owned businesses; and

(4) the total value of contracts awarded to minority owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities, as defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females and Persons with Disabilities Act, and locally owned businesses.

The report shall be made available to the public, including publication on the school district's Internet website, if any.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.45)

Sec. 10-20.45 10-20.41. Pay for performance.

(a) Beginning with all newly-negotiated collective bargaining agreements entered into after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, a school board and the exclusive bargaining representative, if any, may include a performance-based teacher compensation plan in the subject of its collective bargaining agreement. Nothing in this Section shall preclude the school board and the exclusive bargaining representative from agreeing to and implementing a new performance-based teacher compensation plan prior to the termination of the current collective bargaining agreement.

(b) The new teacher compensation plan bargained and agreed to by the school board and the exclusive bargaining representative under subsection (a) of this Section shall provide certificated personnel with base salaries and shall also provide that any increases in the compensation of individual teachers or groups of teachers beyond base salaries shall be pursuant, but not limited to, any of the following elements:

(1) Superior teacher evaluations based on multiple evaluations of their classroom teaching.

(2) Evaluation of a teacher's student classroom-level achievement growth as measured using a value-added model. "Value-added" means the improvement gains in student achievement that are made each year based on pre-test and post-test outcomes.

(3) Evaluation of school-level achievement growth as measured using a value-added model. "Value-added" means the improvement gains in student achievement that are made each year based on pre-test and post-test outcomes.

(4) Demonstration of superior, outstanding performance by an individual teacher or groups of teachers through the meeting of unique and specific teaching practice objectives defined and agreed to in advance in any given school year.

(5) Preparation for meeting and contribution to the broader needs of the school organization (e.g., curriculum development, family liaison and community outreach, implementation of a professional development program for faculty, and participation in school management).

(c) A school board and exclusive bargaining representative that initiate their own performance-based teacher compensation program shall submit the new plan to the State Board of Education for review not later than 150 days before the plan is to become effective. If the plan does not conform to this Section, the State Board of Education shall return the plan to the school board and the exclusive bargaining representative for modification. The school board and the exclusive bargaining representative shall then have 30 days after the plan is returned to them to submit a modified plan.

(Source: P.A. 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; revised 1-23-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-21.3a)

Sec. 10-21.3a. Transfer of students.

(a) Each school board shall establish and implement a policy governing the transfer of a student from one attendance center to another within the school district upon the request of the student's parent or guardian. Any request by a parent or guardian to transfer his or her child from one attendance center to another within the school district pursuant to Section 1116 of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 6316 6317) must be made no later than 30 days after the parent or guardian receives notice of the right to transfer pursuant to that law. A student may not transfer to any of the following attendance centers, except by change in residence if the policy authorizes enrollment based on residence in an attendance area or unless approved by the board on an individual basis:

(1) An attendance center that exceeds or as a result of the transfer would exceed its attendance capacity.

(2) An attendance center for which the board has established academic criteria for enrollment if the student does not meet the criteria, provided that the transfer must be permitted if the attendance center is the only attendance center serving the student's grade that has not been identified for school improvement, corrective action, or restructuring under Section 1116 of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 6316 6317).

(3) Any attendance center if the transfer would prevent the school district from meeting its obligations under a State or federal law, court order, or consent decree applicable to the school district.

(b) Each school board shall establish and implement a policy governing the transfer of students within a school district from a persistently dangerous school to another public school in that district that is not deemed to be persistently dangerous. In order to be considered a persistently dangerous school, the school must meet all of the following criteria for 2 consecutive years:

(1) Have greater than 3% of the students enrolled in the school expelled for violence-related conduct.

(2) Have one or more students expelled for bringing a firearm to school as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921.

(3) Have at least 3% of the students enrolled in the school exercise the individual option to transfer schools pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section.

(c) A student may transfer from one public school to another public school in that district if the student is a victim of a violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The violent crime must have occurred on school grounds during regular school hours or during a school-sponsored event.

(d) Transfers made pursuant to subsections (b) and (c) of this Section shall be made in compliance with the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (Public Law 107-110).

(Source: P.A. 92-604, eff. 7-1-02; 93-633, eff. 12-23-03; revised 10-28-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.9, 356z.11, and 356z.12, and 356z.13 356z.11 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.34c)

Sec. 10-22.34c. Third party non-instructional services.

(a) A board of education may enter into a contract with a third party for non-instructional services currently performed by any employee or bargaining unit member or lay off those educational support personnel employees upon 90 days written notice to the affected employees, provided that:

(1) a contract must not be entered into and become effective during the term of a collective bargaining agreement, as that term is set forth in the agreement, covering any employees who perform the non-instructional services;

(2) a contract may only take effect upon the expiration of an existing collective bargaining agreement;

(3) any third party that submits a bid to perform the non-instructional services shall provide the following:

(A) evidence of liability insurance in scope and amount equivalent to the liability insurance provided by the school board pursuant to Section 10-22.3 of this Code;

(B) a benefits package for the third party's employees who will perform the non-instructional services comparable to the benefits package provided to school board employees who perform those services;

(C) a list of the number of employees who will provide the non-instructional services, the job classifications of those employees, and the wages the third party will pay those employees;

(D) a minimum 3-year cost projection, using generally accepted accounting principles and which the third party is prohibited from increasing if the bid is accepted by the school board, for each and every expenditure category and account for performing the non-instructional services;

(E) composite information about the criminal and disciplinary records, including alcohol or other substance abuse, Department of Children and Family Services complaints and investigations, traffic violations, and license revocations or any other licensure problems, of any employees who may perform the non-instructional services, provided that the individual names and other identifying information of employees need not be provided with the submission of the bid, but must be made available upon request of the school board; and

(F) an affidavit, notarized by the president or chief executive officer of the third party, that each of its employees has completed a criminal background check as required by Section 10-21.9 of this Code within 3 months prior to submission of the bid, provided that the results of such background checks need not be provided with the submission of the bid, but must be made available upon request of the school board; .

(4) a contract must not be entered into unless the school board provides a cost comparison, using generally accepted accounting principles, of each and every expenditure category and account that the school board projects it would incur over the term of the contract if it continued to perform the non-instructional services using its own employees with each and every expenditure category and account that is projected a third party would incur if a third party performed the non-instructional services;

(5) review and consideration of all bids by third parties to perform the non-instructional services shall take place in open session of a regularly scheduled school board meeting, unless the exclusive bargaining representative of the employees who perform the non-instructional services, if any such exclusive bargaining representative exists, agrees in writing that such review and consideration can take place in open session at a specially scheduled school board meeting;

(6) a minimum of one public hearing, conducted by the school board prior to a regularly scheduled school board meeting, to discuss the school board's proposal to contract with a third party to perform the non-instructional services must be held before the school board may enter into such a contract; the school board must provide notice to the public of the date, time, and location of the first public hearing on or before the initial date that bids to provide the non-instructional services are solicited or a minimum of 30 days prior to entering into such a contract, whichever provides a greater period of notice;

(7) a contract shall contain provisions requiring the contractor to offer available employee positions pursuant to the contract to qualified school district employees whose employment is terminated because of the contract; and

(8) a contract shall contain provisions requiring the contractor to comply with a policy of nondiscrimination and equal employment opportunity for all persons and to take affirmative steps to provide equal opportunity for all persons.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, a board of education may enter into a contract, of no longer than 3 months in duration, with a third party for non-instructional services currently performed by an employee or bargaining unit member for the purpose of augmenting the current workforce in an emergency situation that threatens the safety or health of the school district's students or staff, provided that the school board meets all of its obligations under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(c) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are not applicable to non-instructional services of a school district that on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are performed for the school district by a third party.

(Source: P.A. 95-241, eff. 8-17-07; revised 10-23-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/11E-135)

Sec. 11E-135. Incentives. For districts reorganizing under this Article and for a district or districts that annex all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts in accordance with Article 7 of this Code, the following payments shall be made from appropriations made for these purposes:

(a)(1) For a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, or for a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, for its first year of existence, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for the new district and for the previously existing districts for which property is totally included within the new district. If the computation on the basis of the previously existing districts is greater, a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the new district.

(2) For a school district that annexes all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts as defined in Article 7 of this Code, for the first year during which the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for the annexing district as constituted after the annexation and for the annexing and each annexed district as constituted prior to the annexation; and if the computation on the basis of the annexing and annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation is greater, then a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the annexing school district as constituted upon the annexation.

(3) For 2 or more school districts that annex all of the territory of one or more entire other school districts, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, for the first year during which the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under Section 18-8.05 of this Code shall be computed for each annexing district as constituted after the annexation and for each annexing and annexed district as constituted prior to the annexation; and if the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the annexing districts as constituted after the annexation is less than the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the annexing and annexed districts, as constituted prior to the annexation, then a supplementary payment equal to the difference shall be made and allocated between or among the annexing districts, as constituted upon the annexation, for the first 4 years of their existence. The total difference payment shall be allocated between or among the annexing districts in the same ratio as the pupil enrollment from that portion of the annexed district or districts that is annexed to each annexing district bears to the total pupil enrollment from the entire annexed district or districts, as such pupil enrollment is determined for the school year last ending prior to the date when the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes. The amount of the total difference payment and the amount thereof to be allocated to the annexing districts shall be computed by the State Board of Education on the basis of pupil enrollment and other data that shall be certified to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, by the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which the annexing and annexed districts are located.

(4) For a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code, or a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, if in their first year of existence the newly created elementary districts and the newly created high school district, from a school district conversion, or the newly created elementary district or districts and newly created combined high school - unit district, from a multi-unit conversion, qualify for less general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code than would have been payable under Section 18-8.05 for that same year to the previously existing districts, then a supplementary payment equal to that difference shall be made for the first 4 years of existence of the newly created districts. The aggregate amount of each supplementary payment shall be allocated among the newly created districts in the proportion that the deemed pupil enrollment in each district during its first year of existence bears to the actual aggregate pupil enrollment in all of the districts during their first year of existence. For purposes of each allocation:

(A) the deemed pupil enrollment of the newly created high school district from a school district conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence multiplied by 1.25;

(B) the deemed pupil enrollment of each newly created elementary district from a school district conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence reduced by an amount equal to the product obtained when the amount by which the newly created high school district's deemed pupil enrollment exceeds its actual pupil enrollment for its first year of existence is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the actual pupil enrollment of the newly created elementary district for its first year of existence and the denominator of which is the actual aggregate pupil enrollment of all of the newly created elementary districts for their first year of existence;

(C) the deemed high school pupil enrollment of the newly created combined high school - unit district from a multi-unit conversion shall be an amount equal to its actual grades 9 through 12 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence multiplied by 1.25; and

(D) the deemed elementary pupil enrollment of each newly created district from a multi-unit conversion shall be an amount equal to each district's actual grade K through 8 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence, reduced by an amount equal to the product obtained when the amount by which the newly created combined high school - unit district's deemed high school pupil enrollment exceeds its actual grade 9 through 12 pupil enrollment for its first year of existence is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the actual grade K through 8 pupil enrollment of each newly created district for its first year of existence and the denominator of which is the actual aggregate grade K through 8 pupil enrollment of all such newly created districts for their first year of existence.

The aggregate amount of each supplementary payment under this subdivision (4) and the amount thereof to be allocated to the newly created districts shall be computed by the State Board of Education on the basis of pupil enrollment and other data, which shall be certified to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, by the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which the newly created districts are located.

(5) For a partial elementary unit district, as defined in subsection (a) or (c) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, if, in the first year of existence, the newly created partial elementary unit district qualifies for less general State aid and supplemental general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code than would have been payable under that Section for that same year to the previously existing districts that formed the partial elementary unit district, then a supplementary payment equal to that difference shall be made to the partial elementary unit district for the first 4 years of existence of that newly created district.

(6) For an elementary opt-in, as described in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the general State aid difference shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) as if the elementary opt-in was included in an optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is less than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is more than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (a) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(6.5) For a school district that annexes territory detached from another school district whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases by 90% or more as a result of the annexation, for the first year during which the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code, the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculated under this Section shall be computed for the district gaining territory and the district losing territory as constituted after the annexation and for the same districts as constituted prior to the annexation; and if the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the district gaining territory and the district losing territory as constituted after the annexation is less than the aggregate of the general State aid and supplemental general State aid as so computed for the district gaining territory and the district losing territory as constituted prior to the annexation, then a supplementary payment shall be made to the annexing district for the first 4 years of existence after the annexation, equal to the difference multiplied by the ratio of student enrollment in the territory detached to the total student enrollment in the district losing territory for the year prior to the effective date of the annexation. The amount of the total difference and the proportion paid to the annexing district shall be computed by the State Board of Education on the basis of pupil enrollment and other data that must be submitted to the State Board of Education in accordance with Section 7-14A of this Code. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-707 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are intended to be retroactive and applicable to any annexation taking effect on or after July 1, 2004. For annexations that are eligible for payments under this paragraph (6.5) and that are effective on or after July 1, 2004, but before January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the first required yearly payment under this paragraph (6.5) shall be paid in the fiscal year of January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Subsequent required yearly payments shall be paid in subsequent fiscal years until the payment obligation under this paragraph (6.5) is complete.

(7) Claims for financial assistance under this subsection (a) may not be recomputed except as expressly provided under Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(8) Any supplementary payment made under this subsection (a) must be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(b)(1) After the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, or a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each of the previously existing districts on June 30, prior to the creation of the new district. For the first 4 years after the formation of the new district, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the new district equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the new district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts during the year immediately preceding the formation of the new district, and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the year immediately prior to the formation of the new district if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule.

(2) After the territory of one or more school districts is annexed by one or more other school districts as defined in Article 7 of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each annexed district and in the annexing district or districts as they were each constituted on June 30 preceding the date when the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation became effective for all purposes, as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code. For the first 4 years after the annexation, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to each annexing district as constituted after the annexation equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the annexing district as constituted after the annexation, while employed in an annexed or annexing district during the year immediately preceding the annexation, and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the immediately preceding year if placed on the salary schedule of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts had the highest salary schedule during the immediately preceding year.

(3) For each new high school district formed under a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code, the State shall make a supplementary payment for 4 years equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each certified member of the new high school district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts, and the sum of the salaries those certified members would have been paid if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule.

(4) For each newly created partial elementary unit district, the State shall make a supplementary payment for 4 years equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each certified member of the newly created partial elementary unit district, while employed in one of the previously existing districts that formed the partial elementary unit district, and the sum of the salaries those certified members would have been paid if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing district with the highest salary schedule. The salary schedules used in the calculation shall be those in effect in the previously existing districts for the school year prior to the creation of the new partial elementary unit district.

(5) For an elementary district opt-in, as described in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the salary difference incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) as if the opted-in elementary district was included in the optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (5) is less than that calculated in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (5) is more than that calculated in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the partial elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in each of the first 4 years after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(5.5) After the formation of a cooperative high school by 2 or more school districts under Section 10-22.22c of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in each of the previously existing high schools on June 30 prior to the formation of the cooperative high school. For the first 4 years after the formation of the cooperative high school, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the cooperative high school equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the cooperative high school while employed in one of the previously existing high schools during the year immediately preceding the formation of the cooperative high school and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the year immediately prior to the formation of the cooperative high school if placed on the salary schedule of the previously existing high school with the highest salary schedule.

(5.10) After the annexation of territory detached from another school district whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases by 90% or more as a result of the annexation, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in the district gaining territory and the district losing territory as they each were constituted on June 30 preceding the date when the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation became effective for all purposes as determined under Section 7-9 of this Code. For the first 4 years after the annexation, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the annexing district equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members of the annexing district as constituted after the annexation while employed in the district gaining territory or the district losing territory during the year immediately preceding the annexation and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during such immediately preceding year if placed on the salary schedule of whichever of the district gaining territory or district losing territory had the highest salary schedule during the immediately preceding year. To be eligible for supplementary State aid reimbursement under this Section, the intergovernmental agreement to be submitted pursuant to Section 7-14A of this Code must show that staff members were transferred from the control of the district losing territory to the control of the district gaining territory in the annexation. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-707 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are intended to be retroactive and applicable to any annexation taking effect on or after July 1, 2004. For annexations that are eligible for payments under this paragraph (5.10) and that are effective on or after July 1, 2004, but before January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the first required yearly payment under this paragraph (5.10) shall be paid in the fiscal year of January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Subsequent required yearly payments shall be paid in subsequent fiscal years until the payment obligation under this paragraph (5.10) is complete.

(5.15) (5.10) After the deactivation of a school facility in accordance with Section 10-22.22b of this Code, a computation shall be made to determine the difference between the salaries effective in the sending school district and each receiving school district on June 30 prior to the deactivation of the school facility. For the lesser of the first 4 years after the deactivation of the school facility or the length of the deactivation agreement, including any renewals of the original deactivation agreement, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to each receiving district equal to the difference between the sum of the salaries earned by each of the certificated members transferred to that receiving district as a result of the deactivation while employed in the sending district during the year immediately preceding the deactivation and the sum of the salaries those certificated members would have been paid during the year immediately preceding the deactivation if placed on the salary schedule of the sending or receiving district with the highest salary schedule.

(6) The supplementary State aid reimbursement under this subsection (b) shall be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code. In the case of the formation of a new district or cooperative high school or a deactivation, reimbursement shall begin during the first year of operation of the new district or cooperative high school or the first year of the deactivation, and in the case of an annexation of the territory of one or more school districts by one or more other school districts or the annexation of territory detached from a school district whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases by 90% or more as a result of the annexation, reimbursement shall begin during the first year when the change in boundaries attributable to the annexation becomes effective for all purposes as determined pursuant to Section 7-9 of this Code, except that for an annexation of territory detached from a school district that is effective on or after July 1, 2004, but before January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases by 90% or more as a result of the annexation, reimbursement shall begin during the fiscal year of January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Each year that the new, annexing, or receiving district or cooperative high school, as the case may be, is entitled to receive reimbursement, the number of eligible certified members who are employed on October 1 in the district or cooperative high school shall be certified to the State Board of Education on prescribed forms by October 15 and payment shall be made on or before November 15 of that year.

(c)(1) For the first year after the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code or a unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling each previously existing district's audited fund balances in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum for the creation of the new district. The new district shall be paid supplementary State aid equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts.

(2) For the first year after the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by another school district, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, computations shall be made, for the year ending June 30 prior to the date that the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation is allowed by the affirmative decision issued by the regional board of school trustees under Section 7-6 of this Code, notwithstanding any effort to seek administrative review of the decision, totaling the annexing district's and totaling each annexed district's audited fund balances in their respective educational, working cash, operations and maintenance, and transportation funds. The annexing district as constituted after the annexation shall be paid supplementary State aid equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation had the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other districts as constituted prior to the annexation.

(3) For the first year after the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by 2 or more other school districts, as defined by Article 7 of this Code, computations shall be made, for the year ending June 30 prior to the date that the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation is allowed by the affirmative decision of the regional board of school trustees under Section 7-6 of this Code, notwithstanding any action for administrative review of the decision, totaling each annexing and annexed district's audited fund balances in their respective educational, working cash, operations and maintenance, and transportation funds. The annexing districts as constituted after the annexation shall be paid supplementary State aid, allocated as provided in this paragraph (3), in an aggregate amount equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of whichever of the annexing or annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation had the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other districts as constituted prior to the annexation. The aggregate amount of the supplementary State aid payable under this paragraph (3) shall be allocated between or among the annexing districts as follows:

(A) the regional superintendent of schools for each educational service region in which an annexed district is located prior to the annexation shall certify to the State Board of Education, on forms that it shall provide for that purpose, the value of all taxable property in each annexed district, as last equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue prior to the annexation, and the equalized assessed value of each part of the annexed district that was annexed to or included as a part of an annexing district;

(B) using equalized assessed values as certified by the regional superintendent of schools under clause (A) of this paragraph (3), the combined audited fund balance deficit of each annexed district as determined under this Section shall be apportioned between or among the annexing districts in the same ratio as the equalized assessed value of that part of the annexed district that was annexed to or included as a part of an annexing district bears to the total equalized assessed value of the annexed district; and

(C) the aggregate supplementary State aid payment under this paragraph (3) shall be allocated between or among, and shall be paid to, the annexing districts in the same ratio as the sum of the combined audited fund balance deficit of each annexing district as constituted prior to the annexation, plus all combined audited fund balance deficit amounts apportioned to that annexing district under clause (B) of this subsection, bears to the aggregate of the combined audited fund balance deficits of all of the annexing and annexed districts as constituted prior to the annexation.

(4) For the new elementary districts and new high school district formed through a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code or the new elementary district or districts and new combined high school - unit district formed through a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling each previously existing district's audited fund balances in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum establishing the new districts. In the first year of the new districts, the State shall make a one-time supplementary payment equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts. A district with a combined balance among the 4 funds that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero. The supplementary payment shall be allocated among the newly formed high school and elementary districts in the manner provided by the petition for the formation of the districts, in the form in which the petition is approved by the regional superintendent of schools or State Superintendent of Education under Section 11E-50 of this Code.

(5) For each newly created partial elementary unit district, as defined in subsection (a) or (c) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, a computation shall be made totaling the audited fund balances of each previously existing district that formed the new partial elementary unit district in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the referendum for the formation of the partial elementary unit district. In the first year of the new partial elementary unit district, the State shall make a one-time supplementary payment to the new district equal to the sum of the differences between the deficit of the previously existing district with the smallest deficit and the deficits of each of the other previously existing districts. A district with a combined balance among the 4 funds that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero.

(6) For an elementary opt-in as defined in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the deficit fund balance incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) as if the opted-in elementary was included in the optional elementary unit district at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is less than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then no adjustments may be made. If the calculation in this paragraph (6) is more than that calculated in paragraph (5) of this subsection (c) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, then the excess must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the calculated excess shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district in the first year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(6.5) For the first year after the annexation of territory detached from another school district whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases by 90% or more as a result of the annexation, a computation shall be made totaling the audited fund balances of the district gaining territory and the audited fund balances of the district losing territory in the educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the year ending June 30 prior to the date that the change of boundaries attributable to the annexation is allowed by the affirmative decision of the regional board of school trustees under Section 7-6 of this Code, notwithstanding any action for administrative review of the decision. The annexing district as constituted after the annexation shall be paid supplementary State aid equal to the difference between the deficit of whichever district included in this calculation as constituted prior to the annexation had the smallest deficit and the deficit of each other district included in this calculation as constituted prior to the annexation, multiplied by the ratio of equalized assessed value of the territory detached to the total equalized assessed value of the district losing territory. The regional superintendent of schools for the educational service region in which a district losing territory is located prior to the annexation shall certify to the State Board of Education the value of all taxable property in the district losing territory and the value of all taxable property in the territory being detached, as last equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue prior to the annexation. To be eligible for supplementary State aid reimbursement under this Section, the intergovernmental agreement to be submitted pursuant to Section 7-14A of this Code must show that fund balances were transferred from the district losing territory to the district gaining territory in the annexation. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-707 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are intended to be retroactive and applicable to any annexation taking effect on or after July 1, 2004. For annexations that are eligible for payments under this paragraph (6.5) and that are effective on or after July 1, 2004, but before January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the required payment under this paragraph (6.5) shall be paid in the fiscal year of January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(7) For purposes of any calculation required under paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (6.5) of this subsection (c), a district with a combined fund balance that is positive shall be considered to have a deficit of zero. For purposes of determining each district's audited fund balances in its educational fund, working cash fund, operations and maintenance fund, and transportation fund for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (6.5) of this subsection (c), the balance of each fund shall be deemed decreased by an amount equal to the amount of the annual property tax theretofore levied in the fund by the district for collection and payment to the district during the calendar year in which the June 30 fell, but only to the extent that the tax so levied in the fund actually was received by the district on or before or comprised a part of the fund on such June 30. For purposes of determining each district's audited fund balances, a calculation shall be made for each fund to determine the average for the 3 years prior to the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (6.5) of this subsection (c), of the district's expenditures in the categories "purchased services", "supplies and materials", and "capital outlay", as those categories are defined in rules of the State Board of Education. If this 3-year average is less than the district's expenditures in these categories for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (6.5) of this subsection (c), then the 3-year average shall be used in calculating the amounts payable under this Section in place of the amounts shown in these categories for the specified year ending June 30, as provided in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (6.5) of this subsection (c). Any deficit because of State aid not yet received may not be considered in determining the June 30 deficits. The same basis of accounting shall be used by all previously existing districts and by all annexing or annexed districts, as constituted prior to the annexation, in making any computation required under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (6.5) of this subsection (c).

(8) The supplementary State aid payments under this subsection (c) shall be treated as separate from all other payments made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code.

(d)(1) Following the formation of a combined school district, as defined in Section 11E-20 of this Code, a new unit district, as defined in Section 11E-25 of this Code, a new elementary district or districts and a new high school district formed through a school district conversion, as defined in Section 11E-15 of this Code, a new partial elementary unit district, as defined in Section 11E-30 of this Code, or a new elementary district or districts formed through a multi-unit conversion, as defined in subsection (b) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, or the annexation of all of the territory of one or more entire school districts by one or more other school districts, as defined in Article 7 of this Code, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid for the number of school years determined under the following table to each new or annexing district equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by the district on a full-time basis for the regular term of the school year:

The State Board of Education shall make a one-time calculation of a reorganized district's quintile ranks. The average daily attendance used in this calculation shall be the best 3 months' average daily attendance for the district's first year. The equalized assessed value per pupil shall be the district's real property equalized assessed value used in calculating the district's first-year general State aid claim, under Section 18-8.05 of this Code, divided by the best 3 months' average daily attendance.

No annexing or resulting school district shall be entitled to supplementary State aid under this subsection (d) unless the district acquires at least 30% of the average daily attendance of the district from which the territory is being detached or divided.

If a district results from multiple reorganizations that would otherwise qualify the district for multiple payments under this subsection (d) in any year, then the district shall receive a single payment only for that year based solely on the most recent reorganization.

(2) For an elementary opt-in, as defined in subsection (d) of Section 11E-30 of this Code, the full-time certified staff incentive shall be computed in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee of the elementary district that opts-in who is employed by the optional elementary unit district on a full-time basis for the regular term of the school year. The calculation from this paragraph (2) must be paid as follows:

(A) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is one year after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 100% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(B) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 2 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 75% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(C) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 3 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 50% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(D) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 4 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, 25% of the amount calculated in this paragraph (2) shall be paid to the optional elementary unit district for the number of years calculated in paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) at the optional elementary unit district's original effective date, starting in the second year after the effective date of the elementary opt-in.

(E) If the effective date for the elementary opt-in is 5 years after the effective date for the optional elementary unit district, the optional elementary unit district is not eligible for any additional incentives due to the elementary opt-in.

(2.5) Following the formation of a cooperative high school by 2 or more school districts under Section 10-22.22c of this Code, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid for 3 school years to the cooperative high school equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by the cooperative high school on a full-time basis for the regular term of any such school year. If a cooperative high school results from multiple agreements that would otherwise qualify the cooperative high school for multiple payments under this Section in any year, the cooperative high school shall receive a single payment for that year based solely on the most recent agreement.

(2.10) Following the annexation of territory detached from another school district whereby the enrollment of the annexing district increases 90% or more as a result of the annexation, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid to the annexing district equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by the annexing district on a full-time basis and shall be calculated in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section. To be eligible for supplementary State aid reimbursement under this Section, the intergovernmental agreement to be submitted pursuant to Section 7-14A of this Code must show that certified staff members were transferred from the control of the district losing territory to the control of the district gaining territory in the annexation. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-707 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are intended to be retroactive and applicable to any annexation taking effect on or after July 1, 2004. For annexations that are eligible for payments under this paragraph (2.10) and that are effective on or after July 1, 2004, but before January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the first required yearly payment under this paragraph (2.10) shall be paid in the second fiscal year after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Any subsequent required yearly payments shall be paid in subsequent fiscal years until the payment obligation under this paragraph (2.10) is complete.

(2.15) (2.10) Following the deactivation of a school facility in accordance with Section 10-22.22b of this Code, a supplementary State aid reimbursement shall be paid for the lesser of 3 school years or the length of the deactivation agreement, including any renewals of the original deactivation agreement, to each receiving school district equal to the sum of $4,000 for each certified employee who is employed by that receiving district on a full-time basis for the regular term of any such school year who was originally transferred to the control of that receiving district as a result of the deactivation. Receiving districts are eligible for payments under this paragraph (2.15) (2.10) based on the certified employees transferred to that receiving district as a result of the deactivation and are not required to receive at least 30% of the deactivating district's average daily attendance as required under paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) to be eligible for payments.

(3) The supplementary State aid reimbursement payable under this subsection (d) shall be separate from and in addition to all other payments made to the district pursuant to any other Section of this Article.

(4) During May of each school year for which a supplementary State aid reimbursement is to be paid to a new, annexing, or receiving school district or cooperative high school pursuant to this subsection (d), the school board or governing board shall certify to the State Board of Education, on forms furnished to the school board or governing board by the State Board of Education for purposes of this subsection (d), the number of certified employees for which the district or cooperative high school is entitled to reimbursement under this Section, together with the names, certificate numbers, and positions held by the certified employees.

(5) Upon certification by the State Board of Education to the State Comptroller of the amount of the supplementary State aid reimbursement to which a school district or cooperative high school is entitled under this subsection (d), the State Comptroller shall draw his or her warrant upon the State Treasurer for the payment thereof to the school district or cooperative high school and shall promptly transmit the payment to the school district or cooperative high school through the appropriate school treasurer.

(Source: P.A. 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; incorporates P.A. 94-902, eff. 7-1-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-903, eff. 8-25-08; revised 9-5-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/13-45) (from Ch. 122, par. 13-45)

Sec. 13-45. Other provisions of this Code shall not apply to the Department of Juvenile Justice School District being all of the following Articles and Sections: Articles 7, 8, 9, those sections of Article 10 in conflict with any provisions of Sections 13-40 through 13-45, and Articles 11, 12, 15, 17, 18, 19, 19A, 20, 22, 24, 26, 31, 32, 33, and 34, 35. Also Article 28 shall not apply except that this School District may use any funds available from State, Federal and other funds for the purchase of textbooks, apparatus and equipment.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; revised 1-30-08.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.05)

Sec. 18-8.05. Basis for apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid to the common schools for the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years.

(A) General Provisions.

(1) The provisions of this Section apply to the 1998-1999 and subsequent school years. The system of general State financial aid provided for in this Section is designed to assure that, through a combination of State financial aid and required local resources, the financial support provided each pupil in Average Daily Attendance equals or exceeds a prescribed per pupil Foundation Level. This formula approach imputes a level of per pupil Available Local Resources and provides for the basis to calculate a per pupil level of general State financial aid that, when added to Available Local Resources, equals or exceeds the Foundation Level. The amount of per pupil general State financial aid for school districts, in general, varies in inverse relation to Available Local Resources. Per pupil amounts are based upon each school district's Average Daily Attendance as that term is defined in this Section.

(2) In addition to general State financial aid, school districts with specified levels or concentrations of pupils from low income households are eligible to receive supplemental general State financial aid grants as provided pursuant to subsection (H). The supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under subsection (H) shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(3) To receive financial assistance under this Section, school districts are required to file claims with the State Board of Education, subject to the following requirements:

(a) Any school district which fails for any given school year to maintain school as required by law, or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to file for such school year any claim upon the Common School Fund. In case of nonrecognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion which the Average Daily Attendance in the attendance center or centers bear to the Average Daily Attendance in the school district. A "recognized school" means any public school which meets the standards as established for recognition by the State Board of Education. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim which was filed while it was recognized.

(b) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c) If a school district operates a full year school under Section 10-19.1, the general State aid to the school district shall be determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with this Section as near as may be applicable.

(d) (Blank).

(4) Except as provided in subsections (H) and (L), the board of any district receiving any of the grants provided for in this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that board is authorized to make expenditures by law.

School districts are not required to exert a minimum Operating Tax Rate in order to qualify for assistance under this Section.

(5) As used in this Section the following terms, when capitalized, shall have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Average Daily Attendance": A count of pupil attendance in school, averaged as provided for in subsection (C) and utilized in deriving per pupil financial support levels.

(b) "Available Local Resources": A computation of local financial support, calculated on the basis of Average Daily Attendance and derived as provided pursuant to subsection (D).

(c) "Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes": Funds paid to local school districts pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

(d) "Foundation Level": A prescribed level of per pupil financial support as provided for in subsection (B).

(e) "Operating Tax Rate": All school district property taxes extended for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

(B) Foundation Level.

(1) The Foundation Level is a figure established by the State representing the minimum level of per pupil financial support that should be available to provide for the basic education of each pupil in Average Daily Attendance. As set forth in this Section, each school district is assumed to exert a sufficient local taxing effort such that, in combination with the aggregate of general State financial aid provided the district, an aggregate of State and local resources are available to meet the basic education needs of pupils in the district.

(2) For the 1998-1999 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,225. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,325. For the 2000-2001 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,425. For the 2001-2002 school year and 2002-2003 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,560. For the 2003-2004 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,810. For the 2004-2005 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,964. For the 2005-2006 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,164. For the 2006-2007 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,334. For the 2007-2008 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,734.

(3) For the 2008-2009 school year and each school year thereafter, the Foundation Level of support is $5,959 or such greater amount as may be established by law by the General Assembly.

(C) Average Daily Attendance.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), an Average Daily Attendance figure shall be utilized. The Average Daily Attendance figure for formula calculation purposes shall be the monthly average of the actual number of pupils in attendance of each school district, as further averaged for the best 3 months of pupil attendance for each school district. In compiling the figures for the number of pupils in attendance, school districts and the State Board of Education shall, for purposes of general State aid funding, conform attendance figures to the requirements of subsection (F).

(2) The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (E) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated or the average of the attendance data for the 3 preceding school years, whichever is greater. The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (H) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated.

(D) Available Local Resources.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), a representation of Available Local Resources per pupil, as that term is defined and determined in this subsection, shall be utilized. Available Local Resources per pupil shall include a calculated dollar amount representing local school district revenues from local property taxes and from Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes, expressed on the basis of pupils in Average Daily Attendance. Calculation of Available Local Resources shall exclude any tax amnesty funds received as a result of Public Act 93-26.

(2) In determining a school district's revenue from local property taxes, the State Board of Education shall utilize the equalized assessed valuation of all taxable property of each school district as of September 30 of the previous year. The equalized assessed valuation utilized shall be obtained and determined as provided in subsection (G).

(3) For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 3.00%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 2.30%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades 9 through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be the applicable equalized assessed valuation of the district multiplied by 1.05%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

For partial elementary unit districts created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 2.06% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure, plus the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 0.94% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

(4) The Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes paid to each school district during the calendar year 2 years before the calendar year in which a school year begins, divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for that district, shall be added to the local property tax revenues per pupil as derived by the application of the immediately preceding paragraph (3). The sum of these per pupil figures for each school district shall constitute Available Local Resources as that term is utilized in subsection (E) in the calculation of general State aid.

(E) Computation of General State Aid.

(1) For each school year, the amount of general State aid allotted to a school district shall be computed by the State Board of Education as provided in this subsection.

(2) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is less than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, general State aid for that district shall be calculated as an amount equal to the Foundation Level minus Available Local Resources, multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(3) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is equal to or greater than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level and less than the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid per pupil shall be a decimal proportion of the Foundation Level derived using a linear algorithm. Under this linear algorithm, the calculated general State aid per pupil shall decline in direct linear fashion from 0.07 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, to 0.05 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level. The allocation of general State aid for school districts subject to this paragraph 3 shall be the calculated general State aid per pupil figure multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(4) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil equals or exceeds the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid for the school district shall be calculated as the product of $218 multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(5) The amount of general State aid allocated to a school district for the 1999-2000 school year meeting the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) shall be increased by an amount equal to the general State aid that would have been received by the district for the 1998-1999 school year by utilizing the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) less the general State aid allotted for the 1998-1999 school year. This amount shall be deemed a one time increase, and shall not affect any future general State aid allocations.

(F) Compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(1) Each school district shall, by July 1 of each year, submit to the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Board of Education, attendance figures for the school year that began in the preceding calendar year. The attendance information so transmitted shall identify the average daily attendance figures for each month of the school year. Beginning with the general State aid claim form for the 2002-2003 school year, districts shall calculate Average Daily Attendance as provided in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph (1).

(a) In districts that do not hold year-round classes, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(b) In districts in which all buildings hold year-round classes, days of attendance in July and August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(c) In districts in which some buildings, but not all, hold year-round classes, for the non-year-round buildings, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May. The average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be computed as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph (1). To calculate the Average Daily Attendance for the district, the average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be multiplied by the days in session for the non-year-round buildings for each month and added to the monthly attendance of the non-year-round buildings.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, days of attendance by pupils shall be counted only for sessions of not less than 5 clock hours of school work per day under direct supervision of: (i) teachers, or (ii) non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel when engaging in non-teaching duties and supervising in those instances specified in subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 and paragraph 10 of Section 34-18, with pupils of legal school age and in kindergarten and grades 1 through 12.

Days of attendance by tuition pupils shall be accredited only to the districts that pay the tuition to a recognized school.

(2) Days of attendance by pupils of less than 5 clock hours of school shall be subject to the following provisions in the compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(a) Pupils regularly enrolled in a public school for only a part of the school day may be counted on the basis of 1/6 day for every class hour of instruction of 40 minutes or more attended pursuant to such enrollment, unless a pupil is enrolled in a block-schedule format of 80 minutes or more of instruction, in which case the pupil may be counted on the basis of the proportion of minutes of school work completed each day to the minimum number of minutes that school work is required to be held that day.

(b) Days of attendance may be less than 5 clock hours on the opening and closing of the school term, and upon the first day of pupil attendance, if preceded by a day or days utilized as an institute or teachers' workshop.

(c) A session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance upon certification by the regional superintendent, and approved by the State Superintendent of Education to the extent that the district has been forced to use daily multiple sessions.

(d) A session of 3 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance (1) when the remainder of the school day or at least 2 hours in the evening of that day is utilized for an in-service training program for teachers, up to a maximum of 5 days per school year of which a maximum of 4 days of such 5 days may be used for parent-teacher conferences, provided a district conducts an in-service training program for teachers which has been approved by the State Superintendent of Education; or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days may be used, in which event each such day may be counted as a day of attendance; and (2) when days in addition to those provided in item (1) are scheduled by a school pursuant to its school improvement plan adopted under Article 34 or its revised or amended school improvement plan adopted under Article 2, provided that (i) such sessions of 3 or more clock hours are scheduled to occur at regular intervals, (ii) the remainder of the school days in which such sessions occur are utilized for in-service training programs or other staff development activities for teachers, and (iii) a sufficient number of minutes of school work under the direct supervision of teachers are added to the school days between such regularly scheduled sessions to accumulate not less than the number of minutes by which such sessions of 3 or more clock hours fall short of 5 clock hours. Any full days used for the purposes of this paragraph shall not be considered for computing average daily attendance. Days scheduled for in-service training programs, staff development activities, or parent-teacher conferences may be scheduled separately for different grade levels and different attendance centers of the district.

(e) A session of not less than one clock hour of teaching hospitalized or homebound pupils on-site or by telephone to the classroom may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance, however these pupils must receive 4 or more clock hours of instruction to be counted for a full day of attendance.

(f) A session of at least 4 clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance for first grade pupils, and pupils in full day kindergartens, and a session of 2 or more hours may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance by pupils in kindergartens which provide only 1/2 day of attendance.

(g) For children with disabilities who are below the age of 6 years and who cannot attend 2 or more clock hours because of their disability or immaturity, a session of not less than one clock hour may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance; however for such children whose educational needs so require a session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a full day of attendance.

(h) A recognized kindergarten which provides for only 1/2 day of attendance by each pupil shall not have more than 1/2 day of attendance counted in any one day. However, kindergartens may count 2 1/2 days of attendance in any 5 consecutive school days. When a pupil attends such a kindergarten for 2 half days on any one school day, the pupil shall have the following day as a day absent from school, unless the school district obtains permission in writing from the State Superintendent of Education. Attendance at kindergartens which provide for a full day of attendance by each pupil shall be counted the same as attendance by first grade pupils. Only the first year of attendance in one kindergarten shall be counted, except in case of children who entered the kindergarten in their fifth year whose educational development requires a second year of kindergarten as determined under the rules and regulations of the State Board of Education.

(i) On the days when the Prairie State Achievement Examination is administered under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64 of this Code, the day of attendance for a pupil whose school day must be shortened to accommodate required testing procedures may be less than 5 clock hours and shall be counted towards the 176 days of actual pupil attendance required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that a sufficient number of minutes of school work in excess of 5 clock hours are first completed on other school days to compensate for the loss of school work on the examination days.

(G) Equalized Assessed Valuation Data.

(1) For purposes of the calculation of Available Local Resources required pursuant to subsection (D), the State Board of Education shall secure from the Department of Revenue the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every school district, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the district as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all school districts subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each school district situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (a) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that school district exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that school district if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (b) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each school district all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this paragraph that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this paragraph that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

This equalized assessed valuation, as adjusted further by the requirements of this subsection, shall be utilized in the calculation of Available Local Resources.

(2) The equalized assessed valuation in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted, as applicable, in the following manner:

(a) For the purposes of calculating State aid under this Section, with respect to any part of a school district within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Sections 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-50 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current equalized assessed valuation of real property located in any such project area which is attributable to an increase above the total initial equalized assessed valuation of such property shall be used as part of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, the total initial equalized assessed valuation or the current equalized assessed valuation, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(b) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (b).

(3) For the 1999-2000 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district meets all of the criteria of this subsection (G)(3), the school district's Available Local Resources shall be calculated under subsection (D) using the district's Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated under this subsection (G)(3).

For purposes of this subsection (G)(3) the following terms shall have the following meanings:

"Budget Year": The school year for which general State aid is calculated and awarded under subsection (E).

"Base Tax Year": The property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of general State aid.

"Preceding Tax Year": The property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Base Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the County Clerk and defined in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate as defined in subsection (A).

"Extension Limitation Ratio": A numerical ratio, certified by the County Clerk, in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Tax Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension.

"Operating Tax Rate": The operating tax rate as defined in subsection (A).

If a school district is subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of that district. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the district's 1996 Equalized Assessed Valuation and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. For the 2000-2001 school year and each school year thereafter, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated under this subsection (G)(3) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation as calculated pursuant to subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2), then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid for the Budget Year pursuant to subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources under subsection (D).

Partial elementary unit districts created in accordance with Article 11E of this Code shall not be eligible for the adjustment in this subsection (G)(3) until the fifth year following the effective date of the reorganization.

(4) For the purposes of calculating general State aid for the 1999-2000 school year only, if a school district experienced a triennial reassessment on the equalized assessed valuation used in calculating its general State financial aid apportionment for the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation that would have been used to calculate the district's 1998-1999 general State aid. This amount shall equal the product of the equalized assessed valuation used to calculate general State aid for the 1997-1998 school year and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district as calculated under this paragraph (4) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation utilized in calculating the district's 1998-1999 general State aid allocation, then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources.

(5) For school districts having a majority of their equalized assessed valuation in any county except Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, or Will, if the amount of general State aid allocated to the school district for the 1999-2000 school year under the provisions of subsection (E), (H), and (J) of this Section is less than the amount of general State aid allocated to the district for the 1998-1999 school year under these subsections, then the general State aid of the district for the 1999-2000 school year only shall be increased by the difference between these amounts. The total payments made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed $14,000,000. Claims shall be prorated if they exceed $14,000,000.

(H) Supplemental General State Aid.

(1) In addition to the general State aid a school district is allotted pursuant to subsection (E), qualifying school districts shall receive a grant, paid in conjunction with a district's payments of general State aid, for supplemental general State aid based upon the concentration level of children from low-income households within the school district. Supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under this subsection shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section. If the appropriation in any fiscal year for general State aid and supplemental general State aid is insufficient to pay the amounts required under the general State aid and supplemental general State aid calculations, then the State Board of Education shall ensure that each school district receives the full amount due for general State aid and the remainder of the appropriation shall be used for supplemental general State aid, which the State Board of Education shall calculate and pay to eligible districts on a prorated basis.

(1.5) This paragraph (1.5) applies only to those school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall be the low-income eligible pupil count from the most recently available federal census divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district. If, however, (i) the percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count of a high school district with fewer than 400 students exceeds by 75% or more the percentage change in the total low-income eligible pupil count of contiguous elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, or (ii) a high school district within 2 counties and serving 5 elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, has a percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count and there is a percentage increase in the total low-income eligible pupil count of a majority of the elementary school districts in excess of 50% from the 2 most recent federal censuses, then the high school district's low-income eligible pupil count from the earlier federal census shall be the number used as the low-income eligible pupil count for the high school district, for purposes of this subsection (H). The changes made to this paragraph (1) by Public Act 92-28 shall apply to supplemental general State aid grants for school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year that are paid in fiscal year 1999 or thereafter and to any State aid payments made in fiscal year 1994 through fiscal year 1998 pursuant to subsection 1(n) of Section 18-8 of this Code (which was repealed on July 1, 1998), and any high school district that is affected by Public Act 92-28 is entitled to a recomputation of its supplemental general State aid grant or State aid paid in any of those fiscal years. This recomputation shall not be affected by any other funding.

(1.10) This paragraph (1.10) applies to the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall, for each fiscal year, be the low-income eligible pupil count as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services based on the number of pupils who are eligible for at least one of the following low income programs: Medicaid, KidCare, TANF, or Food Stamps, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services, averaged over the 2 immediately preceding fiscal years for fiscal year 2004 and over the 3 immediately preceding fiscal years for each fiscal year thereafter) divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(2) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 1998-1999, 1999-2000, and 2000-2001 school years only:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for any school year shall be $800 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for the 1998-1999 school year shall be $1,100 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,500 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,900 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For the 1999-2000 school year, the per pupil amount specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be increased to $1,243, $1,600, and $2,000, respectively.

(f) For the 2000-2001 school year, the per pupil amounts specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be $1,273, $1,640, and $2,050, respectively.

(2.5) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2002-2003 school year:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of less than 10%, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 10% and less than 20%, the grant for each school year shall be $675 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,330 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,362 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,680 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(f) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for each school year shall be $2,080 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(2.10) Except as otherwise provided, supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 15% or less, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level greater than 15%, the grant for each school year shall be $294.25 added to the product of $2,700 and the square of the Low Income Concentration Level, all multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

For the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter through the 2008-2009 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2009-2010 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.66. For the 2010-2011 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.33. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph to the contrary, if for any school year supplemental general State aid grants are prorated as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (H), then the grants under this paragraph shall be prorated.

For the 2003-2004 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.25 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2004-2005 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.50 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2005-2006 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.75 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year.

(3) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of more than 1,000 and less than 50,000 that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall submit a plan to the State Board of Education prior to October 30 of each year for the use of the funds resulting from this grant of supplemental general State aid for the improvement of instruction in which priority is given to meeting the education needs of disadvantaged children. Such plan shall be submitted in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(4) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of 50,000 or more that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall be required to distribute from funds available pursuant to this Section, no less than $261,000,000 in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) The required amounts shall be distributed to the attendance centers within the district in proportion to the number of pupils enrolled at each attendance center who are eligible to receive free or reduced-price lunches or breakfasts under the federal Child Nutrition Act of 1966 and under the National School Lunch Act during the immediately preceding school year.

(b) The distribution of these portions of supplemental and general State aid among attendance centers according to these requirements shall not be compensated for or contravened by adjustments of the total of other funds appropriated to any attendance centers, and the Board of Education shall utilize funding from one or several sources in order to fully implement this provision annually prior to the opening of school.

(c) Each attendance center shall be provided by the school district a distribution of noncategorical funds and other categorical funds to which an attendance center is entitled under law in order that the general State aid and supplemental general State aid provided by application of this subsection supplements rather than supplants the noncategorical funds and other categorical funds provided by the school district to the attendance centers.

(d) Any funds made available under this subsection that by reason of the provisions of this subsection are not required to be allocated and provided to attendance centers may be used and appropriated by the board of the district for any lawful school purpose.

(e) Funds received by an attendance center pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the attendance center at the discretion of the principal and local school council for programs to improve educational opportunities at qualifying schools through the following programs and services: early childhood education, reduced class size or improved adult to student classroom ratio, enrichment programs, remedial assistance, attendance improvement, and other educationally beneficial expenditures which supplement the regular and basic programs as determined by the State Board of Education. Funds provided shall not be expended for any political or lobbying purposes as defined by board rule.

(f) Each district subject to the provisions of this subdivision (H)(4) shall submit an acceptable plan to meet the educational needs of disadvantaged children, in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, to the State Board of Education prior to July 15 of each year. This plan shall be consistent with the decisions of local school councils concerning the school expenditure plans developed in accordance with part 4 of Section 34-2.3. The State Board shall approve or reject the plan within 60 days after its submission. If the plan is rejected, the district shall give written notice of intent to modify the plan within 15 days of the notification of rejection and then submit a modified plan within 30 days after the date of the written notice of intent to modify. Districts may amend approved plans pursuant to rules promulgated by the State Board of Education.

Upon notification by the State Board of Education that the district has not submitted a plan prior to July 15 or a modified plan within the time period specified herein, the State aid funds affected by that plan or modified plan shall be withheld by the State Board of Education until a plan or modified plan is submitted.

If the district fails to distribute State aid to attendance centers in accordance with an approved plan, the plan for the following year shall allocate funds, in addition to the funds otherwise required by this subsection, to those attendance centers which were underfunded during the previous year in amounts equal to such underfunding.

For purposes of determining compliance with this subsection in relation to the requirements of attendance center funding, each district subject to the provisions of this subsection shall submit as a separate document by December 1 of each year a report of expenditure data for the prior year in addition to any modification of its current plan. If it is determined that there has been a failure to comply with the expenditure provisions of this subsection regarding contravention or supplanting, the State Superintendent of Education shall, within 60 days of receipt of the report, notify the district and any affected local school council. The district shall within 45 days of receipt of that notification inform the State Superintendent of Education of the remedial or corrective action to be taken, whether by amendment of the current plan, if feasible, or by adjustment in the plan for the following year. Failure to provide the expenditure report or the notification of remedial or corrective action in a timely manner shall result in a withholding of the affected funds.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this subsection. No funds shall be released under this subdivision (H)(4) to any district that has not submitted a plan that has been approved by the State Board of Education.

(I) (Blank).

(J) Supplementary Grants in Aid.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for which each school district is eligible shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-98 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect. If a school district qualifies to receive a supplementary payment made under this subsection (J), the amount of the aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section which that district is eligible to receive for each school year shall be no less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that was received by the district under Section 18-8 (exclusive of amounts received under subsections 5(p) and 5(p-5) of that Section) for the 1997-1998 school year, pursuant to the provisions of that Section as it was then in effect.

(2) If, as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (J), a school district is to receive aggregate general State aid in combination with supplemental general State aid under this Section for the 1998-99 school year and any subsequent school year that in any such school year is less than the amount of the aggregate general State aid entitlement that the district received for the 1997-98 school year, the school district shall also receive, from a separate appropriation made for purposes of this subsection (J), a supplementary payment that is equal to the amount of the difference in the aggregate State aid figures as described in paragraph (1).

(3) (Blank).

(K) Grants to Laboratory and Alternative Schools.

In calculating the amount to be paid to the governing board of a public university that operates a laboratory school under this Section or to any alternative school that is operated by a regional superintendent of schools, the State Board of Education shall require by rule such reporting requirements as it deems necessary.

As used in this Section, "laboratory school" means a public school which is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board of Education. The governing board of a public university which receives funds from the State Board under this subsection (K) may not increase the number of students enrolled in its laboratory school from a single district, if that district is already sending 50 or more students, except under a mutual agreement between the school board of a student's district of residence and the university which operates the laboratory school. A laboratory school may not have more than 1,000 students, excluding students with disabilities in a special education program.

As used in this Section, "alternative school" means a public school which is created and operated by a Regional Superintendent of Schools and approved by the State Board of Education. Such alternative schools may offer courses of instruction for which credit is given in regular school programs, courses to prepare students for the high school equivalency testing program or vocational and occupational training. A regional superintendent of schools may contract with a school district or a public community college district to operate an alternative school. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be established by the regional superintendents of schools of the affected educational service regions. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be operated under such terms as the regional superintendents of schools of those educational service regions may agree.

Each laboratory and alternative school shall file, on forms provided by the State Superintendent of Education, an annual State aid claim which states the Average Daily Attendance of the school's students by month. The best 3 months' Average Daily Attendance shall be computed for each school. The general State aid entitlement shall be computed by multiplying the applicable Average Daily Attendance by the Foundation Level as determined under this Section.

(L) Payments, Additional Grants in Aid and Other Requirements.

(1) For a school district operating under the financial supervision of an Authority created under Article 34A, the general State aid otherwise payable to that district under this Section, but not the supplemental general State aid, shall be reduced by an amount equal to the budget for the operations of the Authority as certified by the Authority to the State Board of Education, and an amount equal to such reduction shall be paid to the Authority created for such district for its operating expenses in the manner provided in Section 18-11. The remainder of general State school aid for any such district shall be paid in accordance with Article 34A when that Article provides for a disposition other than that provided by this Article.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Summer school. Summer school payments shall be made as provided in Section 18-4.3.

(M) Education Funding Advisory Board.

The Education Funding Advisory Board, hereinafter in this subsection (M) referred to as the "Board", is hereby created. The Board shall consist of 5 members who are appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The members appointed shall include representatives of education, business, and the general public. One of the members so appointed shall be designated by the Governor at the time the appointment is made as the chairperson of the Board. The initial members of the Board may be appointed any time after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997. The regular term of each member of the Board shall be for 4 years from the third Monday of January of the year in which the term of the member's appointment is to commence, except that of the 5 initial members appointed to serve on the Board, the member who is appointed as the chairperson shall serve for a term that commences on the date of his or her appointment and expires on the third Monday of January, 2002, and the remaining 4 members, by lots drawn at the first meeting of the Board that is held after all 5 members are appointed, shall determine 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2001, and 2 of their number to serve for terms that commence on the date of their respective appointments and expire on the third Monday of January, 2000. All members appointed to serve on the Board shall serve until their respective successors are appointed and confirmed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments. If a vacancy in membership occurs at a time when the Senate is not in session, the Governor shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall appoint, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, a person to fill that membership for the unexpired term. If the Senate is not in session when the initial appointments are made, those appointments shall be made as in the case of vacancies.

The Education Funding Advisory Board shall be deemed established, and the initial members appointed by the Governor to serve as members of the Board shall take office, on the date that the Governor makes his or her appointment of the fifth initial member of the Board, whether those initial members are then serving pursuant to appointment and confirmation or pursuant to temporary appointments that are made by the Governor as in the case of vacancies.

The State Board of Education shall provide such staff assistance to the Education Funding Advisory Board as is reasonably required for the proper performance by the Board of its responsibilities.

For school years after the 2000-2001 school year, the Education Funding Advisory Board, in consultation with the State Board of Education, shall make recommendations as provided in this subsection (M) to the General Assembly for the foundation level under subdivision (B)(3) of this Section and for the supplemental general State aid grant level under subsection (H) of this Section for districts with high concentrations of children from poverty. The recommended foundation level shall be determined based on a methodology which incorporates the basic education expenditures of low-spending schools exhibiting high academic performance. The Education Funding Advisory Board shall make such recommendations to the General Assembly on January 1 of odd numbered years, beginning January 1, 2001.

(N) (Blank).

(O) References.

(1) References in other laws to the various subdivisions of Section 18-8 as that Section existed before its repeal and replacement by this Section 18-8.05 shall be deemed to refer to the corresponding provisions of this Section 18-8.05, to the extent that those references remain applicable.

(2) References in other laws to State Chapter 1 funds shall be deemed to refer to the supplemental general State aid provided under subsection (H) of this Section.

(P) Public Act 93-838 and Public Act 93-808 make inconsistent changes to this Section. Under Section 6 of the Statute on Statutes there is an irreconcilable conflict between Public Act 93-808 and Public Act 93-838. Public Act 93-838, being the last acted upon, is controlling. The text of Public Act 93-838 is the law regardless of the text of Public Act 93-808.

(Source: P.A. 94-69, eff. 7-1-05; 94-438, eff. 8-4-05; 94-835, eff. 6-6-06; 94-1019, eff. 7-10-06; 94-1105, eff. 6-1-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 95-903, eff. 8-25-08; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 150. The Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(105 ILCS 110/3) (from Ch. 122, par. 863)

Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program. The program established under this Act shall include, but not be limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: human ecology and health, human growth and development, the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic and social responsibilities of family life, including sexual abstinence until marriage, prevention and control of disease, including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention, transmission and spread of AIDS, sexual assault awareness in secondary schools, public and environmental health, consumer health, safety education and disaster survival, mental health and illness, personal health habits, alcohol, drug use, and abuse including the medical and legal ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use, abuse during pregnancy, sexual abstinence until marriage, tobacco, nutrition, and dental health. The program shall also provide course material and instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid (including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the Heimlich maneuver), early prevention and detection of cancer, heart disease, diabetes, stroke, and the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide.

The school board of each public elementary and secondary school in the State shall encourage all teachers and other school personnel to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer life-saving techniques, including without limitation the Heimlich maneuver and rescue breathing. The training shall be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization. A school board may use the services of non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in life-saving techniques to instruct teachers and other school personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In addition, each school board is authorized to allocate appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to conduct training programs for teachers and other school personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming qualified to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic programs and other extracurricular school activities to acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements established by the American Red Cross or another qualified certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of Education shall establish and administer a matching grant program to pay for half of the cost that a school district incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized certifying organization) or in learning how to use an automated external defibrillator. A school district that applies for a grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought. The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a first-come, first-serve basis.

No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course on AIDS or family life instruction if his parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in the course or program shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

Curricula developed under programs established in accordance with this Act in the major educational area of alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom instruction in grades 5 through 12. The instruction, which shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of Education shall develop and make available to all elementary and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and guidelines which will assist the schools in incorporating the instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the school day or as part of an after school program, support services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent, parents, or guardians are chemically dependent.

(Source: P.A. 94-933, eff. 6-26-06; 95-43, eff. 1-1-08; 95-764, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 155. The Vocational Education Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(105 ILCS 435/2) (from Ch. 122, par. 697)

Sec. 2. Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1975 and thereafter, any reference in this Act or any other Illinois statute to the Board of Vocational Education and Rehabilitation, as such reference pertains to vocational and technical education, means and refers to the State Board of Education. Notwithstanding the provisions of any Act or statute to the contrary, upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1975, the State Board of Education shall assume all powers and duties pertaining to vocational and technical education. The State Board of Education shall be responsible for policy and guidelines pertaining to vocational and technical education and shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(a) to co-operate with the federal government in the administration of the provisions of the Federal Vocational Education Law, to the extent and in the manner therein provided;

(b) to promote and aid in the establishment of schools and classes of the types and standards provided for in the plans of the Board, as approved by the federal government, and to co-operate with State agencies maintaining such schools or classes and with State and local school authorities in the maintenance of such schools and classes;

(c) to conduct and prepare investigations and studies in relation to vocational education and to publish the results of such investigations and studies;

(d) to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations relating to vocational and technical education;

(e) to report, in writing, to the Governor annually on or before the fourteenth day of January. The annual report shall contain (1) a statement to the extent to which vocational education has been established and maintained in the State; (2) a statement of the existing condition of vocational education in the State; (3) a statement of suggestions and recommendations with reference to the development of vocational education in the State; (4) (blank); and (5) an itemized statement of the amounts of money received from Federal and State sources, and of the objects and purposes to which the respective items of these several amounts have been devoted; and

(f) to make such reports to the federal government as may be required by the provisions of the Federal Vocational Education Law, and by the rules and regulations of the federal agency administering the Federal Vocational Education Law; and .

(g) to make grants subject to appropriation and to administer and promulgate rules and regulations to implement a vocational equipment program. The use of such grant funds shall be limited to obtaining equipment for vocational education programs, school shops and laboratories. The State Board of Education shall adopt appropriate regulations to administer this paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 95-793, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-23-08.)

Section 160. The Illinois Health Policy Center Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(110 ILCS 430/20)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 20. Advisory Panel.

(a) The Illinois Health Policy Center Advisory Panel is created. The Advisory Panel shall consist of 13 members as follows:

(1) Four legislators, appointed one each by the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(2) One representative of each of the following groups, appointed by consensus of the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives upon the recommendations of those 4 legislative leaders: hospitals; medical societies; managed care companies; and insurance companies.

(3) One representative of patient advocacy groups, appointed by the Governor.

(4) The Secretary Director of the Department of Human Services, or his or her designee.

(5) The Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or his or her designee.

(6) The Director of the Department of Public Health, or his or her designee.

(7) One additional member, appointed by the Governor.

(b) The Advisory Panel shall provide advice and oversight concerning the creation and operation of the Illinois Health Policy Center.

(c) The Illinois Health Policy Center shall submit a report each calendar year to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall contain:

(1) An itemized list of the source and amount of funds of the Illinois Health Policy Center.

(2) An itemized list of expenditures made by the Illinois Health Policy Center.

(3) A summary of research activities undertaken since the submission of the preceding report.

(4) A description of advocacy activities undertaken since the submission of the preceding report.

(Source: P.A. 95-986, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 165. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/25)

Sec. 25. State scholar program.

(a) An applicant is eligible to be designated a State Scholar when the Commission finds the candidate:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States;

(2) has successfully completed the program of instruction at an approved high school, or is a student in good standing at such a school and is engaged in a program which in due course will be completed by the end of the academic year, and in either event that the candidate's academic standing is above the class median; and that the candidate has not had any university, college, normal school, private junior college or public community college, or other advanced training subsequent to graduation from high school; and

(3) has superior capacity to profit by a higher education.

(b) In determining an applicant's superior capacity to profit by a higher education, the Commission shall consider the candidate's scholastic record in high school and the results of the examination conducted under the provisions of this Act. The Commission shall establish by rule the minimum conditions of eligibility in terms of the foregoing factors, and the relative weight to be accorded to those factors.

(c) The Commission shall base its State Scholar designations upon the eligibility formula prescribed in its rules, except that notwithstanding those rules or any other provision of this Section, a student nominated by his or her school shall be designated a State Scholar if that student achieves an Illinois Standard Test Score at or above the 95th percentile among students taking the designated examinations in Illinois that year, as determined by the Commission.

(d) The Commission shall obtain the results of a competitive examination from the applicants. The examination shall provide a measure of each candidate's ability to perform college work and shall have demonstrated utility in such a selection program. The Commission shall select, and designate by rule, the specific examinations to be used in determining the applicant's superior capacity to profit from a higher education. Candidates may be asked by the Commission to take those steps necessary to provide results of the designated examination as part of their applications. Any nominal cost of obtaining or providing the examination results shall be paid by the candidate to the agency designated by the Commission to provide the examination service. In the event that a candidate or candidates are unable to participate in the examination for financial reasons, the Commission may choose to pay the examination fee on the candidate's or candidates' behalf. Any notary fee which may also be required as part of the total application shall be paid by the applicant.

(e) The Commission shall award to each State Scholar a certificate or other suitable form of recognition. The decision to attend a non-qualified institution of higher learning shall not disqualify applicants who are otherwise fully qualified.

(f) Subject to appropriation, each State Scholar who enrolls or is enrolled in an institution of higher learning in this State shall also receive a one-time grant of $1,000 to be applied to tuition and mandatory fees and paid directly to the institution of higher learning. However, a student who has been awarded a Merit Recognition Scholarship under Section 31 of this Act may not be awarded a grant under this subsection (f), although he or she may still be designated a State Scholar.

(g) (f) The Commission shall conduct a study detailing all of the following information:

(1) The number of students designated State Scholars in 2008 and 2009.

(2) The number of State Scholars who applied to State universities in 2008 and 2009.

(3) The number of State Scholars who were denied admittance into the State universities to which they applied in 2008 and 2009.

All data collected from a State university in regards to the study conducted under this subsection (g) (f) must be verified by that university.

On or before January 1, 2010, the Commission must submit a report to the General Assembly that contains the findings of the study conducted under this subsection (g) (f) and the Commission's recommendations on how to make State universities more accessible to State Scholars.

(h) (g) The Commission shall adopt all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(Source: P.A. 95-715, eff. 1-1-09; 95-760, eff. 7-28-08; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 170. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(110 ILCS 975/8) (from Ch. 144, par. 2758)

Sec. 8. Advisory Council. The Nurse Scholarship and Baccalaureate Nursing Assistance Advisory Council created by the Baccalaureate Assistance Law for Registered Nurses (now repealed) shall assist and advise the Department in the administration of this Article.

(Source: P.A. 86-1467; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 175. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-210 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-210) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-210)

Sec. 3-210. A facility shall retain the following for public inspection:

(1) a complete copy of every inspection report of the facility received from the Department during the past 5 years;

(2) a copy of every order pertaining to the facility issued by the Department or a court during the past 5 years;

(3) a description of the services provided by the facility and the rates charged for those services and items for which a resident may be separately charged;

(4) a copy of the statement of ownership required by Section 3-207;

(5) a record of personnel employed or retained by the facility who are licensed, certified or registered by the Department of Professional Regulation; and

(6) a complete copy of the most recent inspection report of the facility received from the Department; and .

(7) a copy of the current Consumer Choice Information Report required by Section 2-214.

(Source: P.A. 95-823, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-10-08.)

Section 180. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 10.10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/10.10)

Sec. 10.10. Nurse Staffing by Patient Acuity.

(a) Findings. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) The State of Illinois has a substantial interest in promoting quality care and improving the delivery of health care services.

(2) Evidence-based studies have shown that the basic principles of staffing in the acute care setting should be based on the complexity of patients' care needs aligned with available nursing skills to promote quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(3) Compliance with this Section promotes an organizational climate that values registered nurses' input in meeting the health care needs of hospital patients.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Acuity model" means an assessment tool selected and implemented by a hospital, as recommended by a nursing care committee, that assesses the complexity of patient care needs requiring professional nursing care and skills and aligns patient care needs and nursing skills consistent with professional nursing standards.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct patient care" means care provided by a registered professional nurse with direct responsibility to oversee or carry out medical regimens or nursing care for one or more patients.

"Nursing care committee" means an existing or newly created hospital-wide committee or committees of nurses whose functions, in part or in whole, contribute to the development, recommendation, and review of the hospital's nurse staffing plan established pursuant to subsection (d).

"Registered professional nurse" means a person licensed as a Registered Nurse under the Nurse Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

"Written staffing plan for nursing care services" means a written plan for guiding the assignment of patient care nursing staff based on multiple nurse and patient considerations that yield minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units and the adopted acuity model aligning patient care needs with nursing skills required for quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(c) Written staffing plan.

(1) Every hospital shall implement a written hospital-wide staffing plan, recommended by a nursing care committee or committees, that provides for minimum direct care professional registered nurse-to-patient staffing needs for each inpatient care unit. The written hospital-wide staffing plan shall include, but need not be limited to, the following considerations:

(A) The complexity of complete care, assessment on patient admission, volume of patient admissions, discharges and transfers, evaluation of the progress of a patient's problems, ongoing physical assessments, planning for a patient's discharge, assessment after a change in patient condition, and assessment of the need for patient referrals.

(B) The complexity of clinical professional nursing judgment needed to design and implement a patient's nursing care plan, the need for specialized equipment and technology, the skill mix of other personnel providing or supporting direct patient care, and involvement in quality improvement activities, professional preparation, and experience.

(C) Patient acuity and the number of patients for whom care is being provided.

(D) The ongoing assessments of a unit's patient acuity levels and nursing staff needed shall be routinely made by the unit nurse manager or his or her designee.

(E) The identification of additional registered nurses available for direct patient care when patients' unexpected needs exceed the planned workload for direct care staff.

(2) In order to provide staffing flexibility to meet patient needs, every hospital shall identify an acuity model for adjusting the staffing plan for each inpatient care unit.

(3) The written staffing plan shall be posted in a conspicuous and accessible location for both patients and direct care staff, as required under the Hospital Report Card Act.

(d) Nursing care committee.

(1) Every hospital shall have a nursing care committee. A hospital shall appoint members of a committee whereby at least 50% of the members are registered professional nurses providing direct patient care.

(2) A nursing care committee's recommendations must be given significant regard and weight in the hospital's adoption and implementation of a written staffing plan.

(3) A nursing care committee or committees shall recommend a written staffing plan for the hospital based on the principles from the staffing components set forth in subsection (c). In particular, a committee or committees shall provide input and feedback on the following:

(A) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units.

(B) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of an acuity model to provide staffing flexibility that aligns changing patient acuity with nursing skills required.

(C) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of a written staffing plan incorporating the items described in subdivisions (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this Section.

(D) Review the following: nurse-to-patient staffing guidelines for all inpatient areas; and current acuity tools and measures in use.

(4) A nursing care committee must address the items described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (3) semi-annually.

(e) Nothing is this Section 10.10 shall be construed to limit, alter, or modify any of the terms, conditions, or provisions of a collective bargaining agreement entered into by the hospital.

(Source: P.A. 95-401, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 185. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 1, 80, 370c, and 511.108 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 356z.11 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/1) (from Ch. 73, par. 613)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act shall be known and may be cited as the "Illinois Insurance Code."

(Source: Laws 1937, p. 696; revised 10-28-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/80) (from Ch. 73, par. 692)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 80. Amendments to power of attorney and other documents.

(1) The attorney-in-fact of any reciprocal subject to the provisions of this article may amend the declaration of organization or power of attorney in any respect not in violation of law, but may not amend such documents to insert any provision prohibited, or to delete any provision required, in original declarations of organization or powers of attorney of a similar domestic reciprocal organized under this Code.

(2) Amendments of the declarations of organization or powers of attorney, shall be made in the following manner:

(a) Amendment of declaration of organization. The attorney-in-fact shall sign and acknowledge, before an officer authorized to take acknowledgments, an amendment to the declaration of organization, in duplicate. When the attorney-in-fact is a corporation, such amendment shall be acknowledged by an officer thereof. The attorney-in-fact shall deliver such duplicate originals of the amendment to the Director. Such amendment may be approved or disapproved by the Director in the same manner as the original declaration of organization. If approved, the Director shall place on file in his office one of the duplicate originals of the amendment and shall endorse upon the other duplicate original his approval thereof and the month, day and year of such approval, and deliver it to the attorney-in-fact. The amendment shall be effective as of the date of the approval thereof by the Director.

(b) Amendment of power of attorney. The attorney-in-fact shall deliver to the Director a copy of any form of power of attorney under or by virtue of which it is proposed that insurance is to be effected or exchanged, which varies from the form of any power of attorney previously filed with the Director by such attorney-in-fact, before the same shall be used by any reciprocal. Such power of attorney may be approved or disapproved by the Director in the same manner as the original power of attorney. If approved, the Director shall place on file in his office a duplicate original of the power of attorney and shall endorse upon the other duplicate original his approval thereof and the month, day and year of such approval, and deliver it to the attorney-in-fact. The amendment shall be effective as of the date of approval thereof by the Director.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 627; revised 10-31-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.11)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 356z.11. Dependent students; medical leave of absence. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly must continue to provide coverage for a dependent college student who takes a medical leave of absence or reduces his or her course load to part-time status because of a catastrophic illness or injury.

Continuation of coverage under this Section is subject to all of the policy's terms and conditions applicable to those forms of insurance. Continuation of insurance under the policy shall terminate 12 months after notice of the illness or injury or until the coverage would have otherwise lapsed pursuant to the terms and conditions of the policy, whichever comes first, provided the need for part-time status or medical leave of absence is supported by a clinical certification of need from a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

The provisions of this Section do not apply to short-term travel, accident-only, limited, or specified disease policies or to policies or contracts designed for issuance to persons eligible for coverage under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, known as Medicare, or any other similar coverage under State or federal governmental plans.

(Source: P.A. 95-958, eff. 6-1-09.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.13)

Sec. 356z.13 356z.11. Shingles vaccine. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of the amendatory Act of this 95th General Assembly must provide coverage for a vaccine for shingles that is approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration if the vaccine is ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches and the enrollee is 60 years of age or older.

(Source: P.A. 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-14-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a) (1) On and after the effective date of this Section, every insurer which delivers, issues for delivery or renews or modifies group A&H policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer to the applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurers standards of insurability, coverage for reasonable and necessary treatment and services for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious mental illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), up to the limits provided in the policy for other disorders or conditions, except (i) the insured may be required to pay up to 50% of expenses incurred as a result of the treatment or services, and (ii) the annual benefit limit may be limited to the lesser of $10,000 or 25% of the lifetime policy limit.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional or nervous disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist of his choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and licensed marriage and family therapists, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician and the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist has provided written notification to the patient's primary care physician, if any, that services are being provided to the patient. That notification may, however, be waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall be retained by the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, or licensed marriage and family therapist for a period of not less than 5 years.

(b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or medical expenses under a group policy of accident and health insurance or health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly shall provide coverage under the policy for treatment of serious mental illness under the same terms and conditions as coverage for hospital or medical expenses related to other illnesses and diseases. The coverage required under this Section must provide for same durational limits, amount limits, deductibles, and co-insurance requirements for serious mental illness as are provided for other illnesses and diseases. This subsection does not apply to coverage provided to employees by employers who have 50 or fewer employees.

(2) "Serious mental illness" means the following psychiatric illnesses as defined in the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association:

(A) schizophrenia;

(B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;

(C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive, and mixed);

(D) major depressive disorders (single episode or recurrent);

(E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);

(F) pervasive developmental disorders;

(G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;

(H) depression in childhood and adolescence;

(I) panic disorder;

(J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic, or with delayed onset); and

(K) anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

(3) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of serious mental illness shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for serous mental illness, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process.

(4) A group health benefit plan:

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the following treatment of mental illness in each calendar year:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A);

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan; and

(C) shall include the same amount limits, deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance factors for serious mental illness as for physical illness.

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(7) This Section shall not be interpreted to require a group health benefit plan to provide coverage for treatment of:

(A) an addiction to a controlled substance or cannabis that is used in violation of law; or

(B) mental illness resulting from the use of a controlled substance or cannabis in violation of law.

(8) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 94-402, eff. 8-2-05; 94-584, eff. 8-15-05; 94-906, eff. 1-1-07; 94-921, eff. 6-26-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-972, eff. 9-22-08; 95-973, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-14-08.)

(215 ILCS 5/511.108) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.58-108)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 511.108. Felony Convictions. (a) Any administrator and any individual listed on the application as required by Section 511.103, who is convicted of a felony shall report such conviction to the Director within 30 days of the entry date of the judgment. Within that 30-day 30 day period, the administrator shall also provide the Director with a copy of the judgment, the probation or commitment order and any other relevant documents.

(Source: P.A. 84-887; revised 10-31-08.)

Section 190. The Children's Health Insurance Program Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(215 ILCS 106/40)

Sec. 40. Waivers.

(a) The Department shall request any necessary waivers of federal requirements in order to allow receipt of federal funding for:

(1) the coverage of families with eligible children under this Act; and

(2) for the coverage of children who would otherwise be eligible under this Act, but who have health insurance.

(b) The failure of the responsible federal agency to approve a waiver for children who would otherwise be eligible under this Act but who have health insurance shall not prevent the implementation of any Section of this Act provided that there are sufficient appropriated funds.

(c) Eligibility of a person under an approved waiver due to the relationship with a child pursuant to Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or this Act shall be limited to such a person whose countable income is determined by the Department to be at or below such income eligibility standard as the Department by rule shall establish. The income level established by the Department shall not be below 90% of the federal poverty level. Such persons who are determined to be eligible must reapply, or otherwise establish eligibility, at least annually. An eligible person shall be required, as determined by the Department by rule, to report promptly those changes in income and other circumstances that affect eligibility. The eligibility of a person may be redetermined based on the information reported or may be terminated based on the failure to report or failure to report accurately. A person may also be held liable to the Department for any payments made by the Department on such person's behalf that were inappropriate. An applicant shall be provided with notice of these obligations.

(Source: P.A. 92-597, eff. 6-28-02; 93-63, eff. 6-30-03; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 195. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 137, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 355.2, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.13 356z.11, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-906, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 137, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 355.2, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13 356z.11, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-906, eff. 1-1-07; 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

Section 200. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356g.5, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.13 356z.11, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-958)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 356g.5, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13 356z.11, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-189, eff. 8-16-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-422, eff. 8-24-07; 95-520, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-958, eff. 6-1-09; 95-978, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-15-08.)

Section 205. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 8.1 and 44 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and sedation.

(a) No licensed dentist shall administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.

(b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by rule, shall:

(1) establish the minimum educational and training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an appropriate permit;

(2) establish the standards for properly equipped dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;

(3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who assist the dentist in the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, including minimum training requirements for each member of the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping requirements, and emergency procedures; and

(4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS).

(5) establish continuing education requirements in sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under this Section. When establishing requirements under this Section, the Department shall consider the current American Dental Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.

(c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.

(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-22-08.)

(225 ILCS 25/44) (from Ch. 111, par. 2344)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 44. Practice by Corporations Prohibited. Exceptions. No corporation shall practice dentistry or engage therein, or hold itself out as being entitled to practice dentistry, or furnish dental services or dentists, or advertise under or assume the title of dentist or dental surgeon or equivalent title, or furnish dental advice for any compensation, or advertise or hold itself out with any other person or alone, that it has or owns a dental office or can furnish dental service or dentists, or solicit through itself, or its agents, officers, employees, directors or trustees, dental patronage for any dentist employed by any corporation.

Nothing contained in this Act, however, shall:

(a) prohibit a corporation from employing a dentist or dentists to render dental services to its employees, provided that such dental services shall be rendered at no cost or charge to the employees;

(b) prohibit a corporation or association from providing dental services upon a wholly charitable basis to deserving recipients;

(c) prohibit a corporation or association from furnishing information or clerical services which can be furnished by persons not licensed to practice dentistry, to any dentist when such dentist assumes full responsibility for such information or services;

(d) prohibit dental corporations as authorized by the Professional Service Corporation Act, dental associations as authorized by the Professional Association Act, or dental limited liability companies as authorized by the Limited Liability Company Act;

(e) prohibit dental limited liability partnerships as authorized by the Uniform Partnership Act (1997);

(f) prohibit hospitals, public health clinics, federally qualified health centers, or other entities specified by rule of the Department from providing dental services; or

(g) prohibit dental management service organizations from providing non-clinical business services that do not violate the provisions of this Act.

Any corporation violating the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and each day that this Act is violated shall be considered a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 91-520, eff. 1-1-00; revised 1-29-08.)

Section 210. The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act is amended by changing Section 34 as follows:

(225 ILCS 50/34) (from Ch. 111, par. 7434)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 34. All remedies, penalties and authority granted to the Attorney General by the "Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act", approved July 24, 1961, as now or hereafter amended, shall be available to him for the enforcement of this Act, and Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, 6.1, 7 and 10 of that Act are hereby incorporated by reference into this Act. In addition, in any action brought by the Attorney General to enforce this Act, the court may order that persons who incurred actual damages be awarded the amount at which actual damages are assessed.

(Source: P.A. 83-928; revised 11-3-08.)

Section 215. The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 51/1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the the Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-532, eff. 11-14-97; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 220. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 70-50 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/70-50) (was 225 ILCS 65/20-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 70-50. Fund.

(a) There is hereby created within the State Treasury the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund. The monies in the Fund may be used by and at the direction of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act, including but not limited to:

(1) Distribution and publication of this Act and rules.

(2) Employment of secretarial, nursing, administrative, enforcement, and other staff for the administration of this Act.

(b) Disposition of fees:

(1) $5 of every licensure fee shall be placed in a fund for assistance to nurses enrolled in a diversionary program as approved by the Department.

(2) All of the fees, fines, and penalties collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(3) Each fiscal year, the moneys deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be appropriated to the Department for expenses of the Department and the Board in the administration of this Act. All earnings received from investment of moneys in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund and shall be used for the same purposes as fees deposited in the Fund.

(4) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2004 and for each fiscal year thereafter, $1,200,000 of the moneys deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund each year shall be set aside and appropriated to the Department of Public Health for nursing scholarships awarded pursuant to the Nursing Education Scholarship Law. Representatives of the Department and the Nursing Education Scholarship Program Advisory Council shall review this requirement and the scholarship awards every 2 years.

(5) Moneys in the Fund may be transferred to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/2105-300).

(c) (f) Moneys set aside for nursing scholarships awarded pursuant to the Nursing Education Scholarship Law as provided in item (4) (iv) of subsection (b) (e) of this Section may not be transferred under Section 8h of the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 225. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 3654)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the following definitions shall have the following meanings, except where the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Act" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(2) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(3) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(4) "Board" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Board appointed by the Governor.

(5) "Nursing home administrator" means the individual licensed under this Act and directly responsible for planning, organizing, directing and supervising the operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such functions, whether or not such functions are delegated to one or more other persons.

(6) "Nursing home" or "facility" means any entity that is required to be licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, as amended, other than a sheltered care home as defined thereunder, and includes private homes, institutions, buildings, residences, or other places, whether operated for profit or not, irrespective of the names attributed to them, county homes for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to the County Nursing Home Act, as amended, and any similar institutions operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois that provide, though their ownership or management, maintenance, personal care, and nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the owner by blood or marriage, or any similar facilities in which maintenance is provided to 3 or more persons who by reason of illness of physical infirmity require personal care and nursing.

(7) "Maintenance" means food, shelter and laundry.

(8) "Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, or general supervision of the physical and mental well-being of an individual who because of age, physical, or mental disability, emotion or behavior disorder, or mental retardation is incapable of managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual. For the purposes of this Act, this definition does not include the professional services of a nurse.

(9) "Nursing" means professional nursing or practical nursing, as those terms are defined in the Nurse Practice Act, for sick or infirm persons who are under the care and supervision of licensed physicians or dentists.

(10) "Disciplinary action" means revocation, suspension, probation, supervision, reprimand, required education, fines or any other action taken by the Department against a person holding a license.

(11) "Impaired" means the inability to practice with reasonable skill and safety due to physical or mental disabilities as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree to diminish a person's ability to administer a nursing home.

(12) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; revised 1-7-08.)

Section 230. The Private Sewage Disposal Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(225 ILCS 225/8) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 116.308)

Sec. 8. (a) In addition to promulgating and publishing the private sewage disposal code, the Department has the following powers and duties:

(1) Make such inspections as are necessary to determine satisfactory compliance with this Act and the private sewage disposal code.

(2) Cause investigations to be made when a violation of any provisions of this Act or the private sewage disposal code is reported to the Department.

(3) Subject to constitutional limitations, by its representatives after identification, enter at reasonable times upon private or public property for the purpose of inspecting and investigating conditions relating to the administration and enforcement of this Act and the private sewage disposal code.

(4) Institute or cause to be instituted legal proceedings in the circuit court by the State's Attorney of the county where such non-compliance occurred or by the Attorney General of the State of Illinois in cases of non-compliance with the provisions of this Act and the private sewage disposal code.

(5) Evaluate all Experimental Use Permits in existence on August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-824) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, in accordance with the established conditions of approval for each permit. After the date of approval, the Department shall not issue any new Experimental Use Permits, but may instead issue site specific approval for performance-based systems in accordance with this Section.

(6) Adopt minimum performance standards for private sewage disposal system contractors.

(7) Issue an annual license to every applicant who complies with the requirements of this Act and the private sewage disposal code and who pays the required annual license fee.

(8) Collect an annual license fee in an amount determined by the Department from each contractor and any examination and reinstatement fees.

(9) Prescribe rules of procedure for hearings following denial, suspension or revocation of licenses as provided in this Act.

(10) Authorize the use of alternative private sewage disposal systems that are designed by a professional engineer licensed under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989 or an environmental health practitioner licensed under the Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act and accepted by the Department on a case-by-case basis where the proposed design reasonably addresses issues particular to the proposed system, including without limitation flow volume projections, wastewater composition and pretreatment, treatment and flow in the subsurface environment, and system ownership and maintenance responsibility.

(b) (10) The Department may review alternative technology and operational data from the appropriate state agency of another state, from another government entity, or from an independent testing organization to determine whether approval of components or private sewage disposal systems within the State is appropriate. The request for approval shall be made on forms approved by the Department.

(c) (b) The Director shall authorize the use of appropriate new innovative wastewater treatment systems to best protect public health, the environment, and the natural resources of the State.

(Source: P.A. 95-656, eff. 10-11-07; 95-824, eff. 8-14-08; revised 9-5-08.)

Section 235. The Structural Pest Control Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(225 ILCS 235/16) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2216)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2009)

Sec. 16. Subpoena powers of Department or hearing officer). The Director or of Hearing Officer may compel by subpoena or subpoena duces tecum the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books and papers and administer oaths to witnesses. All subpoenas issued by the Director or Hearing Officer may be served as provided for in a civil action. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees for witnesses before the circuit court and shall be paid by the party to such proceeding at whose request the subpoena is issued. If such subpoena is issued at the request of the Department, the witness fee shall be paid as an administrative expense.

In the cases of refusal of a witness to attend or testify, or to produce books or papers, concerning any matter upon which he might be lawfully examined, the circuit court of the county where the hearing is held, upon application of any party to the proceeding, may compel obedience by proceeding as for contempt.

(Source: P.A. 83-334; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 9-10-08.)

Section 240. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/5-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2010)

Sec. 5-20. Exemptions from broker, salesperson, or leasing agent license requirement. The requirement for holding a license under this Article 5 shall not apply to:

(1) Any person, partnership, or corporation that as owner or lessor performs any of the acts described in the definition of "broker" under Section 1-10 of this Act with reference to property owned or leased by it, or to the regular employees thereof with respect to the property so owned or leased, where such acts are performed in the regular course of or as an incident to the management, sale, or other disposition of such property and the investment therein, provided that such regular employees do not perform any of the acts described in the definition of "broker" under Section 1-10 of this Act in connection with a vocation of selling or leasing any real estate or the improvements thereon not so owned or leased.

(2) An attorney in fact acting under a duly executed and recorded power of attorney to convey real estate from the owner or lessor or the services rendered by an attorney at law in the performance of the attorney's duty as an attorney at law.

(3) Any person acting as receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or guardian or while acting under a court order or under the authority of a will or testamentary trust.

(4) Any person acting as a resident manager for the owner or any employee acting as the resident manager for a broker managing an apartment building, duplex, or apartment complex, when the resident manager resides on the premises, the premises is his or her primary residence, and the resident manager is engaged in the leasing of the property of which he or she is the resident manager.

(5) Any officer or employee of a federal agency in the conduct of official duties.

(6) Any officer or employee of the State government or any political subdivision thereof performing official duties.

(7) Any multiple listing service or other information exchange that is engaged in the collection and dissemination of information concerning real estate available for sale, purchase, lease, or exchange along with which no other licensed activities are provided.

(8) Railroads and other public utilities regulated by the State of Illinois, or the officers or full time employees thereof, unless the performance of any licensed activities is in connection with the sale, purchase, lease, or other disposition of real estate or investment therein not needing the approval of the appropriate State regulatory authority.

(9) Any medium of advertising in the routine course of selling or publishing advertising along with which no other licensed activities are provided.

(10) Any resident lessee of a residential dwelling unit who refers for compensation to the owner of the dwelling unit, or to the owner's agent, prospective lessees of dwelling units in the same building or complex as the resident lessee's unit, but only if the resident lessee (i) refers no more than 3 prospective lessees in any 12-month period, (ii) receives compensation of no more than $1,000 or the equivalent of one month's rent, whichever is less, in any 12-month period, and (iii) limits his or her activities to referring prospective lessees to the owner, or the owner's agent, and does not show a residential dwelling unit to a prospective lessee, discuss terms or conditions of leasing a dwelling unit with a prospective lessee, or otherwise participate in the negotiation of the leasing of a dwelling unit.

(11) An exchange company registered under the Real Estate Timeshare Act of 1999 and the regular employees of that registered exchange company but only when conducting an exchange program as defined in that Act.

(12) An existing timeshare owner who, for compensation, refers prospective purchasers, but only if the existing timeshare owner (i) refers no more than 20 prospective purchasers in any calendar year, (ii) receives no more than $1,000, or its equivalent, for referrals in any calendar year and (iii) limits his or her activities to referring prospective purchasers of timeshare interests to the developer or the developer's employees or agents, and does not show, discuss terms or conditions of purchase or otherwise participate in negotiations with regard to timeshare interests.

(13) Any person who is licensed without examination under Section 10-25 (now repealed) of the Auction License Act is exempt from holding a broker's or salesperson's license under this Act for the limited purpose of selling or leasing real estate at auction, so long as:

(A) that person has made application for said exemption by July 1, 2000;

(B) that person verifies to OBRE that he or she has sold real estate at auction for a period of 5 years prior to licensure as an auctioneer;

(C) the person has had no lapse in his or her license as an auctioneer; and

(D) the license issued under the Auction License Act has not been disciplined for violation of those provisions of Article 20 of the Auction License Act dealing with or related to the sale or lease of real estate at auction.

(14) A hotel operator who is registered with the Illinois Department of Revenue and pays taxes under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act and rents a room or rooms in a hotel as defined in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act for a period of not more than 30 consecutive days and not more than 60 days in a calendar year.

(Source: P.A. 91-245, eff. 12-31-99; 91-585, eff. 1-1-00; 91-603, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-217, eff. 8-2-01; revised 10-24-08.)

Section 245. The Coal Mining Act is amended by changing the headings of Articles 4, 38, and 39 and by changing Sections 20.04, 20.05, and 21.07 as follows:

(225 ILCS 705/Art. 4 heading)

ARTICLE 4.

STATE AND COUNTY MINE INSPECTORS

AND MINE INSPECTION.

(225 ILCS 705/20.04) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 2004)

Sec. 20.04. State Mine Inspectors, county mine inspectors, and the accredited representatives of the coal operators and coal miners shall have authority to sample explosives used for blasting purposes in coal mines in the State of Illinois or kept on hand for sale or intended for shipment for use in such mines, and for such purposes they may enter upon the premises of any person, firm or corporation.

(Source: Laws 1953, p. 701; revised 10-24-08.)

(225 ILCS 705/20.05) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 2005)

Sec. 20.05. If the State Mine Inspector, county mine inspector, or the accredited representatives of the coal operators or coal miners shall desire to have said sample tested for content, they shall send the same to the United States Bureau of Mines for that purpose.

(Source: Laws 1953, p. 701; revised 10-24-08.)

(225 ILCS 705/21.07) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 2107)

Sec. 21.07. The carrying of matches or other flame-making devices, and smoking underground is prohibited in gassy mines, except as provided by Section 21.08 of this Act. If, in the judgment of either the State Mine Inspector, county mine inspector acting for the State Mine Inspector, or the operator, underground employees are violating the law, they shall have the right to search such employees. When prosecution is intended, 2 witnesses shall be present at the time of search.

(Source: Laws 1953, p. 701; revised 10-24-08.)

(225 ILCS 705/Art. 38 heading)

ARTICLE 38 .

SURFACE MINING REGULATIONS .

(225 ILCS 705/Art. 39 heading)

ARTICLE 39 . ,

MINERS' REMEDIES .

Section 255. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Section 5-2 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of Persons Eligible. Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Articles III and IV but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including but not limited to the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 70% in fiscal year 2001, equal to or less than 85% in fiscal year 2002 and until a date to be determined by the Department by rule, and equal to or less than 100% beginning on the date determined by the Department by rule, of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined in item (i) of this subparagraph (a).

(b) All persons who would be determined eligible for such basic maintenance under Article IV by disregarding the maximum earned income permitted by federal law.

3. Persons who would otherwise qualify for Aid to the Medically Indigent under Article VII.

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Women during pregnancy, after the fact of pregnancy has been determined by medical diagnosis, and during the 60-day period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants and children born after September 30, 1983, whose income and resources are insufficient to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent possible under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

(b) The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 5(a) by April 1, 1990. Such plan shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant women during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 133% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget and revised annually in accordance with Section 673(2) of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, applicable to families of the same size, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant women, together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. Persons under the age of 18 who fail to qualify as dependent under Article IV and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

7. Persons who are under 21 years of age and would qualify as disabled as defined under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program, provided medical service for such persons would be eligible for Federal Financial Participation, and provided the Illinois Department determines that:

(a) the person requires a level of care provided by a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(b) it is appropriate to provide such care outside of an institution, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(c) the estimated amount which would be expended for care outside the institution is not greater than the estimated amount which would be expended in an institution.

8. Persons who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article IV of this Code in programs administered by the Illinois Department due to employment earnings and persons in assistance units comprised of adults and children who become ineligible for basic maintenance assistance under Article VI of this Code due to employment earnings. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage for up to 12 months following termination of basic maintenance assistance; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered while the person was eligible for basic maintenance assistance;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act Partnership for Long-Term Care Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 25 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Services Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

The Illinois Department and the Governor shall provide a plan for coverage of the persons eligible under paragraph 7 as soon as possible after July 1, 1984.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

(Source: P.A. 94-629, eff. 1-1-06; 94-1043, eff. 7-24-06; 95-546, eff. 8-29-07; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 260. The Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation Law is amended by changing Section 42 as follows:

(315 ILCS 20/42) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 292)

Sec. 42. Proceedings to condemn real property.

(1) Before a condemnation proceeding may be instituted by a Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation, such Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation shall present to the Redevelopment Commission an application requesting approval of the proposed condemnation proceeding, which shall contain, among other things:

(a) The legal description, and the description thereof by city blocks, street and number, if any, of the real property proposed to be condemned, and the character of the estates, in fee-simple or otherwise, thus to be acquired.

(b) Proof that such real property is within the Development Area of the applicant Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation.

(c) Proof that the Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation has acquired by purchase or has secured options to purchase sixty per centum or more in area of the land within the Development Area, or, in alternative, that the owners of sixty percentum or more in the area of the land within the Development Area have, by an instrument in writing duly signed and acknowledged and delivered to the Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation, assented to and consented to be bound by the terms and provisions of the Development Plan of the Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation as to themselves and their property.

(d) A copy of any proposed contract or contracts with contractors for the work proposed to be done in the development of the Development Area, and a copy of any bond or bonds to be required by the Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation from the contractors to insure the performance of the contract or contracts.

(2) The Redevelopment Commission shall determine within a reasonable time thereafter the sufficiency of the statements in the application and the verity of the copies of the contracts and bonds appended to the application. If the Redevelopment Commission finds:

(a) That the determination should be in the affirmative;

(b) That the bond or bonds are sufficient in form, amount and security; and

(c) That the Development Plan of the applicant Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation has been approved by the Redevelopment Commission and the procedure for judicial review thereof has not been initiated within the time prescribed by this Act, or, if a judicial review has been so initiated, that a final order shall have been had, as specified in Section 18 of this Act, whereby the Development Plan was "Approved", then the Redevelopment Commission shall issue to the applicant Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation a certificate of approval of the institution of the proposed condemnation proceedings, which certificate shall contain a legal description of the real property proposed to be condemned and the character of the estates, in fee-simple or otherwise, thus to be acquired, the facts so determined with respect thereto, and a statement that the real property proposed to be condemned is required for a public use and that its acquisition for such use is necessary and convenient.

(3) The acquisition by condemnation of real property by a Neighborhood Redevelopment Corporation shall be in the manner provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended.

(4) The provisions of this section shall be applicable to any proceeding to condemn real property pursuant to a Development Plan amended in accordance with Section 23 of this Act; Provided, however, that in the instance of the increase of a Development Area pursuant to Section 24 of this Act, the provisions of subparagraph (c) of Paragraph 1 of this section shall not apply to the additional area forming the increase.

(Source: P.A. 83-333; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 265. The Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(320 ILCS 25/6) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 406)

Sec. 6. Administration.

(a) In general. Upon receipt of a timely filed claim, the Department shall determine whether the claimant is a person entitled to a grant under this Act and the amount of grant to which he is entitled under this Act. The Department may require the claimant to furnish reasonable proof of the statements of domicile, household income, rent paid, property taxes accrued and other matters on which entitlement is based, and may withhold payment of a grant until such additional proof is furnished.

(b) Rental determination. If the Department finds that the gross rent used in the computation by a claimant of rent constituting property taxes accrued exceeds the fair rental value for the right to occupy that residence, the Department may determine the fair rental value for that residence and recompute rent constituting property taxes accrued accordingly.

(c) Fraudulent claims. The Department shall deny claims which have been fraudulently prepared or when it finds that the claimant has acquired title to his residence or has paid rent for his residence primarily for the purpose of receiving a grant under this Act.

(d) Pharmaceutical Assistance. The Department shall allow all pharmacies licensed under the Pharmacy Practice Act of 1987 to participate as authorized pharmacies unless they have been removed from that status for cause pursuant to the terms of this Section. The Director of the Department may enter into a written contract with any State agency, instrumentality or political subdivision, or a fiscal intermediary for the purpose of making payments to authorized pharmacies for covered prescription drugs and coordinating the program of pharmaceutical assistance established by this Act with other programs that provide payment for covered prescription drugs. Such agreement shall establish procedures for properly contracting for pharmacy services, validating reimbursement claims, validating compliance of dispensing pharmacists with the contracts for participation required under this Section, validating the reasonable costs of covered prescription drugs, and otherwise providing for the effective administration of this Act.

The Department shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement and administer the program of pharmaceutical assistance required by this Act, which shall include the following:

(1) Execution of contracts with pharmacies to dispense covered prescription drugs. Such contracts shall stipulate terms and conditions for authorized pharmacies participation and the rights of the State to terminate such participation for breach of such contract or for violation of this Act or related rules and regulations of the Department;

(2) Establishment of maximum limits on the size of prescriptions, new or refilled, which shall be in amounts sufficient for 34 days, except as otherwise specified by rule for medical or utilization control reasons;

(3) Establishment of liens upon any and all causes of action which accrue to a beneficiary as a result of injuries for which covered prescription drugs are directly or indirectly required and for which the Director made payment or became liable for under this Act;

(4) Charge or collection of payments from third parties or private plans of assistance, or from other programs of public assistance for any claim that is properly chargeable under the assignment of benefits executed by beneficiaries as a requirement of eligibility for the pharmaceutical assistance identification card under this Act;

(4.5) Provision for automatic enrollment of beneficiaries into a Medicare Discount Card program authorized under the federal Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 (P.L. 108-391) to coordinate coverage including Medicare Transitional Assistance;

(5) Inspection of appropriate records and audit of participating authorized pharmacies to ensure contract compliance, and to determine any fraudulent transactions or practices under this Act;

(6) Annual determination of the reasonable costs of covered prescription drugs for which payments are made under this Act, as provided in Section 3.16;

(7) Payment to pharmacies under this Act in accordance with the State Prompt Payment Act.

The Department shall annually report to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1st of each year on the administration of pharmaceutical assistance under this Act. By the effective date of this Act the Department shall determine the reasonable costs of covered prescription drugs in accordance with Section 3.16 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; 93-841, eff. 7-30-04; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 270. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 1a as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)

Sec. 1a. Definitions. In this Act:

"Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency patients.

"Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, developed by the hospitals in the community or area to be served, which provides for hospital emergency services to sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each of the participating hospitals.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after sexual assault.

"Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for hospital emergency services.

"Forensic services" means the collection of evidence pursuant to a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program administered by the Department of State Police, using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse.

"Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Hospital emergency services" means healthcare delivered to outpatients within or under the care and supervision of personnel working in a designated emergency department of a hospital, including, but not limited to, care ordered by such personnel for a sexual assault survivor in the emergency department.

"Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Nursing and Advanced Practice Nursing Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

"Sexual assault" means an act of nonconsensual sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961, including, without limitation, acts prohibited under Sections 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

"Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for hospital emergency services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual assault survivors to another hospital in order to receive emergency treatment.

"Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital that describes the hospital's procedures and protocols for providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors who present themselves for such services, either directly or through transfer from another hospital.

"Transfer services" means the appropriate medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a hospital that provides hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault treatment plan.

(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 275. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7309)

Sec. 9. No person may disclose or be compelled to disclose the identity of any person upon whom a test is performed, or the results of such a test in a manner which permits identification of the subject of the test, except to the following persons:

(a) The subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative. A physician may notify the spouse of the test subject, if the test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, provided that the physician has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the patient to notify the spouse or that, a reasonable time after the patient has agreed to make the notification, the physician has reason to believe that the patient has not provided the notification. This paragraph shall not create a duty or obligation under which a physician must notify the spouse of the test results, nor shall such duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any disclosure or non-disclosure of a test result to a spouse by a physician acting in good faith under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of any physician acting under this paragraph shall be presumed.

(b) Any person designated in a legally effective release of the test results executed by the subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative.

(c) An authorized agent or employee of a health facility or health care provider if the health facility or health care provider itself is authorized to obtain the test results, the agent or employee provides patient care or handles or processes specimens of body fluids or tissues, and the agent or employee has a need to know such information.

(d) The Department and local health authorities serving a population of over 1,000,000 residents or other local health authorities as designated by the Department, in accordance with rules for reporting and controlling the spread of disease, as otherwise provided by State law. The Department, local health authorities, and authorized representatives shall not disclose information and records held by them relating to known or suspected cases of AIDS or HIV infection, publicly or in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, or agency. AIDS and HIV infection data shall be protected from disclosure in accordance with the provisions of Sections 8-2101 through 8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) A health facility or health care provider which procures, processes, distributes or uses: (i) a human body part from a deceased person with respect to medical information regarding that person; or (ii) semen provided prior to the effective date of this Act for the purpose of artificial insemination.

(f) Health facility staff committees for the purposes of conducting program monitoring, program evaluation or service reviews.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Any health care provider or employee of a health facility, and any firefighter or EMT-A, EMT-P, or EMT-I, involved in an accidental direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(i) Any law enforcement officer, as defined in subsection (c) of Section 7, involved in the line of duty in a direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(j) A temporary caretaker of a child taken into temporary protective custody by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to Section 5 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(k) In the case of a minor under 18 years of age whose test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, the health care provider who ordered the test shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or legal guardian if, in the professional judgment judgement of the health care provider, notification would be in the best interest of the child and the health care provider has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the minor to notify the parent or legal guardian or a reasonable time after the minor has agreed to notify the parent or legal guardian, the health care provider has reason to believe that the minor has not made the notification. This subsection shall not create a duty or obligation under which a health care provider must notify the minor's parent or legal guardian of the test results, nor shall a duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any notification or non-notification of a minor's test result by a health care provider acting in good faith under this subsection. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, the good faith of any health care provider acting under this subsection shall be presumed.

(Source: P.A. 93-482, eff. 8-8-03; 94-102, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 280. The Hemophilia Care Act is amended by changing Section 2.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 420/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Hemophilia Advisory Review Board.

(a) The Director of Public Health in collaboration and in consultation with the Director of Insurance, shall establish an independent advisory board known as the Hemophilia Advisory Review Board. The Board shall review, may comment upon, and make recommendations to the Directors with regard to, but not limited to the following:

(1) Proposed legislative or administrative changes to policies and programs that are integral to the health and wellness of individuals with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders.

(2) Standards of care and treatment for persons living with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders. In examining standards of care, the Board shall protect open access to any and all treatments for hemophilia and other bleeding disorders, in accordance with federal guidelines and standards of care guidelines developed by the Medical and Scientific Advisory Council (MASAC) of the National Hemophilia Foundation (NHF), an internationally recognized body whose guidelines set the standards of care for hemophilia and other bleeding disorders around the world.

(3) The development of community-based initiatives to increase awareness of care and treatment for persons living with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders. The Department of Health may provide such services through cooperative agreements with Hemophilia Treatment Centers, medical facilities, schools, nonprofit organizations servicing the bleeding disorder community, or other appropriate means.

(4) Facilitating linkages for persons with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders.

(5) Protecting the rights of people living with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders to appropriate health insurance coverage be it under a private or State-sponsored health insurance provider.

(b) The Board shall consist of the Director of Healthcare and Family Services and the Director of Insurance or their designee, who shall serve as non-voting members, and 7 voting members appointed by the Governor in consultation and in collaboration with the Directors. The voting members shall be selected from among the following member groups:

(1) one board-certified physician licensed, practicing and currently treating individuals with hemophilia or other bleeding disorders;

(2) one nurse licensed, practicing and currently treating individuals with hemophilia or other bleeding disorders;

(3) one social worker licensed, practicing and currently treating individuals with hemophilia or other bleeding disorders;

(4) one representative of a federally funded Hemophilia Treatment Center;

(5) one representative of an organization established under the Illinois Insurance Code for the purpose of providing health insurance;

(6) one representative of a voluntary health organization that currently services the hemophilia and other bleeding disorders community; and

(7) one patient or caregiver of a patient with hemophilia or other bleeding disorder.

The Board may also have up to 5 additional nonvoting members as determined appropriate by the Directors. Nonvoting members may be persons with or caregivers of a patient with hemophilia or a bleeding disorder other than hemophilia or persons experienced in the diagnosis, treatment, care, and support of individuals with hemophilia or other bleeding disorders.

No more than a majority of the voting members may be of the same political party. Members of the Board shall elect one of its members to act as chair for a term of 3 years. The chair shall retain all voting rights. If there is a vacancy on the Board, such position may be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. Members of the Board shall receive no compensation, but may be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the carrying out of their duties. The Board shall meet no less than 4 times per year and follow all policies and procedures of the State of Illinois Open Meetings Law.

(c) No later than 6 months after the date of enactment of this amendatory Act, the Board shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly a report with recommendations for maintaining access to care and obtaining appropriate health insurance coverage for individuals with hemophilia and other bleeding disorders. The report shall be subject to public review and comment prior to adoption. No later than 6 months after adoption by the Governor and Legislature and annually thereafter, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services shall issue a report, which shall be made available to the public, on the status of implementing the recommendations as proposed by the Board and on any state and national activities with regard to hemophilia and other bleeding disorders.

(Source: P.A. 95-12, eff. 7-2-07; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 285. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(410 ILCS 513/30)

Sec. 30. Disclosure of person tested and test results.

(a) No person may disclose or be compelled to disclose the identity of any person upon whom a genetic test is performed or the results of a genetic test in a manner that permits identification of the subject of the test, except to the following persons:

(1) The subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative. This paragraph does not create a duty or obligation under which a health care provider must notify the subject's spouse or legal guardian of the test results, and no such duty or obligation shall be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any disclosure or nondisclosure of a test result to a spouse by a physician acting in good faith under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of any physician acting under this paragraph shall be presumed.

(2) Any person designated in a specific written legally effective release of the test results executed by the subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative.

(3) An authorized agent or employee of a health facility or health care provider if the health facility or health care provider itself is authorized to obtain the test results, the agent or employee provides patient care, and the agent or employee has a need to know the information in order to conduct the tests or provide care or treatment.

(4) A health facility or health care provider that procures, processes, distributes, or uses:

(A) a human body part from a deceased person with respect to medical information regarding that person; or

(B) semen provided prior to the effective date of this Act for the purpose of artificial insemination.

(5) Health facility staff committees for the purposes of conducting program monitoring, program evaluation, or service reviews.

(6) In the case of a minor under 18 years of age, the health care provider who ordered the test shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or legal guardian if, in the professional judgment of the health care provider, notification would be in the best interest of the minor and the health care provider has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the minor to notify the parent or legal guardian or after a reasonable time after the minor has agreed to notify the parent or legal guardian, the health care provider has reason to believe that the minor has not made the notification. This paragraph shall not create a duty or obligation under which a health care provider must notify the minor's parent or legal guardian of the test results, nor shall a duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any notification or non-notification of a minor's test result by a health care provider acting in good faith under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, the good faith of any health care provider acting under this paragraph shall be presumed.

(7) All information and records held by a State agency or local health authority pertaining to genetic information shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. The information and records shall not be released or made public by the State agency or local health authority and shall not be admissible as evidence nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency, or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(A) when made with the written consent of all persons to whom the information pertains;

(B) when authorized by Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(C) when made for the sole purpose of implementing the Newborn Metabolic Screening Phenylketonuria Testing Act and rules; or

(D) when made under the authorization of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984.

Disclosure shall be limited to those who have a need to know the information, and no additional disclosures may be made.

(b) Disclosure by an insurer in accordance with the requirements of the Article XL of the Illinois Insurance Code shall be deemed compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-25, eff. 1-1-98; revised 1-22-08.)

Section 290. The Electronic Products Recycling and Reuse Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(415 ILCS 150/20)

Sec. 20. Agency responsibilities.

(a) The Agency has the authority to monitor compliance with this Act and to refer violations of this Act to the Attorney General.

(b) No later than October 1 of each program year, the Agency shall post on its website a list of underserved counties in the State for the next program year. The list of underserved counties for the first program year is set forth in subsection (a) of Section 60.

(c) By July 1, 2009, the Agency shall implement a county and municipal government education campaign to inform those entities about this Act and the implications on solid waste collection in their localities.

(d) By July 1, 2011 for the first program year, and by April 1 for all subsequent program years, the Agency shall report to the Governor and to the General Assembly annually on the previous program year's performance. The report must be posted on the Agency's website. The report must include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) the total overall weight of CEDs, as well as the sub-total weight of computers, the sub-total weight of computer monitors, the sub-total weight of printers, the sub-total weight of televisions, and the total weight of EEDs that were recycled or processed for reuse in the State during the program year, as reported by manufacturers and collectors under Sections 30 and 55;

(2) a listing of all collection sites as set forth under subsection (e) of Section 55;

(3) a statement of the manufacturers' progress toward achieving the statewide recycling goal set forth in Section 15 (calculated from the manufacturer reports pursuant to Section 30 and the collector reports pursuant to Section 55) and any identified State actions that may help expand collection opportunities to help manufacturers achieve the statewide recycling goal;

(4) a listing of any manufacturers whom the Agency referred to the Attorney General's Office for enforcement as a result of a violation of this Act;

(5) a discussion of the Agency's education and outreach activities; and

(6) a discussion of the penalties, if any, incurred by manufacturers for failure to achieve recycling goals, and a recommendation to the General Assembly of any necessary or appropriate changes to the statewide recycling goals, manufacturer's recycling goals, or penalty provisions included in this Act.

(e) The Agency shall post on its website (1) a list of manufacturers that have paid the current year's registration fee as set forth in Section 30(b) and (2) a list of registered collectors to whom Illinois residents can bring CEDs and EEDs for recycling or processing for reuse, including links to the collectors' websites and the collectors' phone numbers.

(f) In program years 2012, 2013, and 2014, and at its discretion thereafter, the Agency shall convene and host an Electronic Products Recycling Conference. The Agency may host the conferences alone or with other public entities or with organizations associated with electronic products recycling.

(g) No later than October 1 of each program year, the Agency must post on its website the following information for the next program year:

(1) The overall statewide recycling and reuse goal for CEDs, as well as the sub-goals for televisions, and computers, computer monitors, and printers as set forth in Section 15.

(2) The market shares of television manufacturers and the return shares of computer, computer monitor, and printer manufacturers, as set forth in Section 18, and

(3) The individual recycling and reuse goals for each manufacturer, as set forth in Section 19.

(h) By April 1, 2011, and by April 1 of all subsequent years, the Agency shall recognize those manufacturers that have met or exceeded their recycling or reuse goals for the previous program year. Such recognition shall be the awarding to all such manufacturers of an Electronic Industry Recycling Award, which shall be recognized on the Agency website and other media as appropriate.

(i) By March 1, 2011, and by March 1 of each subsequent year, the Agency shall post on its website a list of registered manufacturers that have not met their annual recycling and reuse goal for the previous program year.

(j) By July 1, 2012, the Agency shall solicit written comments regarding all aspects of the program codified in this Act, for the purpose of determining if the program requires any modifications.

(1) Issues to be reviewed by the Agency are, but not limited to, the following:

(A) Sufficiency of the annual statewide recycling goals.

(B) Fairness of the formulas used to determine individual manufacturer goals.

(C) Adequacy of, or the need for, continuation of the credits outlined in Section 30(d)(1) through (3).

(D) Any temporary recissions of county landfill bans granted by the Illinois Pollution Control Board pursuant to Section 95(e).

(E) Adequacy of, or the need for, the penalties listed in Section 80 of this Act, which are scheduled to take effect on January 1, 2013.

(F) Adequacy of the collection systems that have been implemented as a result of this Act, with a particular focus on promoting the most cost-effective and convenient collection system possible for Illinois residents.

(2) By July 1, 2012, the Agency shall complete its review of the written comments received, as well as its own reports on program years 2010 and 2011. By August 1, 2012, the Agency shall hold a public hearing to present its findings and solicit additional comments. All additional comments shall be submitted to the Agency in writing no later than October 1, 2012.

(3) The Agency's final report, which shall be issued no later than February 1, 2013, shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly and shall include specific recommendations for any necessary or appropriate modifications to the program.

(Source: P.A. 95-959, eff. 9-17-08; revised 9-23-08.)

Section 295. The Illinois Low-Level Radioactive Waste Management Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 15, and 18 as follows:

(420 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 241-3)

Sec. 3. Definitions.

"Agency" means the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

"Broker" means any person who takes possession of low-level waste for purposes of consolidation and shipment.

"Compact" means the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact.

"Decommissioning" means the measures taken at the end of a facility's operating life to assure the continued protection of the public from any residual radioactivity or other potential hazards present at a facility.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

"Disposal" means the isolation of waste from the biosphere in a permanent facility designed for that purpose.

"Facility" means a parcel of land or site, together with structures, equipment and improvements on or appurtenant to the land or site, which is used or is being developed for the treatment, storage or disposal of low-level radioactive waste. "Facility" does not include lands, sites, structures or equipment used by a generator in the generation of low-level radioactive wastes.

"Generator" means any person who produces or possesses low-level radioactive waste in the course of or incident to manufacturing, power generation, processing, medical diagnosis and treatment, research, education or other activity.

"Hazardous waste" means a waste, or combination of wastes, which because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious, irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness; or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed, and which has been identified, by characteristics or listing, as hazardous under Section 3001 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, P.L. 94-580 or under regulations of the Pollution Control Board.

"High-level radioactive waste" means:

(1) the highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from the liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations; and

(2) the highly radioactive material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined, on the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1988, to be high-level radioactive waste requiring permanent isolation.

"Low-level radioactive waste" or "waste" means radioactive waste not classified as high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel or byproduct material as defined in Section 11e(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014).

"Mixed waste" means waste that is both "hazardous waste" and "low-level radioactive waste" as defined in this Act.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, business enterprise or other legal entity either public or private and any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of that individual, corporation, business enterprise, or legal entity.

"Post-closure care" means the continued monitoring of the regional disposal facility after closure for the purposes of detecting a need for maintenance, ensuring environmental safety, and determining compliance with applicable licensure and regulatory requirements, and includes undertaking any remedial actions necessary to protect public health and the environment from radioactive releases from the facility.

"Regional disposal facility" or "disposal facility" means the facility established by the State of Illinois under this Act for disposal away from the point of generation of waste generated in the region of the Compact.

"Release" means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping or disposing into the environment of low-level radioactive waste.

"Remedial action" means those actions taken in the event of a release or threatened release of low-level radioactive waste into the environment, to prevent or minimize the release of the waste so that it does not migrate to cause substantial danger to present or future public health or welfare or the environment. The term includes, but is not limited to, actions at the location of the release such as storage, confinement, perimeter protection using dikes, trenches or ditches, clay cover, neutralization, cleanup of released low-level radioactive wastes, recycling or reuse, dredging or excavations, repair or replacement of leaking containers, collection of leachate and runoff, onsite treatment or incineration, provision of alternative water supplies and any monitoring reasonably required to assure that these actions protect human health and the environment.

"Scientific Surveys" means, collectively, the State Geological Survey and the State Water Survey of the University of Illinois.

"Shallow land burial" means a land disposal facility in which radioactive waste is disposed of in or within the upper 30 meters of the earth's surface. However, this definition shall not include an enclosed, engineered, structurally re-enforced and solidified bunker that extends below the earth's surface.

"Storage" means the temporary holding of waste for treatment or disposal for a period determined by Agency regulations.

"Treatment" means any method, technique or process, including storage for radioactive decay, designed to change the physical, chemical or biological characteristics or composition of any waste in order to render the waste safer for transport, storage or disposal, amenable to recovery, convertible to another usable material or reduced in volume.

"Waste management" means the storage, transportation, treatment or disposal of waste.

(Source: P.A. 95-728, eff. date - See Sec. 999; 95-777, eff. 8-4-08; revised 9-5-08.)

(420 ILCS 20/15) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 241-15)

Sec. 15. Compensation.

(a) Any person may apply to the Agency pursuant to this Section for compensation of a loss caused by the release, in Illinois, of radioactivity from the regional disposal facility. The Agency Department shall prescribe appropriate forms and procedures for claims filed pursuant to this Section, which shall include, as a minimum, the following:

(1) Provisions requiring the claimant to make a sworn verification of the claim to the best of his or her knowledge.

(2) A full description, supported by appropriate evidence from government agencies, of the release of the radioactivity claimed to be the cause of the physical injury, illness, loss of income or property damage.

(3) If making a claim based upon physical injury or illness, certification of the medical history of the claimant for the 5 years preceding the date of the claim, along with certification of the alleged physical injury or illness, and expenses for the physical injury or illness, made by hospitals, physicians or other qualified medical authorities.

(4) If making a claim for lost income, information on the claimant's income as reported on his or her federal income tax return or other document for the preceding 3 years in order to compute lost wages or income.

(b) The Agency shall hold at least one hearing, if requested by the claimant, within 60 days of submission of a claim to the Agency. The Director shall render a decision on a claim within 30 days of the hearing unless all of the parties to the claim agree in writing to an extension of time. All decisions rendered by the Director shall be in writing, with notification to all appropriate parties. The decision shall be considered a final administrative decision for the purposes of judicial review.

(c) The following losses shall be compensable under this Section, provided that the Agency has found that the claimant has established, by the weight of the evidence, that the losses were proximately caused by the designated release and are not otherwise compensable under law:

(1) One hundred percent of uninsured, out-of-pocket medical expenses, for up to 3 years from the onset of treatment;

(2) Eighty percent of any uninsured, actual lost wages, or business income in lieu of wages, caused by injury to the claimant or the claimant's property, not to exceed $15,000 per year for 3 years;

(3) Eighty percent of any losses or damages to real or personal property; and

(4) One hundred percent of costs of any remedial actions on such property necessary to protect human health and the environment.

(d) No claim may be presented to the Agency under this Section later than 5 years from the date of discovery of the damage or loss.

(e) Compensation for any damage or loss under this Section shall preclude indemnification or reimbursement from any other source for the identical damage or loss, and indemnification or reimbursement from any other source shall preclude compensation under this Section.

(f) The Agency shall adopt, and revise when appropriate, rules and regulations necessary to implement the provisions of this Section, including methods that provide for establishing that a claimant has exercised reasonable diligence in satisfying the conditions of the application requirements, for specifying the proof necessary to establish a damage or loss compensable under this Section and for establishing the administrative procedures to be followed in reviewing claims.

(g) Claims approved by the Director shall be paid from the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Facility Closure, Post-Closure Care and Compensation Fund, except that claims shall not be paid in excess of the amount available in the Fund. In the case of insufficient amounts in the Fund to satisfy claims against the Fund, the General Assembly may appropriate monies to the Fund in amounts it deems necessary to pay the claims.

(Source: P.A. 95-777, eff. 8-4-08; revised 9-16-08.)

(420 ILCS 20/18) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 241-18)

Sec. 18. Judicial review. Any person affected by a final order or determination of the Agency Department under this Act may obtain judicial review, by filing a petition for review within 90 days after the entry of the order or other final action complained of.

The review proceeding shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Review Law, except that the proceeding shall originate in the appellate court rather than in the circuit court.

(Source: P.A. 86-1044; 86-1050; 86-1475; 87-1244; 87-1267; revised 9-16-08.)

Section 300. The Livestock Management Facilities Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(510 ILCS 77/13)

Sec. 13. Livestock waste handling facilities other than earthen livestock waste lagoons; construction standards; certification; inspection; removal-from-service requirements.

(a) After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999, livestock waste handling facilities other than earthen livestock waste lagoons used for the storage of livestock waste shall be constructed in accordance with this Section.

(1) Livestock waste handling facilities constructed of concrete shall meet the strength and load factors set forth in the Midwest Plan Service's Concrete Manure Storage Handbook (MWPS-36) and future updates. In addition, those structures shall meet the following requirements:

(A) Waterstops shall be incorporated into the design of the storage structure when consistent with the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection;

(B) Storage structures that handle waste in a liquid form shall be designed to contain a volume of not less than the amount of waste generated during 150 days of facility operation at design capacity; the owner or operator of a livestock waste handling facility constructed with concrete with a design capacity of less than 300 animal units may demonstrate to the Department that a reduced storage volume, not less than 60 days, is feasible due to (i) the availability of land application areas that can receive manure at agronomic rates or (ii) another manure disposal method is proposed that will allow for the reduced manure storage design capacity; the Department shall evaluate the proposal and determine whether a reduced manure storage design capacity is appropriate for the site; and

(C) Storage structures not covered or otherwise protected from precipitation shall, in addition to the waste storage volume requirements of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection, include a 2-foot freeboard.

(2) A livestock waste handling facility in a prefabricated form shall meet the strength, load, and compatibility factors for its intended use. Those factors shall be verified by the manufacturer's specifications.

(3) Livestock waste handling facilities holding semi-solid livestock waste, including but not limited to picket dam structures, shall be constructed according to the requirements set forth in the Midwest Plan Service's Livestock Waste Facilities Handbook (MWPS-18) and future updates or similar standards used by the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture.

(4) Livestock waste handling facilities holding solid livestock waste shall be constructed according to the requirements set forth in the Midwest Plan Service's Livestock Waste Facilities Handbook (MWPS-18) and future updates or similar standards used by the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture. In addition, solid livestock waste stacking structures shall be sized to store not less than the amount of waste generated during 6 months of facility operation at design capacity. The owner or operator of a livestock waste handling facility holding solid livestock waste with a design capacity of less than 300 animal units may demonstrate to the Department that a reduced storage volume, not less than 2 months, is feasible due to (i) the availability of land application areas that can receive manure at agronomic rates or (ii) another manure disposal method is proposed that will allow for the reduced storage design capacity. The Department shall evaluate the proposal and determine whether a reduced manure storage design capacity is appropriate for the site.

(5) Holding ponds used for the temporary storage of livestock feedlot run-off shall be constructed according to the requirements set forth in the Midwest Plan Service's Livestock Waste Facilities Handbook (MWPS-18) and future updates or similar standards used by the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture.

(b) New livestock management facilities and livestock waste handling facilities constructed after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999 shall be subject to the additional construction requirements and siting prohibitions provided in this subsection (b).

(1) No new non-lagoon livestock management facility or livestock waste handling facility may be constructed within the floodway of a 100-year floodplain. A new livestock management facility or livestock waste handling facility may be constructed within the portion of a 100-year floodplain that is within the flood fringe and outside the floodway provided that the facility is designed and constructed to be protected from flooding and meets the requirements set forth in the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act, Section 5-40001 of the Counties Code, and Executive Order Number 4 (1979). The delineation of floodplains, floodways, and flood fringes shall be in compliance with the National Flood Insurance Program. Protection from flooding shall be consistent with the National Flood Insurance Program and shall be designed so that stored livestock waste is not readily removed.

(2) A new non-lagoon livestock waste handling facility constructed in a karst area shall be designed to prevent seepage of the stored material into groundwater in accordance with ASAE 393.2 or future updates. Owners or operators of proposed facilities should consult with the local soil and water conservation district, the University of Illinois Cooperative Extension Service, or other local, county, or State resources relative to determining the possible presence or absence of such areas. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this paragraph (2), after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999, no non-lagoon livestock waste handling facility may be constructed within 400 feet of any natural depression in a karst area formed as a result of subsurface removal of soil or rock materials that has caused the formation of a collapse feature that exhibits internal drainage. For the purposes of this paragraph (2), the existence of such a natural depression in a karst area shall be indicated by the uppermost closed depression contour lines on a USGS 7 1/2 minute quadrangle topographic map or as determined by Department field investigation in a karst area.

(3) A new non-lagoon livestock waste handling facility constructed in an area where aquifer material is present within 5 feet of the bottom of the facility shall be designed to ensure the structural integrity of the containment structure and to prevent seepage of the stored material to groundwater. Footings and underlying structure support shall be incorporated into the design standards of the storage structure in accordance with the requirements of Section 4.1 of the American Society of Agricultural Engineers (ASAE) EP 393.2 or future updates.

(c) A livestock waste handling facility owner may rely on guidance from the local soil and water conservation district, the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture, or the University of Illinois Cooperative Extension Service for soil type and associated information.

(d) The standards in subsections (a) and (b) shall serve as interim construction standards until such time as permanent rules promulgated pursuant to Section 55 of this Act become effective. In addition, the Department and the Board shall utilize the interim standards in subsections (a) and (b) as a basis for the development of such permanent rules.

(e) The owner or operator of a livestock management facility or livestock waste handling facility may, with the approval of the Department, elect to exceed the strength and load requirements as set forth in this Section.

(f) The owner or operator of a livestock management facility or livestock waste handling facility shall send, by certified mail or in person, to the Department a certification of compliance together with copies of verification documents upon completion of construction. In the case of structures constructed with the design standards used by the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture, copies of the design standards and a statement of verification signed by a representative of the United States Department of Agriculture shall accompany the owner's or operator's certification of compliance. The certification shall state that the structure meets or exceeds the requirements in subsection (a) of this Section. A $250 filing fee shall accompany the statement.

(g) The Department shall inspect the construction site prior to construction, during construction, and within 10 business days following receipt of the certification of compliance to determine compliance with the construction standards.

(h) The Department shall require modification when necessary to bring the construction into compliance with the standards set forth in this Section. The person making the inspection shall discuss with the owner, operator, or certified livestock manager an evaluation of the livestock waste handling facility construction and shall (i) provide on-site written recommendations to the owner, operator, or certified livestock manager of what modifications are necessary or (ii) inform the owner, operator, or certified livestock manager that the facility meets the standards set forth in this Section. On the day of the inspection, the person making the inspection shall give the owner, operator, or certified livestock manager a written report of findings based on the inspection together with an explanation of remedial measures necessary to enable the livestock waste handling facility to meet the standards set forth in this Section. The Department shall, within 5 business days of the date of inspection, send an official written notice to the owner or operator of the livestock waste handling facility by certified mail, return receipt requested, indicating that the facility meets the standards set forth in this Section or identifying the remedial measures necessary to enable the livestock waste handling facility to meet the standards set forth in this Section. The owner or operator shall, within 10 business days of receipt of an official written notice of deficiencies, contact the Department to develop the principles of an agreement of compliance. The owner or operator and the Department shall enter into an agreement of compliance setting forth the specific changes to be made to bring the construction into compliance with the standards required under this Section. If an agreement of compliance cannot be achieved, the Department shall issue a compliance order to the owner or operator outlining the specific changes to be made to bring the construction into compliance with the standards required under this Section. The owner or operator can request an administrative hearing to contest the provisions of the Department's compliance order.

(i) (Blank).

(j) If any owner or operator operates in violation of an agreement of compliance, the Department shall seek an injunction in circuit court to prohibit the operation of the facility until construction and certification of the livestock waste handling facility are in compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(k) When any livestock management facility not using an earthen livestock waste lagoon is removed from service, the accumulated livestock waste remaining within the facility shall be removed and applied to land at rates consistent with a waste management plan for the facility. Removal of the waste shall occur within 12 months after the date livestock production at the facility ceases. In addition, the owner or operator shall make provisions to prevent the accumulation of precipitation within the livestock waste handling facility. Upon completion of the removal of manure, the owner or operator of the facility shall notify the Department that the facility is being removed from service and the remaining manure has been removed. The Department shall conduct an inspection of the livestock waste handling facility and inform the owner or operator in writing that the requirements imposed under this subsection (k) have been met or that additional actions are necessary. Commencement of operations at a facility that has livestock shelters left intact and that has completed the requirements imposed under this subsection (k) and that has been operated as a livestock management facility or livestock waste handling facility for 4 consecutive months at any time within the previous 10 years shall not be considered a new or expanded livestock management or waste handling facility. A new facility constructed after May 21, 1996 that has been removed from service for a period of 2 or more years shall not be placed back into service prior to an inspection of the livestock waste handling facility and receipt of written approval by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-38, eff. 1-1-08; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 305. The Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act is amended by changing Section 7.05 as follows:

(525 ILCS 30/7.05) (from Ch. 105, par. 707.05)

Sec. 7.05. To acquire by gift, legacy, purchase, transfer, grant, agreement, dedication, or condemnation under the Eminent Domain Act Article VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, approved August 19, 1981, as amended, or other method, the fee simple title to real property or any lesser estates, interests or rights therein, including but not limited to leasehold estates, easements either appurtenant or in gross and either granting the Department specified rights of use or denying to the grantor specified rights of use or both (which easements may be perpetual and shall not be extinguished by conveyance of the servient estate), licenses, covenants, and other contractual rights in real property and to hold and manage the same for the purposes of this Act, and with or without public access.

(Source: P.A. 83-388; revised 1-30-08.)

Section 310. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Section 5-409 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/5-409) (from Ch. 121, par. 5-409)

Sec. 5-409. Partial payments on contracts let by a county for highway work may be made as the work progresses but no payment in excess of 90% of the value of the work then completed may be made until 50% of the work has been completed. After 50% of the work is completed, the county may, in its discretion, make partial payments without any further retention, provided that satisfactory progress is being made and provided that the amount retained is not less than 5% of the total adjusted contract price.

At the discretion of the county and with the consent of the surety, a semi-final payment may be made when the principal items of the work have been satisfactorily completed. Such payment shall not exceed 90% of the amount retained nor reduce the amount retained to less than 1% of the adjusted contract price nor less than $500.00.

Final payment under the contract shall not be made until it is shown that all money due for any labor, material, apparatus, fixtures or machinery furnished to the contractor or other indebtedness of the contractor incurred in connection with such work has been paid.

Furthermore, if the contract is one that was approved by the Department, no final payment shall be made until the county has received approval by the Department to do so.

This Section is also subject to the provisions of Section 23 of the Mechanics Lien Act "An Act to revise the law in relation to mechanics' liens", approved May 18, 1903, as heretofore or hereafter amended.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2796; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 315. The Illinois Aeronautics Act is amended by changing Section 82 as follows:

(620 ILCS 5/82) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 22.82)

Sec. 82. "Short title". This Act may be cited as the "Illinois Aeronautics Act".

(Source: Laws 1945, p. 335; revised 11-5-08.)

Section 320. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-101.5, 3-819, 5-403, 6-205, 6-206, 11-204.1, and 12-610.5 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 3-674 and 3-680 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-101.5)

Sec. 1-101.5. Agency. For the purposes of Chapter Chapters 13B and 13C, "Agency" means the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.

(Source: P.A. 94-526, eff. 1-1-06; revised 11-6-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-674)

Sec. 3-674. Sheet Metal Workers International Association license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Sheet Metal Workers International Association license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Sheet Metal Workers International Association of Illinois Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Sheet Metal Workers International Association of Illinois Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Sheet Metal Workers International Association of Illinois Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Sheet Metal Workers International Association of Illinois Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Secretary, as grants for charitable purposes sponsored by Illinois local chapters of the Sheet Metal Workers International Association.

(Source: P.A. 95-531, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-680)

Sec. 3-680. U.S. Army Veteran license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue U.S. Army Veteran license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special U.S. Army Veteran plate issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land Of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe the eligibility requirements and, in his or her discretion, shall approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $15 fee for original issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. This additional fee shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $2 fee, in addition to the applicable registration fee, shall be charged and shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-796, eff. 8-11-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-682)

Sec. 3-682 3-680. Illinois Police Association license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Illinois Police Association license plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section 3-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code.

(c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a $25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police Association Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.

For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police Association Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(d) The Illinois Police Association Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois Police Association Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, for providing death benefits for the families of police officers killed in the line of duty, and for providing scholarships, for graduate study, undergraduate study, or both, to children and spouses of police officers killed in the line of duty.

(Source: P.A. 95-795, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-683)

Sec. 3-683 3-674. Distinguished Service Cross license plates. The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, shall issue special registration plates to any Illinois resident who has been awarded the Distinguished Service Cross by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The Secretary, upon receipt of the proper application, shall also issue these special registration plates to an Illinois resident who is the surviving spouse of a person who was awarded the Distinguished Service Cross by a branch of the armed forces of the United States. The special plates issued under this Section should be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application. However, for an individual who has been issued Distinguished Service Cross plates for a vehicle and who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, the annual fee for the registration of the vehicle shall be as provided in Section 3-806.3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-794, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-819) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-819)

Sec. 3-819. Trailer; Flat weight tax.

(a) Farm Trailer. Any farm trailer drawn by a motor vehicle of the second division registered under paragraph (a) or (c) of Section 3-815 and used exclusively by the owner for his own agricultural, horticultural or livestock raising operations and not used for hire, or any farm trailer utilized only in the transportation for-hire of seasonal, fresh, perishable fruit or vegetables from farm to the point of first processing, and any trailer used with a farm tractor that is not an implement of husbandry may be registered under this paragraph in lieu of registration under paragraph (b) of this Section upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of the $10 registration fee and the highway use tax herein for use of the public highways of this State, at the following rates which include the $10 registration fee:

An owner may only apply for and receive two farm trailer registrations.

(b) All other owners of trailers, other than apportionable trailers registered under Section 3-402.1 of this Code, used with a motor vehicle on the public highways, shall pay to the Secretary of State for each registration year a flat weight tax, for the use of the public highways of this State, at the following rates (which includes the registration fee of $10 required by Section 3-813):

(c) The number of axles necessary to carry the maximum load provided shall be determined from Chapter 15 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 91-37, eff. 7-1-99; revised 10-23-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-403) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-403)

Sec. 5-403. (1) Authorized representatives of the Secretary of State including officers of the Secretary of State's Department of Police, other peace officers, and such other individuals as the Secretary may designate from time to time shall make inspections of individuals and facilities licensed or required to be licensed under Chapter 5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code for the purpose of reviewing records required to be maintained under Chapter 5 for accuracy and completeness and reviewing and examining the premises of the licensee's established or additional place of business for the purpose of determining the accuracy of the required records. Premises that may be inspected in order to determine the accuracy of the books and records required to be kept includes all premises used by the licensee to store vehicles and parts that are reflected by the required books and records.

(2) Persons having knowledge of or conducting inspections pursuant to this Chapter shall not in advance of such inspections knowingly notify a licensee or representative of a licensee of the contemplated inspection unless the Secretary or an individual designated by him for this purpose authorizes such notification. Any individual who, without authorization, knowingly violates this subparagraph shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) The licensee or a representative of the licensee shall be entitled to be present during an inspection conducted pursuant to Chapter 5, however, the presence of the licensee or an authorized representative of the licensee is not a condition precedent to such an inspection.

(4) Inspection conducted pursuant to Chapter 5 may be initiated at any time that business is being conducted or work is being performed, whether or not open to the public or when the licensee or a representative of the licensee, other than a mere custodian or watchman, is present. The fact that a licensee or representative of the licensee leaves the licensed premises after an inspection has been initiated shall not require the termination of the inspection.

(5) Any inspection conducted pursuant to Chapter 5 shall not continue for more than 24 hours after initiation.

(6) In the event information comes to the attention of the individuals conducting an inspection that may give rise to the necessity of obtaining a search warrant, and in the event steps are initiated for the procurement of a search warrant, the individuals conducting such inspection may take all necessary steps to secure the premises under inspection until the warrant application is acted upon by a judicial officer.

(7) No more than 6 inspections of a premises may be conducted pursuant to Chapter 5 within any 6 month period except pursuant to a search warrant. Notwithstanding this limitation, nothing in this subparagraph (7) shall be construed to limit the authority of law enforcement agents to respond to public complaints of violations of the Code. For the purpose of this subparagraph (7), a public complaint is one in which the complainant identifies himself or herself and sets forth, in writing, the specific basis for their complaint against the licensee. For the purpose of this subparagraph (7), the inspection of records pertaining only to recyclable metals, as provided in subdivision (a)(5) of Section 5-401.3 of this Code, shall not be counted as an inspection of a premises.

(8) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the authority of individuals by the Secretary pursuant to this Section to conduct searches of licensees pursuant to a duly issued and authorized search warrant.

(9) Any licensee who, having been informed by a person authorized to make inspections and examine records under this Section that he desires to inspect records and the licensee's premises as authorized by this Section, refuses either to produce for that person records required to be kept by this Chapter or to permit such authorized person to make an inspection of the premises in accordance with this Section shall subject the license to immediate suspension by the Secretary of State.

(10) Beginning July 1, 1988, any person referenced under Section 5-302 shall produce for inspection upon demand those records pertaining to the acquisition of salvage vehicles in this State.

(Source: P.A. 95-253, eff. 1-1-08; 95-783, eff. 1-1-09; 95-979, eff. 1-2-09; revised 10-14-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-205)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; Hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court. Upon the direction of the court, the Secretary shall issue the person a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1, except that the court may direct that a JDP issued under this subdivision (b)(3) be effective immediately.

(c)(1) Except as provided in subsection (c-5), whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state; ,

that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of these offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) The Secretary may not issue a restricted driving permit to any person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 12 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-307, eff. 9-30-05; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-337, eff. 6-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-382, eff. 8-23-07; 95-627, eff. 6-1-08; 95-848, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 9-10-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in death or injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year, and any driver who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense, within 5 years of a previous conviction, for the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall be suspended for 5 years. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section; or

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of those offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, or the Secretary of State. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 18 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-307, eff. 9-30-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-930, eff. 6-26-06; 95-166, eff. 1-1-08; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-382, eff. 8-23-07; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-627, eff. 6-1-08; 95-848, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-894, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-204.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-204.1)

Sec. 11-204.1. Aggravated fleeing or attempting attempt to elude a peace officer.

(a) The offense of aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer is committed by any driver or operator of a motor vehicle who flees or attempts to elude a peace officer, after being given a visual or audible signal by a peace officer in the manner prescribed in subsection (a) of Section 11-204 of this Code, and such flight or attempt to elude:

(1) is at a rate of speed at least 21 miles per hour over the legal speed limit;

(2) causes bodily injury to any individual;

(3) causes damage in excess of $300 to property; or

(4) involves disobedience of 2 or more official traffic control devices.

(b) Any person convicted of a first violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony. Upon notice of such a conviction the Secretary of State shall forthwith revoke the driver's license of the person so convicted, as provided in Section 6-205 of this Code. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony, and upon notice of such a conviction the Secretary of State shall forthwith revoke the driver's license of the person convicted, as provided in Section 6-205 of the Code.

(c) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 93-120, eff. 1-1-04; revised 10-30-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-610.5)

Sec. 12-610.5. Registration plate covers.

(a) In this Section, "registration plate cover" means any tinted, colored, painted, marked, clear, or illuminated object that is designed to:

(1) cover any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate; or

(2) distort a recorded image of any of the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate recorded by an automated traffic law red light enforcement system as defined in Section 11-208.6 1-105.5 of this Code or recorded by an automated traffic control system as defined in Section 15 of the Automated Traffic Control Systems in Highway Construction or Maintenance Zones Act.

(b) It shall be unlawful to operate any motor vehicle that is equipped with registration plate covers.

(c) A person may not sell or offer for sale a registration plate cover.

(d) A person may not advertise for the purpose of promoting the sale of registration plate covers.

(e) A violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall be an offense against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic.

(Source: P.A. 94-304, eff. 1-1-06; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 325. The Court of Claims Act is amended by changing Sections 11, 22, and 24 as follows:

(705 ILCS 505/11) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.11)

Sec. 11. Filing claims.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section and subsection (4) (3) of Section 24, the claimant shall in all cases set forth fully in his petition the claim, the action thereon, if any, on behalf of the State, what persons are owners thereof or interested therein, when and upon what consideration such persons became so interested; that no assignment or transfer of the claim or any part thereof or interest therein has been made, except as stated in the petition; that the claimant is justly entitled to the amount therein claimed from the State of Illinois, after allowing all just credits; and that claimant believes the facts stated in the petition to be true. The petition shall be verified, as to statements of facts, by the affidavit of the claimant, his agent, or attorney.

(b) Whenever a person has served a term of imprisonment and has received a pardon by the Governor stating that such pardon was issued on the ground of innocence of the crime for which he or she was imprisoned, the Prisoner Review Board shall transmit this information to the clerk of the Court of Claims, together with the claimant's current address. Whenever a person has served a term of imprisonment and has received a certificate of innocence from the Circuit Court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the clerk of the issuing Circuit Court shall transmit this information to the clerk of the Court of Claims, together with the claimant's current address. The clerk of the Court of Claims shall immediately docket the case for consideration by the Court of Claims, and shall provide notice to the claimant of such docketing together with all hearing dates and applicable deadlines. The Court of Claims shall hear the case and render a decision within 90 days after its docketing.

(Source: P.A. 95-970, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-15-08.)

(705 ILCS 505/22) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.22)

Sec. 22. Every claim cognizable by the Court and not otherwise sooner barred by law shall be forever barred from prosecution therein unless it is filed with the Clerk of the Court within the time set forth as follows:

(a) All claims arising out of a contract must be filed within 5 years after it first accrues, saving to minors, and persons under legal disability at the time the claim accrues, in which cases the claim must be filed within 5 years from the time the disability ceases.

(b) All claims cognizable against the State by vendors of goods or services under "The Illinois Public Aid Code", approved April 11, 1967, as amended, must file within one year after the accrual of the cause of action, as provided in Section 11-13 of that Code.

(c) All claims arising under paragraph (c) of Section 8 of this Act must be automatically heard by the court within 120 days after the person asserting such claim is either issued a certificate of innocence from the Circuit Court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or is granted a pardon by the Governor, whichever occurs later, without the person asserting the claim being required to file a petition under Section 11 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by the Crime Victims Compensation Act. Any claims filed by the claimant under paragraph (c) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within 2 years after the person asserting such claim is either issued a certificate of innocence as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or is granted a pardon by the Governor, whichever occurs later.

(d) All claims arising under paragraph (f) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within the time set forth in Section 3 of the Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(e) All claims arising under paragraph (h) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within one year of the date of the death of the guardsman or militiaman as provided in Section 3 of the "Illinois National Guardsman's and Naval Militiaman's Compensation Act", approved August 12, 1971, as amended.

(f) All claims arising under paragraph (g) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within one year of the crime on which a claim is based as provided in Section 6.1 of the "Crime Victims Compensation Act", approved August 23, 1973, as amended.

(g) All claims arising from the Comptroller's refusal to issue a replacement warrant pursuant to Section 10.10 of the State Comptroller Act must be filed within 5 years after the issue date of such warrant.

(h) All other claims must be filed within 2 years after it first accrues, saving to minors, and persons under legal disability at the time the claim accrues, in which case the claim must be filed within 2 years from the time the disability ceases.

(i) The changes made by this amendatory Act of 1989 shall apply to all warrants issued within the 5 year period preceding the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989.

(j) All time limitations established under this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act shall be binding and jurisdictional, except upon extension authorized by law or rule and granted pursuant to a motion timely filed.

(Source: P.A. 95-928, eff. 8-26-08; 95-970, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-14-08.)

(705 ILCS 505/24) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.24)

Sec. 24. Payment of awards.

(1) From funds appropriated by the General Assembly for the purposes of this Section the Court may direct immediate payment of:

(a) All claims arising solely as a result of the lapsing of an appropriation out of which the obligation could have been paid.

(b) All claims pursuant to the Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(c) All claims pursuant to the "Illinois National Guardsman's and Naval Militiaman's Compensation Act", approved August 12, 1971, as amended.

(d) All claims pursuant to the "Crime Victims Compensation Act", approved August 23, 1973, as amended.

(e) All other claims wherein the amount of the award of the Court is less than $5,000.

(2) The court may, from funds specifically appropriated from the General Revenue Fund for this purpose, direct the payment of awards less than $50,000 solely as a result of the lapsing of an appropriation originally made from any fund held by the State Treasurer. For any such award paid from the General Revenue Fund, the court shall thereafter seek an appropriation from the fund from which the liability originally accrued in reimbursement of the General Revenue Fund.

(3) In directing payment of a claim pursuant to the Line of Duty Compensation Act, the Court must direct the Comptroller to add an interest penalty if payment of a claim is not made within 6 months after a claim is filed in accordance with Section 3 of the Line of Duty Compensation Act and all information has been submitted as required under Section 4 of the Line of Duty Compensation Act. If payment is not issued within the 6-month period, an interest penalty of 1% of the amount of the award shall be added for each month or fraction thereof after the end of the 6-month period, until final payment is made. This interest penalty shall be added regardless of whether the payment is not issued within the 6-month period because of the appropriation process, the consideration of the matter by the Court, or any other reason.

(4) (3) From funds appropriated by the General Assembly for the purposes of paying claims under paragraph (c) of Section 8, the court must direct payment of each claim and the payment must be received by the claimant within 60 days after the date that the funds are appropriated for that purpose.

(Source: P.A. 95-928, eff. 8-26-08; 95-970, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-14-08.)

Section 330. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by changing Sections 9-3, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-7.5, 17-2, 24-1, 31-6, 31-7, and 31A-1.2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3)

Sec. 9-3. Involuntary Manslaughter and Reckless Homicide.

(a) A person who unintentionally kills an individual without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of the death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle or operating a snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft, in which case the person commits reckless homicide. A person commits reckless homicide if he or she unintentionally kills an individual while driving a vehicle and using an incline in a roadway, such as a railroad crossing, bridge approach, or hill, to cause the vehicle to become airborne.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Sentence.

(1) Involuntary manslaughter is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Reckless homicide is a Class 3 felony.

(e) (Blank).

(e-2) Except as provided in subsection (e-3), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense is committed upon a public thoroughfare where children pass going to and from school when a school crossing guard is performing official duties, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-3) In cases involving reckless homicide in which (i) the offense is committed upon a public thoroughfare where children pass going to and from school when a school crossing guard is performing official duties and (ii) the defendant causes the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.

(e-5) (Blank).

(e-7) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e-8), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant: (1) was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (2) was operating a vehicle while failing or refusing to comply with any lawful order or direction of any authorized police officer or traffic control aide engaged in traffic control, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-8) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct and: (1) was driving in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (2) was operating a vehicle while failing or refusing to comply with any lawful order or direction of any authorized police officer or traffic control aide engaged in traffic control, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.

(e-9) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant drove a vehicle and used an incline in a roadway, such as a railroad crossing, bridge approach, or hill, to cause the vehicle to become airborne, and caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony.

(e-10) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter or reckless homicide resulting in the death of a peace officer killed in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer, the penalty is a Class 2 felony.

(e-11) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant unintentionally kills an individual while driving in a posted school zone, as defined in Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, while children are present or in a construction or maintenance zone, as defined in Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, when construction or maintenance workers are present the trier of fact may infer that the defendant's actions were performed recklessly where he or she was also either driving at a speed of more than 20 miles per hour in excess of the posted speed limit or violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e-12) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e-13), in cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense was committed as result of a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-13) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the offense was committed as result of a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant caused the deaths of 2 or more persons as part of a single course of conduct, the penalty is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years.

(e-14) (e-12) In cases involving reckless homicide in which the defendant unintentionally kills an individual, the trier of fact may infer that the defendant's actions were performed recklessly where he or she was also violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The penalty for a reckless homicide in which the driver also violated subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is a Class 2 felony, for which a person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(f) In cases involving involuntary manslaughter in which the victim was a family or household member as defined in paragraph (3) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the penalty shall be a Class 2 felony, for which a person if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(Source: P.A. 95-467, eff. 6-1-08; 95-551, eff. 6-1-08; 95-587, eff. 6-1-08; 95-591, eff. 9-10-07; 95-803, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-884, eff. 1-1-09; revised 12-9-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.3)

Sec. 11-9.3. Presence within school zone by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any school building, on real property comprising any school, or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building, on the grounds or in the conveyance, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or unless the offender has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official. A child sex offender who violates this provision is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(a-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present within 100 feet of a site posted as a pick-up or discharge stop for a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when one or more persons under the age of 18 are present at the site.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter within 500 feet of a school building or real property comprising any school while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official. A child sex offender who violates this provision is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under the age of 18 attend. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under 18 attend if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly.

(c) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9 (public indecency when committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or on a conveyance, owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(2.5) For the purposes of subsection (b-5) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "School" means a public or private pre-school, elementary, or secondary school.

(5) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around school property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around school property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(iii) Entering or remaining in a building in or around school property, other than the offender's residence.

(6) "School official" means the principal, a teacher, or any other certified employee of the school, the superintendent of schools or a member of the school board.

(c-5) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property of the school building or the real property comprising the school that is closest to the edge of the property of the child sex offender's residence or where he or she is loitering.

(d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-158, eff. 7-11-05; 94-164, eff. 1-1-06; 94-170, eff. 7-11-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-440, eff. 8-27-07; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-819, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 9-23-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 11-9.4. Approaching, contacting, residing, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a day care home or group day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-6) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

This subsection (b-6) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.

(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18; (ii) day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) day care home; or (vii) group day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, day care home, or group day care home is operated.

(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any county fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.

(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(c-7) (c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9 (public indecency when committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, on a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) of this subsection (d).

(2.5) For the purposes of subsection (b-5) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(5) "Facility providing programs or services directed towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(6) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(7) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(8) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(9) "Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(11) "Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(12) "Group day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(d-5) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or where he or she is loitering.

(e) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-925, eff. 6-26-06; 95-32, eff. 1-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-819, eff. 1-1-09; 95-820, eff. 1-1-09; 95-821, eff. 8-14-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-20-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 11-9.4. Approaching, contacting, residing, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a day care home or group day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-6) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

This subsection (b-6) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.

(b-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly communicate, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law, using the Internet or any other digital media, with a person under 18 years of age or with a person whom he or she believes to be a person under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age.

(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18; (ii) day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) day care home; or (vii) group day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, day care home, or group day care home is operated.

(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any county fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.

(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(c-7) (c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961: 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9 (public indecency when committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, on a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) of this subsection (d).

(2.5) For the purposes of subsection (b-5) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding and abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(5) "Facility providing programs or services directed towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(6) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle or remaining in or around public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(7) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(8) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(9) "Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(11) "Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(12) "Group day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(13) (11) "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system or an information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an information service, system, or access software provider that provides access to a network system commonly known as the Internet, or any comparable system or service and also includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any interactive computer service or system or other online service.

(d-5) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or where he or she is loitering.

(e) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-925, eff. 6-26-06; 95-32, eff. 1-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-819, eff. 1-1-09; 95-820, eff. 1-1-09; 95-821, eff. 8-14-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-20-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.2)

Sec. 12-4.2. Aggravated Battery with a firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated battery with a firearm when he, in committing a battery, knowingly or intentionally by means of the discharging of a firearm (1) causes any injury to another person, or (2) causes any injury to a person he knows to be a peace officer, a private security officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman performing his official duties, or (3) causes any injury to a person he knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his official duties, (4) causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a teacher or other person employed in a school and the teacher or other employee is upon grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes, or (5) causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(2), subsection (a)(3), subsection (a)(4), or subsection (a)(5) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 15 years and no more than 60 years.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

"Firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06; 95-236, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-22-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-4.2-5)

Sec. 12-4.2-5. Aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm.

(a) A person commits aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm when he or she, in committing a battery, knowingly or intentionally by means of the discharging of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm (1) causes any injury to another person, or (2) causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a private security officer, a person summoned by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties, or (3) causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties, or (4) causes any injury to a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.

(b) A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of no less than 12 years and no more than 45 years. A violation of subsection (a)(2), subsection (a)(3), or subsection (a)(4) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 20 years and no more than 60 years.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(d) For purposes of this Section:

"Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code.

"Private security officer" means a registered employee of a private security contractor agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06; 95-236, eff. 1-1-08; revised 1-22-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.5)

Sec. 12-7.5. Cyberstalking.

(a) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, on at least 2 separate occasions, harasses another person through the use of electronic communication and:

(1) at any time transmits a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint and the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person; , or

(2) places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint; or

(3) at any time knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(a-5) A person commits cyberstalking when he or she, knowingly and without lawful justification, creates and maintains an Internet website or webpage which is accessible to one or more third parties for a period of at least 24 hours, and which contains statements harassing another person and:

(1) which communicates a threat of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, where the threat is directed towards that person or a family member of that person, or

(2) which places that person or a family member of that person in reasonable apprehension of immediate or future bodily harm, sexual assault, confinement, or restraint, or

(3) which knowingly solicits the commission of an act by any person which would be a violation of this Code directed towards that person or a family member of that person.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Harass" means to engage in a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that alarms, torments, or terrorizes that person.

"Third party" means any person other than the person violating these provisions and the person or persons towards whom the violator's actions are directed.

"Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electronmagnetic, photoelectric, or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(c) Sentence. Cyberstalking is a Class 4 felony. A second or subsequent conviction for cyberstalking is a Class 3 felony.

(d) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-849, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-10-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 17-2)

Sec. 17-2. False personation; use of title; solicitation; certain entities.

(a) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a member or representative of any veterans' or public safety personnel organization or a representative of any charitable organization, or when any person exhibits or uses in any manner any decal, badge or insignia of any charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization when not authorized to do so by the charitable, public safety personnel, or veterans' organization. "Public safety personnel organization" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1 of the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(a-5) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a veteran in seeking employment or public office. In this subsection, "veteran" means a person who has served in the Armed Services or Reserve Reserved Forces of the United States.

(a-6) A person commits a false personation when he or she falsely represents himself or herself to be a recipient of, or wears on his or her person, any of the following medals if that medal was not awarded to that person by the United States government, irrespective of branch of service: the Congressional Medal of Honor, the Distinguished Service Cross, the Navy Cross, the Air Force Cross, the Silver Star, the Bronze Star, or the Purple Heart.

It is a defense to a prosecution under this subsection (a-6) that the medal is used, or is intended to be used, exclusively:

(1) for a dramatic presentation, such as a theatrical, film, or television production, or a historical re-enactment; or

(2) for a costume worn, or intended to be worn, by a person under 18 years of age.

(b) No person shall use the words "Chicago Police," "Chicago Police Department," "Chicago Patrolman," "Chicago Sergeant," "Chicago Lieutenant," "Chicago Peace Officer" or any other words to the same effect in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the Chicago Police Board.

(b-5) No person shall use the words "Cook County Sheriff's Police" or "Cook County Sheriff" or any other words to the same effect in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication without the express approval of the office of the Cook County Sheriff's Merit Board. The references to names and titles in this Section may not be construed as authorizing use of the names and titles of other organizations or public safety personnel organizations otherwise prohibited by this Section or the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(b-10) No person may use, in the title of any organization, magazine, or other publication, the words "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", or "state police" in combination with the name of any state, state agency, public university, or unit of local government without the express written authorization of that state, state agency, or unit of local government.

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) No person may claim or represent that he or she is acting on behalf of any police department, chief of a police department, fire department, chief of a fire department, sheriff's department, or sheriff when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements unless the chief of the police department, fire department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff has first entered into a written agreement with the person or with an organization with which the person is affiliated and the agreement permits the activity.

(c-2) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes "officer", "peace officer", "police", "law enforcement", "trooper", "sheriff", "deputy", "deputy sheriff", "State police", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of law enforcement personnel unless the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization, and the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty peace officers, retired peace officers, or injured peace officers and before commencing the solicitation or the sale or the offers to sell any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization has been entered into.

(c-3) No person may solicit financial contributions or sell or deliver or offer to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements on behalf of a police, sheriff, or other law enforcement department unless that person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the department or governmental organization and has entered into a written contract with the police chief, or head of the law enforcement department, and the corporate or municipal authority thereof, or the sheriff, which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(c-4) No person, when soliciting financial contributions or selling or delivering or offering to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, may claim or represent that he or she is representing or acting on behalf of any nongovernmental organization by any name which includes the term "fireman", "fire fighter", "paramedic", or any other word or words which would reasonably be understood to imply that the organization is composed of fire fighter or paramedic personnel unless the person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the nongovernmental organization, and the nongovernmental organization is controlled by and governed by a membership of and represents a group or association of active duty, retired, or injured fire fighters (for the purposes of this Section, "fire fighter" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 2 of the Illinois Fire Protection Training Act) or active duty, retired, or injured emergency medical technicians - ambulance, emergency medical technicians - intermediate, emergency medical technicians - paramedic, ambulance drivers, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, and before commencing the solicitation or the sale or delivery or the offers to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements, a written contract between the soliciting or selling person and the nongovernmental organization has been entered into.

(c-5) No person may solicit financial contributions or sell or deliver or offer to sell or deliver any merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements on behalf of a department or departments of fire fighters unless that person is actually representing or acting on behalf of the department or departments and has entered into a written contract with the department chief and corporate or municipal authority thereof which specifies and states clearly and fully the purposes for which the proceeds of the solicitation, contribution, or sale will be used.

(c-6) No person may claim or represent that he or she is an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport in order to obtain the uniform, identification card, license, or other identification paraphernalia of an airman, airline employee, airport employee, or contractor at an airport.

(d) Sentence. False personation, unapproved use of a name or title, or solicitation in violation of subsection (a), (b), (b-5), or (b-10) of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor. False personation in violation of subsections (a-5) and (c-6) is a Class A misdemeanor. False personation in violation of subsection (a-6) of this Section is a petty offense for which the offender shall be fined at least $100 and not exceeding $200. Engaging in any activity in violation of subsection (c-1), (c-2), (c-3), (c-4), or (c-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 94-548, eff. 8-11-05; 94-755, eff. 1-1-07; 94-984, eff. 6-30-06; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-28-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful Use of Weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-72, eff. 1-1-06; 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-5-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-6)

Sec. 31-6. Escape; failure to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment.

(a) A person convicted of a felony, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a felony offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person convicted of a felony, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a felony offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(b) A person convicted of a misdemeanor, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a misdemeanor offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, a person convicted of a misdemeanor, or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a misdemeanor offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who knowingly fails to report to a penal institution or to report for periodic imprisonment at any time or knowingly fails to return from furlough or from work and day release or who knowingly fails to abide by the terms of home confinement is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(b-1) A person committed to the Department of Human Services under the provisions of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or in detention with the Department of Human Services awaiting such a commitment who intentionally escapes from any secure residential facility or from the custody of an employee of that facility commits a Class 2 felony.

(c) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, and who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(c-5) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, or mandatory supervised release for a felony or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(c-6) A person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, who intentionally escapes from custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 1 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-839, eff. 8-15-08; 95-921, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-7)

Sec. 31-7. Aiding escape.

(a) Whoever, with intent to aid any prisoner in escaping from any penal institution, conveys into the institution or transfers to the prisoner anything for use in escaping commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a felony offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of any employee of that institution commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a felony, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a felony offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a felony, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) Whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a misdemeanor offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from any penal institution or from the custody of an employee of that institution commits a Class A misdemeanor; however, whoever knowingly aids a person convicted of a misdemeanor, adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a misdemeanor offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or charged with the commission of a misdemeanor, or charged with or adjudicated delinquent for an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in failing to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) Whoever knowingly aids a person in escaping from any public institution, other than a penal institution, in which he is lawfully detained, or from the custody of an employee of that institution, commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) Whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a felony offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, in escaping from custody commits a Class 2 felony; however, whoever knowingly aids a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for the alleged commission of a misdemeanor offense or an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute a misdemeanor, in escaping from custody commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f) An officer or employee of any penal institution who recklessly permits any prisoner in his custody to escape commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(f-5) With respect to a person in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of probation, conditional discharge, parole, or mandatory supervised release for a felony, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(f-6) With respect to a person who is in the lawful custody of a peace officer for an alleged violation of a term or condition of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor, whoever intentionally aids that person to escape from that custody is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) A person who violates this Section while armed with a dangerous weapon commits a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-839, eff. 8-15-08; 95-921, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/31A-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 31A-1.2)

Sec. 31A-1.2. Unauthorized bringing of contraband into a penal institution by an employee; unauthorized possessing of contraband in a penal institution by an employee; unauthorized delivery of contraband in a penal institution by an employee.

(a) A person commits the offense of unauthorized bringing of contraband into a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of or any person designated or authorized to grant such authority:

(1) brings or attempts to bring an item of contraband listed in subsection (d)(4) into a penal institution, or

(2) causes or permits another to bring an item of contraband listed in subsection (d)(4) into a penal institution.

(b) A person commits the offense of unauthorized possession of contraband in a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant such authority possesses contraband listed in subsection (d)(4) in a penal institution, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.

(c) A person commits the offense of unauthorized delivery of contraband in a penal institution by an employee when a person who is an employee knowingly and without authority of any person designated or authorized to grant such authority:

(1) delivers or possesses with intent to deliver an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(2) conspires to deliver or solicits the delivery of an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(3) causes or permits the delivery of an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution, or

(4) permits another person to attempt to deliver an item of contraband to any inmate of a penal institution.

(d) For purpose of this Section, the words and phrases listed below shall be defined as follows:

(1) "Penal Institution" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (c)(1) of Section 31A-1.1 of this Code;

(2) "Employee" means any elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of a penal institution or of the governing authority of the penal institution, or any person who performs services for the penal institution pursuant to contract with the penal institution or its governing authority.

(3) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of an item of contraband, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship;

(4) "Item of contraband" means any of the following:

(i) "Alcoholic liquor" as such term is defined in Section 1-3.05 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

(ii) "Cannabis" as such term is defined in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(iii) "Controlled substance" as such term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(iii-a) "Methamphetamine" as such term is defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(iv) "Hypodermic syringe" or hypodermic needle, or any instrument adapted for use of controlled substances or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(v) "Weapon" means any knife, dagger, dirk, billy, razor, stiletto, broken bottle, or other piece of glass which could be used as a dangerous weapon. Such term includes any of the devices or implements designated in subsections (a)(1), (a)(3) and (a)(6) of Section 24-1 of this Act, or any other dangerous weapon or instrument of like character.

(vi) "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas, including but not limited to:

(A) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter; or

(B) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(C) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or industrial ammunition; or

(D) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning, commonly referred to as a stun gun or taser.

(vii) "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm, including but not limited to:

(A) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; or

(B) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

(viii) "Explosive" means, but is not limited to, bomb, bombshell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes such as black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles.

(ix) "Tool to defeat security mechanisms" means, but is not limited to, handcuff or security restraint key, tool designed to pick locks, or device or instrument capable of unlocking handcuff or security restraints, doors to cells, rooms, gates or other areas of the penal institution.

(x) "Cutting tool" means, but is not limited to, hacksaw blade, wirecutter, or device, instrument or file capable of cutting through metal.

(xi) "Electronic contraband" means, but is not limited to, any electronic, video recording device, computer, or cellular communications equipment, including, but not limited to, cellular telephones, cellular telephone batteries, videotape recorders, pagers, computers, and computer peripheral equipment.

For a violation of subsection (a) or (b) involving a cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery, the defendant must intend to provide the cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery to any inmate in a penal institution, or to use the cellular telephone or cellular telephone battery at the direction of an inmate or for the benefit of any inmate of a penal institution.

(e) A violation of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Section involving alcohol is a Class 4 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section involving cannabis is a Class 2 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraph (iv) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraph (v) or (xi) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (a) or (b) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraphs (vi), (vii) or (viii) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class X felony.

(f) A violation of paragraph (c) of this Section involving alcoholic liquor is a Class 3 felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving cannabis is a Class 1 felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony. A violation of paragraph (c) involving any amount of a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 8 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraph (iv) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 8 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraph (v), (ix) or (x) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 10 years. A violation of paragraph (c) involving an item of contraband listed in paragraphs (vi), (vii) or (viii) of subsection (d)(4) is a Class X felony for which the minimum term of imprisonment shall be 12 years.

(g) Items confiscated may be retained for use by the Department of Corrections or disposed of as deemed appropriate by the Chief Administrative Officer in accordance with Department rules or disposed of as required by law.

(h) For a violation of subsection (a) or (b) involving items described in clause (i), (v), (vi), (vii), (ix), (x), or (xi) of paragraph (4) of subsection (d), such items shall not be considered to be in a penal institution when they are secured in an employee's locked, private motor vehicle parked on the grounds of a penal institution.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-1017, eff. 7-7-06; 95-962, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 335. The Harassing and Obscene Communications Act is amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 135/1-2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-984)

Sec. 1-2. Harassment through electronic communications.

(a) Harassment through electronic communications is the use of electronic communication for any of the following purposes:

(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or proposal which is obscene with an intent to offend;

(2) Interrupting, with the intent to harass, the telephone service or the electronic communication service of any person;

(3) Transmitting to any person, with the intent to harass and regardless of whether the communication is read in its entirety or at all, any file, document, or other communication which prevents that person from using his or her telephone service or electronic communications device;

(3.1) Transmitting an electronic communication or knowingly inducing a person to transmit an electronic communication for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense;

(4) Threatening injury to the person or to the property of the person to whom an electronic communication is directed or to any of his or her family or household members; or

(5) Knowingly permitting any electronic communications device to be used for any of the purposes mentioned in this subsection (a).

(b) As used in this Act:

(1) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, images, sounds, data or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(2) "Family or household member" includes spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, and persons with disabilities and their personal assistants. For purposes of this Act, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

(c) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-578, eff. 6-1-98; 91-878, eff. 1-1-01; 95-849, eff. 1-1-09.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-984)

Sec. 1-2. Harassment through electronic communications.

(a) Harassment through electronic communications is the use of electronic communication for any of the following purposes:

(1) Making any comment, request, suggestion or proposal which is obscene with an intent to offend;

(2) Interrupting, with the intent to harass, the telephone service or the electronic communication service of any person;

(3) Transmitting to any person, with the intent to harass and regardless of whether the communication is read in its entirety or at all, any file, document, or other communication which prevents that person from using his or her telephone service or electronic communications device;

(3.1) Transmitting an electronic communication or knowingly inducing a person to transmit an electronic communication for the purpose of harassing another person who is under 13 years of age, regardless of whether the person under 13 years of age consents to the harassment, if the defendant is at least 16 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense;

(4) Threatening injury to the person or to the property of the person to whom an electronic communication is directed or to any of his or her family or household members; or

(5) Knowingly permitting any electronic communications device to be used for any of the purposes mentioned in this subsection (a).

(a-5) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(b) As used in this Act:

(1) "Electronic communication" means any transfer of signs, signals, writings, images, sounds, data or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectric or photo-optical system. "Electronic communication" includes transmissions by a computer through the Internet to another computer.

(2) "Family or household member" includes spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, and persons with disabilities and their personal assistants. For purposes of this Act, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

(c) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 90-578, eff. 6-1-98; 91-878, eff. 1-1-01; 95-849, eff. 1-1-09; 95-984, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-20-08.)

Section 340. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 208 and 508 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/208) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1208)

Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule III.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation;

(1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances;

(2) Benzphetamine;

(3) Chlorphentermine;

(4) Clortermine;

(5) Phendimetrazine.

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;

(2) Any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;

(3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof:

(4) Chlorhexadol;

(5) Methyprylon;

(6) Sulfondiethylmethane;

(7) Sulfonethylmethane;

(8) Sulfonmethane;

(9) Lysergic acid;

(10) Lysergic acid amide;

(10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt of either of them.

Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam

combination product: Telazol.

Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:

2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.

Some trade or other names for zolazepam:

4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-

[3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon.

(11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin;

(12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen;

(13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per dosage unit;

(14) Ketamine.

(d) Nalorphine.

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:

(1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(3) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

(4) not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

(8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic steroids that are exempt:

(1) Androgyn L.A.;

(2) Andro-Estro 90-4;

(3) depANDROGYN;

(4) DEPO-T.E.;

(5) depTESTROGEN;

(6) Duomone;

(7) DURATESTRIN;

(8) DUO-SPAN II;

(9) Estratest;

(10) Estratest H.S.;

(11) PAN ESTRA TEST;

(12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone;

(13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates;

(14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2;

(15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate injection; and

(16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate injection.

(g) Hallucinogenic Hallucenogenic substances.

(1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro- 6,6,9-trimetjyl-3-pentyl-6H-debenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannibinol.

(2) (Reserved).

(h) The Department may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.

(Source: P.A. 90-382, eff. 8-15-97; 91-714, eff. 6-2-00; revised 10-28-08.)

(720 ILCS 570/508) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1508)

Sec. 508. (a) The Department shall encourage research on controlled substances. In connection with the research, and in furtherance of the purposes of this Act, the Department may:

(1) establish methods to assess accurately the effect of controlled substances and identify and characterize those with potential for abuse;

(2) make studies and undertake programs of research to:

(i) develop new or improved approaches, techniques, systems, equipment and devices to strengthen the enforcement of this Act;

(ii) determine patterns of use, misuse, and abuse of controlled substances and their social effects; and

(iii) improve methods for preventing, predicting, understanding, and dealing with the use, misuse and abuse of controlled substances; and

(3) enter into contracts with public agencies, educational institutions, and private organizations or individuals for the purpose of conducting research, demonstrations, or special projects which relate to the use, misuse and abuse of controlled substances.

(b) Persons authorized to engage in research may be authorized by the Department to protect the privacy of individuals who are the subjects of such research by withholding from all persons not connected with the conduct of the research the names and other identifying characteristics of such individuals. Persons who are given this authorization shall not be compelled in any civil, criminal, administrative, legislative or other proceeding to identify the individuals who are the subjects of research for which the authorization was granted, except to the extent necessary to permit the Department to determine whether the research is being conducted in accordance with the authorization.

(c) The Department may authorize the possession and dispensing of controlled substances by persons engaged in research, upon such terms and conditions as may be consistent with the public health and safety. The Department may also approve research and treatment programs involving the administration of Methadone. The use of Methadone, or any similar controlled substance by any person is prohibited in this State except as approved and authorized by the Department in accordance with its rules and regulations. To the extent of the applicable authorization, persons are exempt from prosecution in this State for possession, manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(d) Practitioners registered under Federal law to conduct research with Schedule I substances may conduct research with Schedule I substances within this State upon furnishing evidence of that Federal registration and notification of the scope and purpose of such research to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 83-969; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 345. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information, as appropriate of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of information, the return of an indictment by which a prosecution for any violent crime is commenced, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide notice of the date, time, and place of trial;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide information whenever possible, of a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendant or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) in the case of the death of a person, which death occurred in the same transaction or occurrence in which acts occurred for which a defendant is charged with an offense, shall notify the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the decedent of the date of the trial of the person or persons allegedly responsible for the death;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence, an advocate or other support person of the victim's choice, and the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(10) at the sentencing hearing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board information concerning the release of the defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and shall consider restitution in any plea negotiation, as provided by law; and

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section.

(c) At the written request of the crime victim, the office of the State's Attorney shall:

(1) provide notice a reasonable time in advance of the following court proceedings: preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of defendant from custody, or to alter the conditions of bond and the sentencing hearing. The crime victim shall also be notified of the cancellation of the court proceeding in sufficient time, wherever possible, to prevent an unnecessary appearance in court;

(2) provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained for a violent crime;

(3) explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(4) where practical, consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement;

(5) provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(6) provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal;

(7) provide notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given in advance;

(8) forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered by the Board in making its determination under subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(d) (1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a violent crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority. For purposes of this paragraph (1) of subsection (d), "concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's furloughs, temporary release, or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions, and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 15 days prior to the parole hearing and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic means or in the form of a recording or in person at the parole hearing or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board shall inform the victim of any order of discharge entered by the Board pursuant to Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration by the Board at a parole hearing of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 95-317, eff. 8-21-07; 95-896, eff. 1-1-09; 95-897, eff. 1-1-09; 95-904, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

Section 350. The Firearm Seizure Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(725 ILCS 165/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 161-4)

Sec. 4. In lieu of requiring the surrender of any firearm, the court may require the defendant to give a recognizance as provided in Article 110A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 Division V of "An Act to revise the law in relation to criminal jurisprudence".

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2693; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 355. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, the term:

(a) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.

(b) "Mental disorder" means a congenital or acquired condition affecting the emotional or volitional capacity that predisposes a person to engage in acts of sexual violence.

(c) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

(d) "Sexually motivated" means that one of the purposes for an act is for the actor's sexual arousal or gratification.

(e) "Sexually violent offense" means any of the following:

(1) Any crime specified in Section 11-6, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(1.5) Any former law of this State specified in Section 11-1 (rape), 11-3 (deviate sexual assault), 11-4 (indecent liberties with a child) or 11-4.1 11-4 (aggravated indecent liberties with a child) of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(2) First degree murder, if it is determined by the agency with jurisdiction to have been sexually motivated; or

(3) Any solicitation, conspiracy or attempt to commit a crime under paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this Section.

(f) "Sexually violent person" means a person who has been convicted of a sexually violent offense, has been adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense, or has been found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity and who is dangerous because he or she suffers from a mental disorder that makes it substantially probable that the person will engage in acts of sexual violence.

(Source: P.A. 94-746, eff. 5-8-06; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 360. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-3-7, 5-5-3.2, 5-6-1, and 5-6-3 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, enacted by the 84th General Assembly, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) When the subject is in compliance with all conditions of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, the subject shall receive a reduction of the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release of 90 days upon passage of the high school level Test of General Educational Development during the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development.

(Source: P.A. 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-539, eff. 1-1-08; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter; and

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, enacted by the 84th General Assembly, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) When the subject is in compliance with all conditions of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, the subject shall receive a reduction of the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release of 90 days upon passage of the high school level Test of General Educational Development during the period of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release. This reduction in the period of a subject's term of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be available only to subjects who have not previously earned a high school diploma or who have not previously passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development.

(Source: P.A. 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-539, eff. 1-1-08; 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-20-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-6, 11-11, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty; or

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person; or .

(24) (22) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and possessed 100 or more images.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

(b) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(5) In the case of a defendant convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when the court finds that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(7) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(8) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(9) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and the court finds that the defendant is a member of an organized gang; or

(10) When a defendant committed the offense using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph (10), "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24.6-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(11) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(12) When a defendant commits an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph (12), "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel; or

(13) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(b-1) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender who was convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(d) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender who was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon an offender who has been convicted of first degree murder when the offender has previously been convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery committed against the murdered individual or has previously been convicted of violation of an order of protection in which the murdered individual was the protected person.

(Source: P.A. 94-131, eff. 7-7-05; 94-375, eff. 1-1-06; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-819, eff. 5-31-06; 95-85, eff. 1-1-08; 95-362, eff. 1-1-08; 95-569, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-942, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-23-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 12-15; 26-5; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; subsections (b) and (c) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who, after a court appearance in the same matter, receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $20, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $20 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $5, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $20 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $5 fee is collected, $4.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of or pleading guilty to a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall pay an additional fee of $20, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative 7 years after October 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-154).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-169, eff. 1-1-06; 94-330, eff. 1-1-06; 94-375, eff. 1-1-06; 94-1009, eff. 1-1-07; 95-154, eff. 10-13-07; 95-302, eff. 1-1-08; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-428, 8-24-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-30-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession; and

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; and

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 95-983)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(9) if convicted of a felony, physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession; and

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16J-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused; and

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless: (1) the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay, under guidelines developed by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts; and (2) the circuit court has authorized, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, the creation of a Crime Victim's Services Fund, to be administered by the Chief Judge or his or her designee, for services to crime victims and their families. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 94-159, eff. 7-11-05; 94-161, eff. 7-11-05; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-464, eff. 6-1-08; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-696, eff. 6-1-08; 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; revised 10-20-08.)

Section 365. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 15-1107, 15-1206, 15-1217, 15-1222, and 15-1302 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/15-1107) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1107)

Sec. 15-1107. Mode of Procedure.

(a) Other Statutes. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, the mode of procedure, including the manner of service of pleadings and other papers and service by publication, shall be in accordance with the provisions of Article II of the Illinois Code of Civil Procedure and any other statutes of this State which are from time to time applicable, and with Illinois Supreme Court Rules applicable to actions generally or otherwise applicable. If a mortgage lien is being foreclosed under this Article and one or more non-mortgage liens or encumbrances is being foreclosed or enforced in the same proceedings, then, regardless of the respective priorities of the various liens or encumbrances, the procedures and all other provisions of this Article shall govern such proceedings, and any inconsistent statutory provisions shall not be applicable. Without limiting the foregoing, any provision of Article XII or any other Article of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply unless inconsistent with this Article and, in case of such inconsistency, shall not be applicable to actions under this Article.

(b) Mechanics' Liens. Mechanics' liens shall be enforced as provided in the Mechanics Mechanics' Lien Act; provided, however, that any mechanics' lien claimant may assert such lien in a foreclosure under this Article, may intervene in such foreclosure in accordance with this Article and may be made a party in such foreclosure.

(c) Instruments Deemed a Mortgage. For the purpose of proceeding under this Article, any instrument described in paragraph (2) or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 15-1106, or in subsection (b) or (c) of Section 15-1106 which is foreclosed under this Article shall be deemed a mortgage. For such purpose, the real estate installment contract purchaser, the assignor of the beneficial interest in the land trust and the debtor, as appropriate, shall be deemed the mortgagor, and the real estate installment contract seller, the assignee of the beneficial interest in the land trust and the secured party, as appropriate, shall be deemed the mortgagee.

(Source: P.A. 85-907; revised 10-28-08.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1206) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1206)

Sec. 15-1206. Mechanics' Lien. "Mechanics' lien" or "mechanics' lien claim" means a lien or claim arising under the Mechanics Mechanics' Lien Act.

(Source: P.A. 84-1462; revised 10-28-08.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1217) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1217)

Sec. 15-1217. Recording of Instruments. "Recording of instruments" or "to record" means to present to the Recorder a document, in recordable form, which is to be recorded in accordance with Section 3-5024 of the Counties Code 11 of the Recorder's Act, together with the required recording fee. The Registrar of Titles shall accept the filing of notices or affidavits required or permitted by this Article without the necessity of the production of evidence of title.

(Source: P.A. 84-1462; revised 10-28-08.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1222) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1222)

Sec. 15-1222. Acts Referred to in this Article. Acts referred to by name in this Article shall mean those Acts, as amended from time to time, and, in particular:

(a) "Torrens Act" means "An act concerning land titles", approved May 1, 1897.

(b) (Blank) "Recorder's Act" means "An act to revise the law in relation to recorders", approved March 9, 1874.

(c) "Mechanics Mechanics' Lien Act" means the Mechanics Lien Act, 770 ILCS 60/Act "An Act relating to contractors' and material men's liens, known as mechanics' liens", approved May 18, 1903, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 84-1462; revised 10-28-08.)

(735 ILCS 5/15-1302) (from Ch. 110, par. 15-1302)

Sec. 15-1302. Certain Future Advances.

(a) Advances Made After Eighteen Months. Except as provided in subsection (b) of Section 15-1302, as to any monies advanced or applied more than 18 months after a mortgage is recorded, the mortgage shall be a lien as to subsequent purchasers and judgment creditors only from the time such monies are advanced or applied. However, nothing in this Section shall affect any lien arising or existing by virtue of the Mechanics Mechanics' Lien Act.

(b) Exceptions.

(1) All monies advanced or applied pursuant to commitment, whenever advanced or applied, shall be a lien from the time the mortgage is recorded. An advance shall be deemed made pursuant to commitment only if the mortgagee has bound itself to make such advance in the mortgage or in an instrument executed contemporaneously with, and referred to in, the mortgage, whether or not a subsequent event of default or other event not within the mortgagee's control has relieved or may relieve the mortgagee from its obligation.

(2) All monies advanced or applied, whenever advanced or applied, in accordance with the terms of a reverse mortgage shall be a lien from the time the mortgage is recorded.

(3) All monies advanced or applied in accordance with the terms of a revolving credit arrangement secured by a mortgage as authorized by law shall be a lien from the time the mortgage is recorded.

(4) All interest which in accordance with the terms of a mortgage is accrued or added to the principal amount secured by the mortgage, whenever added, shall be a lien from the time the mortgage is recorded.

(5) All monies advanced by the mortgagee in accordance with the terms of a mortgage to (i) preserve or restore the mortgaged real estate, (ii) preserve the lien of the mortgage or the priority thereof or (iii) enforce the mortgage, shall be a lien from the time the mortgage is recorded.

(Source: P.A. 84-1462; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 370. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing Section 15-5-20 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-5-15 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/15-5-20)

Sec. 15-5-20. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 105 through 115. The following provisions of law may include express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.35A); School Code; school boards; for school buildings.

(105 ILCS 5/16-6); School Code; school boards; for adjacent property to enlarge a school site.

(105 ILCS 5/22-16); School Code; school boards; for school purposes.

(105 ILCS 5/32-4.13); School Code; special charter school districts; for school purposes.

(105 ILCS 5/34-20); School Code; Chicago Board of Education; for school purposes.

(105 ILCS 5/35-5); School Code; School Building Commission; for school buildings and equipment. (105 ILCS 5/35-8); School Code; School Building Commission; for school building sites. (110 ILCS 305/7); University of Illinois Act; Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois; for general purposes, including quick-take power.

(110 ILCS 325/2); University of Illinois at Chicago Land Transfer Act; Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois; for removal of limitations or restrictions on property conveyed by the Chicago Park District.

(110 ILCS 335/3); Institution for Tuberculosis Research Act; Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois; for the Institution for Tuberculosis Research.

(110 ILCS 525/3); Southern Illinois University Revenue Bond Act; Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 615/3); State Colleges and Universities Revenue Bond Act of 1967; Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 660/5-40); Chicago State University Law; Board of Trustees of Chicago State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 661/6-10); Chicago State University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Chicago State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 665/10-40); Eastern Illinois University Law; Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 666/11-10); Eastern Illinois University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 670/15-40); Governors State University Law; Board of Trustees of Governors State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 671/16-10); Governors State University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Governors State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 675/20-40); Illinois State University Law; Board of Trustees of Illinois State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 676/21-10); Illinois State University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Illinois State University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 680/25-40); Northeastern Illinois University Law; Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 681/26-10); Northeastern Illinois University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 685/30-40); Northern Illinois University Law; Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 685/30-45); Northern Illinois University Law; Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University; for buildings and facilities.

(110 ILCS 686/31-10); Northern Illinois University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 690/35-40); Western Illinois University Law; Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 691/36-10); Western Illinois University Revenue Bond Law; Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 710/3); Board of Regents Revenue Bond Act of 1967; Board of Regents; for general purposes.

(110 ILCS 805/3-36); Public Community College Act; community college district boards; for sites for college purposes.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07; revised 1-30-08.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-15)

Sec. 25-5-15. Quick-take; Village of Lake in the Hills. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly by the Village of Lake in the Hills for the acquisition of the following described property for runway purposes at the Lake in the Hills Airport:

PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 17, TOWNSHIP 43 NORTH, RANGE 8, EAST OF THE THIRD PRINCIPAL MERIDIAN AND MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:

COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 09 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 1144.93 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 00 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 09 SECONDS EAST ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 105.12 FEET TO THE SOUTH LINE OF THE PARCEL DESCRIBED IN DOCUMENT NUMBER 95RO11851 AS RECORDED IN THE MCHENRY COUNTY RECORDER'S OFFICE; THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 22 MINUTES 51 SECONDS WEST ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF THE PARCEL DESCRIBED IN DOCUMENT NUMBER 95R011851, 593.00 FEET TO THE WEST LINE OF THE PARCEL DESCRIBED IN DOCUMENT NUMBER 95R011851; THENCE NORTH 00 DEGREES 37 MINUTES 09 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE PARCEL DESCRIBED IN DOCUMENT NUMBER 95R011851, 3.99 FEET; THENCE 79 DEGREES 42 MINUTES 11 SECONDS EAST ALONG A LINE 306.00 FEET NORTHWESTERLY OF AND PARALLEL WITH THE CENTERLINE OF RUNWAY NUMBER 8/26, 601.56 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING AND CONTAINING 32,351 SQUARE FEET OR 0.743 ACRES MORE OR LESS, ALL IN MCHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS, AND EXCEPTING THAT PART USED FOR ROADWAY PURPOSES.

(Source: P.A. 95-929, eff. 8-26-08.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-20)

Sec. 25-5-20 25-5-15. Quick-take; City of Champaign. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly by the City of Champaign for the acquisition of the following properties for the purpose of drainage and other improvements related to the Boneyard Creek Project, including right of way, permanent easements, and temporary easements:

Parcel A - (PIN 46-21-07-351-014) 112 East Clark Street

Lot 12 in Block 1 of Campbell and Kirkpatrick's Addition to Urbana, now a part of the City of Champaign, as per Plat recorded in Deed Record "E" at Page 352, situated in Champaign County, Illinois.

Parcel B - (PIN 46-21-07-353-005) 111 East White Street

The East 34 feet of Lot 2 of a Subdivision of Block 1 of J. C. Kirkpatrick's Second Addition to the Town of West Urbana, now City of Champaign, as per plat recorded in Deed Record 8 at page 232, in Champaign County, Illinois.

Parcel D - (PIN 46-21-07-353-010) 108 East Stoughton Street

Lot 10 of a Subdivision of Block 1 of J. C. Kirkpatrick's Second Addition to the Town of West Urbana, now City of Champaign, as per plat recorded in Deed Record 8 at Page 232, in Champaign County, Illinois.

Parcel G (PIN 46-21-07-355-002) 201-1/2 East University Avenue

Tract I - Beginning at the Northeast corner of Lot 6 in Block 2 in Campbell & Kirkpatrick's Addition to Urbana (now a part of the City of Champaign) running thence West 20 feet; thence South 80 feet; thence East 20 feet; thence North 80 feet to the point of beginning, situated in Champaign County, Illinois. Tract II - The West 8 feet of the East 28 feet of the North 80 feet of Lot 6 in Block 2 in Campbell & Kirkpatrick's Addition to Urbana (now a part of the City of Champaign), in Champaign County, Illinois.

Parcel H (PIN 46-21-07-355-001) 201 East University Avenue

The West 38 feet of the North 80 feet of Lot 6 in Block 2 of Campbell and Kirkpatrick's Addition to Urbana, now a part of the City of Champaign, as per Plat recorded in Deed Record "E" at page 352, situated in Champaign County, Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 95-974, eff. 9-22-08; revised 10-14-08.)

Section 375. The Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tort Claims Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(740 ILCS 20/3) (from Ch. 70, par. 903)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Cannabis" includes marihuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis Sativa, whether growing or not, the seeds of that plant, the resin extracted from any part of that plant, and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other cannabinol derivatives, including its naturally occurring or synthetically produced ingredients, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction, independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis. "Cannabis" does not include the mature stalks of that plant, fiber produced from those stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of that plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of mature stalks (except the extracted resin), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seeds of that plant that are incapable of germination.

"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance or the container or labeling of a controlled substance that, without authorization, bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number, device, or any likeness thereof of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance or cannabis, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

"Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion, or processing of a controlled substance, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that the term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his own use;

(2) by a practitioner or his authorized agent under his supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance: ;

(A) as an incident to his administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his professional practice; or

(B) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale; or

(3) the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of cannabis as an incident to lawful research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.

"Owner" means a person who has possession of or any interest whatsoever in the property involved.

"Person" means an individual, a corporation, a government, a governmental subdivision or agency, a business trust, an estate, a trust, a partnership or association, or any other entity.

"Production" means planting, cultivating, tending, or harvesting.

"Property" means real property, including things growing on, affixed to, and found in land, and tangible or intangible personal property, including rights, services, privileges, interests, claims, and securities.

(Source: P.A. 87-544; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 380. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/2) (from Ch. 40, par. 1502)

Sec. 2. Who may adopt a child.

A. Any of the following persons, who is under no legal disability (except the minority specified in sub-paragraph (b)) and who has resided in the State of Illinois continuously for a period of at least 6 months immediately preceding the commencement of an adoption proceeding, or any member of the armed forces of the United States who has been domiciled in the State of Illinois for 90 days, may institute such proceeding:

(a) A reputable person of legal age and of either sex, provided that if such person is married and has not been living separate and apart from his or her spouse for 12 months or longer, his or her spouse shall be a party to the adoption proceeding, including a husband or wife desiring to adopt a child of the other spouse, in all of which cases the adoption shall be by both spouses jointly;

(b) A minor, by leave of court upon good cause shown.

B. The residence requirement specified in paragraph A of this Section shall not apply to an adoption of a related child or to an adoption of a child placed by an agency.

(Source: P.A. 90-608, eff. 6-30-98; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 385. The Conveyances Act is amended by changing Section 39 as follows:

(765 ILCS 5/39) (from Ch. 30, par. 37a)

Sec. 39. Every mortgage or trust deed in the nature of a mortgage shall, as to lands not registered under the provisions of an act entitled "An Act Concerning Land Titles," approved and in force May 1, 1897, as subsequently amended, from the time it is filed of record, and in the case of lands registered under the provisions of said act entitled "An Act Concerning Land Titles," approved and in force May 1, 1897, as subsequently amended, from the time it is registered, or from the time of the filing of a caveat as provided in said Act, be a lien upon the real estate thereby conveyed situated in the county in which such instrument is recorded or registered, for all monies advanced or applied or which may at any time thereafter be advanced or applied thereunder on account of the principal indebtedness which such mortgage or trust deed shall purport to secure and including such other monies which may at any time be advanced or applied as are authorized by the provisions of such mortgage or trust deed or as are authorized by law; provided, that as to subsequent purchasers and judgment creditors, every such mortgage or trust deed shall, as to the monies advanced or applied thereunder on account of the principal indebtedness evidenced by the notes, bonds or other instruments therein described and thereby secured, be a lien only from the time such monies are advanced or applied, unless such monies are advanced or applied within 18 eighteen months after the date of such recording or registration, or filing of such caveat, or unless the mortgagee is by contract obligated to make such advances or applications, and provided further, that nothing in this Act contained shall affect any lien arising or existing by virtue of the Mechanics Lien Act "An Act to revise the law in relation to mechanics' liens. To whom, what for, and when lien is given; who is a contractor; area covered by and extent of lien; when the lien attaches," approved May 18, 1903, as amended.

(Source: Laws 1931, p. 386; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 390. The Residential Real Property Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(765 ILCS 77/70)

Sec. 70. Predatory lending database program.

(a) As used in this Article:

"Adjustable rate mortgage" or "ARM" means a closed-end mortgage transaction that allows adjustments of the loan interest rate during the first 3 years of the loan term.

"Borrower" means a person seeking a mortgage loan.

"Broker" means a "broker" or "loan broker", as defined in subsection (p) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987.

"Closing agent" means an individual assigned by a title insurance company or a broker or originator to ensure that the execution of documents related to the closing of a real estate sale or the refinancing of a real estate loan and the disbursement of closing funds are in conformity with the instructions of the entity financing the transaction.

"Counseling" means in-person counseling provided by a counselor employed by a HUD-certified counseling agency to all borrowers, or documented telephone counseling where a hardship would be imposed on one or more borrowers. A hardship shall exist in instances in which the borrower is confined to his or her home due to medical conditions, as verified in writing by a physician, or the borrower resides 50 miles or more from the nearest participating HUD-certified housing counseling agency. In instances of telephone counseling, the borrower must supply all necessary documents to the counselor at least 72 hours prior to the scheduled telephone counseling session.

"Counselor" means a counselor employed by a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.

"Credit score" means a credit risk score as defined by the Fair Isaac Corporation, or its successor, and reported under such names as "BEACON", "EMPIRICA", and "FAIR ISAAC RISK SCORE" by one or more of the following credit reporting agencies or their successors: Equifax, Inc., Experian Information Solutions, Inc., and TransUnion LLC. If the borrower's credit report contains credit scores from 2 reporting agencies, then the broker or loan originator shall report the lower score. If the borrower's credit report contains credit scores from 3 reporting agencies, then the broker or loan originator shall report the middle score.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Exempt person" means that term as it is defined in subsections (d)(1) and (d)(1.5) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987.

"First-time homebuyer" means a borrower who has not held an ownership interest in residential property.

"HUD-certified counseling" or "counseling" means counseling given to a borrower by a counselor employed by a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.

"Interest only" means a closed-end loan that permits one or more payments of interest without any reduction of the principal balance of the loan, other than the first payment on the loan.

"Lender" means that term as it is defined in subsection (g) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987.

"Licensee" means that term as it is defined in subsection (e) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987.

"Mortgage loan" means that term as it is defined in subsection (f) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987.

"Negative amortization" means an amortization method under which the outstanding balance may increase at any time over the course of the loan because the regular periodic payment does not cover the full amount of interest due.

"Originator" means a "loan originator" as defined in subsection (hh) of Section 1-4 of the Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987, except an exempt person.

"Points and fees" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 10 of the High Risk Home Loan Act.

"Prepayment penalty" means a charge imposed by a lender under a mortgage note or rider when the loan is paid before the expiration of the term of the loan.

"Refinancing" means a loan secured by the borrower's or borrowers' primary residence where the proceeds are not used as purchase money for the residence.

"Title insurance company" means any domestic company organized under the laws of this State for the purpose of conducting the business of guaranteeing or insuring titles to real estate and any title insurance company organized under the laws of another State, the District of Columbia, or a foreign government and authorized to transact the business of guaranteeing or insuring titles to real estate in this State.

(a-5) A predatory lending database program shall be established within Cook County. The program shall be administered in accordance with this Article. The inception date of the program shall be July 1, 2008. Until the inception date, none of the duties, obligations, contingencies, or consequences of or from the program shall be imposed. The program shall apply to all mortgage applications that are governed by this Article and that are made or taken on or after the inception of the program.

(b) The database created under this program shall be maintained and administered by the Department. The database shall be designed to allow brokers, originators, counselors, title insurance companies, and closing agents to submit information to the database online. The database shall not be designed to allow those entities to retrieve information from the database, except as otherwise provided in this Article. Information submitted by the broker or originator to the Department may be used to populate the online form submitted by a counselor, title insurance company, or closing agent.

(c) Within 10 days after taking a mortgage application, the broker or originator for any mortgage on residential property within the program area must submit to the predatory lending database all of the information required under Section 72 and any other information required by the Department by rule. Within 7 days after receipt of the information, the Department shall compare that information to the housing counseling standards in Section 73 and issue to the borrower and the broker or originator a determination of whether counseling is recommended for the borrower. The borrower may not waive counseling. If at any time after submitting the information required under Section 72 the broker or originator (i) changes the terms of the loan or (ii) issues a new commitment to the borrower, then, within 5 days thereafter, the broker or originator shall re-submit all of the information required under Section 72 and, within 4 days after receipt of the information re-submitted by the broker or originator, the Department shall compare that information to the housing counseling standards in Section 73 and shall issue to the borrower and the broker or originator a new determination of whether re-counseling is recommended for the borrower based on the information re-submitted by the broker or originator. The Department shall require re-counseling if the loan terms have been modified to meet another counseling standard in Section 73, or if the broker has increased the interest rate by more than 200 basis points.

(d) If the Department recommends counseling for the borrower under subsection (c), then the Department shall notify the borrower of all participating HUD-certified counseling agencies located within the State and direct the borrower to interview with a counselor associated with one of those agencies. Within 10 days after receipt of the notice of HUD-certified counseling agencies, the borrower shall select one of those agencies and shall engage in an interview with a counselor associated with that agency. Within 7 days after interviewing the borrower, the counselor must submit to the predatory lending database all of the information required under Section 74 and any other information required by the Department by rule. Reasonable and customary costs not to exceed $300 associated with counseling provided under the program shall be paid by the broker or originator. The Department shall annually calculate to the nearest dollar an adjusted rate for inflation. A counselor shall not recommend or suggest that a borrower contact any specific mortgage origination company, financial institution, or entity that deals in mortgage finance to obtain a loan, another quote, or for any other reason related to the specific mortgage transaction; however, a counselor may suggest that the borrower seek an opinion or a quote from another mortgage origination company, financial institution, or entity that deals in mortgage finance. A counselor or housing counseling agency that in good faith provides counseling shall not be liable to a broker or originator or borrower for civil damages, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the counselor in providing the counseling.

(e) The broker or originator and the borrower may not take any legally binding action concerning the loan transaction until the later of the following:

(1) the Department issues a determination not to recommend HUD-certified counseling for the borrower in accordance with subsection (c); or

(2) the Department issues a determination that HUD-certified counseling is recommended for the borrower and the counselor submits all required information to the database in accordance with subsection (d).

(f) Within 10 days after closing, the title insurance company or closing agent must submit to the predatory lending database all of the information required under Section 76 and any other information required by the Department by rule.

(g) The title insurance company or closing agent shall attach to the mortgage a certificate of compliance with the requirements of this Article, as generated by the database. If the title insurance company or closing agent fails to attach the certificate of compliance, then the mortgage is not recordable. In addition, if any lis pendens for a residential mortgage foreclosure is recorded on the property within the program area, a certificate of service must be simultaneously recorded that affirms that a copy of the lis pendens was filed with the Department. If the certificate of service is not recorded, then the lis pendens pertaining to the residential mortgage foreclosure in question is not recordable and is of no force and effect.

(h) All information provided to the predatory lending database under the program is confidential and is not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except as otherwise provided in this Article. Information or documents obtained by employees of the Department in the course of maintaining and administering the predatory lending database are deemed confidential. Employees are prohibited from making disclosure of such confidential information or documents. Any request for production of information from the predatory lending database, whether by subpoena, notice, or any other source, shall be referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Any borrower may authorize in writing the release of database information. The Department may use the information in the database without the consent of the borrower: (i) for the purposes of administering and enforcing the program; (ii) to provide relevant information to a counselor providing counseling to a borrower under the program; or (iii) to the appropriate law enforcement agency or the applicable administrative agency if the database information demonstrates criminal, fraudulent, or otherwise illegal activity.

(i) Nothing in this Article is intended to prevent a borrower from making his or her own decision as to whether to proceed with a transaction.

(j) Any person who violates any provision of this Article commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(k) During the existence of the program, the Department shall submit semi-annual reports to the Governor and to the General Assembly by May 1 and November 1 of each year detailing its findings regarding the program. The report shall include at least the following information for each reporting period:

(1) the number of loans registered with the program;

(2) the number of borrowers receiving counseling;

(3) the number of loans closed;

(4) the number of loans requiring counseling for each of the standards set forth in Section 73;

(5) the number of loans requiring counseling where the mortgage originator changed the loan terms subsequent to counseling.

(Source: P.A. 94-280, eff. 1-1-06; 94-1029, eff. 7-14-06; 95-691, eff. 6-1-08; revised 11-6-08.)

Section 395. The Drilling Operations Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(765 ILCS 530/4) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 9654)

Sec. 4. Notice.

(a) Prior to commencement of the drilling of a well, the operator shall give a copy of the Act with a written notice to the surface owner of the operator's intent to commence drilling operations.

(b) The operator shall, for the purpose of giving notice as herein required, secure from the assessor's office within 90 days prior to the giving of the notice, a certification which shall identify the person in whose name the lands on which drilling operations are to be commenced and who is assessed at the time the certification is made. The written certification made by the assessor of the surface owner shall be conclusive evidence of the surface ownership and of the operator's compliance with the provisions of this Act.

(c) The notice required to be given by the operator to the surface owner shall identify the following:

(1) The location of the proposed entry on the surface for drilling operations, and the date on or after which drilling operations shall be commenced.

(2) A photocopy of the drilling application to the Department of Natural Resources for the well to be drilled.

(3) The name, address and telephone number of the operator.

(4) An offer to discuss with the surface owner those matters set forth in Section 5 hereof prior to commencement of drilling operations.

If the surface owner elects to meet the operator, the surface owner shall request the operator to schedule a meeting at a mutually agreed time and place within the limitations set forth herein. Failure of the surface owner to contact the operator at least 5 days prior to the proposed commencement of drilling operations shall be conclusively deemed a waiver of the right to meet by the surface owner.

The meeting shall be scheduled between the hours of 9:00 in the morning and the setting of the sun of the same day and shall be at least 3 days prior to commencement of drilling operations. Unless agreed to otherwise, the place shall be located within the county in which drilling operations are to be commenced where the operator or his agent shall be available to discuss with the surface owner or his agent those matters set forth in Section 5 hereof.

The notice and a copy of the Act as herein required shall be given to the surface owner by either:

(A) certified mail addressed to the surface owner at the address shown in the certification obtained from the assessor, which shall be postmarked at least 15 days prior to the commencement of drilling operations; or

(B) personal delivery to the surface owner at least 15 days prior to the commencement of drilling operations.

(C) Notice to the surface owner as defined in this Act shall be deemed conclusive notice to the record owners of all interest in the surface.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-493, eff. 1-1-08; 95-830, eff. 8-14-08; revised 9-10-08.)

Section 400. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/25) (from Ch. 30, par. 325)

Sec. 25. Add-on Condominiums. The developer may reserve the right to add additional property to that which has been submitted to the provisions of this Act, and in the event of any addition, to reallocate percentage interests in the common elements in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the condominium instruments by: recording an amended plat in accordance with the provisions of Section 5 of this Act, together with an amendment to the declaration in accordance with Section 6 of this Act. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act requiring approval of unit owners, no approval shall be required if the developer complies with the requirements of this Section.

If the developer wishes to reserve the right to add additional property, the declaration shall contain:

(a) an explicit reservation of an option to add additional property to the condominium;

(b) a statement of the method by which the reallocation of percentage interests, adjustments to voting rights, and rights, and changes in liability for common expenses shall be determined if additional units are added;

(c) a legal description of all land which may be added to the property, herein referred to as 'additional land' whether the units are occupied or not;

(d) a time limit of 10 years from the date of the recording of the declaration, after which the option to add additional property shall no longer be in effect and a statement of the circumstances, if any, under which it may terminate. In all cases in which the option to add additional property is exercised, the contracts for construction and delivery of such additional property shall contain a date for the completion and delivery of the additional property to be constructed; .

(e) a statement as to whether portions of the additional land may be added to the property at different times, and as to whether there are any limitations on the order thereof, or any limitations fixing the boundaries of these portions, or whether any particular portion of it must be added;

(f) a statement concerning limitations, if any, on the locations of improvements which may be made on the additional land added;

(g) a statement of the maximum number of units, if any, which may be created on the additional land. If portions of the additional land may be added to the property and the boundaries of those portions are fixed in accordance with paragraph (e) of this Section, the declaration shall also state the maximum number of units that may be created on each such portion to be added to the property. If portions of the additional land may be added to the property and the boundaries of those portions are not fixed in accordance with paragraph (e) of this Section, then the declaration shall also state the largest number of units which may be created on each acre of any portion added to the property;

(h) a statement of the extent to which structures, improvements, buildings and units will be compatible with the configuration of the property in relation to density, use, construction and architectural style; and

(i) any plat or site plans or other graphic material which the developer may wish to set forth in order to supplement or explain the information provided.

Subject to any restrictions and limitations specified by the condominium instruments, there shall be an appurtenant easement over and on the common elements for the purpose of making improvements on the additional land, and for the purpose of doing what is reasonably necessary and proper in conjunction therewith.

No provision of this Act shall be binding upon or obligate the developer to exercise his option to make additions or bind the land described in the condominium instruments. No provision of the condominium instruments shall be construed to be binding upon or obligate the developer to exercise his option to make additions, and the land legally described therein shall not be bound thereby, except in the case of any covenant, restriction, limitation, or other representation or commitment in the condominium instruments, or in any other agreement made with, or by, the developer, requiring the developer to add all or any portion of the additional land, or imposing any obligation with regard to anything that is or is not to be done thereon or with regard thereto, or imposing any obligations with regard to anything that is or is not to be done on or with regard to the property or any portion thereof, this Section shall not be construed to nullify, limit, or otherwise affect any such obligation.

Any amendment to the declaration adding additional land may contain such complementary additions and modifications of the provisions of the declaration affecting the additional land which are necessary to reflect the differences in character, if any, of the additional land and the improvements thereto. In no event, however, shall any such amendment to a declaration revoke, modify or add to the covenants established by the declaration for the property already subject to the declaration.

(Source: P.A. 84-1308; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 405. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 1-103 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/1-103) (from Ch. 68, par. 1-103)

Sec. 1-103. General Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the term:

(A) Age. "Age" means the chronological age of a person who is at least 40 years old, except with regard to any practice described in Section 2-102, insofar as that practice concerns training or apprenticeship programs. In the case of training or apprenticeship programs, for the purposes of Section 2-102, "age" means the chronological age of a person who is 18 but not yet 40 years old.

(B) Aggrieved Party. "Aggrieved party" means a person who is alleged or proved to have been injured by a civil rights violation or believes he or she will be injured by a civil rights violation under Article 3 that is about to occur.

(C) Charge. "Charge" means an allegation filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or initiated by the Department under its authority.

(D) Civil Rights Violation. "Civil rights violation" includes and shall be limited to only those specific acts set forth in Sections 2-102, 2-103, 2-105, 3-102, 3-102.1, 3-103, 3-104, 3-104.1, 3-105, 3-105.1, 4-102, 4-103, 5-102, 5A-102, 6-101, and 6-102 of this Act.

(E) Commission. "Commission" means the Human Rights Commission created by this Act.

(F) Complaint. "Complaint" means the formal pleading filed by the Department with the Commission following an investigation and finding of substantial evidence of a civil rights violation.

(G) Complainant. "Complainant" means a person including the Department who files a charge of civil rights violation with the Department or the Commission.

(H) Department. "Department" means the Department of Human Rights created by this Act.

(I) Disability. "Disability" means a determinable physical or mental characteristic of a person, including, but not limited to, a determinable physical characteristic which necessitates the person's use of a guide, hearing or support dog, the history of such characteristic, or the perception of such characteristic by the person complained against, which may result from disease, injury, congenital condition of birth or functional disorder and which characteristic:

(1) For purposes of Article 2 is unrelated to the person's ability to perform the duties of a particular job or position and, pursuant to Section 2-104 of this Act, a person's illegal use of drugs or alcohol is not a disability;

(2) For purposes of Article 3, is unrelated to the person's ability to acquire, rent or maintain a housing accommodation;

(3) For purposes of Article 4, is unrelated to a person's ability to repay;

(4) For purposes of Article 5, is unrelated to a person's ability to utilize and benefit from a place of public accommodation.

(J) Marital Status. "Marital status" means the legal status of being married, single, separated, divorced or widowed.

(J-1) Military Status. "Military status" means a person's status on active duty in or status as a veteran of the armed forces of the United States, status as a current member or veteran of any reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the United States Army Reserve, United States Marine Corps Reserve, United States Navy Reserve, United States Air Force Reserve, and United States Coast Guard Reserve, or status as a current member or veteran of the Illinois Army National Guard or Illinois Air National Guard.

(K) National Origin. "National origin" means the place in which a person or one of his or her ancestors was born.

(L) Person. "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations or organizations, labor organizations, labor unions, joint apprenticeship committees, or union labor associations, corporations, the State of Illinois and its instrumentalities, political subdivisions, units of local government, legal representatives, trustees in bankruptcy or receivers.

(M) Public Contract. "Public contract" includes every contract to which the State, any of its political subdivisions or any municipal corporation is a party.

(N) Religion. "Religion" includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, except that with respect to employers, for the purposes of Article 2, "religion" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (F) of Section 2-101.

(O) Sex. "Sex" means the status of being male or female.

(O-1) Sexual orientation. "Sexual orientation" means actual or perceived heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, or gender-related identity, whether or not traditionally associated with the person's designated sex at birth. "Sexual orientation" does not include a physical or sexual attraction to a minor by an adult.

(P) Unfavorable Military Discharge. "Unfavorable military discharge" includes discharges from the Armed Forces of the United States, their Reserve components or any National Guard or Naval Militia which are classified as RE-3 or the equivalent thereof, but does not include those characterized as RE-4 or "Dishonorable".

(Q) Unlawful Discrimination. "Unlawful discrimination" means discrimination against a person because of his or her race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, or unfavorable discharge from military service as those terms are defined in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-803, eff. 5-26-06; 95-392, eff. 8-23-07; 95-668, eff. 10-10-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 410. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Section 12.45 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/12.45) (from Ch. 32, par. 12.45)

Sec. 12.45. Reinstatement following administrative dissolution.

(a) A domestic corporation administratively dissolved under Section 12.40 may be reinstated by the Secretary of State following the date of issuance of the certificate of dissolution upon:

(1) The filing of an application for reinstatement.

(2) The filing with the Secretary of State by the corporation of all reports then due and theretofore becoming due.

(3) The payment to the Secretary of State by the corporation of all fees, franchise taxes, and penalties then due and theretofore becoming due.

(b) The application for reinstatement shall be executed and filed in duplicate in accordance with Section 1.10 of this Act and shall set forth:

(1) The name of the corporation at the time of the issuance of the certificate of dissolution.

(2) If such name is not available for use as determined by the Secretary of State at the time of filing the application for reinstatement, the name of the corporation as changed, provided however, and any change of name is properly effected pursuant to Section 10.05 and Section 10.30 of this Act.

(3) The date of the issuance of the certificate of dissolution.

(4) The address, including street and number, or rural route number of the registered office of the corporation upon reinstatement thereof, and the name of its registered agent at such address upon the reinstatement of the corporation, provided however, that any change from either the registered office or the registered agent at the time of dissolution is properly reported pursuant to Section 5.10 of this Act.

(c) When a dissolved corporation has complied with the provisions of this Section Sec the Secretary of State shall file the application for reinstatement.

(d) Upon the filing of the application for reinstatement, the corporate existence shall be deemed to have continued without interruption from the date of the issuance of the certificate of dissolution, and the corporation shall stand revived with such powers, duties and obligations as if it had not been dissolved; and all acts and proceedings of its officers, directors and shareholders, acting or purporting to act as such, which would have been legal and valid but for such dissolution, shall stand ratified and confirmed.

(Source: P.A. 94-605, eff. 1-1-06; revised 11-6-08.)

Section 415. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 104.05 as follows:

(805 ILCS 105/104.05) (from Ch. 32, par. 104.05)

Sec. 104.05. Corporate name of domestic or foreign corporation.

(a) The corporate name of a domestic corporation or of a foreign corporation organized, existing or subject to the provisions of this Act:

(1) May contain, separate and apart from any other word or abbreviation in such name, the word "corporation," "company," "incorporated," or "limited," or an abbreviation of one of such words;

(2) Must end with the letters "NFP" if the corporate name contains any word or phrase which indicates or implies that the corporation is organized for any purpose other than a purpose for which corporations may be organized under this Act or a purpose other than a purpose set forth in the corporation's articles of incorporation;

(3) Shall be distinguishable upon the records in the the office of the Secretary of State from the name or assumed name of any domestic corporation or limited liability company organized under the Limited Liability Company Act, whether for profit or not for profit, existing under any Act of this State or the name or assumed name of any foreign corporation or foreign limited liability company registered under the Limited Liability Company Act, whether for profit or not for profit, authorized to transact business or conduct affairs in this State, or a name the exclusive right to which is, at the time, reserved or registered in the manner provided in this Act or Section 1-15 of the Limited Liability Company Act, except that, subject to the discretion of the Secretary of State, a foreign corporation that has a name prohibited by this paragraph may be issued a certificate of authority to conduct its affairs in this State, if the foreign corporation:

(i) Elects to adopt an assumed corporation name or names in accordance with Section 104.15 of this Act; and

(ii) Agrees in its application for a certificate of authority to conduct affairs in this State only under such assumed corporate name or names;

(4) Shall not contain a word or phrase, or an abbreviation or derivation thereof, the use of which is prohibited or restricted by any other statute of this State unless such restriction has been complied with;

(5) Shall consist of letters of the English alphabet, Arabic or Roman numerals, or symbols capable of being readily reproduced by the office of the Secretary of State;

(6) Shall not contain the words "regular democrat," "regular democratic," "regular republican," "democrat," "democratic," or "republican," nor the name of any other established political party, unless consent to usage of such words or name is given to the corporation by the State central committee of such established political party; notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, any corporation, whose name at the time this amendatory Act takes effect contains any of the words listed in this paragraph shall certify to the Secretary of State no later than January 1, 1989, that consent has been given by the State central committee; consent given to a corporation by the State central committee to use the above listed words may be revoked upon notification to the corporation and the Secretary of State; and

(7) Shall be the name under which the corporation shall conduct affairs in this State unless the corporation shall also elect to adopt an assumed corporate name or names as provided in this Act; provided, however, that the corporation may use any divisional designation or trade name without complying with the requirements of this Act, provided the corporation also clearly discloses its corporate name.

(b) The Secretary of State shall determine whether a name is "distinguishable" from another name for purposes of this Act. Without excluding other names which may not constitute distinguishable names in this State, a name is not considered distinguishable, for purposes of this Act, solely because it contains one or more of the following:

(1) The word "corporation," "company," "incorporated," or "limited" or an abbreviation of one of such words;

(2) Articles, conjunctions, contractions, abbreviations, different tenses or number of the same word.

(c) Nothing in this Section or Sections 104.15 or 104.20 of this Act shall:

(1) Require any domestic corporation existing or any foreign corporation having a certificate of authority on the effective date of this Act, to modify or otherwise change its corporate name or assumed corporate name, if any; or

(2) Abrogate or limit the common law or statutory law of unfair competition or unfair trade practices, nor derogate from the common law or principles of equity or the statutes of this State or of the United States with respect to the right to acquire and protect copyrights, trade names, trade marks, service names, service marks, or any other right to the exclusive use of name or symbols.

(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 420. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Section 37-5 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/37-5)

Sec. 37-5. Definitions. In this Article:

"Corporation" means (i) a corporation under the Business Corporation Act of 1983, a predecessor law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction or (ii) a bank or savings bank.

"General partner" means a partner in a partnership and a general partner in a limited partnership.

"Limited partner" means a limited partner in a limited partnership.

"Limited partnership" means a limited partnership created under the Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001), a predecessor law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction.

"Partner" includes a general partner and a limited partner.

"Partnership" means a general partnership under the Uniform Partnership Act (1997), a predecessor law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction.

"Partnership agreement" means an agreement among the partners concerning the partnership or limited partnership.

"Shareholder" means a shareholder in a corporation.

(Source: P.A. 93-561, eff. 1-1-04; 93-967, eff. 1-1-05; revised 1-29-08.)

Section 425. The Assumed Business Name Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(805 ILCS 405/4) (from Ch. 96, par. 7)

Sec. 4. This Act shall in no way affect or apply to any corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership duly organized under the laws of this State, or any corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership organized under the laws of any other State and lawfully doing business in this State, nor shall this Act be deemed or construed to prevent the lawful use of a partnership name or designation, provided that such partnership shall include the true, real name of such person or persons transacting said business or partnership nor shall it be construed as in any way affecting Sections 17-12 and 17-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961 220 and 220a of Division I of "An Act to revise the law in relation to criminal jurisprudence", approved March 27, 1874, as amended. This Act shall in no way affect or apply to testamentary or other express trusts where the business is carried on in the name of the trust and such trust is created by will or other instrument in writing under which title to the trust property is vested in a designated trustee or trustees for the use and benefit of the cestuis que trustent.

(Source: P.A. 90-421, eff. 1-1-98; revised 10-23-08.)

Section 430. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Section 4-210 as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/4-210) (from Ch. 26, par. 4-210)

Sec. 4-210. Security interest of collecting bank in items, accompanying documents and proceeds.

(a) A collecting bank has a security interest in an item and any accompanying documents or the proceeds of either:

(1) in case of an item deposited in an account, to the extent to which credit given for the item has been withdrawn or applied;

(2) in case of an item for which it has given credit available for withdrawal as of right, to the extent of the credit given, whether or not the credit is drawn upon or there is a right of charge-back; or

(3) if it makes an advance on or against the item.

(b) If credit given for several items received at one time or pursuant to a single agreement is withdrawn or applied in part, the security interest remains upon all the items, any accompanying documents or the proceeds of either. For the purpose of this Section, credits first given are first withdrawn.

(c) Receipt by a collecting bank of a final settlement for an item is a realization on its security interest in the item, accompanying documents, and proceeds. So long as the bank does not receive final settlement for the item or give up possession of the item or possession or control of the accompanying documents for purposes other than collection, the security interest continues to that extent and is subject to Article 9, but:

(1) no security agreement is necessary to make the security interest enforceable (Section 9-203(b)(3)(A));

(2) no filing is required to perfect the security interest; and

(3) the security interest has priority over conflicting perfected security interests in the item, accompanying documents, or proceeds.

(Source: P.A. 95-895, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-23-08.)

Section 435. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2ZZ and 2AAA as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2ZZ)

Sec. 2ZZ. Payoff of liens on motor vehicles traded in to dealer.

(a) When a motor vehicle dealer, as defined by Sections 5-101 or 5-102 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, enters into a retail transaction where a consumer trades in or sells a vehicle that is subject to a lien, the dealer shall:

(1) within 21 calendar days of the date of sale remit payment to the lien holder to pay off the lien on the traded-in or sold motor vehicle, unless the underlying contract has been rescinded before expiration of 21 calendar days; and

(2) fully comply with Section 2C of this Act.

(b) A motor vehicle dealer who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, the term "date of sale" shall be the date the parties entered into the transaction as evidenced by the date written in the contract executed by the parties, or the date the motor vehicle dealership took possession of the traded-in or sold vehicle. In the event the date of the contract differs from the date the motor vehicle dealership took possession of the traded-in vehicle, the "date of sale" shall be the date the motor vehicle dealership took possession of the traded-in vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 95-393, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(815 ILCS 505/2AAA)

Sec. 2AAA. Mortgage marketing materials.

(a) No person may send marketing materials to a consumer indicating that the person is connected to the consumer's mortgage company, indicating that there is a problem with the consumer's mortgage, or stating that the marketing materials contain information concerning the consumer's mortgage, unless that person sending the marketing materials is actually employed by the consumer's mortgage company or an affiliate of the consumer's mortgage company.

(b) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-508, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(815 ILCS 505/2BBB)

Sec. 2BBB 2ZZ. Long term care facility; Consumer Choice Information Report. A long term care facility that fails to comply with Section 2-214 of the Nursing Home Care Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-823, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

(815 ILCS 505/2CCC)

Sec. 2CCC 2AAA. Internet gaming service provider; cancellation.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Internet gaming service provider" means a person who provides a web site that includes information, software, data, text, photographs, graphics, sound, or video that may be accessed by a consumer for a fee for the purpose of the consumer playing a single player or multiplayer game through the Internet or that may be downloaded for the consumer to play on his or her computer outside of the Internet. "Internet gaming service provider" does not include online gambling or other gaming where a consumer can enter to win money.

(b) This Section applies only to agreements under which an Internet gaming service provider provides service to consumers, for home and personal use, for a stated term that is automatically renewed for another term unless the consumer cancels the service.

(c) An Internet gaming service provider must give a consumer who is an Illinois resident the following: (1) a secure method at the Internet gaming service provider's web site that the consumer may use to cancel the service, which method shall not require the consumer to make a telephone call or send U.S. Postal Service mail to effectuate the cancellation; and (2) instructions that the consumer may follow to cancel the service at the Internet gaming service provider's web site.

(d) This Section does not apply to any entity that merely provides the host platform on the web site to the Internet gaming service provider.

(e) A person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-765, eff. 1-1-09; revised 9-25-08.)

Section 440. The Physical Fitness Services Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(815 ILCS 645/12) (from Ch. 29, par. 60.2)

Sec. 12. Enforcement by Attorney General. All remedies, penalties and authority granted to the Attorney General by the "Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act", approved July 24, 1961, as now or hereafter amended, shall be available to him for the enforcement of this Act, and Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, 6.1, 7 and 10 of that Act are hereby incorporated by reference into this Act. In addition, in any action brought by the Attorney General to enforce this Act, the court may order that persons who incurred actual damages be awarded 3 times the amount at which actual damages are assessed.

(Source: P.A. 82-346; revised 11-3-08.)

Section 445. The One Day Rest In Seven Act is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:

(820 ILCS 140/3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Hotel room attendants.

(a) As used in this Section, "hotel room attendant" means a person who cleans or puts in order guest rooms in a hotel or other establishment licensed for transient occupancy.

(b) This Section applies only to hotels and other establishments licensed for transient occupancy that are located in a county with a population greater than 3,000,000.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, every hotel room attendant shall receive a minimum of 2 15-minute paid rest breaks and one 30-minute meal period in each workday on which the hotel room attendant works at least 7 hours. An employer may not require any hotel room attendant to work during a break period.

(d) Every employer of hotel room attendants shall make available at all times a room on the employer's premises with adequate seating and tables for the purpose of allowing hotel room attendants to enjoy break periods in a clean and comfortable environment. The room shall have clean drinking water provided without charge.

(e) Each employer of hotel room attendants shall keep a complete and accurate record of the break periods of its hotel room attendants.

(f) An employer who violates this Section shall pay to the hotel room attendant 3 times the hotel room attendant's regular hourly rate of pay for each workday during which the required breaks were not provided.

(g) It is unlawful for any employer or an employer's agent or representative to take any action against any person in retaliation for the exercise of rights under this Section. In any civil proceeding brought under this subsection (g) (f), if the plaintiff establishes that he or she was employed by the defendant, exercised rights under this Section, or alleged in good faith that the defendant was not complying with this Section, and was thereafter terminated, demoted, or otherwise penalized by the defendant, then a rebuttable presumption shall arise that the defendant's action was taken in retaliation for the exercise of rights established by this Section. To rebut the presumption, the defendant must prove that the sole reason for the termination, demotion, or penalty was a legitimate business reason.

(h) In addition to the remedies provided in Sections 6 and 7, a person claiming violation of this Section shall be entitled to all remedies available under law or in equity, including but not limited to damages, back pay, reinstatement, or injunctive relief. Any person terminated in violation of this Section shall recover treble his or her lost normal daily compensation and fringe benefits, together with interest thereon, and any consequential damages suffered by the employee. The court shall award reasonable attorney's fees and costs to a prevailing plaintiff in an enforcement action under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 94-593, eff. 8-15-05; revised 10-28-08.)

Section 450. The Employee Washroom Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(820 ILCS 230/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 100)

Sec. 3. All State and county mine inspectors, the Department of Labor and other inspectors required to inspect places and kinds of business required by this act to be provided with washrooms, shall inspect such washrooms at frequent intervals and report to the owner or operator, the sanitary and physical condition thereof in writing, and make recommendations as to such improvements or changes as may appear to be necessary for compliance with this Act. Any such inspector may lock and close any washroom found to be in violation of this Act, and may institute proceedings to enforce the penalty provided in Section 4.

(Source: P.A. 84-1438; revised 10-24-08.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.