SB2475sam002 104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Sen. Mattie Hunter

Filed: 4/2/2025

10400SB2475sam002 LRB104 10922 KTG 24747 a

AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 2475

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 2475 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 5. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1-17 and 10-8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded, or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health Care Worker Registry" or "Registry" means the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Material obstruction of an investigation" means the purposeful interference with an investigation of physical abuse, sexual abuse, mental abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation and includes, but is not limited to, the withholding or altering of documentation or recorded evidence; influencing, threatening, or impeding witness testimony; presenting untruthful information during an interview; failing to cooperate with an investigation conducted by the Office of the Inspector General. If an employee, following a criminal investigation of physical abuse, sexual abuse, mental abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, is convicted of an offense that is factually predicated on the employee presenting untruthful information during the course of the investigation, that offense constitutes obstruction of an investigation. Obstruction of an investigation does not include: an employee's lawful exercising of his or her constitutional right against self-incrimination, an employee invoking his or her lawful rights to union representation as provided by a collective bargaining agreement or the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, or a union representative's lawful activities providing representation under a collective bargaining agreement or the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act. Obstruction of an investigation is considered material when it could significantly impair an investigator's ability to gather all relevant facts. An employee shall not be placed on the Health Care Worker Registry for presenting untruthful information during an interview conducted by the Office of the Inspector General, unless, prior to the interview, the employee was provided with any previous signed statements he or she made during the course of the investigation.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Presenting untruthful information" means making a false statement, material to an investigation of physical abuse, sexual abuse, mental abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation, knowing the statement is false.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation. "Recommendation" can also mean an admonition to correct a systemic issue, problem or deficiency during a review.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations and the performance of site visits and reviews of facilities and community agencies. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. The Inspector General shall also investigate allegations of material obstruction of an investigation by an employee. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. The Inspector General shall conduct annual site visits of each facility and may conduct reviews of facilities and community agencies. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, and material obstruction of an investigation.

(g-5) Site visits and review authority.

(1) Site visits. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation.

(2) Review authority. In response to complaints or information gathered from investigations, the Inspector General shall have and may exercise the authority to initiate reviews of facilities and agencies related to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation. Upon concluding a review, the Inspector General shall issue a written report setting forth its conclusions and recommendations. The report shall be distributed to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency that was the subject of review. Within 45 calendar days, the facility or agency shall submit a written response addressing the Inspector General's conclusions and recommendations and, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken, if applicable, to: (i) protect the individual or individuals; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation. The Inspector General shall further ensure (i) every person authorized to conduct investigations at community agencies receives ongoing training in Title 59, Parts 115, 116, and 119 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and (ii) every person authorized to conduct investigations shall receive ongoing training in Title 59, Part 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, conducting reviews of facilities and agencies, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit, written response compliance check, or review fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and reviews and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement. Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Illinois State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Illinois State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, finding an allegation is unsubstantiated, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation. The director of the facility or agency shall be responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of the investigative report consistent with State and federal law. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the victim, the victim's guardian, and the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released to the Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, and to the director of the facility or agency when a recommendation is made and pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order. Unredacted investigative reports, as well as raw data, may be shared with a local law enforcement entity, a State's Attorney's office, or a county coroner's office upon written request. Unredacted investigative reports, as well as raw data, may be shared with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation when there is a substantiated finding against a person licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation who is within the Office of the Inspector General's jurisdiction, upon written request. If, during its investigation, the Office of the Inspector General found credible evidence of neglect by a person licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation who is not within the Office's jurisdiction, the Office may provide an unfounded or unsubstantiated investigative report or death report, as well as raw data, with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, upon written request.

(n) Written responses, clarification requests, and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Requests for clarification. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General clarify the finding or findings for which clarification is sought.

(3) Requests for reconsideration. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of the Inspector General reconsider the finding or findings or the recommendations. A request for reconsideration shall be subject to a multi-layer review and shall include at least one reviewer who did not participate in the investigation or approval of the original investigative report. After the multi-layer review process has been completed, the Inspector General shall make the final determination on the reconsideration request. The investigation shall be reopened if the reconsideration determination finds that additional information is needed to complete the investigative record.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure, or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30-day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health Care Worker Registry.

(1) Reporting to the Registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report prepared by the Office of the Inspector General containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, egregious neglect of an individual, or material obstruction of an investigation, unless the Inspector General requests a stipulated disposition of the investigative report that does not include the reporting of the employee's name to the Health Care Worker Registry and the Secretary of Human Services agrees with the requested stipulated disposition.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the Registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the Registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the Registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the Registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at Registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of physical abuse, sexual abuse, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the Registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, egregious neglect, financial exploitation, or material obstruction of an investigation is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the Registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(6) Removal from Registry. At any time after the report to the Registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the Registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the Registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving Health Care Worker Registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or parents of persons with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that an individual is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to an individual in contravention of that individual's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the individual's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to an individual be considered abuse under this Section if the individual has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-883, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1071, eff. 6-10-22; 103-76, eff. 6-9-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-752, eff. 1-1-25.)

(20 ILCS 1305/10-8)

Sec. 10-8. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund; grants; scientific review committee. The Autism Research Checkoff Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. From appropriations to the Department from the Fund, the Department must make grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding research concerning the disorder of autism. For purposes of this Section, the term "research" includes, without limitation, expenditures to develop and advance the understanding, techniques, and modalities effective in the detection, prevention, screening, and treatment of autism and may include clinical trials. No more than 20% of the grant funds may be used for institutional overhead costs, indirect costs, other organizational levies, or costs of community-based support services.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, income tax checkoff receipts and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

Each year, grantees of the grants provided under this Section must submit a written report to the Department that sets forth the types of research that is conducted with the grant moneys and the status of that research.

The Department shall promulgate rules for the creation of a scientific review committee to review and assess applications for the grants authorized under this Section. The Committee shall serve without compensation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on July 1, 2025, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Autism Research Checkoff Fund into the Autism Awareness Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, the Autism Research Checkoff Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the Autism Awareness Fund. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2026.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

Section 10. The Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 11 and 17 by adding Section 11a as follows:

(20 ILCS 2405/11) (from Ch. 23, par. 3442)

Sec. 11. Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt. The Department shall operate and maintain the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt for the care and education of educable young adults with one or more physical disabilities and provide in connection therewith nursing and medical care and academic, occupational, and related training to such young adults.

Any Illinois resident under the age of 22 years who is educable but has such a severe physical disability as a result of cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, spina bifida, or other cause that he or she is unable to take advantage of the system of free education in the State of Illinois, may be admitted to the Center or be entitled to services and facilities provided hereunder. Young adults shall be admitted to the Center or be eligible for such services and facilities only after diagnosis according to procedures approved for this purpose. The Department may avail itself of the services of other public or private agencies in determining any young adult's eligibility for admission to, or discharge from, the Center.

The Department may call upon other agencies of the State for such services as they are equipped to render in the care of young adults with one or more physical disabilities, and such agencies are instructed to render those services which are consistent with their legal and administrative responsibilities.

(Source: P.A. 102-264, eff. 8-6-21.)

(20 ILCS 2405/11a new)

Sec. 11a. Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Wood. The Department shall operate and maintain the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Wood for the education of individuals who are blind, visually impaired, or DeafBlind and are seeking competitive integrated employment.

Individuals who are blind, visually impaired, or DeafBlind seeking services through the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Wood must meet all requirements set forth in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 730.

The Department may avail itself of the services of other public or private agencies in determining eligibility for admission to or discharge from the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Wood.

The Department may call upon other agencies of the State for such services as they are equipped to render in the education of individuals who are blind, visually impaired, or DeafBlind seeking competitive integrated employment, and such agencies are instructed to render those services which are consistent with their legal and administrative responsibilities.

(20 ILCS 2405/17) (from Ch. 23, par. 3448)

Sec. 17. Child Abuse and Neglect Reports.

(a) All applicants for employment at the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois Center for the Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt, and the Illinois Center for the Rehabilitation and Education-Wood shall as a condition of employment authorize, in writing on a form prescribed by the Department of Children and Family Services, an investigation of the Central Register, as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to ascertain if the applicant has been determined to be a perpetrator in an indicated report of child abuse or neglect.

(b) The information concerning a prospective employee obtained by the Department shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of The Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted outside the Department, except as provided in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and shall not be transmitted to anyone within the Department except as needed for the purposes of evaluation of an application for employment.

(Source: P.A. 88-172.)

Section 12. The School Code is amended by changing Section 14-8.02 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, evaluation, and placement of children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child and, if the child is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and, in the case of the parent, be informed of his or her right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if he or she disagrees with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent's written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent, the State Board of Education, and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while awaiting placement in the appropriate special education class. At the child's initial IEP meeting and at each annual review meeting, the child's IEP team shall provide the child's parent or guardian and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services with a written notification that informs the parent or guardian or the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services that the IEP team is required to consider whether the child requires assistive technology in order to receive free, appropriate public education. The notification must also include a toll-free telephone number and internet address for the State's assistive technology program.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired or has an orthopedic impairment or physical disability and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Wood, or the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include, without limitation, information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child or, if applicable, the Department of Children and Family Services' Office of Education and Transition Services prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. For a parent, such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. The State Superintendent shall revise the uniform notices required by this subsection (g) to reflect current law and procedures at least once every 2 years. Any parent who is deaf or does not normally communicate using spoken English and who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program or attends a multidisciplinary conference shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter. The State Board of Education must adopt rules to establish the criteria, standards, and competencies for a bilingual language interpreter who attends an individualized education program meeting under this subsection to assist a parent who has limited English proficiency.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed-upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(h) In the development of the individualized education program or federal Section 504 plan for a student, if the student needs extra accommodation during emergencies, including natural disasters or an active shooter situation, then that accommodation shall be taken into account when developing the student's individualized education program or federal Section 504 plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-264, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1072, eff. 6-10-22; 103-197, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

Section 15. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, and 10, as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. The purpose of this Act is to promote the operation of community-integrated living arrangements for the supervision of persons with mental illness and persons with a developmental disability by licensing community mental health or developmental services agencies to provide an array of community-integrated living arrangements for such individuals. These community-integrated living arrangements are intended to promote independence in daily living and economic self-sufficiency. The licensed community mental health or developmental services agencies in turn shall be required to certify to the Department that the programs and placements provided in the community-integrated living arrangements comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(Source: P.A. 88-380.)

(210 ILCS 135/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Applicant" means a person, group of persons, association, partnership or corporation that applies for a license as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act.

(b) "Community mental health or developmental services agency" or "agency" means a public or private agency, association, partnership, corporation or organization which, pursuant to this Act, certifies community-integrated living arrangements for persons with mental illness or persons with a developmental disability.

(c) "Department" means the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities).

(d) "Community-integrated living arrangement" means a living arrangement certified by a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act where 8 or fewer recipients with mental illness or recipients with a developmental disability who reside under the supervision of the agency. Examples of community-integrated living arrangements include but are not limited to the following:

(1) "Adult foster care", a living arrangement for recipients in residences of families unrelated to them, for the purpose of providing family care for the recipients on a full-time basis;

(2) "Assisted residential care", an independent living arrangement where recipients are intermittently supervised by off-site staff;

(3) "Crisis residential care", a non-medical living arrangement where recipients in need of non-medical, crisis services are supervised by on-site staff 24 hours a day;

(4) "Home individual programs", living arrangements for 2 unrelated adults outside the family home;

(5) "Supported residential care", a living arrangement where recipients are supervised by on-site staff and such supervision is provided less than 24 hours a day;

(6) "Community residential alternatives", as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act; and

(7) "Special needs trust-supported residential care", a living arrangement where recipients are supervised by on-site staff and that supervision is provided 24 hours per day or less, as dictated by the needs of the recipients, and determined by service providers. As used in this item (7), "special needs trust" means a trust for the benefit of a beneficiary with a disability as described in Section 1213 of the Illinois Trust Code.

(e) "Recipient" means a person who has received, is receiving, or is in need of treatment or habilitation as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(f) "Unrelated" means that persons residing together in programs or placements certified by a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act do not have any of the following relationships by blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.

(Source: P.A. 101-48, eff. 1-1-20.)

(210 ILCS 135/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1704)

Sec. 4. (a) Any community mental health or developmental services agency who wishes to develop and support a variety of community-integrated living arrangements may do so pursuant to a license issued by the Department under this Act. However, programs established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall remain subject thereto, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(b) The system of licensure established under this Act shall be for the purposes of:

(1) ensuring that all recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) ensuring that recipients' rights are protected and that all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations;

(3) maintaining the integrity of communities by requiring regular monitoring and inspection of placements and other services provided in community-integrated living arrangements.

The licensure system shall be administered by a quality assurance unit within the Department which shall be administratively independent of units responsible for funding of agencies or community services.

(c) As a condition of being licensed by the Department as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, the agency shall certify to the Department that:

(1) all recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients are supervised by the agency; and

(3) all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(c-5) Each developmental services agency licensed under this Act shall submit an annual report to the Department, as a contractual requirement between the Department and the developmental services agency, certifying that all legislatively or administratively mandated wage increases to benefit workers are passed through in accordance with the legislative or administrative mandate. The Department shall determine the manner and form of the annual report.

(d) An applicant for licensure as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act shall submit an application pursuant to the application process established by the Department by rule and shall pay an application fee in an amount established by the Department, which amount shall not be more than $200.

(e) If an applicant meets the requirements established by the Department to be licensed as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, after payment of the licensing fee, the Department shall issue a license valid for 3 years from the date thereof unless suspended or revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the agency.

(f) Upon application to the Department, the Department may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for up to a 2-year period to allow the holder of such permit reasonable time to become eligible for a license under this Act.

(g)(1) The Department may conduct site visits to an agency licensed under this Act, or to any program or placement certified by the agency, and inspect the records or premises, or both, of such agency, program or placement as it deems appropriate, for the purpose of determining compliance with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations. The Department shall conduct inspections of the records and premises of each community-integrated living arrangement certified under this Act at least once every 2 years.

(2) If the Department determines that an agency licensed under this Act is not in compliance with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated under this Act, the Department shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated, and that the licensee submit a plan of correction to the Department if required. The notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action which the Department might take pursuant to this Act and of the right to a hearing.

(g-5) As determined by the Department, a disproportionate number or percentage of licensure complaints; a disproportionate number or percentage of substantiated cases of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving an agency; an apparent unnatural death of an individual served by an agency; any egregious or life-threatening abuse or neglect within an agency; or any other significant event as determined by the Department shall initiate a review of the agency's license by the Department, as well as a review of its service agreement for funding. The Department shall adopt rules to establish the process by which the determination to initiate a review shall be made and the timeframe to initiate a review upon the making of such determination.

(h) Upon the expiration of any license issued under this Act, a license renewal application shall be required of and a license renewal fee in an amount established by the Department shall be charged to a community mental health or developmental services agency, provided that such fee shall not be more than $200.

(i) A public or private agency, association, partnership, corporation, or organization that has had a license revoked under subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act may not apply for or possess a license under a different name.

(Source: P.A. 102-944, eff. 1-1-23.)

(210 ILCS 135/6) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1706)

Sec. 6. (a) The Department shall deny an application for a license, or revoke or refuse to renew the license of a community mental health or developmental services agency, or refuse to issue a license to the holder of a temporary permit, if the Department determines that the applicant, agency or permit holder has not complied with a provision of this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or applicable Department rules and regulations. Specific grounds for denial or revocation of a license, or refusal to renew a license or to issue a license to the holder of a temporary permit, shall include but not be limited to:

(1) Submission of false information either on Department licensure forms or during an inspection;

(2) Refusal to allow an inspection to occur;

(3) Violation of this Act or rules and regulations promulgated under this Act;

(4) Violation of the rights of a recipient;

(5) Failure to submit or implement a plan of correction within the specified time period; or

(6) Failure to submit a workplace violence prevention plan in compliance with the Health Care Workplace Violence Prevention Act.

(b) If the Department determines that the operation of a community mental health or developmental services agency or one or more of the programs or placements certified by the agency under this Act jeopardizes the health, safety or welfare of the recipients served by the agency, the Department may immediately revoke the agency's license and may direct the agency to withdraw recipients from any such program or placement. If an agency's license is revoked under this subsection, then the Department or the Department's agents shall have unimpeded, immediate, and full access to the recipients served by that agency and the recipients' medications, records, and personal possessions in order to ensure a timely, safe, and smooth transition of those individuals from the program or placement.

(c) Upon revocation of an agency's license under subsection (b) of this Section, the agency shall continue providing for the health, safety, and welfare of the individuals that the agency was serving at the time the agency's license was revoked during the period of transition. The private, not-for-profit corporation designated by the Governor to administer the State plan to protect and advocate for the rights of persons with developmental disabilities under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, contingent on State funding from the Department, shall have unimpeded, immediate, and full access to recipients and recipients' guardians to inform them of the recipients' and recipients' guardians' rights and options during the revocation and transition process.

(d) The Office of Inspector General of the Department of Human Services shall continue to have jurisdiction over an agency and the individuals it served at the time the agency's license was revoked for up to one year after the date that the license was revoked.

(Source: P.A. 100-313, eff. 8-24-17.)

(210 ILCS 135/8) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1708)

Sec. 8. (a) Any community mental health or developmental services agency that continues to operate after its license is revoked under this Act, or after its license expires and the Department refuses to renew the license, is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $2,000, and each day of violation is a separate offense. All fines shall be paid to the Mental Health Fund.

(b) Whenever the Department is advised or has reason to believe that any person, group of persons, association, partnership or corporation is operating an agency without a license or permit in violation of this Act, the Department may investigate to ascertain the facts, may notify the person or other entity that he is in violation of this Act, and may make referrals to appropriate investigatory or law enforcement agencies. Any person, group of persons, association, partnership or corporation who continues to operate a community mental health or developmental services agency as defined in subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act without a license or temporary permit issued by the Department, after receiving notice from the Department that such operation is in violation of this Act, shall be guilty of a business offense and shall be fined an amount in excess of $500 but not exceeding $2,000, and each day of operation after receiving such notice is a separate offense. All fines shall be paid to the Mental Health Fund.

(Source: P.A. 85-1250.)

(210 ILCS 135/10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1710)

Sec. 10. Community integration.

(a) Community-integrated living arrangements shall be located so as to enable residents to participate in and be integrated into their community or neighborhood. The location of such arrangements shall promote community integration of persons with developmental mental disabilities.

(b) Beginning January 1, 1990, no Department of State government, as defined in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, shall place any person in or utilize any services of a community-integrated living arrangement which is not certified by an agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-602, eff. 7-13-18.)

Section 20. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

"Applicant" means an individual enrolling in a training program, seeking employment, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, with a health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional offer of employment.

"Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department of Public Health indicating that the applicant does not have a record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated in Section 25.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act.

The entity responsible for inspecting and licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for interpreting this definition with regard to the health care employers that it licenses.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Disqualifying offenses" means those offenses set forth in Section 25 of this Act.

"Employee" means any individual hired, employed, or retained, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, to which this Act applies.

"Finding" means the Department's determination of whether an allegation is verified and substantiated.

"Fingerprint-based criminal history records check" means a livescan fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

"Health care employer" means:

(1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:

(i) a community living facility, as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(iii) a long-term care facility;

(iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(v) a hospice care program or volunteer hospice program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act;

(vii) (blank);

(viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act;

(ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the Respite Program Act;

(ix-a) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(x) a supportive living program, as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xi) early childhood intervention programs as described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;

(xii) the University of Illinois Hospital, Chicago;

(xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging through the Community Care Program;

(xiv) programs certified to participate in the Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency Centers;

(xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(2) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(3) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, including any regional long term care ombudsman programs under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only for the purpose of securing background checks;

(5) the Department of Corrections or a third-party vendor employing certified nursing assistants working with the Department of Corrections;

(6) a financial management services entity contracted with the Department of Human Services, Division of Developmental Disabilities, which is not the employer of personal support workers but supports individuals receiving participant directed services, to administer the individuals' employer authority. A financial management services entity assists participants in completing background check requirements, collecting and processing time sheets for support workers, and processing payroll, withholding, filing, and payment of applicable federal, State, and local employment-related taxes and insurance; or

(7) a Comprehensive Community Mental Health Center certified by the Department of Human Services.

"Initiate" means obtaining from a student, applicant, or employee his or her social security number, demographics, a disclosure statement, and an authorization for the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a fingerprint-based criminal history records check; transmitting this information electronically to the Department of Public Health; conducting Internet searches on certain web sites, including without limitation the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the Department of Corrections' Sex Offender Search Engine, the Department of Corrections' Inmate Search Engine, the Department of Corrections Wanted Fugitives Search Engine, the National Sex Offender Public Registry, and the List of Excluded Individuals and Entities database on the website of the Health and Human Services Office of Inspector General to determine if the applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender, has been a prison inmate, or has committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud, or conducting similar searches as defined by rule; and having the student, applicant, or employee's fingerprints collected and transmitted electronically to the Illinois State Police.

"Livescan vendor" means an entity whose equipment has been certified by the Illinois State Police to collect an individual's demographics and inkless fingerprints and, in a manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police and the Department of Public Health, electronically transmit the fingerprints and required data to the Illinois State Police and a daily file of required data to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall negotiate a contract with one or more vendors that effectively demonstrate that the vendor has 2 or more years of experience transmitting fingerprints electronically to the Illinois State Police and that the vendor can successfully transmit the required data in a manner prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Vendor authorization may be further defined by administrative rule.

"Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the State or certified under federal law as a long-term care facility, including without limitation facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, a supportive living facility, an assisted living establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered as a board and care home.

"Resident" means a person, individual, or patient under the direct care of a health care employer or who has been provided goods or services by a health care employer.

(Source: P.A. 102-226, eff. 7-30-21; 102-503, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-303, eff. 1-1-24; 103-1032, eff. 1-1-25.)

Section 23. The Department of Early Childhood Act is amended by changing Section 10-65 as follows:

(325 ILCS 3/10-65)

Sec. 10-65. Individualized Family Service Plans.

(a) Each eligible infant or toddler and that infant's or toddler's family shall receive:

(1) timely, comprehensive, multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of each eligible infant and toddler, and assessment of the concerns and priorities of the families to appropriately assist them in meeting their needs and identify supports and services to meet those needs; and

(2) a written Individualized Family Service Plan developed by a multidisciplinary team which includes the parent or guardian. The individualized family service plan shall be based on the multidisciplinary team's assessment of the resources, priorities, and concerns of the family and its identification of the supports and services necessary to enhance the family's capacity to meet the developmental needs of the infant or toddler, and shall include the identification of services appropriate to meet those needs, including the frequency, intensity, and method of delivering services. During and as part of the initial development of the individualized family services plan, and any periodic reviews of the plan, the multidisciplinary team may seek consultation from the lead agency's designated experts, if any, to help determine appropriate services and the frequency and intensity of those services. All services in the individualized family services plan must be justified by the multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of the infant or toddler and must be appropriate to meet those needs. At the periodic reviews, the team shall determine whether modification or revision of the outcomes or services is necessary.

(b) The Individualized Family Service Plan shall be evaluated once a year and the family shall be provided a review of the Plan at 6-month intervals or more often where appropriate based on infant or toddler and family needs. The lead agency shall create a quality review process regarding Individualized Family Service Plan development and changes thereto, to monitor and help ensure that resources are being used to provide appropriate early intervention services.

(c) The initial evaluation and initial assessment and initial Plan meeting must be held within 45 days after the initial contact with the early intervention services system. The 45-day timeline does not apply for any period when the child or parent is unavailable to complete the initial evaluation, the initial assessments of the child and family, or the initial Plan meeting, due to exceptional family circumstances that are documented in the child's early intervention records, or when the parent has not provided consent for the initial evaluation or the initial assessment of the child despite documented, repeated attempts to obtain parental consent. As soon as exceptional family circumstances no longer exist or parental consent has been obtained, the initial evaluation, the initial assessment, and the initial Plan meeting must be completed as soon as possible. With parental consent, early intervention services may commence before the completion of the comprehensive assessment and development of the Plan. All early intervention services shall be initiated as soon as possible but not later than 30 calendar days after the consent of the parent or guardian has been obtained for the individualized family service plan, in accordance with rules adopted by the lead agency.

(d) Parents must be informed that early intervention services shall be provided to each eligible infant and toddler, to the maximum extent appropriate, in the natural environment, which may include the home or other community settings. Parents must also be informed of the availability of early intervention services provided through telehealth services. Parents shall make the final decision to accept or decline early intervention services, including whether accepted services are delivered in person or via telehealth services. A decision to decline such services shall not be a basis for administrative determination of parental fitness, or other findings or sanctions against the parents. Parameters of the Plan shall be set forth in rules.

(e) The regional intake offices shall explain to each family, orally and in writing, all of the following:

(1) That the early intervention program will pay for all early intervention services set forth in the individualized family service plan that are not covered or paid under the family's public or private insurance plan or policy and not eligible for payment through any other third party payor.

(2) That services will not be delayed due to any rules or restrictions under the family's insurance plan or policy.

(3) That the family may request, with appropriate documentation supporting the request, a determination of an exemption from private insurance use under Section 10-100.

(4) That responsibility for co-payments or co-insurance under a family's private insurance plan or policy will be transferred to the lead agency's central billing office.

(5) That families will be responsible for payments of family fees, which will be based on a sliding scale according to the State's definition of ability to pay which is comparing household size and income to the sliding scale and considering out-of-pocket medical or disaster expenses, and that these fees are payable to the central billing office. Families who fail to provide income information shall be charged the maximum amount on the sliding scale.

(f) The individualized family service plan must state whether the family has private insurance coverage and, if the family has such coverage, must have attached to it a copy of the family's insurance identification card or otherwise include all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the insurance carrier.

(2) The contract number and policy number of the insurance plan.

(3) The name, address, and social security number of the primary insured.

(4) The beginning date of the insurance benefit year.

(g) A copy of the individualized family service plan must be provided to each enrolled provider who is providing early intervention services to the child who is the subject of that plan.

(h) Children receiving services under this Act shall receive a smooth and effective transition by their third birthday consistent with federal regulations adopted pursuant to Sections 1431 through 1444 of Title 20 of the United States Code. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly Beginning January 1, 2022, children who receive early intervention services prior to their third birthday, who have been found eligible for early childhood special education services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A), and this Section, who have an individualized education program developed and are found eligible for an individualized education program under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A), and under Section 14-8.02 of the School Code, and whose birthday falls between May 1 and August 31 may continue to receive early intervention services until the beginning of the school year following their third birthday in order to minimize gaps in services, ensure better continuity of care, and align practices for the enrollment of preschool children with special needs to the enrollment practices of typically developing preschool children.

(Source: P.A. 103-594, eff. 6-25-24.)

Section 25. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/11) (from Ch. 23, par. 4161)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 11. Individualized Family Service Plans.

(a) Each eligible infant or toddler and that infant's or toddler's family shall receive:

(1) timely, comprehensive, multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of each eligible infant and toddler, and assessment of the concerns and priorities of the families to appropriately assist them in meeting their needs and identify supports and services to meet those needs; and

(2) a written Individualized Family Service Plan developed by a multidisciplinary team which includes the parent or guardian. The individualized family service plan shall be based on the multidisciplinary team's assessment of the resources, priorities, and concerns of the family and its identification of the supports and services necessary to enhance the family's capacity to meet the developmental needs of the infant or toddler, and shall include the identification of services appropriate to meet those needs, including the frequency, intensity, and method of delivering services. During and as part of the initial development of the individualized family services plan, and any periodic reviews of the plan, the multidisciplinary team may seek consultation from the lead agency's designated experts, if any, to help determine appropriate services and the frequency and intensity of those services. All services in the individualized family services plan must be justified by the multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of the infant or toddler and must be appropriate to meet those needs. At the periodic reviews, the team shall determine whether modification or revision of the outcomes or services is necessary.

(b) The Individualized Family Service Plan shall be evaluated once a year and the family shall be provided a review of the Plan at 6-month intervals or more often where appropriate based on infant or toddler and family needs. The lead agency shall create a quality review process regarding Individualized Family Service Plan development and changes thereto, to monitor and help ensure that resources are being used to provide appropriate early intervention services.

(c) The initial evaluation and initial assessment and initial Plan meeting must be held within 45 days after the initial contact with the early intervention services system. The 45-day timeline does not apply for any period when the child or parent is unavailable to complete the initial evaluation, the initial assessments of the child and family, or the initial Plan meeting, due to exceptional family circumstances that are documented in the child's early intervention records, or when the parent has not provided consent for the initial evaluation or the initial assessment of the child despite documented, repeated attempts to obtain parental consent. As soon as exceptional family circumstances no longer exist or parental consent has been obtained, the initial evaluation, the initial assessment, and the initial Plan meeting must be completed as soon as possible. With parental consent, early intervention services may commence before the completion of the comprehensive assessment and development of the Plan. All early intervention services shall be initiated as soon as possible but not later than 30 calendar days after the consent of the parent or guardian has been obtained for the individualized family service plan, in accordance with rules adopted by the Department of Human Services.

(d) Parents must be informed that early intervention services shall be provided to each eligible infant and toddler, to the maximum extent appropriate, in the natural environment, which may include the home or other community settings. Parents must also be informed of the availability of early intervention services provided through telehealth services. Parents shall make the final decision to accept or decline early intervention services, including whether accepted services are delivered in person or via telehealth services. A decision to decline such services shall not be a basis for administrative determination of parental fitness, or other findings or sanctions against the parents. Parameters of the Plan shall be set forth in rules.

(e) The regional intake offices shall explain to each family, orally and in writing, all of the following:

(1) That the early intervention program will pay for all early intervention services set forth in the individualized family service plan that are not covered or paid under the family's public or private insurance plan or policy and not eligible for payment through any other third party payor.

(2) That services will not be delayed due to any rules or restrictions under the family's insurance plan or policy.

(3) That the family may request, with appropriate documentation supporting the request, a determination of an exemption from private insurance use under Section 13.25.

(4) That responsibility for co-payments or co-insurance under a family's private insurance plan or policy will be transferred to the lead agency's central billing office.

(5) That families will be responsible for payments of family fees, which will be based on a sliding scale according to the State's definition of ability to pay which is comparing household size and income to the sliding scale and considering out-of-pocket medical or disaster expenses, and that these fees are payable to the central billing office. Families who fail to provide income information shall be charged the maximum amount on the sliding scale.

(f) The individualized family service plan must state whether the family has private insurance coverage and, if the family has such coverage, must have attached to it a copy of the family's insurance identification card or otherwise include all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the insurance carrier.

(2) The contract number and policy number of the insurance plan.

(3) The name, address, and social security number of the primary insured.

(4) The beginning date of the insurance benefit year.

(g) A copy of the individualized family service plan must be provided to each enrolled provider who is providing early intervention services to the child who is the subject of that plan.

(h) Children receiving services under this Act shall receive a smooth and effective transition by their third birthday consistent with federal regulations adopted pursuant to Sections 1431 through 1444 of Title 20 of the United States Code. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 104th General Assembly Beginning January 1, 2022, children who receive early intervention services prior to their third birthday, who have been found eligible for early childhood special education services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A), and this Section, who have an individualized education program developed and are found eligible for an individualized education program under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A), and under Section 14-8.02 of the School Code, and whose birthday falls between May 1 and August 31 may continue to receive early intervention services until the beginning of the school year following their third birthday in order to minimize gaps in services, ensure better continuity of care, and align practices for the enrollment of preschool children with special needs to the enrollment practices of typically developing preschool children.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-104, eff. 7-22-21; 102-209, eff. 11-30-21 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-671 for effective date of P.A. 102-209); 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-962, eff. 7-1-22.)

Section 30. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 1-122, 6-103, 6-103.2, and 6-103.3 and by adding Section 1-120.1 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/1-120.1 new)

Sec. 1-120.1. Physician assistant. "Physician assistant" means a person who is licensed as a physician assistant under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 and is authorized to practice under a collaborating physician.

(405 ILCS 5/1-122) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-122)

Sec. 1-122. Qualified examiner. "Qualified examiner" means a person who is:

(a) a Clinical social worker as defined in this Act and who is also a licensed clinical social worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act,

(b) a registered nurse with a master's degree in psychiatric nursing who has 3 years of clinical training and experience in the evaluation and treatment of mental illness which has been acquired subsequent to any training and experience which constituted a part of the degree program,

(c) a licensed clinical professional counselor with a master's or doctoral degree in counseling or psychology or a similar master's or doctorate program from a regionally accredited institution who has at least 3 years of supervised post-master's clinical professional counseling experience that includes the provision of mental health services for the evaluation, treatment, and prevention of mental and emotional disorders, or

(d) a licensed marriage and family therapist with a master's or doctoral degree in marriage and family therapy from a regionally accredited educational institution or a similar master's program or from a program accredited by either the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy or the Commission on Accreditation for Counseling Related Educational Programs, who has at least 3 years of supervised post-master's experience as a marriage and family therapist that includes the provision of mental health services for the evaluation, treatment, and prevention of mental and emotional disorders, or .

(e) a physician assistant who has 3 years of clinical training and experience in the evaluation and treatment of mental illness which has been acquired subsequent to any training and experience which constituted a part of the degree program.

A social worker who is a qualified examiner shall be a licensed clinical social worker under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1357, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. (a) All persons acting in good faith and without negligence in connection with the preparation of applications, petitions, certificates or other documents, for the apprehension, transportation, examination, treatment, habilitation, detention or discharge of an individual under the provisions of this Act incur no liability, civil or criminal, by reason of such acts.

(b) There shall be no liability on the part of, and no cause of action shall arise against, any person who is a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner based upon that person's failure to warn of and protect from a recipient's threatened or actual violent behavior except where the recipient has communicated to the person a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or victims. Nothing in this Section shall relieve any employee or director of any residential mental health or developmental disabilities facility from any duty he may have to protect the residents of such a facility from any other resident.

(c) Any duty which any person may owe to anyone other than a resident of a mental health and developmental disabilities facility shall be discharged by that person making a reasonable effort to communicate the threat to the victim and to a law enforcement agency, or by a reasonable effort to obtain the hospitalization of the recipient.

(d) An act of omission or commission by a peace officer acting in good faith in rendering emergency assistance or otherwise enforcing this Code does not impose civil liability on the peace officer or his or her supervisor or employer unless the act is a result of willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 91-726, eff. 6-2-00.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.2)

Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. If a person 14 years old or older is determined to be a person with a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human Services within 7 days of making the determination that the person has a developmental disability. The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Illinois State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. Information disclosed under this Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report.

The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner making the determination and his or her employer may not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

For purposes of this Section, "developmental disability" means a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by intellectually disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Determined to be a person with a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner" means in the professional opinion of the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, a person, with whom the physician, psychologist, nurse, or examiner has a formal relationship in his or her professional or official capacity, is diagnosed, assessed, or evaluated as having a developmental disability.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.3)

Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice. If a person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the State, by any public or private mental health facility or part thereof, or by a law enforcement official or a school administrator, then the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human Services and a law enforcement official or school administrator shall notify the Illinois State Police, within 24 hours of making the determination that the person poses a clear and present danger. The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Illinois State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. Information disclosed under this Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond that which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school administrator making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This Section does not apply to a law enforcement official, if making the notification under this Section will interfere with an ongoing or pending criminal investigation.

For the purposes of this Section:

"Clear and present danger" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

"Determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner" means in the professional opinion of the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, a person, with whom the physician, psychologist, nurse, or examiner has a formal relationship in his or her official capacity, poses a clear and present danger.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 35. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 8, 8.1, and 10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Illinois State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Advanced practice psychiatric nurse" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1-101.3 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability of an individual that:

(1) is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments;

(2) is manifested before the individual attains age 22;

(3) is likely to continue indefinitely;

(4) results in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(A) Self-care.

(B) Receptive and expressive language.

(C) Learning.

(D) Mobility.

(E) Self-direction.

(F) Capacity for independent living.

(G) Economic self-sufficiency; and

(5) reflects the individual's need for a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or generic services, individualized supports, or other forms of assistance that are of lifelong or extended duration and are individually planned and coordinated.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Illinois State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Intellectual disability" means significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested during the developmental period, which is defined as before the age of 22, that adversely affects a child's educational performance.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provides treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"National governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

"Noncitizen" means a person who is not a citizen of the United States, but is a person who is a foreign-born person who lives in the United States, has not been naturalized, and is still a citizen of a foreign country.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who is admitted as an inpatient or resident of a public or private mental health facility for mental health treatment under Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code as an informal admission, a voluntary admission, a minor admission, an emergency admission, or an involuntary admission, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder; or

(2) a person who voluntarily or involuntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is otherwise provided services by a public or private mental health facility and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Protective order" means any orders of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking no contact orders issued under the Stalking No Contact Order Act, civil no contact orders issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act, and firearms restraining orders issued under the Firearms Restraining Order Act or a substantially similar order issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory or military judge.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-890, eff. 5-19-22; 102-972, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-407, eff. 7-28-23.)

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Illinois State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Illinois State Police finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) This subsection (b) applies through the 180th day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80). A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(b-5) This subsection (b-5) applies on and after the 181st day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80). A person under 21 years of age who is not an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or the Illinois National Guard and does not have the written consent of his or her parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government or a Department of Corrections employee authorized to possess firearms who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer or employee did not act in a manner threatening to the officer or employee, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer or employee seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons, or the community;

(g) A person who has an intellectual disability;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application or endorsement affidavit;

(i) A noncitizen who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) A noncitizen who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any noncitizen who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that noncitizen is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that noncitizen is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;

(s) A person who has been found to have a developmental disability;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; or

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act.

Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Illinois State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(430 ILCS 65/8.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8.1)

Sec. 8.1. Notifications to the Illinois State Police.

(a) The Circuit Clerk shall, in the form and manner required by the Supreme Court, notify the Illinois State Police of all final dispositions of cases for which the Department has received information reported to it under Sections 2.1 and 2.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b) Upon adjudication of any individual as a person with a mental disability as defined in Section 1.1 of this Act or a finding that a person has been involuntarily admitted, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the Illinois State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department.

(b-1) Beginning July 1, 2016, and each July 1 and December 30 of every year thereafter, the circuit court clerk shall, in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, notify the Illinois State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department if the court has not directed the circuit court clerk to notify the Illinois State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department under subsection (b) of this Section, within the preceding 6 months, because no person has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability by the court as defined in Section 1.1 of this Act or if no person has been involuntarily admitted. The Supreme Court may adopt any orders or rules necessary to identify the persons who shall be reported to the Illinois State Police under subsection (b), or any other orders or rules necessary to implement the requirements of this Act.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall, in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, report all information collected under subsection (b) of Section 12 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act for the purpose of determining whether a person who may be or may have been a patient in a mental health facility is disqualified under State or federal law from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or purchasing a weapon.

(d) If a person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others:

(1) by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, or is determined to have a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the State or privately, then the physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Department of Human Services that the person poses a clear and present danger or has a developmental disability; or

(2) by a law enforcement official or school administrator, then the law enforcement official or school administrator shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Illinois State Police that the person poses a clear and present danger.

The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Illinois State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall determine whether to revoke the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act. Any information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of this Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond what is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school administrator making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

Sec. 10. Appeals; hearing; relief from firearm prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may (1) file a record challenge with the Director regarding the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based under subsection (a-5); or (2) appeal to the Director of the Illinois State Police through December 31, 2022, or beginning January 1, 2023, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation unless the denial or revocation was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation.

(a-5) There is created a Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board to consider any appeal under subsection (a) beginning January 1, 2023, other than an appeal directed to the circuit court and except when the applicant is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke was based as provided in subsection (a-10).

(0.05) In furtherance of the policy of this Act that the Board shall exercise its powers and duties in an independent manner, subject to the provisions of this Act but free from the direction, control, or influence of any other agency or department of State government. All expenses and liabilities incurred by the Board in the performance of its responsibilities hereunder shall be paid from funds which shall be appropriated to the Board by the General Assembly for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Board.

(1) The Board shall consist of 7 members appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, with 3 members residing within the First Judicial District and one member residing within each of the 4 remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 members shall be members of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one member as the chairperson. The members shall have actual experience in law, education, social work, behavioral sciences, law enforcement, or community affairs or in a combination of those areas.

(2) The terms of the members initially appointed after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-237) shall be as follows: one of the initial members shall be appointed for a term of one year, 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years, and 3 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. Thereafter, members shall hold office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in January immediately following the expiration of their terms and every 4 years thereafter. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies in the office of member shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a member for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to serve. Members shall receive compensation in an amount equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics Commission and, beginning July 1, 2023, shall be compensated from appropriations provided to the Comptroller for this purpose. Members may be reimbursed, from funds appropriated for such a purpose, for reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties. The Illinois State Police shall designate an employee to serve as Executive Director of the Board and provide logistical and administrative assistance to the Board.

(3) The Board shall meet at least quarterly each year and at the call of the chairperson as often as necessary to consider appeals of decisions made with respect to applications for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act. If necessary to ensure the participation of a member, the Board shall allow a member to participate in a Board meeting by electronic communication. Any member participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(4) The Board shall adopt rules for the review of appeals and the conduct of hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from inspection except upon order of a court.

(5) In considering an appeal, the Board shall review the materials received concerning the denial or revocation by the Illinois State Police. By a vote of at least 4 members, the Board may request additional information from the Illinois State Police or the applicant or the testimony of the Illinois State Police or the applicant. The Board may require that the applicant submit electronic fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for an updated background check if the Board determines it lacks sufficient information to determine eligibility. The Board may consider information submitted by the Illinois State Police, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The Board shall review each denial or revocation and determine by a majority of members whether an applicant should be granted relief under subsection (c).

(6) The Board shall by order issue summary decisions. The Board shall issue a decision within 45 days of receiving all completed appeal documents from the Illinois State Police and the applicant. However, the Board need not issue a decision within 45 days if:

(A) the Board requests information from the applicant, including, but not limited to, electronic fingerprints to be submitted to the Illinois State Police, in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection, in which case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the required information from the applicant;

(B) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the Board additional time to consider an appeal; or

(C) the Board notifies the applicant and the Illinois State Police that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a decision. The Board may only issue 2 extensions under this subparagraph (C). The Board's notification to the applicant and the Illinois State Police shall include an explanation for the extension.

(7) If the Board determines that the applicant is eligible for relief under subsection (c), the Board shall notify the applicant and the Illinois State Police that relief has been granted and the Illinois State Police shall issue the Card.

(8) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(9) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the General Assembly on the number of appeals received and provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has determined to deny Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under this subsection (a-5). The report shall not contain any identifying information about the applicants.

(a-10) Whenever an applicant or cardholder is not seeking relief from a firearms prohibition under subsection (c) but rather does not believe the applicant is appropriately denied or revoked and is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based, or whenever the Illinois State Police fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, the applicant shall file such challenge with the Director. The Director shall render a decision within 60 business days of receipt of all information supporting the challenge. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the review of a record challenge.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing, the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Illinois State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Board or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or the Board's satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government or a Department of Corrections employee authorized to possess firearms who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board requesting relief if the officer or employee did not act in a manner threatening to the officer or employee, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, and:

(A) the officer or employee has not received treatment involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years; and

(B) the officer or employee has not left the mental institution against medical advice.

(2) The Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board shall grant expedited relief to active law enforcement officers and employees described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by the Board that the officer's or employee's possession of a firearm does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety. The Board shall act on the request for relief within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer or employee in the form prescribed by the Board detailing the circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission, evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the Board from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person successfully completed treatment, and their professional opinion regarding the person's ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers and employees eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on eligibility and must provide all information required. The Board may not consider granting expedited relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", advanced practice psychiatric nurse, and "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in Chapter I of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c-10) (1) An applicant, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act based upon a determination of a developmental disability or an intellectual disability may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board requesting relief.

(2) The Board shall act on the request for relief within 60 business days of receipt of written certification, in the form prescribed by the Board, from a physician or clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner, that the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified to be mild. If a fact-finding conference is scheduled to obtain additional information concerning the circumstances of the denial or revocation, the 60 business days the Director has to act shall be tolled until the completion of the fact-finding conference.

(3) The Board may grant relief if the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability is mild as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner and it is established by the applicant to the Board's satisfaction that:

(A) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(B) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(4) The Board may not grant relief if the condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, advanced practice psychiatric nurse, or qualified examiner to be moderate, severe, or profound.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-29 apply to requests for relief pending on or before July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29), except that the 60-day period for the Director to act on requests pending before the effective date shall begin on July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29). All appeals as provided in subsection (a-5) pending on January 1, 2023 shall be considered by the Board.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Illinois State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Board shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Board shall receive evidence concerning (i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv) changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Illinois State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1115, eff. 1-9-23; 102-1129, eff. 2-10-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

Section 40. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/5) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 805)

Sec. 5. Disclosure; consent.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 6 through 12.2 of this Act, records and communications may be disclosed to someone other than those persons listed in Section 4 of this Act only with the written consent of those persons who are entitled to inspect and copy a recipient's record pursuant to Section 4 of this Act.

(b) Every consent form shall be in writing and shall specify the following:

(1) the person or agency to whom disclosure is to be made;

(2) the purpose for which disclosure is to be made;

(3) the nature of the information to be disclosed;

(4) the right to inspect and copy the information to be disclosed;

(5) the consequences of a refusal to consent, if any; and

(6) the calendar date on which the consent expires, provided that if no calendar date is stated, information may be released only on the day the consent form is received by the therapist; and

(7) the right to revoke the consent at any time.

The consent form shall be signed by the person entitled to give consent and the signature shall be witnessed by a person who can attest to the identity of the person so entitled. A copy of the consent and a notation as to any action taken thereon shall be entered in the recipient's record. Any revocation of consent shall be in writing, signed by the person who gave the consent and the signature shall be witnessed by a person who can attest to the identity of the person so entitled. No written revocation of consent shall be effective to prevent disclosure of records and communications until it is received by the person otherwise authorized to disclose records and communications.

(c) Only information relevant to the purpose for which disclosure is sought may be disclosed. Blanket consent to the disclosure of unspecified information shall not be valid. Advance consent may be valid only if the nature of the information to be disclosed is specified in detail and the duration of the consent is indicated. Consent may be revoked in writing at any time; any such revocation shall have no effect on disclosures made prior thereto.

(d) No person or agency to whom any information is disclosed under this Section may redisclose such information unless the person who consented to the disclosure specifically consents to such redisclosure.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in this Act, records and communications shall remain confidential after the death of a recipient and shall not be disclosed unless the recipient's representative, as defined in the Probate Act of 1975 and the therapist consent to such disclosure or unless disclosure is authorized by court order after in camera examination and upon good cause shown.

(f) Paragraphs (a) through (e) of this Section shall not apply to and shall not be construed to limit insurance companies writing Life, Accident or Health insurance as defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code in obtaining general consents for the release to them or their designated representatives of any and all confidential communications and records kept by agencies, hospitals, therapists or record custodians, and utilizing such information in connection with the underwriting of applications for coverage for such policies or contracts, or in connection with evaluating claims or liability under such policies or contracts, or coordinating benefits pursuant to policy or contract provisions.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98)

(30 ILCS 105/5.653 rep.)

Section 50. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Section 5.653.

(35 ILCS 5/507JJ rep.)

Section 55. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by repealing Section 507JJ.

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.".