SB2103 104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB104 03943 RLC 13967 b

104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2025 and 2026
SB2103

Introduced 2/6/2025, by Sen. Erica Harriss

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Stalking No Contact Order Act. Changes the short title of the Act to the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act. Defines "harassment" as violence or threats of violence or death, including a single act, directed at a specific person that would cause a reasonable person to (i) fear for the person's safety, the safety of a workplace, school, or place of worship, or the safety of a third person or (ii) suffer emotional distress. Changes the term "stalking no contact order" to "stalking or harassment no contact order". Makes conforming changes in the following Acts: the Criminal Identification Act; the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; the Criminal Code of 2012; the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; the Unified Code of Corrections; the Code of Civil Procedure; the Civil No Contact Order Act; the Crime Victims Compensation Act; the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act; the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act; and the Illinois Human Rights Act. Makes other changes.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning civil law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the following Sections of the Unified Code of Corrections:

Business Offense, Section 5-1-2.

Charge, Section 5-1-3.

Court, Section 5-1-6.

Defendant, Section 5-1-7.

Felony, Section 5-1-9.

Imprisonment, Section 5-1-10.

Judgment, Section 5-1-12.

Misdemeanor, Section 5-1-14.

Offense, Section 5-1-15.

Parole, Section 5-1-16.

Petty Offense, Section 5-1-17.

Probation, Section 5-1-18.

Sentence, Section 5-1-19.

Supervision, Section 5-1-21.

Victim, Section 5-1-22.

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by Section 5-1-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(G-5) "Minor Cannabis Offense" means a violation of Section 4 or 5 of the Cannabis Control Act concerning not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis, provided the violation did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act and is not associated with an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes, but is not limited to, the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Section 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(A-5) In anticipation of the successful completion of a problem-solving court, pre-plea diversion, or post-plea diversion program, a petition for expungement may be filed 61 days before the anticipated dismissal of the case or any time thereafter. Upon successful completion of the program and dismissal of the case, the court shall review the petition of the person graduating from the program and shall grant expungement if the petitioner meets all requirements as specified in any applicable statute.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Illinois State Police for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Illinois State Police, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Illinois State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Illinois State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Illinois State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registry Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. From August 9, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-306) through December 31, 2020, in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2022.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition a test showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Illinois State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition to expunge or seal under this Section because the petitioner has submitted a drug test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition to expunge or seal that indicates a positive test for the presence of cannabis within the petitioner's body. In this subparagraph (D), "cannabis" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Illinois State Police as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Illinois State Police, in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Illinois State Police, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Illinois State Police, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Illinois State Police to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Illinois State Police shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Illinois State Police may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and remit the Illinois State Police portion of the fee to the State Treasurer and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Illinois State Police pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Illinois State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing or vacation and expungement of trafficking victims' crimes.

(1) A trafficking victim, as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, may petition for vacation and expungement or immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(1.5) A petition under paragraph (1) shall be prepared, signed, and filed in accordance with Supreme Court Rule 9. The court may allow the petitioner to attend any required hearing remotely in accordance with local rules. The court may allow a petition to be filed under seal if the public filing of the petition would constitute a risk of harm to the petitioner.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to vacation and expungement or immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to vacation and expungement or immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for vacation and expungement or immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(i) Minor Cannabis Offenses under the Cannabis Control Act.

(1) Expungement of Arrest Records of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) The Illinois State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge all criminal history records of an arrest, charge not initiated by arrest, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation for a Minor Cannabis Offense committed prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) if:

(i) One year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(ii) No criminal charges were filed relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction or criminal charges were filed and subsequently dismissed or vacated or the arrestee was acquitted.

(B) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of condition (ii) in paragraph (A), records that satisfy condition (i) in paragraph (A) shall be automatically expunged.

(C) Records shall be expunged by the law enforcement agency under the following timelines:

(i) Records created prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), but on or after January 1, 2013, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2021;

(ii) Records created prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023;

(iii) Records created prior to January 1, 2000 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2025.

In response to an inquiry for expunged records, the law enforcement agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed; however, it shall provide a certificate of disposition or confirmation that the record was expunged to the individual whose record was expunged if such a record exists.

(D) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have that individual's records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act, or diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(2) Pardons Authorizing Expungement of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) Upon June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall review all criminal history record information and identify all records that meet all of the following criteria:

(i) one or more convictions for a Minor Cannabis Offense;

(ii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act; and

(iii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) is not associated with a conviction for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(B) Within 180 days after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of all such records that meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A).

(i) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the county of conviction of each record identified by State Police in paragraph (2)(A) that is classified as a Class 4 felony. The State's Attorney may provide a written objection to the Prisoner Review Board on the sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A). Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by such later date set by the Prisoner Review Board in the notice after the State's Attorney received notice from the Prisoner Review Board.

(ii) In response to a written objection from a State's Attorney, the Prisoner Review Board is authorized to conduct a non-public hearing to evaluate the information provided in the objection.

(iii) The Prisoner Review Board shall make a confidential and privileged recommendation to the Governor as to whether to grant a pardon authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the Department of State Police as described in paragraph (2)(A).

(C) If an individual has been granted a pardon authorizing expungement as described in this Section, the Prisoner Review Board, through the Attorney General, shall file a petition for expungement with the Chief Judge of the circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge where the individual had been convicted. Such petition may include more than one individual. Whenever an individual who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed. Petitions to expunge under this subsection (i) may include more than one individual. Within 90 days of the filing of such a petition, the court shall enter an order expunging the records of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police be expunged and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which the individual had received a pardon but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make it available to the individual upon request.

(D) Nothing in this Section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(3) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the motion to vacate and expunge, and any supporting documentation, on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file such a petition after the completion of any non-financial sentence or non-financial condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined by Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual. Motions filed by an agency providing civil legal aid concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically.

(4) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. Motions filed by a State's Attorney concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the individual's age, the individual's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. Upon entry of an order granting a motion to vacate and expunge records pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual whose records will be expunged to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make available to the individual upon request. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(5) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(6) If a person is arrested for a Minor Cannabis Offense as defined in this Section before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and the person's case is still pending but a sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges against him or her, and expunge all official records of his or her arrest, plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision, or expungement. If the court determines, upon review, that: (A) the person was arrested before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) for an offense that has been made eligible for expungement; (B) the case is pending at the time; and (C) the person has not been sentenced of the minor cannabis violation eligible for expungement under this subsection, the court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. If a motion to dismiss and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(7) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions for Minor Cannabis Offenses under this subsection (i) shall be released from incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.

(8) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to Minor Cannabis Offenses of the Cannabis Control Act eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(9) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(10) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(11) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (i).

(j) Felony Prostitution Convictions.

(1) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a prior Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense; and

(D) the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file the petition after the completion of any sentence or condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of the motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to the petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined in Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual.

(2) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit court designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following reasons:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense;

(D) the time since the conviction; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences if denied.

If the State's Attorney files a motion to vacate and expunge records for felony prostitution convictions pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days of the filing. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(3) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(4) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to a use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to felony prostitution eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(5) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(6) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(7) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (j).

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-558, 8-20-21; 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-933, eff. 1-1-23; 103-35, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-609, eff. 7-1-24; 103-755, eff. 8-2-24; revised 8-9-24.)

Section 10. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 1.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Illinois State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability of an individual that:

(1) is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments;

(2) is manifested before the individual attains age 22;

(3) is likely to continue indefinitely;

(4) results in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) Self-care.

(B) Receptive and expressive language.

(C) Learning.

(D) Mobility.

(E) Self-direction.

(F) Capacity for independent living.

(G) Economic self-sufficiency; and

(5) reflects the individual's need for a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or generic services, individualized supports, or other forms of assistance that are of lifelong or extended duration and are individually planned and coordinated.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Illinois State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested during the developmental period, which is defined as before the age of 22, that adversely affects a child's educational performance.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provides treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"National governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

"Noncitizen" means a person who is not a citizen of the United States, but is a person who is a foreign-born person who lives in the United States, has not been naturalized, and is still a citizen of a foreign country.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who is admitted as an inpatient or resident of a public or private mental health facility for mental health treatment under Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code as an informal admission, a voluntary admission, a minor admission, an emergency admission, or an involuntary admission, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder; or

(2) a person who voluntarily or involuntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is otherwise provided services by a public or private mental health facility and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Protective order" means any orders of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking or harassment no contact orders issued under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, civil no contact orders issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act, and firearms restraining orders issued under the Firearms Restraining Order Act or a substantially similar order issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory or military judge.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-890, eff. 5-19-22; 102-972, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

Section 15. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 12-3.9 and 12-7.4 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.9)

Sec. 12-3.9. Violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order.

(a) A person commits violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order if:

(1) he or she knowingly commits an act which was prohibited by a court or fails to commit an act which was ordered by a court in violation of:

(A) a remedy in a valid stalking or harassment no contact order of protection authorized under Section 80 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.7 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963; or

(B) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under Section 80 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.7 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or in a valid stalking or harassment no contact order, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory; and

(2) the violation occurs after the offender has been served notice of the contents of the order, under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or any substantially similar statute of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or otherwise has acquired actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

A stalking or harassment no contact order issued by a state, tribal, or territorial court shall be deemed valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, tribe, or territory. There shall be a presumption of validity when an order is certified and appears authentic on its face.

(a-3) For purposes of this Section, a "stalking or harassment no contact order" may have been issued in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(a-5) Failure to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign stalking or harassment no contact order.

(b) Prosecution for a violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order shall not bar a concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to diminish the inherent authority of the courts to enforce their lawful orders through civil or criminal contempt proceedings.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(e) Sentence. A violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation, and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.4)

Sec. 12-7.4. Aggravated stalking.

(a) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she commits stalking and:

(1) causes bodily harm to the victim;

(2) confines or restrains the victim; or

(3) violates a temporary restraining order, an order of protection, a stalking or harassment no contact order, a civil no contact order, or an injunction prohibiting the behavior described in subsection (b)(1) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-1) A person commits aggravated stalking when he or she is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or has been previously required to register under that Act and commits the offense of stalking when the victim of the stalking is also the victim of the offense for which the sex offender is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act or a family member of the victim.

(b) Sentence. Aggravated stalking is a Class 3 felony; a second or subsequent conviction is a Class 2 felony.

(c) Exemptions.

(1) This Section does not apply to any individual or organization (i) monitoring or attentive to compliance with public or worker safety laws, wage and hour requirements, or other statutory requirements, or (ii) picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the managing or maintenance of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(2) This Section does not apply to an exercise of the right of free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful.

(3) Telecommunications carriers, commercial mobile service providers, and providers of information services, including, but not limited to, Internet service providers and hosting service providers, are not liable under this Section, except for willful and wanton misconduct, by virtue of the transmission, storage, or caching of electronic communications or messages of others or by virtue of the provision of other related telecommunications, commercial mobile services, or information services used by others in violation of this Section.

(d) A defendant who directed the actions of a third party to violate this Section, under the principles of accountability set forth in Article 5 of this Code, is guilty of violating this Section as if the same had been personally done by the defendant, without regard to the mental state of the third party acting at the direction of the defendant.

(Source: P.A. 96-686, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-311, eff. 8-11-11; 97-468, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 20. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 110-1, 110-2, 110-6.1, 112A-2.5, 112A-3, 112A-4.5, 112A-5.5, 112A-14.7, 112A-17.5, 112A-20, 112A-21.7, 112A-23, 112A-24, 112A-26, and 112A-28 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-1)

Sec. 110-1. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(a) (Blank).

(b) "Sureties" encompasses the nonmonetary requirements set by the court as conditions for release either before or after conviction.

(c) The phrase "for which a sentence of imprisonment, without conditional and revocable release, shall be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction" means an offense for which a sentence of imprisonment in the Department of Corrections, without probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction.

(d)(Blank).

(e) "Protective order" means any order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, a stalking or harassment no contact order issued under Section 80 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, or a civil no contact order issued under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act.

(f) "Willful flight" means intentional conduct with a purpose to thwart the judicial process to avoid prosecution. Isolated instances of nonappearance in court alone are not evidence of the risk of willful flight. Reoccurrence and patterns of intentional conduct to evade prosecution, along with any affirmative steps to communicate or remedy any such missed court date, may be considered as factors in assessing future intent to evade prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-2)

Sec. 110-2. Pretrial release.

(a) All persons charged with an offense shall be eligible for pretrial release before conviction. It is presumed that a defendant is entitled to release on personal recognizance on the condition that the defendant attend all required court proceedings and the defendant does not commit any criminal offense, and complies with all terms of pretrial release, including, but not limited to, orders of protection under both Section 112A-4 of this Code and Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, all civil no contact orders, and all stalking or harassment no contact orders. Pretrial release may be denied only if a person is charged with an offense listed in Section 110-6.1 and after the court has held a hearing under Section 110-6.1, and in a manner consistent with subsections (b), (c), and (d) of this Section.

(b) At all pretrial hearings, the prosecution shall have the burden to prove by clear and convincing evidence that any condition of release is necessary.

(c) When it is alleged that pretrial release should be denied to a person upon the grounds that the person presents a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, the burden of proof of such allegations shall be upon the State.

(d) When it is alleged that pretrial release should be denied to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking upon the grounds set forth in Section 110-6.3, the burden of proof of those allegations shall be upon the State.

(e) This Section shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purpose of relying on pretrial release by nonmonetary means to reasonably ensure an eligible person's appearance in court, the protection of the safety of any other person or the community, that the person will not attempt or obstruct the criminal justice process, and the person's compliance with all conditions of release, while authorizing the court, upon motion of a prosecutor, to order pretrial detention of the person under Section 110-6.1 when it finds clear and convincing evidence that no condition or combination of conditions can reasonably ensure the effectuation of these goals.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.1)

Sec. 110-6.1. Denial of pretrial release.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing and may deny a defendant pretrial release only if:

(1) the defendant is charged with a felony offense other than a forcible felony for which, based on the charge or the defendant's criminal history, a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment, or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(1.5) the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant is charged with a forcible felony, which as used in this Section, means treason, first degree murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated robbery, robbery, burglary where there is use of force against another person, residential burglary, home invasion, vehicular invasion, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, or any other felony which involves the threat of or infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement;

(2) the defendant is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, and it is alleged that the defendant's pre-trial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of a victim of the alleged offense, and denial of release is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

(3) the defendant is charged with a violation of an order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, a stalking or harassment no contact order under Section 80 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, or of a civil no contact order under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(4) the defendant is charged with domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 or 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(5) the defendant is charged with any offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except for Sections 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-18, 11-20, 11-30, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or similar provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(6) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm);

(B) Section 24-1.2-5 24-2.5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used use for silencing the report of a firearm);

(C) Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm);

(D) Section 24-1.7 (unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender);

(E) Section 24-2.2 (manufacture, sale, or transfer of bullets or shells represented to be armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells);

(F) Section 24-3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms);

(G) Section 24-3.3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school);

(H) Section 24-34 (unlawful sale of firearms by liquor license);

(I) Section 24-3.5 (unlawful purchase of a firearm);

(J) Section 24-3A (gunrunning);

(K) Section 24-3B (firearms trafficking);

(L) Section 10-9 (b) (involuntary servitude);

(M) Section 10-9 (c) (involuntary sexual servitude of a minor);

(N) Section 10-9(d) (trafficking in persons);

(O) Non-probationable violations: (i) unlawful possession of weapons by felons or persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections facilities (Section 24-1.1), (ii) aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon (Section 24-1.6), or (iii) aggravated possession of a stolen firearm (Section 24-3.9);

(P) Section 9-3 (reckless homicide and involuntary manslaughter);

(Q) Section 19-3 (residential burglary);

(R) Section 10-5 (child abduction);

(S) Felony violations of Section 12C-5 (child endangerment);

(T) Section 12-7.1 (hate crime);

(U) Section 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint);

(V) Section 12-9 (threatening a public official);

(W) Subdivision (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery with a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm);

(6.5) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Felony violations of Sections 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act (cruel treatment, aggravated cruelty, and animal torture);

(B) Subdivision (d)(1)(B) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence while operating a school bus with passengers);

(C) Subdivision (d)(1)(C) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence causing great bodily harm);

(D) Subdivision (d)(1)(D) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence after a previous reckless homicide conviction);

(E) Subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence leading to death); or

(F) Subdivision (d)(1)(J) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence that resulted in bodily harm to a child under the age of 16);

(7) the defendant is charged with an attempt to commit any charge listed in paragraphs (1) through (6.5), and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case; or

(8) the person has a high likelihood of willful flight to avoid prosecution and is charged with:

(A) Any felony described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this Section; or

(B) A felony offense other than a Class 4 offense.

(b) If the charged offense is a felony, as part of the detention hearing, the court shall determine whether there is probable cause the defendant has committed an offense, unless a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of this Code has already been held or a grand jury has returned a true bill of indictment against the defendant. If there is a finding of no probable cause, the defendant shall be released. No such finding is necessary if the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor.

(c) Timing of petition.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within the 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while such petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) Upon filing, the court shall immediately hold a hearing on the petition unless a continuance is requested. If a continuance is requested and granted, the hearing shall be held within 48 hours of the defendant's first appearance if the defendant is charged with first degree murder or a Class X, Class 1, Class 2, or Class 3 felony, and within 24 hours if the defendant is charged with a Class 4 or misdemeanor offense. The Court may deny or grant the request for continuance. If the court decides to grant the continuance, the Court retains the discretion to detain or release the defendant in the time between the filing of the petition and the hearing.

(d) Contents of petition.

(1) The petition shall be verified by the State and shall state the grounds upon which it contends the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts or flight risk, as appropriate.

(2) If the State seeks to file a second or subsequent petition under this Section, the State shall be required to present a verified application setting forth in detail any new facts not known or obtainable at the time of the filing of the previous petition.

(e) Eligibility: All defendants shall be presumed eligible for pretrial release, and the State shall bear the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed an offense listed in subsection (a), and

(2) for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, by conduct which may include, but is not limited to, a forcible felony, the obstruction of justice, intimidation, injury, or abuse as defined by paragraph (1) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, and

(3) no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate (i) the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), or (ii) the defendant's willful flight for offenses listed in paragraph (8) of subsection (a), and

(4) for offenses under subsection (b) of Section 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act that are subject to paragraph (1) of subsection (a), no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant poses a serious risk to not appear in court as required.

(f) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) Prior to the hearing, the State shall tender to the defendant copies of the defendant's criminal history available, any written or recorded statements, and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State in its petition, and any police reports in the prosecutor's possession at the time of the hearing.

(2) The State or defendant may present evidence at the hearing by way of proffer based upon reliable information.

(3) The defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he or she is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him or her. The defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses on his or her own behalf, and to cross-examine any witnesses that are called by the State. Defense counsel shall be given adequate opportunity to confer with the defendant before any hearing at which conditions of release or the detention of the defendant are to be considered, with an accommodation for a physical condition made to facilitate attorney/client consultation. If defense counsel needs to confer or consult with the defendant during any hearing conducted via a 2-way two-way audio-visual communication system, such consultation shall not be recorded and shall be undertaken consistent with constitutional protections.

(3.5) A hearing at which pretrial release may be denied must be conducted in person (and not by way of 2-way two-way audio visual communication) unless the accused waives the right to be present physically in court, the court determines that the physical health and safety of any person necessary to the proceedings would be endangered by appearing in court, or the chief judge of the circuit orders use of that system due to operational challenges in conducting the hearing in person. Such operational challenges must be documented and approved by the chief judge of the circuit, and a plan to address the challenges through reasonable efforts must be presented and approved by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts every 6 months.

(4) If the defense seeks to compel the complaining witness to testify as a witness in its favor, it shall petition the court for permission. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness only on the issue of the defendant's pretrial detention. In making a determination under this Section, the court shall state on the record the reason for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness, and only grant the request if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant will be materially prejudiced if the complaining witness does not appear. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pre-trial detention hearing is not to be used for purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies, if any, of the defendant's criminal history, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if in the State's Attorney's possession at the time of the hearing.

(5) The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case-in-chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(6) The defendant may not move to suppress evidence or a confession, however, evidence that proof of the charged crime may have been the result of an unlawful search or seizure, or both, or through improper interrogation, is relevant in assessing the weight of the evidence against the defendant.

(7) Decisions regarding release, conditions of release, and detention prior to trial must be individualized, and no single factor or standard may be used exclusively to order detention. Risk assessment tools may not be used as the sole basis to deny pretrial release.

(g) Factors to be considered in making a determination of dangerousness. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, consider, but shall not be limited to, evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of any offense charged, including whether the offense is a crime of violence, involving a weapon, or a sex offense.

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior. Such evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations, or other proceedings.

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history which tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The identity of any person or persons to whose safety the defendant is believed to pose a threat, and the nature of the threat.

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them.

(5) The age and physical condition of the defendant.

(6) The age and physical condition of any victim or complaining witness.

(7) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons.

(8) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal, or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or State state law.

(9) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Article deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior.

(h) Detention order. The court shall, in any order for detention:

(1) make a written finding summarizing the court's reasons for concluding that the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including why less restrictive conditions would not avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his or her choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(i) Detention. If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90-day period required by the preceding sentence, he shall not be denied pretrial release. In computing the 90-day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant and any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the State with good cause shown pursuant to Section 103-5.

(i-5) At each subsequent appearance of the defendant before the court, the judge must find that continued detention is necessary to avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or to prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution.

(j) Rights of the defendant. The defendant shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying his or her pretrial release.

(k) Appeal. The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of pretrial release.

(l) Presumption of innocence. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(m) Interest of victims.

(1) Crime victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain a protective order.

(2) If the defendant is denied pretrial release, the court may impose a no contact provision with the victim or other interested party that shall be enforced while the defendant remains in custody.

(Source: P.A. 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; revised 10-23-24.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-2.5)

Sec. 112A-2.5. Types of protective orders. The following protective orders may be entered in conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution:

(1) a domestic violence order of protection in cases involving domestic violence;

(2) a civil no contact order in cases involving sexual offenses; or

(3) a stalking or harassment no contact order in cases involving stalking offenses.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-3)

Sec. 112A-3. Definitions.

(a) In this Article:

"Advocate" means a person whose communications with the victim are privileged under Section 8-802.1 or 8-802.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Named victim" means the person named as the victim in the delinquency petition or criminal prosecution.

"Protective order" means a domestic violence order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order.

(b) For the purposes of domestic violence cases, the following terms shall have the following meanings in this Article:

(1) "Abuse" means physical abuse, harassment, intimidation of a dependent, interference with personal liberty or willful deprivation but does not include reasonable direction of a minor child by a parent or person in loco parentis.

(2) "Domestic violence" means abuse as described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

(3) "Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren, and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in subsection (e) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 2012. For purposes of this paragraph (3), neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

(4) "Harassment" means knowing conduct which is not necessary to accomplish a purpose which is reasonable under the circumstances; would cause a reasonable person emotional distress; and does cause emotional distress to the petitioner. Unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, the following types of conduct shall be presumed to cause emotional distress:

(i) creating a disturbance at petitioner's place of employment or school;

(ii) repeatedly telephoning petitioner's place of employment, home or residence;

(iii) repeatedly following petitioner about in a public place or places;

(iv) repeatedly keeping petitioner under surveillance by remaining present outside his or her home, school, place of employment, vehicle or other place occupied by petitioner or by peering in petitioner's windows;

(v) improperly concealing a minor child from petitioner, repeatedly threatening to improperly remove a minor child of petitioner's from the jurisdiction or from the physical care of petitioner, repeatedly threatening to conceal a minor child from petitioner, or making a single such threat following an actual or attempted improper removal or concealment, unless respondent was fleeing from an incident or pattern of domestic violence; or

(vi) threatening physical force, confinement or restraint on one or more occasions.

(5) "Interference with personal liberty" means committing or threatening physical abuse, harassment, intimidation or willful deprivation so as to compel another to engage in conduct from which she or he has a right to abstain or to refrain from conduct in which she or he has a right to engage.

(6) "Intimidation of a dependent" means subjecting a person who is dependent because of age, health, or disability to participation in or the witnessing of: physical force against another or physical confinement or restraint of another which constitutes physical abuse as defined in this Article, regardless of whether the abused person is a family or household member.

(7) "Order of protection" or "domestic violence order of protection" means an ex parte or final order, granted pursuant to this Article, which includes any or all of the remedies authorized by Section 112A-14 of this Code.

(8) "Petitioner" may mean not only any named petitioner for the domestic violence order of protection and any named victim of abuse on whose behalf the petition is brought, but also any other person protected by this Article.

(9) "Physical abuse" includes sexual abuse and means any of the following:

(i) knowing or reckless use of physical force, confinement or restraint;

(ii) knowing, repeated and unnecessary sleep deprivation; or

(iii) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an immediate risk of physical harm.

(9.3) "Respondent" in a petition for a domestic violence order of protection means the defendant.

(9.5) "Stay away" means for the respondent to refrain from both physical presence and nonphysical contact with the petitioner whether direct, indirect (including, but not limited to, telephone calls, mail, email, faxes, and written notes), or through third parties who may or may not know about the domestic violence order of protection.

(10) "Willful deprivation" means wilfully denying a person who because of age, health or disability requires medication, medical care, shelter, accessible shelter or services, food, therapeutic device, or other physical assistance, and thereby exposing that person to the risk of physical, mental or emotional harm, except with regard to medical care and treatment when such dependent person has expressed the intent to forgo such medical care or treatment. This paragraph (10) does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to dependent persons.

(c) For the purposes of cases involving sexual offenses, the following terms shall have the following meanings in this Article:

(1) "Civil no contact order" means an ex parte or final order granted under this Article, which includes a remedy authorized by Section 112A-14.5 of this Code.

(2) "Family or household members" include spouses, parents, children, stepchildren, and persons who share a common dwelling.

(3) "Non-consensual" means a lack of freely given agreement.

(4) "Petitioner" means not only any named petitioner for the civil no contact order and any named victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration on whose behalf the petition is brought, but includes any other person sought to be protected under this Article.

(5) "Respondent" in a petition for a civil no contact order means the defendant.

(6) "Sexual conduct" means any intentional or knowing touching or fondling by the petitioner or the respondent, either directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, anus, or breast of the petitioner or the respondent, or any part of the body of a child under 13 years of age, or any transfer or transmission of semen by the respondent upon any part of the clothed or unclothed body of the petitioner, for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the petitioner or the respondent.

(7) "Sexual penetration" means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person by an object, the sex organ, mouth or anus of another person, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of one person or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of another person, including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual penetration.

(8) "Stay away" means to refrain from both physical presence and nonphysical contact with the petitioner directly, indirectly, or through third parties who may or may not know of the order. "Nonphysical contact" includes, but is not limited to, telephone calls, mail, e-mail, fax, and written notes.

(d) For the purposes of cases involving stalking offenses, the following terms shall have the following meanings in this Article:

(1) "Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including, but not limited to, acts in which a respondent directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, or communicates to or about, a person, engages in other contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. A course of conduct may include contact via electronic communications. The incarceration of a person in a penal institution who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution.

(2) "Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety, or alarm.

(3) "Contact" includes any contact with the victim, that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, or that is in disregard of the victim's expressed desire that the contact be avoided or discontinued, including, but not limited to, being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; or placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim.

(4) "Petitioner" means any named petitioner for the stalking or harassment no contact order or any named victim of stalking on whose behalf the petition is brought.

(5) "Reasonable person" means a person in the petitioner's circumstances with the petitioner's knowledge of the respondent and the respondent's prior acts.

(6) "Respondent" in a petition for a civil no contact order means the defendant.

(7) "Stalking" means engaging in a course of conduct directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that this course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to fear for his or her safety or the safety of a third person or suffer emotional distress. "Stalking" does not include an exercise of the right to free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful or picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute, including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

(8) "Stalking or harassment no contact order" means an ex parte or final order granted under this Article, which includes a remedy authorized by Section 112A-14.7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-4.5)

Sec. 112A-4.5. Who may file petition.

(a) A petition for a domestic violence order of protection may be filed:

(1) by a named victim who has been abused by a family or household member;

(2) by any person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who has been abused by a family or household member and who, because of age, health, disability, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition;

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child or dependent adult in the care of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition; or

(4) any of the following persons if the person is abused by a family or household member of a child:

(i) a foster parent of that child if the child has been placed in the foster parent's home by the Department of Children and Family Services or by another state's public child welfare agency;

(ii) a legally appointed guardian or legally appointed custodian of that child;

(iii) an adoptive parent of that child;

(iv) a prospective adoptive parent of that child if the child has been placed in the prospective adoptive parent's home pursuant to the Adoption Act or pursuant to another state's law.

For purposes of this paragraph (a)(4), individuals who would have been considered "family or household members" of the child under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-3 before a termination of the parental rights with respect to the child continue to meet the definition of "family or household members" of the child.

(b) A petition for a civil no contact order may be filed:

(1) by any person who is a named victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration, including a single incident of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration;

(2) by a person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration but, because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition;

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child who is a family or household member of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition;

(4) by a service member of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving within the State who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct who has also received a Military Protective Order; or

(5) by the Staff Judge Advocate of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving in the State on behalf of a named victim who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct who has also received a Military Protective Order only after receiving consent from the victim, and the petition shall include a statement that the victim has consented to the Staff Judge Advocate filing the petition.

(c) A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order may be filed:

(1) by any person who is a named victim of stalking;

(2) by a person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who is a victim of stalking but, because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition;

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child who is a family or household member of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition;

(4) by a service member of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving within the State who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct who has also received a Military Protective Order; or

(5) by the Staff Judge Advocate of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving in the State on behalf of a named victim who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct who has also received a Military Protective Order only after receiving consent from the victim, and the petition shall include a statement that the victim has consented to the Staff Judge Advocate filing the petition.

(d) The State's Attorney shall file a petition on behalf of any person who may file a petition under subsections (a), (b), or (c) of this Section if the person requests the State's Attorney to file a petition on the person's behalf, unless the State's Attorney has a good faith basis to delay filing the petition. The State's Attorney shall inform the person that the State's Attorney will not be filing the petition at that time and that the person may file a petition or may retain an attorney to file the petition. The State's Attorney may file the petition at a later date.

(d-5) (1) A person eligible to file a petition under subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section may retain an attorney to represent the petitioner on the petitioner's request for a protective order. The attorney's representation is limited to matters related to the petition and relief authorized under this Article.

(2) Advocates shall be allowed to accompany the petitioner and confer with the victim, unless otherwise directed by the court. Advocates are not engaged in the unauthorized practice of law when providing assistance to the petitioner.

(e) Any petition properly filed under this Article may seek protection for any additional persons protected by this Article.

(Source: P.A. 102-890, eff. 5-19-22; 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-5.5)

Sec. 112A-5.5. Time for filing petition; service on respondent, hearing on petition, and default orders.

(a) A petition for a protective order may be filed at any time, in person or online, after a criminal charge or delinquency petition is filed and before the charge or delinquency petition is dismissed, the defendant or juvenile is acquitted, or the defendant or juvenile completes service of his or her sentence.

(b) The request for an ex parte protective order may be considered without notice to the respondent under Section 112A-17.5 of this Code.

(c) A summons shall be issued and served for a protective order. The summons may be served by delivery to the respondent personally in open court in the criminal or juvenile delinquency proceeding, in the form prescribed by subsection (d) of Supreme Court Rule 101, except that it shall require the respondent to answer or appear within 7 days. Attachments to the summons shall include the petition for protective order, supporting affidavits, if any, and any ex parte protective order that has been issued.

(d) The summons shall be served by the sheriff or other law enforcement officer at the earliest time available and shall take precedence over any other summons, except those of a similar emergency nature. Attachments to the summons shall include the petition for protective order, supporting affidavits, if any, and any ex parte protective order that has been issued. Special process servers may be appointed at any time and their designation shall not affect the responsibilities and authority of the sheriff or other official process servers. In a county with a population over 3,000,000, a special process server may not be appointed if the protective order grants the surrender of a child, the surrender of a firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the exclusive possession of a shared residence.

(e) If the respondent is not served within 30 days of the filing of the petition, the court shall schedule a court proceeding on the issue of service. Either the petitioner, the petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney shall appear and the court shall either order continued attempts at personal service or shall order service by publication, in accordance with Sections 2-203, 2-206, and 2-207 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(f) The request for a final protective order can be considered at any court proceeding in the delinquency or criminal case after service of the petition. If the petitioner has not been provided notice of the court proceeding at least 10 days in advance of the proceeding, the court shall schedule a hearing on the petition and provide notice to the petitioner.

(f-5) A court in a county with a population above 250,000 shall offer the option of a remote hearing to a petitioner for a protective order. The court has the discretion to grant or deny the request for a remote hearing. Each court shall determine the procedure for a remote hearing. The petitioner and respondent may appear remotely or in person.

The court shall issue and publish a court order, standing order, or local rule detailing information about the process for requesting and participating in a remote court appearance. The court order, standing order, or local rule shall be published on the court's website and posted on signs throughout the courthouse, including in the clerk's office. The sign shall be written in plain language and include information about the availability of remote court appearances and the process for requesting a remote hearing.

(g) Default orders.

(1) A final domestic violence order of protection may be entered by default:

(A) for any of the remedies sought in the petition, if the respondent has been served with documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section and if the respondent fails to appear on the specified return date or any subsequent hearing date agreed to by the petitioner and respondent or set by the court; or

(B) for any of the remedies provided under paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (14), (15), (17), or (18) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, or if the respondent fails to answer or appear in accordance with the date set in the publication notice or the return date indicated on the service of a household member.

(2) A final civil no contact order may be entered by default for any of the remedies provided in Section 112A-14.5 of this Code, if the respondent has been served with documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section, and if the respondent fails to answer or appear in accordance with the date set in the publication notice or the return date indicated on the service of a household member.

(3) A final stalking or harassment no contact order may be entered by default for any of the remedies provided by Section 112A-14.7 of this Code, if the respondent has been served with documents under subsection (b) or (c) of this Section and if the respondent fails to answer or appear in accordance with the date set in the publication notice or the return date indicated on the service of a household member.

(Source: P.A. 102-853, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14.7)

Sec. 112A-14.7. Stalking or harassment no contact order; remedies.

(a) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this Section. The remedies listed in this Section shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner. A stalking or harassment no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; and

(5) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking or harassment no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(c) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(d) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(e) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Article for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Article if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in the conduct.

(f) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(g) If the stalking or harassment no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the card to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-17.5)

Sec. 112A-17.5. Ex parte protective orders.

(a) The petitioner may request expedited consideration of the petition for an ex parte protective order. The court shall consider the request on an expedited basis without requiring the respondent's presence or requiring notice to the respondent.

(b) Issuance of ex parte protective orders in cases involving domestic violence. An ex parte domestic violence order of protection shall be issued if petitioner satisfies the requirements of this subsection (b) for one or more of the requested remedies. For each remedy requested, petitioner shall establish that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of this Code;

(2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and

(3) there is good cause to grant the remedy, regardless of prior service of process or notice upon the respondent, because:

(A) for the remedy of prohibition of abuse described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; stay away order and additional prohibitions described in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; removal or concealment of minor child described in paragraph (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; order to appear described in paragraph (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; physical care and possession of the minor child described in paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; protection of property described in paragraph (11) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of entry described in paragraph (14) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of firearm possession described in paragraph (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; prohibition of access to records described in paragraph (15) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; injunctive relief described in paragraph (16) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; and telephone services described in paragraph (18) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, the harm which that remedy is intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief;

(B) for the remedy of grant of exclusive possession of residence described in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; the immediate danger of further abuse of the petitioner by the respondent, if the petitioner chooses or had chosen to remain in the residence or household while the respondent was given any prior notice or greater notice than was actually given of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief outweighs the hardships to the respondent of an emergency order granting the petitioner exclusive possession of the residence or household; and the remedy shall not be denied because the petitioner has or could obtain temporary shelter elsewhere while prior notice is given to the respondent, unless the hardship to the respondent from exclusion from the home substantially outweigh the hardship to the petitioner; or

(C) for the remedy of possession of personal property described in paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code; improper disposition of the personal property would be likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief or the petitioner has an immediate and pressing need for the possession of that property.

An ex parte domestic violence order of protection may not include the counseling, custody, or payment of support or monetary compensation remedies provided by paragraphs (4), (12), (13), and (16) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code.

(c) Issuance of ex parte civil no contact order in cases involving sexual offenses. An ex parte civil no contact order shall be issued if the petitioner establishes that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of this Code;

(2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and

(3) there is good cause to grant the remedy, regardless of prior service of process or of notice upon the respondent, because the harm which that remedy is intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief.

The court may order any of the remedies under Section 112A-14.5 of this Code.

(d) Issuance of ex parte stalking or harassment no contact order in cases involving stalking offenses. An ex parte stalking or harassment no contact order shall be issued if the petitioner establishes that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 112A-9 of this Code;

(2) the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 112A-11.5 of this Code are satisfied; and

(3) there is good cause to grant the remedy, regardless of prior service of process or of notice upon the respondent, because the harm which that remedy is intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief.

The court may order any of the remedies under Section 112A-14.7 of this Code.

(e) Issuance of ex parte protective orders on court holidays and evenings.

When the court is unavailable at the close of business, the petitioner may file a petition for an ex parte protective order before any available circuit judge or associate judge who may grant relief under this Article. If the judge finds that petitioner has satisfied the prerequisites in subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section, the judge shall issue an ex parte protective order.

The chief judge of the circuit court may designate for each county in the circuit at least one judge to be reasonably available to issue orally, by telephone, by facsimile, or otherwise, an ex parte protective order at all times, whether or not the court is in session.

The judge who issued the order under this Section shall promptly communicate or convey the order to the sheriff to facilitate the entry of the order into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System by the Illinois State Police under Section 112A-28 of this Code. Any order issued under this Section and any documentation in support of it shall be certified on the next court day to the appropriate court. The clerk of that court shall immediately assign a case number, file the petition, order, and other documents with the court and enter the order of record and file it with the sheriff for service under subsection (f) of this Section. Failure to comply with the requirements of this subsection (e) shall not affect the validity of the order.

(f) Service of ex parte protective order on respondent.

(1) If an ex parte protective order is entered at the time a summons or arrest warrant is issued for the criminal charge, the petition for the protective order, any supporting affidavits, if any, and the ex parte protective order that has been issued shall be served with the summons or arrest warrant. The enforcement of a protective order under Section 112A-23 of this Code shall not be affected by the lack of service or delivery, provided the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 112A-23 of this Code are otherwise met.

(2) If an ex parte protective order is entered after a summons or arrest warrant is issued and before the respondent makes an initial appearance in the criminal case, the summons shall be in the form prescribed by subsection (d) of Supreme Court Rule 101, except that it shall require respondent to answer or appear within 7 days and shall be accompanied by the petition for the protective order, any supporting affidavits, if any, and the ex parte protective order that has been issued.

(3) If an ex parte protective order is entered after the respondent has been served notice of a petition for a final protective order and the respondent has requested a continuance to respond to the petition, the ex parte protective order shall be served: (A) in open court if the respondent is present at the proceeding at which the order was entered; or (B) by summons in the form prescribed by subsection (d) of Supreme Court Rule 101.

(4) No fee shall be charged for service of summons.

(5) The summons shall be served by the sheriff or other law enforcement officer at the earliest time and shall take precedence over other summonses except those of a similar emergency nature. Special process servers may be appointed at any time, and their designation shall not affect the responsibilities and authority of the sheriff or other official process servers. In a county with a population over 3,000,000, a special process server may not be appointed if an ex parte protective order grants the surrender of a child, the surrender of a firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the exclusive possession of a shared residence. Process may be served in court.

(g) Upon 7 days' notice to the petitioner, or a shorter notice period as the court may prescribe, a respondent subject to an ex parte protective order may appear and petition the court to re-hear the petition. Any petition to re-hear shall be verified and shall allege the following:

(1) that respondent did not receive prior notice of the initial hearing in which the ex parte protective order was entered under Section 112A-17.5 of this Code; and

(2) that respondent had a meritorious defense to the order or any of its remedies or that the order or any of its remedies was not authorized under this Article.

The verified petition and affidavit shall set forth the evidence of the meritorious defense that will be presented at a hearing. If the court finds that the evidence presented at the hearing on the petition establishes a meritorious defense by a preponderance of the evidence, the court may decide to vacate the protective order or modify the remedies.

(h) If the ex parte protective order granted petitioner exclusive possession of the residence and the petition of respondent seeks to re-open or vacate that grant, the court shall set a date for hearing within 14 days on all issues relating to exclusive possession. Under no circumstances shall a court continue a hearing concerning exclusive possession beyond the 14th day except by agreement of the petitioner and the respondent. Other issues raised by the pleadings may be consolidated for the hearing if the petitioner, the respondent, and the court do not object.

(i) Duration of ex parte protective order. An ex parte order shall remain in effect until the court considers the request for a final protective order after notice has been served on the respondent or a default final protective order is entered, whichever occurs first. If a court date is scheduled for the issuance of a default protective order and the petitioner fails to personally appear or appear through counsel or the prosecuting attorney, the petition shall be dismissed and the ex parte order terminated.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-20)

Sec. 112A-20. Duration and extension of final protective orders.

(a) (Blank).

(b) A final protective order shall remain in effect as follows:

(1) if entered during pre-trial release, until disposition, withdrawal, or dismissal of the underlying charge; if, however, the case is continued as an independent cause of action, the order's duration may be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years;

(2) if in effect in conjunction with a bond forfeiture warrant, until final disposition or an additional period of time not exceeding 2 years; no domestic violence order of protection, however, shall be terminated by a dismissal that is accompanied by the issuance of a bond forfeiture warrant;

(3) until 2 years after the expiration of any supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for domestic violence orders of protection and civil no contact orders;

(4) until 2 years after the date set by the court for expiration of any sentence of imprisonment and subsequent parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for domestic violence orders of protection and civil no contact orders;

(5) permanent for a stalking or harassment no contact order if a judgment of conviction for stalking is entered; or

(6) permanent for a civil no contact order at the victim's request if a judgment of conviction for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, excluding a conviction under subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse is entered.

(c) Computation of time. The duration of a domestic violence order of protection shall not be reduced by the duration of any prior domestic violence order of protection.

(d) Law enforcement records. When a protective order expires upon the occurrence of a specified event, rather than upon a specified date as provided in subsection (b), no expiration date shall be entered in Illinois State Police records. To remove the protective order from those records, either the petitioner or the respondent shall request the clerk of the court to file a certified copy of an order stating that the specified event has occurred or that the protective order has been vacated or modified with the sheriff, and the sheriff shall direct that law enforcement records shall be promptly corrected in accordance with the filed order.

(e) Extension of Orders. Any domestic violence order of protection or civil no contact order that expires 2 years after the expiration of the defendant's sentence under paragraph (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-20 of this Article may be extended one or more times, as required. The petitioner, petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney on the petitioner's behalf shall file the motion for an extension of the final protective order in the criminal case and serve the motion in accordance with Supreme Court Rules 11 and 12. The court shall transfer the motion to the appropriate court or division for consideration under subsection (e) of Section 220 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, subsection (c) of Section 216 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or subsection (c) of Section 105 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order as appropriate.

(f) Termination date. Any final protective order which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(g) Statement of purpose. The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for issuing a protective order undermines the purposes of this Article. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 102-184, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-21.7)

Sec. 112A-21.7. Contents of stalking or harassment no contact orders.

(a) Any stalking or harassment no contact order shall describe each remedy granted by the court, in reasonable detail and not by reference to any other document, so that the respondent may clearly understand what he or she must do or refrain from doing.

(b) A stalking or harassment no contact order shall further state the following:

(1) The name of each petitioner that the court finds was the victim of stalking by the respondent.

(2) The date and time the stalking or harassment no contact order was issued.

(c) A stalking or harassment no contact order shall include the following notice, printed in conspicuous type:

"An initial knowing violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent knowing violation is a Class 4 felony."

"This Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order is enforceable, even without registration, in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, and the U.S. territories under the Violence Against Women Act (18 U.S.C. 2265)."

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-23) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-23)

Sec. 112A-23. Enforcement of protective orders.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any protective order, whether issued in a civil, quasi-criminal proceeding or by a military judge, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a domestic violence order of protection pursuant to Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Prosecution for a violation of a domestic violence order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the domestic violence order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph (1), (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid domestic violence order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(3) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a civil no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.8 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a civil no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(4) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the stalking or harassment no contact order.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid protective order, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or by a military judge, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the protective order were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Article. Nothing in this Article shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid protective order issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce protective orders through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of a protective order shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody, allocation of parental responsibility, or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraph (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 607.5 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code in the manner provided for under Parts V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. A protective order may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after the respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) By service of a protective order under subsection (f) of Section 112A-17.5 or Section 112A-22 of this Code.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of a protective order in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order entered under Section 112A-15 of this Code.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(e-5) If a civil no contact order entered under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 conflicts with an order issued pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the conflicting order issued under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall be void.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of a protective order has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsection (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection (g).

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any protective order over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any protective order or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any protective order; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of a protective order

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of a protective order, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of a protective order:

(i) to modify the conditions of pretrial release on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 102-184, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-890, eff. 5-19-22; 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-24) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-24)

Sec. 112A-24. Modification, re-opening, and extension of orders.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, upon motion by petitioner, petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney on behalf of the petitioner, the court may modify a protective order:

(1) If respondent has abused petitioner since the hearing for that order, by adding or altering one or more remedies, as authorized by Section 112A-14, 112A-14.5, or 112A-14.7 of this Code; and

(2) Otherwise, by adding any remedy authorized by Section 112A-14, 112A-14.5, or 112A-14.7 which was:

(i) reserved in that protective order;

(ii) not requested for inclusion in that protective order; or

(iii) denied on procedural grounds, but not on the merits.

(a-5) A petitioner, petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney on the petitioner's behalf may file a motion to vacate or modify a final stalking or harassment no contact order. The motion shall be served in accordance with Supreme Court Rules 11 and 12.

(b) Upon motion by the petitioner, petitioner's counsel, State's Attorney, or respondent, the court may modify any prior domestic violence order of protection's remedy for custody, visitation or payment of support in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(c) After 30 days following the entry of a protective order, a court may modify that order only when changes in the applicable law or facts since that final order was entered warrant a modification of its terms.

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) This Section does not limit the means, otherwise available by law, for vacating or modifying protective orders.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-26) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-26)

Sec. 112A-26. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing any crime, including but not limited to violation of a domestic violence order of protection, under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, violation of a civil no contact order, under Section 11-1.75 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order, under Section 12-7.5A of the Criminal Code of 2012, even if the crime was not committed in the presence of the officer.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of a protective order by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order provided by petitioner or respondent.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-28) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-28)

Sec. 112A-28. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Illinois State Police, daily, in the form and detail the Illinois State Police requires, copies of any recorded protective orders issued by the court, and any foreign protective orders, including, but not limited to, an order of protection issued by a military judge, filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court. Each protective order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System on the same day it is issued by the court.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded protective orders issued or filed under this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of abuse or violation of a protective order of any recorded prior incident of abuse involving the abused party and the effective dates and terms of any recorded protective order.

(c) The data, records and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to:

(1) any valid emergency, interim or plenary domestic violence order of protection, civil no contact or stalking or harassment no contact order issued in a civil proceeding; and

(2) any valid ex parte or final protective order issued in a criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-890, eff. 5-19-22; 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

Section 25. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. The terms used in this Act shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Crime victim" or "victim" means: (1) any natural person determined by the prosecutor or the court to have suffered direct physical or psychological harm as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or direct physical or psychological harm as a result of (i) a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or similar provision of a local ordinance or (ii) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (2) in the case of a crime victim who is under 18 years of age or an adult victim who is incompetent or incapacitated, both parents, legal guardians, foster parents, or a single adult representative; (3) in the case of an adult deceased victim, 2 representatives who may be the spouse, parent, child or sibling of the victim, or the representative of the victim's estate; and (4) an immediate family member of a victim under clause (1) of this paragraph (a) chosen by the victim. If the victim is 18 years of age or over, the victim may choose any person to be the victim's representative. In no event shall the defendant or any person who aided and abetted in the commission of the crime be considered a victim, a crime victim, or a representative of the victim.

A board, agency, or other governmental entity making decisions regarding an offender's release, sentence reduction, or clemency can determine additional persons are victims for the purpose of its proceedings.

(a-3) "Advocate" means a person whose communications with the victim are privileged under Section 8-802.1 or 8-802.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(a-5) "Confer" means to consult together, share information, compare opinions and carry on a discussion or deliberation.

(a-6) "DNA database" means a collection of DNA profiles from forensic casework or specimens from anonymous, identified, and unidentified sources that is created to search DNA records against each other to develop investigative leads among forensic cases.

(a-7) "Sentence" includes, but is not limited to, the imposition of sentence, a request for a reduction in sentence, parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, early release, inpatient treatment, outpatient treatment, conditional release after a finding that the defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity, clemency, or a proposal that would reduce the defendant's sentence or result in the defendant's release. "Early release" refers to a discretionary release.

(a-9) "Sentencing" includes, but is not limited to, the imposition of sentence and a request for a reduction in sentence, parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, early release, consideration of inpatient treatment or outpatient treatment, or conditional release after a finding that the defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity.

(a-10) "Status hearing" means a hearing designed to provide information to the court, at which no motion of a substantive nature and no constitutional or statutory right of a crime victim is implicated or at issue.

(b) "Witness" means: any person who personally observed the commission of a crime and who will testify on behalf of the State of Illinois; or a person who will be called by the prosecution to give testimony establishing a necessary nexus between the offender and the violent crime.

(c) "Violent crime" means: (1) any felony in which force or threat of force was used against the victim; (2) any offense involving sexual exploitation, sexual conduct, or sexual penetration; (3) a violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-23, or 11-23.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) domestic battery or stalking; (5) violation of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order; (6) any misdemeanor which results in death or great bodily harm to the victim; or (7) any violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the violation resulted in personal injury or death. "Violent crime" includes any action committed by a juvenile that would be a violent crime if committed by an adult. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal injury" shall include any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic crash report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) (Blank).

(e) "Court proceedings" includes, but is not limited to, the preliminary hearing, any post-arraignment hearing the effect of which may be the release of the defendant from custody or to alter the conditions of bond, change of plea hearing, the trial, any pretrial or post-trial hearing, sentencing, any oral argument or hearing before an Illinois appellate court, any hearing under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections after a finding that the defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity, including a hearing for conditional release, any hearing related to a modification of sentence, probation revocation hearing, aftercare release or parole hearings, post-conviction relief proceedings, habeas corpus proceedings and clemency proceedings related to the defendant's conviction or sentence. For purposes of the victim's right to be present, "court proceedings" does not include (1) grand jury proceedings, (2) status hearings, or (3) the issuance of an order or decision of an Illinois court that dismisses a charge, reverses a conviction, reduces a sentence, or releases an offender under a court rule.

(f) "Concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(g) "Victim's attorney" means an attorney retained by the victim for the purposes of asserting the victim's constitutional and statutory rights. An attorney retained by the victim means an attorney who is hired to represent the victim at the victim's expense or an attorney who has agreed to provide pro bono representation. Nothing in this statute creates a right to counsel at public expense for a victim.

(h) "Support person" means a person chosen by a victim to be present at court proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1104, eff. 1-1-23; 103-792, eff. 1-1-25.)

Section 30. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2.5-95 and 3-3-7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-95)

Sec. 3-2.5-95. Conditions of aftercare release.

(a) The conditions of aftercare release for all youth committed to the Department under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be such as the Department of Juvenile Justice deems necessary to assist the youth in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every aftercare release are that the youth:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the aftercare release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department;

(4) permit the agent or aftercare specialist to visit the youth at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent or aftercare specialist to discharge his or her duties;

(5) reside at a Department-approved host site;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order to an agent of the Department;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by an agent of the Department;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her aftercare specialist and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on aftercare release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by an agent of the Department;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Department or by law to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her aftercare release or to protect the public; these instructions by the agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act;

(17) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and a sex offender treatment provider has evaluated and recommended further sex offender treatment while on aftercare release, the youth shall undergo treatment by a sex offender treatment provider or associate sex offender provider as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act at his or her expense based on his or her ability to pay for the treatment;

(18) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(19) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the offender used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the youth's aftercare release term;

(20) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the offender and whom the offender reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (20), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the offender if the person is not: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the offender; (B) a descendant of the offender; (C) a first or second cousin of the offender; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the offender;

(21) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(22) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the offender as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act, not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(23) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist;

(24) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(25) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that requires the youth to register as a sex offender under that Act, not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the youth uses;

(26) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the youth is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(27) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code; and

(28) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Department may in addition to other conditions require that the youth:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or aftercare release;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the youth as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the youth and whom the youth reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the youth if the person is: (A) the spouse, brother, or sister of the youth; (B) a descendant of the youth; (C) a first or second cousin of the youth; or (D) a step-child or adopted child of the youth;

(6) if convicted for an offense that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(A) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(B) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the youth's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the youth's aftercare specialist, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of the information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(C) submit to the installation on the youth's computer or device with Internet capability, at the youth's offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(D) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the youth's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Department or the youth's aftercare specialist; and

(7) in addition to other conditions:

(A) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(B) attend school;

(C) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(D) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(c) In addition to the conditions under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, youths required to register as sex offenders under the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, may be required by the Department to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department;

(6) be electronically monitored for a specified period of time from the date of release as determined by the Department;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department; these terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the youth;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including, but not limited to, visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the youth from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of an agent of the Department before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(d) The conditions under which the aftercare release is to be served shall be communicated to the youth in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection if one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the youth and another copy forwarded to the officer or aftercare specialist in charge of his or her supervision.

(e) After a revocation hearing under Section 3-3-9.5, the Department of Juvenile Justice may modify or enlarge the conditions of aftercare release.

(f) The Department shall inform all youth of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist youth in availing themselves of the optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(Source: P.A. 99-628, eff. 1-1-17.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections if there is reasonable suspicion of illicit drug use and the source of the reasonable suspicion is documented in the Department's case management system;

(12) not knowingly frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) except when the association described in either subparagraph (A) or (B) of this paragraph (13) involves activities related to community programs, worship services, volunteering, engaging families, or some other pro-social activity in which there is no evidence of criminal intent:

(A) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent; or

(B) not knowingly associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act;

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate;

(20) if convicted of a hate crime under Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that gave rise to the offense the offender committed ordered by the court; and

(21) be evaluated by the Department of Corrections prior to release using a validated risk assessment and be subject to a corresponding level of supervision. In accordance with the findings of that evaluation:

(A) All subjects found to be at a moderate or high risk to recidivate, or on parole or mandatory supervised release for first degree murder, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or a Class X felony or Class 1 felony that is not a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, shall be subject to high level supervision. The Department shall define high level supervision based upon evidence-based and research-based practices. Notwithstanding this placement on high level supervision, placement of the subject on electronic monitoring or detention shall not occur unless it is required by law or expressly ordered or approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(B) All subjects found to be at a low risk to recidivate shall be subject to low-level supervision, except for those subjects on parole or mandatory supervised release for first degree murder, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or a Class X felony or Class 1 felony that is not a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. Low level supervision shall require the subject to check in with the supervising officer via phone or other electronic means. Notwithstanding this placement on low level supervision, placement of the subject on electronic monitoring or detention shall not occur unless it is required by law or expressly ordered or approved by the Prisoner Review Board.

(b) The Board may after making an individualized assessment pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 3-14-2 in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his or her dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) (blank).

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release following an individualized assessment pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 3-14-2:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his or her release, and he or she shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his or her supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-271, eff. 1-1-24.)

Section 35. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-1401 and 21-103 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-1401) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-1401)

Sec. 2-1401. Relief from judgments.

(a) Relief from final orders and judgments, after 30 days from the entry thereof, may be had upon petition as provided in this Section. Writs of error coram nobis and coram vobis, bills of review, and bills in the nature of bills of review are abolished. All relief heretofore obtainable and the grounds for such relief heretofore available, whether by any of the foregoing remedies or otherwise, shall be available in every case, by proceedings hereunder, regardless of the nature of the order or judgment from which relief is sought or of the proceedings in which it was entered. Except as provided in the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, there shall be no distinction between actions and other proceedings, statutory or otherwise, as to availability of relief, grounds for relief, or the relief obtainable.

(b) The petition must be filed in the same proceeding in which the order or judgment was entered but is not a continuation thereof. The petition must be supported by an affidavit or other appropriate showing as to matters not of record. A petition to reopen a foreclosure proceeding must include as parties to the petition, but is not limited to, all parties in the original action in addition to the current record title holders of the property, current occupants, and any individual or entity that had a recorded interest in the property before the filing of the petition. All parties to the petition shall be notified as provided by rule.

(b-5) A movant may present a meritorious claim under this Section if the allegations in the petition establish each of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) the movant was convicted of a forcible felony;

(2) the movant's participation in the offense was related to him or her previously having been a victim of domestic violence or gender-based violence;

(3) there is substantial evidence of domestic violence or gender-based violence against the movant that was not presented at the movant's sentencing hearing;

(4) (blank); and

(5) the evidence of domestic violence or gender-based violence against the movant is material and noncumulative to other evidence offered at the sentencing hearing, or previous hearing under this Section filed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly, and is of such a conclusive character that it would likely change the sentence imposed by the original trial court.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall prevent a movant from applying for any other relief under this Section or any other law otherwise available to him or her. This subsection (b-5) applies to all eligible convictions, including, but not limited to, if the judge renders the sentence based on a negotiated plea agreement. Relief under this Section allows for the modification of the length of sentence without affecting the conviction.

As used in this subsection (b-5):

"Domestic violence" means abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Forcible felony" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Gender-based violence" includes evidence of victimization as a trafficking victim, as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, evidence of victimization under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, evidence of victimization under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, or evidence of victimization of any offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012, irrespective of criminal prosecution or conviction.

"Intimate partner" means a spouse or former spouse, persons who have or allegedly have had a child in common, or persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship.

"Substantial evidence" means evidence that a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion.

(b-10) A movant may present a meritorious claim under this Section if the allegations in the petition establish each of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(A) she was convicted of a forcible felony;

(B) her participation in the offense was a direct result of her suffering from postpartum depression or postpartum psychosis;

(C) no evidence of postpartum depression or postpartum psychosis was presented by a qualified medical person at trial or sentencing, or both;

(D) she was unaware of the mitigating nature of the evidence or, if aware, was at the time unable to present this defense due to suffering from postpartum depression or postpartum psychosis, or, at the time of trial or sentencing, neither was a recognized mental illness and as such, she was unable to receive proper treatment; and

(E) evidence of postpartum depression or postpartum psychosis as suffered by the person is material and noncumulative to other evidence offered at the time of trial or sentencing, and it is of such a conclusive character that it would likely change the sentence imposed by the original court.

Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prevents a person from applying for any other relief under this Article or any other law otherwise available to her. This subsection (b-10) applies to all eligible convictions, including, but not limited to, if the judge renders the sentence based on a negotiated plea agreement. Relief under this Section allows for the modification of the length of sentence without affecting the conviction.

As used in this subsection (b-10):

"Postpartum depression" means a mood disorder which strikes many women during and after pregnancy and usually occurs during pregnancy and up to 12 months after delivery. This depression can include anxiety disorders.

"Postpartum psychosis" means an extreme form of postpartum depression which can occur during pregnancy and up to 12 months after delivery. This can include losing touch with reality, distorted thinking, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, paranoia, hyperactivity and rapid speech, or mania.

(c) Except as provided in Section 20b of the Adoption Act and Section 2-32 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, in a petition based upon Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or subsection (b-5) or (b-10) of this Section, or in a motion to vacate and expunge convictions under the Cannabis Control Act as provided by subsection (i) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act, the petition must be filed not later than 2 years after the entry of the order or judgment. Time during which the person seeking relief is under legal disability or duress or the ground for relief is fraudulently concealed shall be excluded in computing the period of 2 years.

(c-5) Any individual may at any time file a petition and institute proceedings under this Section if his or her final order or judgment, which was entered based on a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, has potential consequences under federal immigration law.

(d) The filing of a petition under this Section does not affect the order or judgment, or suspend its operation.

(e) Unless lack of jurisdiction affirmatively appears from the record proper, the vacation or modification of an order or judgment pursuant to the provisions of this Section does not affect the right, title, or interest in or to any real or personal property of any person, not a party to the original action, acquired for value after the entry of the order or judgment but before the filing of the petition, nor affect any right of any person not a party to the original action under any certificate of sale issued before the filing of the petition, pursuant to a sale based on the order or judgment. When a petition is filed pursuant to this Section to reopen a foreclosure proceeding, notwithstanding the provisions of Section 15-1701 of this Code, the purchaser or successor purchaser of real property subject to a foreclosure sale who was not a party to the mortgage foreclosure proceedings is entitled to remain in possession of the property until the foreclosure action is defeated or the previously foreclosed defendant redeems from the foreclosure sale if the purchaser has been in possession of the property for more than 6 months.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section affects any existing right to relief from a void order or judgment, or to employ any existing method to procure that relief.

(Source: P.A. 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-403, eff. 1-1-24; 103-968, eff. 1-1-25.)

(735 ILCS 5/21-103)

Sec. 21-103. Notice by publication.

(a) Previous notice shall be given of the intended application by publishing a notice thereof in some newspaper published in the municipality in which the person resides if the municipality is in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if the person does not reside in a municipality in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if no newspaper is published in the municipality or if the person resides in a county with a population of 2,000,000 or more, then in some newspaper published in the county where the person resides, or if no newspaper is published in that county, then in some convenient newspaper published in this State. The notice shall be inserted for 3 consecutive weeks after filing, the first insertion to be at least 6 weeks before the return day upon which the petition is to be heard, and shall be signed by the petitioner or, in case of a minor, the minor's parent or guardian, and shall set forth the return day of court on which the petition is to be heard and the name sought to be assumed.

(b) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a minor if, before making judgment under this Article, reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated and to any person who has physical custody of the child. If any of these persons are outside this State, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be given under Section 21-104.

(b-3) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a person who has received a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage and wishes to change his or her name to resume the use of his or her former or maiden name.

(b-5) The court may issue an order directing that the notice and publication requirement be waived for a change of name involving a person who files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, that the person believes that publishing notice of the name change would be a hardship, including, but not limited to, a negative impact on the person's health or safety.

(b-6) In a case where waiver of the notice and publication requirement is sought, the petition for waiver is presumed granted and heard at the same hearing as the petition for name change. The court retains discretion to determine whether a hardship is shown and may order the petitioner to publish thereafter.

(c) The Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee may apply to the circuit court for an order directing that the notice and publication requirements of this Section be waived if the Director or his or her designee certifies that the name change being sought is intended to protect a witness during and following a criminal investigation or proceeding.

(c-1) The court may also enter a written order waiving the publication requirement of subsection (a) if:

(i) the petitioner is 18 years of age or older; and

(ii) concurrent with the petition, the petitioner files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, attesting that the petitioner is or has been a person protected under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a condition of pretrial release under subsections (b) through (d) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or a similar provision of a law in another state or jurisdiction.

The petitioner may attach to the statement any supporting documents, including relevant court orders.

(c-2) If the petitioner files a statement attesting that disclosure of the petitioner's address would put the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household at risk or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court, and the petitioner may designate an alternative address for service.

(c-3) Court administrators may allow domestic abuse advocates, rape crisis advocates, and victim advocates to assist petitioners in the preparation of name changes under subsection (c-1).

(c-4) If the publication requirements of subsection (a) have been waived, the circuit court shall enter an order impounding the case.

(d) The maximum rate charged for publication of a notice under this Section may not exceed the lowest classified rate paid by commercial users for comparable space in the newspaper in which the notice appears and shall include all cash discounts, multiple insertion discounts, and similar benefits extended to the newspaper's regular customers.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1133, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

Section 40. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing the title of the Act and Sections 1, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 40, 45, 55, 60, 70, 75, 80, 85, 90, 95, 100, 105, 110, 115, 117, 120, 125, 130, and 135 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/Act title)

An Act in relation to no contact orders stalking.

(740 ILCS 21/1)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:

"Course of conduct" means 2 or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which a respondent directly, indirectly, or through third parties, by any action, method, device, or means follows, monitors, observes, surveils, or threatens a person, workplace, school, or place of worship, engages in other contact, or interferes with or damages a person's property or pet. A course of conduct may include using any electronic tracking system or acquiring tracking information to determine the targeted person's location, movement, or travel patterns. A course of conduct may also include contact via electronic communications. The incarceration of a person in a penal institution who commits the course of conduct is not a bar to prosecution under this Section.

"Emotional distress" means significant mental suffering, anxiety or alarm.

"Contact" includes any contact with the victim, that is initiated or continued without the victim's consent, or that is in disregard of the victim's expressed desire that the contact be avoided or discontinued, including but not limited to being in the physical presence of the victim; appearing within the sight of the victim; approaching or confronting the victim in a public place or on private property; appearing at the workplace or residence of the victim; entering onto or remaining on property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; placing an object on, or delivering an object to, property owned, leased, or occupied by the victim; electronic communication as defined in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and appearing at the prohibited workplace, school, or place of worship.

"Harassment" means violence or threats of violence or death, including a single act, directed at a specific person which would cause a reasonable person to (i) fear for the person's safety, the safety of a workplace, school, or place of worship, or the safety of a third person or (ii) suffer emotional distress.

"Petitioner" means any named petitioner for the stalking or harassment no contact order or any named victim of stalking on whose behalf the petition is brought. "Petitioner" includes an authorized agent of a place of employment, an authorized agent of a place of worship, or an authorized agent of a school.

"Reasonable person" means a person in the petitioner's circumstances with the petitioner's knowledge of the respondent and the respondent's prior acts.

"Stalking" means engaging in a course of conduct directed at a specific person, and he or she knows or should know that this course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to fear for his or her safety, the safety of a workplace, school, or place of worship, or the safety of a third person or suffer emotional distress. Stalking does not include an exercise of the right to free speech or assembly that is otherwise lawful or picketing occurring at the workplace that is otherwise lawful and arises out of a bona fide labor dispute, including any controversy concerning wages, salaries, hours, working conditions or benefits, including health and welfare, sick leave, insurance, and pension or retirement provisions, the making or maintaining of collective bargaining agreements, and the terms to be included in those agreements.

"Stalking or harassment no contact order" means an emergency order or plenary order granted under this Act, which includes a remedy authorized by Section 80 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-220, eff. 1-1-22; 103-760, eff. 1-1-25.)

(740 ILCS 21/15)

Sec. 15. Persons protected by this Act. A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order may be filed when relief is not available to the petitioner under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986:

(1) by any person who is a victim of stalking;

(2) by a person on behalf of a minor child or an adult who is a victim of stalking but, because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition;

(3) by an authorized agent of a workplace;

(4) by an authorized agent of a place of worship;

(5) by an authorized agent of a school;

(6) by a service member of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving within the State who is a victim of stalking who has also received a Military Protective Order; or

(7) by the Staff Judge Advocate of the Illinois National Guard or any reserve military component serving within the State on behalf of a named victim who is a victim of stalking who has also received a Military Protective Order only after receiving consent from the victim, and the petition shall include a statement that the victim has consented to the Staff Judge Advocate filing the petition.

(Source: P.A. 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

(740 ILCS 21/20)

Sec. 20. Commencement of action; filing fees.

(a) An action for a stalking or harassment no contact order is commenced:

(1) independently, by filing a petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order in any civil court, unless specific courts are designated by local rule or order; or

(2) in conjunction with a delinquency petition or a criminal prosecution as provided in Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(a-1) A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order may be filed in person or online.

(a-5) When a petition for an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order is filed, the petition and file shall not be public and shall only be accessible to the court, law enforcement, petitioner, victim advocate, counsel of record for either party, and State's Attorney for the county until the petition is served on the respondent.

Accessibility to the petition and file under this subsection prior to the petition being served on the respondent shall be in accordance with Section 5 of the Court Record and Document Accessibility Act.

(b) Withdrawal or dismissal of any petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order prior to adjudication where the petitioner is represented by the State shall operate as a dismissal without prejudice. No action for a stalking or harassment no contact order shall be dismissed because the respondent is being prosecuted for a crime against the petitioner. For any action commenced under item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, dismissal of the conjoined case (or a finding of not guilty) shall not require dismissal of the action for a stalking or harassment no contact order; instead, it may be treated as an independent action and, if necessary and appropriate, transferred to a different court or division.

(c) No fee shall be charged by the clerk of the court for filing petitions or modifying or certifying orders. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff for service by the sheriff of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(d) The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms for filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel.

(Source: P.A. 102-831, eff. 5-13-22; 102-853, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-166, eff. 1-1-24.)

(740 ILCS 21/25)

Sec. 25. Pleading; non-disclosure of address.

(a) A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order shall be in writing and verified or accompanied by affidavit and shall allege that the petitioner has been the victim of stalking by the respondent.

(b) If the petition states that disclosure of the petitioner's address would risk abuse of the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court. If the petitioner has not disclosed an address under this subsection, the petitioner shall designate an alternative address at which the respondent may serve notice of any motions.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/30)

Sec. 30. Application of rules of civil procedure; victim advocates.

(a) Any proceeding to obtain, modify, reopen or appeal a stalking or harassment no contact order shall be governed by the rules of civil procedure of this State. The standard of proof in such a proceeding is proof by a preponderance of the evidence. The Code of Civil Procedure and Supreme Court and local court rules applicable to civil proceedings shall apply, except as otherwise provided by this Act.

(b) In circuit courts, victim advocates shall be allowed to accompany the petitioner and confer with the petitioner, unless otherwise directed by the court. Court administrators shall allow victim advocates to assist victims of stalking in the preparation of petitions for stalking or harassment no contact orders. Victim advocates are not engaged in the unauthorized practice of law when providing assistance of the types specified in this subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/40)

Sec. 40. Trial by jury. There shall be no right to trial by jury in any proceeding to obtain, modify, vacate or extend any stalking or harassment no contact order under this Act. However, nothing in this Section shall deny any existing right to trial by jury in a criminal proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/45)

Sec. 45. Subject matter jurisdiction. Each of the circuit courts has the power to issue stalking or harassment no contact orders.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/55)

Sec. 55. Venue. A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order may be filed in any county where (1) the petitioner resides, (2) the respondent resides, or (3) one or more acts of the alleged stalking occurred.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/60)

Sec. 60. Process.

(a) Any action for a stalking or harassment no contact order requires that a separate summons be issued and served. The summons shall be in the form prescribed by Supreme Court Rule 101(d), except that it shall require the respondent to answer or appear within 7 days. Attachments to the summons or notice shall include the petition for stalking or harassment no contact order and supporting affidavits, if any, and any emergency stalking or harassment no contact order that has been issued.

(b) The summons shall be served by the sheriff or other law enforcement officer at the earliest time and shall take precedence over other summonses except those of a similar emergency nature. Special process servers may be appointed at any time, and their designation shall not affect the responsibilities and authority of the sheriff or other official process servers.

(c) Service of process on a member of the respondent's household or by publication shall be adequate if: (1) the petitioner has made all reasonable efforts to accomplish actual service of process personally upon the respondent, but the respondent cannot be found to effect such service; and (2) the petitioner files an affidavit or presents sworn testimony as to those efforts.

(d) A plenary stalking or harassment no contact order may be entered by default for the remedy sought in the petition, if the respondent has been served or given notice in accordance with subsection (a) and if the respondent then fails to appear as directed or fails to appear on any subsequent appearance or hearing date agreed to by the parties or set by the court.

(e) If an order is granted under subsection (c) of Section 95, the court shall immediately file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other law enforcement official charged with maintaining Department of State Police records.

(Source: P.A. 101-508, eff. 1-1-20.)

(740 ILCS 21/70)

Sec. 70. Hearings.

(a) A petition for a stalking or harassment no contact order shall be treated as an expedited proceeding, and no court may transfer or otherwise decline to decide all or part of such petition. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the court from reserving issues if jurisdiction or notice requirements are not met.

(b) A court in a county with a population above 250,000 shall offer the option of a remote hearing to a petitioner for a stalking or harassment no contact order. The court has the discretion to grant or deny the request for a remote hearing. Each court shall determine the procedure for a remote hearing. The petitioner and respondent may appear remotely or in person.

The court shall issue and publish a court order, standing order, or local rule detailing information about the process for requesting and participating in a remote court appearance. The court order, standing order, or local rule shall be published on the court's website and posted on signs throughout the courthouse, including in the clerk's office. The sign shall be written in plain language and include information about the availability of remote court appearances and the process for requesting a remote hearing.

(Source: P.A. 102-853, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(740 ILCS 21/75)

Sec. 75. Continuances.

(a) Petitions for emergency remedies shall be granted or denied in accordance with the standards of Section 100, regardless of the respondent's appearance or presence in court.

(b) Any action for a stalking or harassment no contact order is an expedited proceeding. Continuances shall be granted only for good cause shown and kept to the minimum reasonable duration, taking into account the reasons for the continuance.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/80)

Sec. 80. Stalking or harassment no contact orders; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of stalking, a stalking or harassment no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 95 on emergency orders or Section 100 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a stalking or harassment no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a stalking or harassment no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the petitioner. Modification and extension of prior stalking or harassment no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) A stalking or harassment no contact order shall order one or more of the following:

(1) prohibit the respondent from threatening to commit or committing stalking;

(2) order the respondent not to have any contact with the petitioner or a third person specifically named by the court;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within a specified distance of the petitioner or the petitioner's residence, school, daycare, or place of employment, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner; however, the court may order the respondent to stay away from the respondent's own residence, school, or place of employment only if the respondent has been provided actual notice of the opportunity to appear and be heard on the petition;

(4) prohibit the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owners Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms;

(5) prohibit the respondent from using any electronic tracking system or acquiring tracking information to determine the petitioner's location, movement, or travel pattern; and

(6) order other injunctive relief the court determines to be necessary to protect the petitioner or third party specifically named by the court.

(b-5) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a stalking or harassment no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-6) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(b-7) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(b-8) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such conduct.

(c) The court may award the petitioner costs and attorneys fees if a stalking or harassment no contact order is granted.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(e) If the stalking or harassment no contact order prohibits the respondent from possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or possessing or buying firearms; the court shall confiscate the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and immediately return the card to the Illinois State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-760, eff. 1-1-25.)

(740 ILCS 21/85)

Sec. 85. Mutual stalking or harassment no contact orders are prohibited. Correlative separate orders undermine the purposes of this Act. If separate orders are sought, both must comply with all provisions of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/90)

Sec. 90. Accountability for actions of others. For the purposes of issuing a stalking or harassment no contact order, deciding what remedies should be included and enforcing the order, Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall govern whether respondent is legally accountable for the conduct of another person.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(740 ILCS 21/95)

Sec. 95. Emergency stalking or harassment no contact order.

(a) An emergency stalking or harassment no contact order shall issue if the petitioner satisfies the requirements of this subsection (a). The petitioner shall establish that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 50;

(2) the requirements of Section 80 are satisfied; and

(3) there is good cause to grant the remedy, regardless of prior service of process or of notice upon the respondent, because the harm which that remedy is intended to prevent would be likely to occur if the respondent were given any prior notice, or greater notice than was actually given, of the petitioner's efforts to obtain judicial relief.

An emergency stalking or harassment no contact order shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of the petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate stalking by the respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the stalking or harassment no contact order.

An emergency stalking or harassment no contact order shall be issued if the court finds that items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (a) are met.

(a-5) When a petition for an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order is granted, the petition, order, and file shall not be public and shall only be accessible to the court, law enforcement, petitioner, victim advocate, counsel of record for either party, and State's Attorney for the county until the order is served on the respondent.

Accessibility to the petition, order, and file under this subsection prior to the petition being served on the respondent shall be in accordance with Section 5 of the Court Record and Document Accessibility Act.

(b) If the respondent appears in court for this hearing for an emergency order, he or she may elect to file a general appearance and testify. Any resulting order may be an emergency order, governed by this Section. Notwithstanding the requirements of this Section, if all requirements of Section 100 have been met, the court may issue a plenary order.

(c) Emergency orders; court holidays and evenings.

(1) When the court is unavailable at the close of business, the petitioner may file a petition for a 21-day emergency order before any available circuit judge or associate judge who may grant relief under this Act. If the judge finds that there is an immediate and present danger of abuse against the petitioner and that the petitioner has satisfied the prerequisites set forth in subsection (a), that judge may issue an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order.

(2) The chief judge of the circuit court may designate for each county in the circuit at least one judge to be reasonably available to issue orally, by telephone, by facsimile, or otherwise, an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order at all times, whether or not the court is in session.

(3) Any order issued under this Section and any documentation in support of the order shall be certified on the next court day to the appropriate court. The clerk of that court shall immediately assign a case number, file the petition, order, and other documents with the court, and enter the order of record and file it with the sheriff for service, in accordance with Section 60. Filing the petition shall commence proceedings for further relief under Section 20. Failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (3) does not affect the validity of the order.

(Source: P.A. 102-831, eff. 5-13-22; 103-166, eff. 1-1-24.)

(740 ILCS 21/100)

Sec. 100. Plenary stalking or harassment no contact order. A plenary stalking or harassment no contact order shall issue if the petitioner has served notice of the hearing for that order on the respondent, in accordance with Section 65, and satisfies the requirements of this Section. The petitioner must establish that:

(1) the court has jurisdiction under Section 50;

(2) the requirements of Section 80 are satisfied;

(3) a general appearance was made or filed by or for the respondent or process was served on the respondent in the manner required by Section 60; and

(4) the respondent has answered or is in default.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/105)

Sec. 105. Duration and extension of orders.

(a) Unless re-opened or extended or voided by entry of an order of greater duration, an emergency order shall be effective for not less than 14 nor more than 21 days.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a plenary stalking or harassment no contact order shall be effective for a fixed period of time, not to exceed 2 years. A stalking or harassment no contact order entered in conjunction with a criminal prosecution or delinquency petition shall remain in effect as provided in Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Any emergency or plenary order may be extended one or more times, as required, provided that the requirements of Section 95 or 100, as appropriate, are satisfied. If the motion for extension is uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be extended on the basis of the petitioner's motion or affidavit stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested extension. Extensions may be granted only in open court and not under the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 95, which applies only when the court is unavailable at the close of business or on a court holiday.

(d) Any stalking or harassment no contact order which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(e) The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for the issuance of a stalking or harassment no contact order undermines the purposes of this Act. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18.)

(740 ILCS 21/110)

Sec. 110. Contents of orders.

(a) Any stalking or harassment no contact order shall describe each remedy granted by the court, in reasonable detail and not by reference to any other document, so that the respondent may clearly understand what he or she must do or refrain from doing.

(b) A stalking or harassment no contact order shall further state the following:

(1) The name of each petitioner that the court finds was the victim of stalking by the respondent.

(2) The date and time the stalking or harassment no contact order was issued, whether it is an emergency or plenary order, and the duration of the order.

(3) The date, time, and place for any scheduled hearing for extension of that stalking or harassment no contact order or for another order of greater duration or scope.

(4) For each remedy in an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order, the reason for entering that remedy without prior notice to the respondent or greater notice than was actually given.

(5) For emergency stalking or harassment no contact orders, that the respondent may petition the court, in accordance with Section 120, to reopen the order if he or she did not receive actual prior notice of the hearing as required under Section 65 of this Act and if the respondent alleges that he or she had a meritorious defense to the order or that the order or its remedy is not authorized by this Act.

(c) A stalking or harassment no contact order shall include the following notice, printed in conspicuous type: "An initial knowing violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent knowing violation is a Class 4 felony."

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/115)

Sec. 115. Notice of orders.

(a) Upon issuance of any stalking or harassment no contact order, the clerk shall immediately:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a stalking or harassment no contact order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the respondent, at the time of the issuance of the order, is committed to the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or is on parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release, the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Illinois State Police records shall notify the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice within 48 hours of receipt of a copy of the stalking or harassment no contact order from the clerk of the issuing judge or the petitioner. Such notice shall include the name of the respondent, the respondent's IDOC inmate number or IDJJ youth identification number, the respondent's date of birth, and the LEADS Record Index Number.

(c) Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of such service in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or other persons defined in Section 117 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in Section 117. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if such service is made by the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server.

(d) If the person against whom the stalking or harassment no contact order is issued is arrested and the written order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 95 and received by the custodial law enforcement agency before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody, the custodial law enforcement agent shall promptly serve the order upon the respondent or arrestee before the respondent or arrestee is released from custody. In no event shall detention of the respondent or arrestee be extended for hearing on the petition for stalking or harassment no contact order or receipt of the order issued under Section 95 of this Act.

(e) Any order extending, modifying, or revoking any stalking or harassment no contact order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(f) Upon the request of the petitioner, within 24 hours of the issuance of a stalking or harassment no contact order, the clerk of the issuing judge shall send written notice of the order along with a certified copy of the order to any school, daycare, college, or university at which the petitioner is enrolled.

(Source: P.A. 101-508, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(740 ILCS 21/117)

Sec. 117. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of a stalking or harassment no contact order under Section 115, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the stalking or harassment no contact order was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking or harassment no contact orders under this Act, and civil no contact orders under the Civil No Contact Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(740 ILCS 21/120)

Sec. 120. Modification; reopening of orders.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, upon motion by the petitioner, the court may modify an emergency or plenary stalking or harassment no contact order by altering the remedy, subject to Section 80.

(b) After 30 days following entry of a plenary stalking or harassment no contact order, a court may modify that order only when a change in the applicable law or facts since that plenary order was entered warrants a modification of its terms.

(c) Upon 2 days' notice to the petitioner, or such shorter notice as the court may prescribe, a respondent subject to an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order issued under this Act may appear and petition the court to rehear the original or amended petition. Any petition to rehear shall be verified and shall allege the following:

(1) that the respondent did not receive prior notice of the initial hearing in which the emergency order was entered under Sections 65 and 95; and

(2) that the respondent had a meritorious defense to the order or any of its remedies or that the order or any of its remedies was not authorized by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/125)

Sec. 125. Violation. An initial knowing violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent knowing violation is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/130)

Sec. 130. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing a violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of a stalking or harassment no contact order by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order provided by the petitioner or the respondent.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

(740 ILCS 21/135)

Sec. 135. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Illinois State Police, on the same day as received, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded emergency or plenary stalking or harassment no contact orders issued by the court and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 115 of this Act. Each stalking or harassment no contact order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency stalking or harassment no contact order was issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 100, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk of the court.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded stalking or harassment no contact orders issued under this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of an alleged incident of stalking or violation of a stalking or harassment no contact order of any recorded prior incident of stalking involving the petitioner and the effective dates and terms of any recorded stalking or harassment no contact order.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 45. The Civil No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 218.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 22/218.1)

Sec. 218.1. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of a civil no contact order under Section 218, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the civil no contact order was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking or harassment no contact orders under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, and civil no contact orders under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 50. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 6.1, and 7.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/2)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Applicant" means any of the following claiming compensation under this Act:

(1) A victim.

(2) If the victim was a guardian or primary caregiver to an adult who is physically or mentally incapacitated, that adult who is physically or mentally incapacitated.

(3) A guardian of a minor or of a person under legal disability.

(4) A person who, at the time the crime occurred, resided in the same dwelling as the victim, solely for the purpose of compensating for any of the following:

(A) Pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime.

(B) Loss of earnings under paragraph (14.5) of subsection (h) for time off from work necessary to provide full time care for the injured victim.

(C) Relocation expenses.

(5) A person who assumes a legal obligation or voluntarily pays for a victim's medical or funeral or burial expenses.

(6) Any other person the Court of Claims or the Attorney General finds is entitled to compensation.

The changes made to this subsection by Public Act 101-652 apply to actions commenced or pending on or after January 1, 2022.

(b) "Court of Claims" means the Court of Claims created by the Court of Claims Act.

(c) "Crime of violence" means and includes any offense defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 11-20.1, 11-23, 11-23.5, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.4, 12-5, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-20.5, 20-1 or 20-1.1, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Sections 1(a) and 1(a-5) of the Cemetery Protection Act, Section 125 of the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, driving under the influence as defined in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided the victim was a pedestrian or was operating a vehicle moved solely by human power or a mobility device at the time of contact, and a violation of Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; so long as the offense did not occur during a civil riot, insurrection or rebellion. "Crime of violence" does not include any other offense or crash involving a motor vehicle except those vehicle offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph. "Crime of violence" does include all of the offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph that occur within this State but are subject to federal jurisdiction and crimes involving terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. 2331.

(d) "Victim" means (1) a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against him or her, (2) the spouse, parent, or child of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against the person, or anyone living in the dwelling of a person killed or injured in a relationship that is substantially similar to that of a parent, spouse, or child, (3) a person killed or injured in this State while attempting to assist a person against whom a crime of violence is being perpetrated or attempted, if that attempt of assistance would be expected of a reasonable person under the circumstances, (4) a person killed or injured in this State while assisting a law enforcement official apprehend a person who has perpetrated a crime of violence or prevent the perpetration of any such crime if that assistance was in response to the express request of the law enforcement official, (5) a person who personally witnessed a violent crime, (5.05) a person who will be called as a witness by the prosecution to establish a necessary nexus between the offender and the violent crime, (5.1) any person who is the grandparent, grandchild, brother, sister, half brother, or half sister of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence, applying solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, loss of earnings under paragraph (14.5) of subsection (h) for time off from work necessary to provide full time care for the injured victim, or relocation if the crime occurred within the dwelling of the applicant, (5.2) any person who was in a dating relationship with a person killed in this State as a result of a crime of violence, solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, (6) an Illinois resident who is a victim of a "crime of violence" as defined in this Act except, if the crime occurred outside this State, the resident has the same rights under this Act as if the crime had occurred in this State upon a showing that the state, territory, country, or political subdivision of a country in which the crime occurred does not have a compensation of victims of crimes law for which that Illinois resident is eligible, (7) the parent, spouse, or child of a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence, (8) (blank), or (9) an individual who is injured or killed in an incident in which a law enforcement officer's use of force caused bodily harm or death to that individual.

(e) "Dependent" means a relative of a deceased victim who was wholly or partially dependent upon the victim's income at the time of his or her death and shall include the child of a victim born after his or her death.

(f) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child, grandchild, brother, brother-in-law, sister, sister-in-law, half brother, half sister, spouse's parent, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, or anyone living in the dwelling of a person killed or injured in a relationship that is substantially similar to that of a parent, spouse, or child.

(g) "Child" means a son or daughter and includes a stepchild, an adopted child or a child born out of wedlock.

(h) "Pecuniary loss" means:

(1) in the case of injury, appropriate medical expenses and hospital expenses including expenses of medical examinations, rehabilitation, medically required nursing care expenses, appropriate psychiatric care or psychiatric counseling expenses, appropriate expenses for care or counseling by a licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed professional counselor, or licensed clinical professional counselor and expenses for treatment by Christian Science practitioners and nursing care appropriate thereto;

(2) transportation expenses to and from medical and counseling treatment facilities;

(3) prosthetic appliances, eyeglasses, and hearing aids necessary or damaged as a result of the crime;

(4) expenses incurred for the towing and storage of a victim's vehicle in connection with a crime of violence, to a maximum of $1,000;

(5) costs associated with trafficking tattoo removal by a person authorized or licensed to perform the specific removal procedure; for victims of offenses defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim shall submit a statement under oath on a form prescribed by the Attorney General attesting that the removed tattoo was applied in connection with the commission of the offense;

(6) replacement costs for clothing and bedding used as evidence;

(7) costs associated with temporary lodging or relocation necessary as a result of the crime, including, but not limited to, the first 2 months' rent and security deposit of the dwelling that the claimant relocated to and other reasonable relocation expenses incurred as a result of the violent crime;

(8) locks, doors, or windows necessary or damaged as a result of the crime;

(9) the purchase, lease, or rental of equipment necessary to create usability of and accessibility to the victim's real and personal property, or the real and personal property which is used by the victim, necessary as a result of the crime; "real and personal property" includes, but is not limited to, vehicles, houses, apartments, townhouses, or condominiums;

(10) the costs of appropriate crime scene clean-up;

(11) replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month, with this amount to be divided in proportion to the amount of the actual loss among those entitled to compensation;

(12) dependents replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month, with this amount to be divided in proportion to the amount of the actual loss among those entitled to compensation;

(13) loss of tuition paid to attend grammar school or high school when the victim had been enrolled as a student prior to the injury, or college or graduate school when the victim had been enrolled as a day or night student prior to the injury when the victim becomes unable to continue attendance at school as a result of the crime of violence perpetrated against him or her;

(14) loss of earnings, loss of future earnings because of disability resulting from the injury. Loss of future earnings shall be reduced by any income from substitute work actually performed by the victim or by income the victim would have earned in available appropriate substitute work the victim was capable of performing but unreasonably failed to undertake; loss of earnings and loss of future earnings shall be determined on the basis of the victim's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $2,400 per month, whichever is less, or, in cases where the absences commenced more than 3 years from the date of the crime, on the basis of the net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the first absence, not to exceed $2,400 per month;

(14.5) loss of earnings for applicants or loss of future earnings for applicants. The applicant must demonstrate that the loss of earnings is a direct result of circumstances attributed to the crime including, but not limited to, court appearances, funeral preparation and bereavement, receipt of medical or psychological care; loss of earnings and loss of future earnings shall be determined on the basis of the applicant's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $2,400 per month, whichever is less, or, in cases where the absences commenced more than 3 years from the date of the crime, on the basis of the net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the first absence, not to exceed $2,400 per month;

(15) loss of support of the dependents of the victim. Loss of support shall be determined on the basis of the victim's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $2,400 per month, whichever is less, or, in cases where the absences commenced more than 3 years from the date of the crime, on the basis of the net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the first absence, not to exceed $2,400 per month. If a divorced or legally separated applicant is claiming loss of support for a minor child of the deceased, the amount of support for each child shall be based either on the amount of support pursuant to the judgment prior to the date of the deceased victim's injury or death, or, if the subject of pending litigation filed by or on behalf of the divorced or legally separated applicant prior to the injury or death, on the result of that litigation. Loss of support for minors shall be divided in proportion to the amount of the actual loss among those entitled to such compensation;

(16) in the case of death, expenses for reasonable funeral, burial, headstone, cremation, and travel and transport for survivors of homicide victims to secure bodies of deceased victims and to transport bodies for burial all of which may be awarded up to a maximum of $10,000 for each victim. Other individuals that have paid or become obligated to pay funeral, cremation, or burial expenses, including a headstone, for the deceased shall share a maximum award of $10,000, with the award divided in proportion to the amount of the actual loss among those entitled to compensation;

(17) in the case of dismemberment or desecration of a body, expenses for reasonable funeral, burial, headstone, and cremation, all of which may be awarded up to a maximum of $10,000 for each victim. Other individuals that have paid or become obligated to pay funeral, cremation, or burial expenses, including a headstone, for the deceased shall share a maximum award of $10,000, with the award divided in proportion to the amount of the actual loss among those entitled to compensation; and

(19) legal fees resulting from proceedings that became necessary solely because of the crime, including, but not limited to, establishing a legal guardian for the minor victim or the minor child of a victim, or obtaining a restraining order, no contact order, or order of protection, awarded up to a maximum of $3,500.

"Pecuniary loss" does not include pain and suffering or property loss or damage.

The changes made to this subsection by Public Act 101-652 apply to actions commenced or pending on or after January 1, 2022.

(i) "Replacement services loss" means expenses reasonably incurred in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the injured person would have performed, not for income, but for the benefit of himself or herself or his or her family, if he or she had not been injured.

(j) "Dependents replacement services loss" means loss reasonably incurred by dependents or private legal guardians of minor dependents after a victim's death in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the victim would have performed, not for income, but for their benefit, if he or she had not been fatally injured.

(k) "Survivor" means immediate family including a parent, stepfather, stepmother, child, brother, sister, or spouse.

(l) "Parent" means a natural parent, adopted parent, stepparent, or permanent legal guardian of another person.

(m) "Trafficking tattoo" is a tattoo which is applied to a victim in connection with the commission of a violation of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(n) "Dwelling" means a person's primary home. A person may be required to provide verification or proof of residence including, but not limited to, a lease agreement, utility bill, license registration, document showing the mailing address, pay stub, tax form, or notarized statement.

(o) "Dating relationship" means a current, continuous, romantic, courtship, or engagement relationship, often characterized by actions of an intimate or sexual nature or an expectation of affection. "Dating relationship" does not include a casual acquaintanceship or ordinary fraternization between persons in a business or social context.

(p) "Medical facility" means a facility for the delivery of health services. "Medical facility" includes, but is not limited to, a hospital, public health center, outpatient medical facility, federally qualified health center, migrant health center, community health center, or State correctional institution.

(q) "Mental health provider" means a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed clinical social worker, a licensed professional counselor, or a licensed clinical professional counselor as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(r) "Independent medical evaluation" means an assessment by a mental health provider who is not currently providing treatment to the applicant and will not seek reimbursement from the program for continuing treatment after the assessment. A provider may seek reimbursement for the assessment.

(Source: P.A. 102-27, eff. 6-25-21; 102-905, eff. 1-1-23; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-564, eff. 11-17-23; 103-1037, eff. 1-1-25.)

(740 ILCS 45/6.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 76.1)

Sec. 6.1. Right to compensation. A person is entitled to compensation under this Act if:

(a) Timing. Within 5 years of the occurrence of the crime, or within one year after a criminal charge of a person for an offense, upon which the claim is based, the applicant presents an application, under oath, to the Attorney General that is filed with the Court of Claims and on a form prescribed in accordance with Section 7.1 furnished by the Attorney General. If the person entitled to compensation is under 18 years of age or under other legal disability at the time of the occurrence or is determined by a court to be under a legal disability as a result of the occurrence, he or she may present the application required by this subsection within 3 years after he or she attains the age of 18 years or the disability is removed, as the case may be. Legal disability includes a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder.

(a-1) The Attorney General and the Court of Claims may accept an application presented after the period provided in subsection (a) if the Attorney General determines that the applicant had good cause for a delay.

(b) Notification. The appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 72 hours of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing the death or injury to the victim. If the notification was made more than 72 hours after the perpetration of the crime and the applicant establishes that the notice was timely under the circumstances, the Attorney General and the Court of Claims may extend the time for reporting to law enforcement.

For victims of offenses defined in Sections 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, and 12-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 7 days of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing death or injury to the victim or, if the notification was made more than 7 days after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that the notice was timely under the circumstances.

(b-1) If, in lieu of a law enforcement report, the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order, has presented to a medical facility for medical care or sexual assault evidence collection, has presented to a mental health provider for an independent medical evaluation, or is engaged in a legal proceeding involving a claim that the applicant or victim is a victim of human trafficking or law enforcement use of force, such action shall constitute appropriate notification under this Section.

(b-2) For purposes of notification under this Act, a victim who presents to a medical facility shall provide information sufficient to fulfill the requirements of this Section, except that the victim shall not be required to identify the offender to the medical provider.

(b-3) An applicant who is filing a claim that a law enforcement officer's use of force caused injury or death, may fulfill the notification requirement by complying with subsection (b), filing a complaint with the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, filing a lawsuit against a law enforcement officer or department, or presenting evidence that the victim has obtained a settlement or a verdict in a civil suit. An application filed by an individual presenting evidence of a verdict in a civil suit must be filed within one year after the resolution of the civil suit.

(b-4) An applicant may provide notification to a mental health provider regarding physical injuries of the victim or for victims of offenses defined in Sections 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.4, 12-7.3, 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, psychological injuries resulting from the commission of the crime for which the applicant is filing an application. The provider shall perform an independent medical evaluation and provide the provider's professional opinion as to whether the injuries claimed are consistent with having resulted from the commission of the crime for which the applicant is filing an application.

Upon completion of the independent medical evaluation, the mental health provider shall complete a certification form, signed under oath. The form shall be provided by the Office of the Attorney General and contain the following:

(1) The provider's name, title, license number and place of employment.

(2) Contact information for the provider.

(3) The provider's relationship with the applicant.

(4) The date the crime was reported to the provider.

(5) The reported crime.

(6) The date and location of the crime.

(7) If there are physical injuries, what injuries that the mental health provider can attest to being present on the day of the reporting if they are consistent with the crime reported to the provider.

(8) If there are psychological injuries, whether the provider in his or her professional opinion believes that the injuries presented on the day of the reporting are consistent with the crime reported to the provider.

(9) A detailed summary of the incident, as reported.

(10) Any documentation or photos that relate to the crime of violence for which the applicant is seeking reimbursement.

(c) Cooperation. The applicant has cooperated with law enforcement officials in the apprehension and prosecution of the assailant. If the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking or harassment no contact order, has presented to a medical facility for medical care or sexual assault evidence collection, obtained an independent medical examination from a mental health provider as described in subsection (b-4), has taken any of the actions described in subsection (b-3), or is engaged in a legal proceeding involving a claim that the applicant or victim is a victim of human trafficking, such action shall constitute cooperation under this subsection (c). If the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, the following shall constitute cooperation under this subsection (c):

(1) the applicant or the victim files a police report with a law enforcement agency;

(2) a mandated reporter reports the crime to law enforcement; or

(3) a person with firsthand knowledge of the crime reports the crime to law enforcement.

In evaluating cooperation, the Attorney General and Court of Claims may consider the victim's age, physical condition, psychological state, cultural or linguistic barriers, and compelling health and safety concerns, including, but not limited to, a reasonable fear of retaliation or harm that would jeopardize the well-being of the victim or the victim's family, and giving due consideration to the degree of cooperation that the victim or derivative victim is capable of in light of the presence of any of these factors, or any other factor the Attorney General considers relevant.

(d) If the applicant is not barred from receiving compensation under Section 10.1.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly apply to actions commenced or pending on or after January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-27, eff. 6-25-21; 103-1037, eff. 1-1-25.)

(740 ILCS 45/7.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 77.1)

Sec. 7.1. (a) The application shall set out:

(1) the name and address of the victim;

(2) if the victim is deceased, the name and address of the applicant and his or her relationship to the victim, the names and addresses of other persons dependent on the victim for their support and the extent to which each is so dependent, and other persons who may be entitled to compensation for a pecuniary loss;

(3) the date and nature of the crime on which the application for compensation is based;

(4) the date and place where notification under Section 6.1 was given and to whom, or the date and place of issuance of an order of protection, no contact order, evidence of a legal proceeding involving human trafficking, or in cases of a law enforcement officer's use of force, another form of documentation allowable under Section 6.1;

(4.5) if the victim is providing supplemental forms of documentation, that documentation, the date the victim obtained that other form of documentation and the type of documentation;

(5) the nature and extent of the injuries sustained by the victim, and the names and addresses of those giving medical and hospitalization treatment to the victim;

(6) the pecuniary loss to the applicant and to such other persons as are specified under item (2) resulting from the injury or death;

(7) the amount of benefits, payments, or awards, if any, payable under:

(a) the Workers' Compensation Act,

(b) the Dram Shop Act,

(c) any claim, demand, or cause of action based upon the crime-related injury or death,

(d) the Federal Medicare program,

(e) the State Public Aid program,

(f) Social Security Administration burial benefits,

(g) Veterans administration burial benefits,

(h) life, health, accident, vehicle, towing, or liability insurance,

(i) the Criminal Victims' Escrow Account Act,

(j) the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act,

(k) restitution, or

(l) any other source;

(8) releases authorizing the surrender to the Court of Claims or Attorney General of reports, documents and other information relating to the matters specified under this Act and rules promulgated in accordance with the Act;

(9) such other information as the Court of Claims or the Attorney General reasonably requires.

(b) The Attorney General may require that materials substantiating the facts stated in the application be submitted with that application.

(b-5) The victim or applicant may provide to the Attorney General a sworn statement by the victim or applicant that attests to the victim's or applicant's experience of a crime or crimes of violence, in addition to documentation required under this Act. If the victim or applicant has additional corroborating evidence beyond those described in this Act, the victim or applicant may provide the following documents: law enforcement report; medical records; confirmation of sexual assault evidence collection; order of protection; civil no contact order, stalking or harassment no contact order; photographs; letter from a service provider who serves victims of crime; affidavit from a witness of the crime of violence; court record; military record; or any other corroborating evidence. Such documentation or statement may be used to supplement required documentation to verify the incident but is not required. If an applicant is seeking an exception under subsection (b) or (c-1) of Section 6.1, the applicant shall provide any additional documentation, information, or statement that substantiates the facts stated in the application.

(c) An applicant, on his or her own motion, may file an amended application or additional substantiating materials to correct inadvertent errors or omissions at any time before the original application has been disposed of by the Court of Claims or the Attorney General. In either case, the filing of additional information or of an amended application shall be considered for the purpose of this Act to have been filed at the same time as the original application.

For claims submitted on or after January 1, 2022, an amended application or additional substantiating materials to correct inadvertent errors or omissions may be filed at any time before the original application is disposed of by the Attorney General or the Court of Claims.

(d) Determinations submitted by the Attorney General to the Court of Claims shall be available to the Court of Claims for review. The Attorney General shall provide the sources and evidence relied upon as a basis for a compensation determination.

(e) The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly apply to actions commenced or pending on or after January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-27, eff. 6-25-21; 102-905, eff. 1-1-23; 103-1037, eff. 1-1-25.)

Section 55. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 222.10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/222.10)

Sec. 222.10. Short form notification.

(a) Instead of personal service of an order of protection under Section 222, a sheriff, other law enforcement official, special process server, or personnel assigned by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release may serve a respondent with a short form notification. The short form notification must include the following items:

(1) The respondent's name.

(2) The respondent's date of birth, if known.

(3) The petitioner's name.

(4) The names of other protected parties.

(5) The date and county in which the order of protection was filed.

(6) The court file number.

(7) The hearing date and time, if known.

(8) The conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or handwritten.

(b) The short form notification must contain the following notice in bold print:

"The order is now enforceable. You must report to the office of the sheriff or the office of the circuit court in (name of county) County to obtain a copy of the order. You are subject to arrest and may be charged with a misdemeanor or felony if you violate any of the terms of the order."

(c) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved order against the respondent, a sheriff or other law enforcement official may detain the respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short form notification.

(d) When service is made by short form notification under this Section, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service.

(e) The Attorney General shall make the short form notification form available to law enforcement agencies in this State.

(f) A single short form notification form may be used for orders of protection under this Act, stalking or harassment no contact orders under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, and civil no contact orders under the Civil No Contact Order Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-1017, eff. 1-1-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

Section 60. The Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 61/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Address" means a residential street address, school address, or work address of an individual, as specified on the individual's application to be a program participant under this Act.

"Program participant" means a person certified as a program participant under this Act.

"Domestic violence" has the same meaning as in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 and includes a threat of domestic violence against an individual in a domestic situation, regardless of whether the domestic violence or threat has been reported to law enforcement officers.

"Human trafficking" means the practices set forth in subsection (b), (c), or (d) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, regardless of whether the victim has reported the trafficking to law enforcement officers.

"Sexual assault" has the same meaning as sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in the Civil No Contact Order Act. "Sexual assault" includes a threat of sexual assault, regardless of whether the sexual assault or threat has been reported to law enforcement officers.

"Stalking" has the same meaning as in the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act. "Stalking" includes a threat of stalking, regardless of whether the stalking or threat has been reported to law enforcement officers.

(Source: P.A. 101-270, eff. 1-1-21; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22.)

Section 65. The Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(750 ILCS 62/70)

Sec. 70. Case eligible for review by regional review team. A case eligible for review shall include a fatality or near-fatality that occurred within the geographic boundaries of the judicial circuit covered by the regional review team and a qualifying relationship.

(a) A fatality or near-fatality includes at least one of the following:

(1) a homicide, as defined in Article 9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 in which:

(A) the offender causes the death of the victim, the deceased, or others; or

(B) the survivor causes the death of the offender, the deceased, or others;

(2) a suicide or attempted suicide of the offender;

(3) a suicide of the victim;

(4) a suicide attempt of the survivor;

(5) a familicide in which the offender causes the death of the victim and other members of the victim's family including, but not limited to, minor or adult children and parents;

(6) the near-fatality of a survivor caused by the offender;

(7) the near-fatality of an offender caused by the survivor; or

(8) any other case involving domestic violence if a majority of the regional review team vote that a review of the case will advance the purposes of this Act.

(b) A qualifying relationship between the offender and the victim or survivor shall include instances or a history of domestic violence perpetrated by the offender against the victim or survivor and at least one of the following circumstances:

(1) the offender and the victim or survivor:

(A) resided together or shared a common dwelling at any time;

(B) have or are alleged to have a child in common; or

(C) are or were engaged, married, divorced, separated, or had a dating or romantic relationship, regardless of whether they had sexual relations;

(2) the offender stalked the victim or survivor as described in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(3) the victim or survivor filed for an order of protection against the offender under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-2.5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(4) the victim or survivor filed for a civil no contact order against the offender under the Civil No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-14.5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) the victim or survivor filed for a stalking or harassment no contact order against the offender under the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act or Section 112A-2.5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(6) the offender violated an order of protection, civil no contact order, or stalking or harassment no contact order obtained by the victim or survivor;

(7) the deceased resided in the same household as, was present at the workplace of, was in the proximity of, or was related by blood or affinity to a victim or survivor;

(8) the deceased was a law enforcement officer, emergency medical technician, or other responder to a domestic violence incident between the offender and the victim or survivor; or

(9) a relationship between the offender and the victim, survivor, or deceased exists that a majority of the regional review team votes warrants review of the case to advance the purposes of this Act.

(c) A case eligible for review does not require criminal charges or a conviction.

(d) Any criminal investigation, civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding, and appeals shall be complete for a case to be eligible for review.

(Source: P.A. 102-520, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 70. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 1-103 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/1-103) (from Ch. 68, par. 1-103)

Sec. 1-103. General definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the term:

(A) Age. "Age" means the chronological age of a person who is at least 40 years old, except with regard to any practice described in Section 2-102, insofar as that practice concerns training or apprenticeship programs. In the case of training or apprenticeship programs, for the purposes of Section 2-102, "age" means the chronological age of a person who is 18 but not yet 40 years old.

(B) Aggrieved party. "Aggrieved party" means a person who is alleged or proved to have been injured by a civil rights violation or believes he or she will be injured by a civil rights violation under Article 3 that is about to occur.

(B-5) Arrest record. "Arrest record" means:

(1) an arrest not leading to a conviction;

(2) a juvenile record; or

(3) criminal history record information ordered expunged, sealed, or impounded under Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(C) Charge. "Charge" means an allegation filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or initiated by the Department under its authority.

(D) Civil rights violation. "Civil rights violation" includes and shall be limited to only those specific acts set forth in Sections 2-102, 2-103, 2-105, 3-102, 3-102.1, 3-103, 3-102.10, 3-104.1, 3-105, 3-105.1, 4-102, 4-103, 5-102, 5A-102, 6-101, 6-101.5, and 6-102 of this Act.

(E) Commission. "Commission" means the Human Rights Commission created by this Act.

(F) Complaint. "Complaint" means the formal pleading filed by the Department with the Commission following an investigation and finding of substantial evidence of a civil rights violation.

(G) Complainant. "Complainant" means a person including the Department who files a charge of civil rights violation with the Department or the Commission.

(G-5) Conviction record. "Conviction record" means information indicating that a person has been convicted of a felony, misdemeanor or other criminal offense, placed on probation, fined, imprisoned, or paroled pursuant to any law enforcement or military authority.

(H) Department. "Department" means the Department of Human Rights created by this Act.

(I) Disability.

(1) "Disability" means a determinable physical or mental characteristic of a person, including, but not limited to, a determinable physical characteristic which necessitates the person's use of a guide, hearing or support dog, the history of such characteristic, or the perception of such characteristic by the person complained against, which may result from disease, injury, congenital condition of birth or functional disorder and which characteristic:

(a) For purposes of Article 2, is unrelated to the person's ability to perform the duties of a particular job or position and, pursuant to Section 2-104 of this Act, a person's illegal use of drugs or alcohol is not a disability;

(b) For purposes of Article 3, is unrelated to the person's ability to acquire, rent, or maintain a housing accommodation;

(c) For purposes of Article 4, is unrelated to a person's ability to repay;

(d) For purposes of Article 5, is unrelated to a person's ability to utilize and benefit from a place of public accommodation;

(e) For purposes of Article 5, also includes any mental, psychological, or developmental disability, including autism spectrum disorders.

(2) Discrimination based on disability includes unlawful discrimination against an individual because of the individual's association with a person with a disability.

(J) Marital status. "Marital status" means the legal status of being married, single, separated, divorced, or widowed.

(J-1) Military status. "Military status" means a person's status on active duty in or status as a veteran of the armed forces of the United States, status as a current member or veteran of any reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the United States Army Reserve, United States Marine Corps Reserve, United States Navy Reserve, United States Air Force Reserve, and United States Coast Guard Reserve, or status as a current member or veteran of the Illinois Army National Guard or Illinois Air National Guard.

(K) National origin. "National origin" means the place in which a person or one of his or her ancestors was born.

(K-5) "Order of protection status" means a person's status as being a person protected under an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the Stalking or Harassment No Contact Order Act, or the Civil No Contact Order Act, or an order of protection issued by a court of another state.

(L) Person. "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations or organizations, labor organizations, labor unions, joint apprenticeship committees, or union labor associations, corporations, the State of Illinois and its instrumentalities, political subdivisions, units of local government, legal representatives, trustees in bankruptcy or receivers.

(L-5) Pregnancy. "Pregnancy" means pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth.

(M) Public contract. "Public contract" includes every contract to which the State, any of its political subdivisions, or any municipal corporation is a party.

(M-5) Race. "Race" includes traits associated with race, including, but not limited to, hair texture and protective hairstyles such as braids, locks, and twists.

(N) Religion. "Religion" includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, except that with respect to employers, for the purposes of Article 2, "religion" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (F) of Section 2-101.

(O) Sex. "Sex" means the status of being male or female.

(O-1) Sexual orientation. "Sexual orientation" means actual or perceived heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, or gender-related identity, whether or not traditionally associated with the person's designated sex at birth. "Sexual orientation" does not include a physical or sexual attraction to a minor by an adult.

(O-2) Reproductive Health Decisions. "Reproductive Health Decisions" means a person's decisions regarding the person's use of: contraception; fertility or sterilization care; assisted reproductive technologies; miscarriage management care; healthcare related to the continuation or termination of pregnancy; or prenatal, intranatal, or postnatal care.

(O-5) Source of income. "Source of income" means the lawful manner by which an individual supports himself or herself and his or her dependents.

(P) Unfavorable military discharge. "Unfavorable military discharge" includes discharges from the Armed Forces of the United States, their Reserve components, or any National Guard or Naval Militia which are classified as RE-3 or the equivalent thereof, but does not include those characterized as RE-4 or "Dishonorable".

(Q) Unlawful discrimination. "Unlawful discrimination" means discrimination against a person because of his or her actual or perceived: race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, reproductive health decisions, or unfavorable discharge from military service as those terms are defined in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-362, eff. 1-1-22; 102-419, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-896, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1102, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-785, eff. 1-1-25.)