SB3411 104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB104 16941 RLC 30355 b

104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2025 and 2026
SB3411

Introduced 2/4/2026, by Sen. Javier L. Cervantes

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

210 ILCS 50/3.50
705 ILCS 405/1-7
705 ILCS 405/5-715
720 ILCS 5/8-2	from Ch. 38, par. 8-2
720 ILCS 5/9-1	from Ch. 38, par. 9-1
720 ILCS 5/9-1.3 new
725 ILCS 5/104-25	from Ch. 38, par. 104-25
725 ILCS 5/110-6.1	from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.1
730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-80
730 ILCS 5/3-14-2	from Ch. 38, par. 1003-14-2
730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-10
730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-21 new
730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-95
730 ILCS 5/5-7-1	from Ch. 38, par. 1005-7-1
730 ILCS 5/5-8-1	from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1

Amends the Criminal Code of 2012 and the Unified Code of Corrections. Eliminates felony murder as an element of first degree murder. Creates felony murder as a separate class of felony. Provides that a person commits felony murder when he or she, acting alone or with one or more participants, commits or attempts to commit a forcible felony, other than second degree murder, and in the course of or in furtherance of that crime or flight from that crime, he or she or another participant causes the death of a person, other than one of the participants. Provides that the sentence of imprisonment for felony murder shall be a determinate sentence of not less than 8 years and not more than 40 year, subject to the parole review provisions for persons who committed the offense when under 21 years of age. Provides that an extended term sentence for felony murder shall be not less than 16 years and not more than 80 years. Amends various Acts to make conforming changes.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning criminal law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.50)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure levels.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or "EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course in intermediate life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in advanced life support care as approved by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires.

(c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in emergency medical response as approved by the Department and provides emergency medical response services in accordance with the level of care established by the National EMS Educational Standards Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the Department, or who provides services as part of an EMS System response plan, as approved by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency Medical Responders.

On August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-973), a person who is licensed by the Department as a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other standards previously recognized by the Department shall be eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an application to the Department. A valid First Responder license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the First Responder license expires.

(c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 months after the adoption of the administrative rules.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(A) A failure rate per course of 30% or greater at the first attempt on the licensure examination shall require the EMS System to submit a quality improvement plan to the Department. The EMS System shall share failure rates with the EMS Lead Instructor quarterly. Neither the EMS System nor the Department may take licensure action against an EMS Lead Instructor based solely on first-attempt pass rates.

(B) Candidates shall complete the licensure examination within the timeline required by the NREMT.

(C) An accredited Paramedic program shall be conducted only by an EMS System or an academic institution whose curriculum has been approved by the EMS System. An EMS System associate hospital may allow students from an EMS System-approved and Department-approved Paramedic course to complete clinical rotations as approved by the EMS System Medical Director. The approval by the EMS System Medical Director may not be unreasonably denied.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the appropriate licensure examination. Candidates shall take the appropriate National Registry examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States under this paragraph (2), the Department shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are recognized.

(2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meet such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination for the level of license for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the level of EMS personnel license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure levels.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHPA, PHAPRN, or PHRN whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a felony murder, a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) Prescribe education and training requirements in the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section on a form prescribed by the Department.

(d-10) A person who is not an EMS personnel may operate an EMS vehicle pursuant to this Act if the following requirements are met: (i) the person meets the requirements of Section 11-1421 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (ii) 2 Department-licensed EMS personnel are present and have met educational requirements prescribed by the Department; and (iii) the clinical condition of the patient necessitates the involvement of additional licensed personnel to ensure appropriate assessment, treatment, and patient safety. If a waiver is issued by the Department, the person who is not an EMS personnel may operate the EMS vehicle if only one EMS personnel is present. Upon request, the Department may issue a retroactive waiver when appropriate.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this Section must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(f) At the time of applying for or renewing his or her license, an applicant for a license or license renewal may submit an email address to the Department. The Department shall keep the email address on file as a form of contact for the individual. The Department shall send license renewal notices electronically and by mail to a licensee who provides the Department with his or her email address. The notices shall be sent at least 60 days prior to the expiration date of the license.

(Source: P.A. 104-362, eff. 8-15-25.)

Section 10. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-7 and 5-715 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-7)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of juvenile law enforcement and municipal ordinance violation records.

(A) All juvenile law enforcement records which have not been expunged are confidential and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Juvenile law enforcement records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-8 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court, as required by those not authorized to retain them. Inspection, copying, and disclosure of juvenile law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies or records of municipal ordinance violations maintained by any State, local, or municipal agency that relate to a minor who has been investigated, arrested, or taken into custody before the minor's 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(0.05) The minor who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement record, the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel.

(0.10) Judges of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge.

(0.15) An administrative adjudication hearing officer or members of the staff designated to assist in the administrative adjudication process.

(1) Any local, State, or federal law enforcement officers or designated law enforcement staff of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Federal, State, or local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the conditions of pretrial release;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) in the course of prosecution or administrative adjudication of a violation of a traffic, boating, or fish and game law, or a county or municipal ordinance.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(5.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iii-5) a violation of Section 9-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the juvenile law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community-based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written juvenile law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any juvenile law enforcement records and any information obtained from those juvenile law enforcement records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(11) Persons managing and designated to participate in a court diversion program as designated in subsection (6) of Section 5-105.

(12) The Public Access Counselor of the Office of the Attorney General, when reviewing juvenile law enforcement records under its powers and duties under the Freedom of Information Act.

(13) Collection agencies, contracted or otherwise engaged by a governmental entity, to collect any debts due and owing to the governmental entity.

(B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections, the Illinois State Police, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before the minor's 18th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Illinois State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th birthday for the offense of unlawful possession of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before the minor's 18th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public. For purposes of obtaining documents under this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype, or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any federal government, state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.

(G-5) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses shall not be disclosed or open to the public under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing this identity.

(H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(H-5) Nothing in this Section shall require any court or adjudicative proceeding for traffic, boating, fish and game law, or municipal and county ordinance violations to be closed to the public.

(I) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (I) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(J) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-752, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-822, eff. 1-1-25.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-715)

Sec. 5-715. Probation.

(1) The period of probation or conditional discharge shall not exceed 5 years or until the minor has attained the age of 21 years, whichever is less, except as provided in this Section for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder. The juvenile court may terminate probation or conditional discharge and discharge the minor at any time if warranted by the conduct of the minor and the ends of justice; provided, however, that the period of probation for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder shall be at least 5 years.

(1.1) The period of probation for a minor who is found guilty of felony murder shall not exceed 4 years.

(1.5) The period of probation for a minor who is found guilty of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated battery with a firearm shall be at least 36 months. The period of probation for a minor who is found to be guilty of any other Class X felony shall be at least 24 months. The period of probation for a Class 1 or Class 2 forcible felony shall be at least 18 months. Regardless of the length of probation ordered by the court, for all offenses under this subsection (1.5), the court shall schedule hearings to determine whether it is in the best interest of the minor and public safety to terminate probation after the minimum period of probation has been served. In such a hearing, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that it is in the best interest of the minor and public safety to terminate probation.

(2) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that the minor:

(a) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(b) make a report to and appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court;

(c) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(d) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist or social work services rendered by a clinical social worker, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(e) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation;

(f) support the minor's dependents, if any;

(g) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or an automobile;

(h) permit the probation officer to visit the minor at the minor's home or elsewhere;

(i) reside with the minor's parents or in a foster home;

(j) attend school;

(j-5) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if the minor committed a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(k) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(l) make restitution under the terms of subsection (4) of Section 5-710;

(m) provide nonfinancial contributions to the minor's own support at home or in a foster home;

(n) perform some reasonable public or community service that does not interfere with school hours, school-related activities, or work commitments of the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian;

(o) participate with community corrections programs including unified delinquency intervention services administered by the Department of Human Services subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act;

(p) (blank);

(q) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the minor:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for the minor's confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the minor's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the minor's compliance with the conditions of the minor's confinement; and

(iii) use an approved electronic monitoring device if ordered by the court subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(r) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms as the court finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the minor, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the minor has been placed on probation, or advance approval by the court, if the minor has been placed on conditional discharge;

(s) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including, but not limited to, members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(s-5) undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from the minor's body;

(t) refrain from having in the minor's body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and shall submit samples of the minor's blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(u) comply with other conditions as may be ordered by the court.

(3) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a minor found guilty on any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If the minor is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(3.5) The court shall, as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge, require that a minor found to be guilty and placed on probation for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(3.10) The court shall order that a minor placed on probation or conditional discharge for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment. The treatment shall be in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider approved by the Board.

(4) A minor on probation or conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions upon which the minor is being released.

(5) (Blank).

(5.5) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court.

If the transfer case originated in another state and has been transferred under the Interstate Compact for Juveniles to the jurisdiction of an Illinois circuit court for supervision by an Illinois probation department, probation fees may be imposed only if permitted by the Interstate Commission for Juveniles.

(6) The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the juvenile justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain, and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of supervision, probation, or conditional discharge, under this Act.

The court shall provide as a condition of a disposition of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-720 of this Act.

(7) Fines and assessments, including any fee or administrative cost authorized under Section 5-4.5-105, 5-5-10, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-7-6, 5-9-1.4, or 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections, shall not be ordered or imposed on a minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian as a condition of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision. If the minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian is unable to cover the cost of a condition under this subsection, the court shall not preclude the minor from receiving probation, conditional discharge, or supervision based on the inability to pay. Inability to pay shall not be grounds to object to the minor's placement on probation, conditional discharge, or supervision.

(Source: P.A. 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-379, eff. 7-28-23; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

Section 15. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 8-2 and 9-1 and by adding Section 9-1.3 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/8-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 8-2)

Sec. 8-2. Conspiracy.

(a) Elements of the offense. A person commits the offense of conspiracy when, with intent that an offense be committed, he or she agrees with another to the commission of that offense. No person may be convicted of conspiracy to commit an offense unless an act in furtherance of that agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him or her or by a co-conspirator.

(b) Co-conspirators. It is not a defense to conspiracy that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(1) have not been prosecuted or convicted,

(2) have been convicted of a different offense,

(3) are not amenable to justice,

(4) have been acquitted, or

(5) lacked the capacity to commit an offense.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection or Code, a person convicted of conspiracy to commit:

(A) felony murder shall be sentenced for a Class X felony;

(A-5) (A) a Class X felony shall be sentenced for a Class 1 felony;

(B) a Class 1 felony shall be sentenced for a Class 2 felony;

(C) a Class 2 felony shall be sentenced for a Class 3 felony;

(D) a Class 3 felony shall be sentenced for a Class 4 felony;

(E) a Class 4 felony shall be sentenced for a Class 4 felony; and

(F) a misdemeanor may be fined or imprisoned or both not to exceed the maximum provided for the offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(2) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any of the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class X felony:

(A) aggravated insurance fraud conspiracy when the person is an organizer of the conspiracy (720 ILCS 5/46-4); or

(B) aggravated governmental entity insurance fraud conspiracy when the person is an organizer of the conspiracy (720 ILCS 5/46-4).

(3) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any of the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class 1 felony:

(A) first degree murder (720 ILCS 5/9-1); or

(B) aggravated insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3) or aggravated governmental insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3).

(4) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3) or governmental entity insurance fraud (720 ILCS 5/46-3) shall be sentenced for a Class 2 felony.

(5) A person convicted of conspiracy to commit any of the following offenses shall be sentenced for a Class 3 felony:

(A) soliciting for a person engaged in the sex trade (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(1));

(B) pandering (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(2)(A) or 5/11-14.3(a)(2)(B));

(C) keeping a place of prostitution (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(1));

(D) pimping (720 ILCS 5/11-14.3(a)(2)(C));

(E) unlawful possession of weapons under Section 24-1(a)(1) (720 ILCS 5/24-1(a)(1));

(F) unlawful possession of weapons under Section 24-1(a)(7) (720 ILCS 5/24-1(a)(7));

(G) gambling (720 ILCS 5/28-1);

(H) keeping a gambling place (720 ILCS 5/28-3);

(I) registration of federal gambling stamps violation (720 ILCS 5/28-4);

(J) look-alike substances violation (720 ILCS 570/404);

(K) miscellaneous controlled substance violation under Section 406(b) (720 ILCS 570/406(b)); or

(L) an inchoate offense related to any of the principal offenses set forth in this item (5).

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; 103-1071, eff. 7-1-25; revised 6-11-25.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. First degree murder.

(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:

(1) he or she either intends to kill or do great bodily harm to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he or she knows that such acts create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) (blank). he or she, acting alone or with one or more participants, commits or attempts to commit a forcible felony other than second degree murder, and in the course of or in furtherance of such crime or flight therefrom, he or she or another participant causes the death of a person.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(h-5) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; 103-605, eff. 7-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-1.3 new)

Sec. 9-1.3. Felony murder.

(a) A person commits felony murder when he or she, acting alone or with one or more participants, commits or attempts to commit a forcible felony, other than second degree murder, and in the course of or in furtherance of that crime or flight from that crime, he or she or another participant causes the death of a person, other than one of the participants.

(b) Sentence. Felony murder is a separate class of felony and shall be punished as provided in Section 5-4.5-21 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

Section 20. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 104-25 and 110-6.1 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/104-25) (from Ch. 38, par. 104-25)

Sec. 104-25. Discharge hearing.

(a) As provided for in paragraph (a) of Section 104-23 and subparagraph (1) of paragraph (b) of Section 104-23 a hearing to determine the sufficiency of the evidence shall be held. Such hearing shall be conducted by the court without a jury. The State and the defendant may introduce evidence relevant to the question of defendant's guilt of the crime charged.

The court may admit hearsay or affidavit evidence on secondary matters such as testimony to establish the chain of possession of physical evidence, laboratory reports, authentication of transcripts taken by official reporters, court and business records, and public documents.

(b) If the evidence does not prove the defendant guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, the court shall enter a judgment of acquittal; however nothing herein shall prevent the State from requesting the court to commit the defendant to the Department of Human Services under the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c) If the defendant is found not guilty by reason of insanity, the court shall enter a judgment of acquittal and the proceedings after acquittal by reason of insanity under Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections shall apply.

(d) If the discharge hearing does not result in an acquittal of the charge the defendant may be remanded for further treatment and the one year time limit set forth in Section 104-23 shall be extended as follows:

(1) If the most serious charge upon which the State sustained its burden of proof was felony murder, a Class 1, or Class X felony, the treatment period may be extended up to a maximum treatment period of 2 years; if a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony, the treatment period may be extended up to a maximum of 15 months;

(2) If the State sustained its burden of proof on a charge of first degree murder, the treatment period may be extended up to a maximum treatment period of 5 years.

(e) Transcripts of testimony taken at a discharge hearing may be admitted in evidence at a subsequent trial of the case, subject to the rules of evidence, if the witness who gave such testimony is legally unavailable at the time of the subsequent trial.

(f) If the court fails to enter an order of acquittal the defendant may appeal from such judgment in the same manner provided for an appeal from a conviction in a criminal case.

(g) At the expiration of an extended period of treatment ordered pursuant to this Section:

(1) Upon a finding that the defendant is fit or can be rendered fit consistent with Section 104-22, the court may proceed with trial.

(2) If the defendant continues to be unfit to stand trial, the court shall determine whether he or she is subject to involuntary admission under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or constitutes a serious threat to the public safety. If so found, the defendant shall be remanded to the Department of Human Services for further treatment and shall be treated in the same manner as a civilly committed patient for all purposes, except that the original court having jurisdiction over the defendant shall be required to approve any conditional release or discharge of the defendant, for the period of commitment equal to the maximum sentence to which the defendant would have been subject had he or she been convicted in a criminal proceeding. During this period of commitment, the original court having jurisdiction over the defendant shall hold hearings under clause (i) of this paragraph (2). However, if the defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, the defendant shall be placed in a secure setting unless the court determines that there are compelling reasons why such placement is not necessary.

If the defendant does not have a current treatment plan, then within 3 days of admission under this subdivision (g)(2), a treatment plan shall be prepared for each defendant and entered into his or her record. The plan shall include (i) an assessment of the defendant's treatment needs, (ii) a description of the services recommended for treatment, (iii) the goals of each type of element of service, (iv) an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and (v) a designation of the qualified professional responsible for the implementation of the plan. The plan shall be reviewed and updated as the clinical condition warrants, but not less than every 30 days.

Every 90 days after the initial admission under this subdivision (g)(2), the facility director shall file a typed treatment plan report with the original court having jurisdiction over the defendant. The report shall include an opinion as to whether the defendant is fit to stand trial and whether the defendant is currently subject to involuntary admission, in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, or in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis. The report shall also summarize the basis for those findings and provide a current summary of the 5 items required in a treatment plan. A copy of the report shall be forwarded to the clerk of the court, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney if the defendant is represented by counsel.

The court on its own motion may order a hearing to review the treatment plan. The defendant or the State's Attorney may request a treatment plan review every 90 days and the court shall review the current treatment plan to determine whether the plan complies with the requirements of this Section. The court may order an independent examination on its own initiative and shall order such an evaluation if either the recipient or the State's Attorney so requests and has demonstrated to the court that the plan cannot be effectively reviewed by the court without such an examination. Under no circumstances shall the court be required to order an independent examination pursuant to this Section more than once each year. The examination shall be conducted by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services.

If, during the period within which the defendant is confined in a secure setting, the court enters an order that requires the defendant to appear, the court shall timely transmit a copy of the order or writ to the director of the particular Department of Human Services facility where the defendant resides authorizing the transportation of the defendant to the court for the purpose of the hearing.

(i) 180 days after a defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, under paragraph (2), and every 180 days thereafter for so long as the defendant is confined under the order entered thereunder, the court shall set a hearing and shall direct that notice of the time and place of the hearing be served upon the defendant, the facility director, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney. If requested by either the State or the defense or if the court determines that it is appropriate, an impartial examination of the defendant by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services shall be ordered, and the report considered at the time of the hearing. If the defendant is not currently represented by counsel the court shall appoint the public defender to represent the defendant at the hearing. The court shall make a finding as to whether the defendant is:

(A) subject to involuntary admission; or

(B) in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care; or

(C) in need of mental health services but not subject to involuntary admission nor inpatient care.

The findings of the court shall be established by clear and convincing evidence and the burden of proof and the burden of going forward with the evidence shall rest with the State's Attorney. Upon finding by the court, the court shall enter its findings and an appropriate order.

(ii) The terms "subject to involuntary admission", "in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care" and "in need of mental health services but not subject to involuntary admission nor inpatient care" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in clause (d)(3) of Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(3) If the defendant is not committed pursuant to this Section, he or she shall be released.

(4) In no event may the treatment period be extended to exceed the maximum sentence to which a defendant would have been subject had he or she been convicted in a criminal proceeding. For purposes of this Section, the maximum sentence shall be determined by Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V of the "Unified Code of Corrections", excluding any sentence of natural life.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.1)

Sec. 110-6.1. Denial of pretrial release.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing and may deny a defendant pretrial release only if:

(1) the defendant is charged with a felony offense other than a forcible felony for which, based on the charge or the defendant's criminal history, a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment, or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(1.5) the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant is charged with a forcible felony, which as used in this Section, means treason, first degree murder, felony murder, second degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, armed robbery, aggravated robbery, robbery, burglary where there is use of force against another person, residential burglary, home invasion, vehicular invasion, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, or any other felony which involves the threat of or infliction of great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement;

(2) the defendant is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, and it is alleged that the defendant's pre-trial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of a victim of the alleged offense, and denial of release is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

(3) the defendant is charged with a violation of an order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, a stalking no contact order under Section 80 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or a civil no contact order under Section 213 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(4) the defendant is charged with domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 or 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(5) the defendant is charged with any offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except for Sections 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-18, 11-20, 11-30, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or similar provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case;

(6) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm);

(B) Section 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm);

(C) Section 24-1.5 (reckless discharge of a firearm);

(D) Section 24-1.7 (unlawful possession of a firearm by a repeat felony offender);

(E) Section 24-2.2 (manufacture, sale, or transfer of bullets or shells represented to be armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells);

(F) Section 24-3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms);

(G) Section 24-3.3 (unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school);

(H) Section 24-34 (unlawful sale of firearms by liquor license);

(I) Section 24-3.5 (unlawful purchase of a firearm);

(J) Section 24-3A (gunrunning);

(K) Section 24-3B (firearms trafficking);

(L) Section 10-9 (b) (involuntary servitude);

(M) Section 10-9 (c) (involuntary sexual servitude of a minor);

(N) Section 10-9(d) (trafficking in persons);

(O) Non-probationable violations: (i) unlawful possession of weapons by felons or persons in the Custody of the Department of Corrections facilities (Section 24-1.1), (ii) aggravated unlawful possession of a weapon (Section 24-1.6), or (iii) aggravated possession of a stolen firearm (Section 24-3.9);

(P) Section 9-3 (reckless homicide and involuntary manslaughter);

(Q) Section 19-3 (residential burglary);

(R) Section 10-5 (child abduction);

(S) Felony violations of Section 12C-5 (child endangerment);

(T) Section 12-7.1 (hate crime);

(U) Section 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint);

(V) Section 12-9 (threatening a public official);

(W) Subdivision (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05 (aggravated battery with a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a firearm);

(6.5) the defendant is charged with any of the following offenses, and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case:

(A) Felony violations of Sections 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act (cruel treatment, aggravated cruelty, and animal torture);

(B) Subdivision (d)(1)(B) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence while operating a school bus with passengers);

(C) Subdivision (d)(1)(C) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence causing great bodily harm);

(D) Subdivision (d)(1)(D) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence after a previous reckless homicide conviction);

(E) Subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence leading to death); or

(F) Subdivision (d)(1)(J) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated driving under the influence that resulted in bodily harm to a child under the age of 16);

(7) the defendant is charged with an attempt to commit any charge listed in paragraphs (1) through (6.5), and it is alleged that the defendant's pretrial release poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case; or

(8) the person has a high likelihood of willful flight to avoid prosecution and is charged with:

(A) Any felony described in subdivisions (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this Section; or

(B) A felony offense other than a Class 4 offense.

(b) If the charged offense is a felony, as part of the detention hearing, the court shall determine whether there is probable cause the defendant has committed an offense, unless a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of this Code has already been held or a grand jury has returned a true bill of indictment against the defendant. If there is a finding of no probable cause, the defendant shall be released. No such finding is necessary if the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor.

(c) Timing of petition.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within the 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while such petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) Upon filing, the court shall immediately hold a hearing on the petition unless a continuance is requested. If a continuance is requested and granted, the hearing shall be held within 48 hours of the defendant's first appearance if the defendant is charged with first degree murder or a Class X, Class 1, Class 2, or Class 3 felony, and within 24 hours if the defendant is charged with a Class 4 or misdemeanor offense. The Court may deny or grant the request for continuance. If the court decides to grant the continuance, the Court retains the discretion to detain or release the defendant in the time between the filing of the petition and the hearing.

(d) Contents of petition.

(1) The petition shall be verified by the State and shall state the grounds upon which it contends the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts or flight risk, as appropriate.

(2) If the State seeks to file a second or subsequent petition under this Section, the State shall be required to present a verified application setting forth in detail any new facts not known or obtainable at the time of the filing of the previous petition.

(e) Eligibility: All defendants shall be presumed eligible for pretrial release, and the State shall bear the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed an offense listed in subsection (a), and

(2) for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, by conduct which may include, but is not limited to, a forcible felony, the obstruction of justice, intimidation, injury, or abuse as defined by paragraph (1) of Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, and

(3) no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate (i) the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, for offenses listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a), or (ii) the defendant's willful flight for offenses listed in paragraph (8) of subsection (a), and

(4) for offenses under subsection (b) of Section 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act that are subject to paragraph (1) of subsection (a), no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Article can mitigate the real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, and the defendant poses a serious risk to not appear in court as required.

(f) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) Prior to the hearing, the State shall tender to the defendant copies of the defendant's criminal history available, any written or recorded statements, and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State in its petition, and any police reports in the prosecutor's possession at the time of the hearing.

(2) The State or defendant may present evidence at the hearing by way of proffer based upon reliable information.

(3) The defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he or she is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him or her. The defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses on his or her own behalf, and to cross-examine any witnesses that are called by the State. Defense counsel shall be given adequate opportunity to confer with the defendant before any hearing at which conditions of release or the detention of the defendant are to be considered, with an accommodation for a physical condition made to facilitate attorney/client consultation. If defense counsel needs to confer or consult with the defendant during any hearing conducted via a 2-way audio-visual communication system, such consultation shall not be recorded and shall be undertaken consistent with constitutional protections.

(3.5) A hearing at which pretrial release may be denied must be conducted in person (and not by way of 2-way audio visual communication) unless the accused waives the right to be present physically in court, the court determines that the physical health and safety of any person necessary to the proceedings would be endangered by appearing in court, or the chief judge of the circuit orders use of that system due to operational challenges in conducting the hearing in person. Such operational challenges must be documented and approved by the chief judge of the circuit, and a plan to address the challenges through reasonable efforts must be presented and approved by the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts every 6 months.

(4) If the defense seeks to compel the complaining witness to testify as a witness in its favor, it shall petition the court for permission. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness only on the issue of the defendant's pretrial detention. In making a determination under this Section, the court shall state on the record the reason for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness, and only grant the request if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant will be materially prejudiced if the complaining witness does not appear. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pre-trial detention hearing is not to be used for purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies, if any, of the defendant's criminal history, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if in the State's Attorney's possession at the time of the hearing.

(5) The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case-in-chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(6) The defendant may not move to suppress evidence or a confession, however, evidence that proof of the charged crime may have been the result of an unlawful search or seizure, or both, or through improper interrogation, is relevant in assessing the weight of the evidence against the defendant.

(7) Decisions regarding release, conditions of release, and detention prior to trial must be individualized, and no single factor or standard may be used exclusively to order detention. Risk assessment tools may not be used as the sole basis to deny pretrial release.

(g) Factors to be considered in making a determination of dangerousness. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, consider, but shall not be limited to, evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of any offense charged, including whether the offense is a crime of violence, involving a weapon, or a sex offense.

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior. Such evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations, or other proceedings.

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history which tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The identity of any person or persons to whose safety the defendant is believed to pose a threat, and the nature of the threat.

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them.

(5) The age and physical condition of the defendant.

(6) The age and physical condition of any victim or complaining witness.

(7) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons.

(8) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal, or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or State law.

(9) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Article deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive, or assaultive behavior, or lack of such behavior.

(h) Detention order. The court shall, in any order for detention:

(1) make a written finding summarizing the court's reasons for concluding that the defendant should be denied pretrial release, including why less restrictive conditions would not avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his or her choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(i) Detention. If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90-day period required by the preceding sentence, he shall not be denied pretrial release. In computing the 90-day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant and any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the State with good cause shown pursuant to Section 103-5.

(i-5) At each subsequent appearance of the defendant before the court, the judge must find that continued detention is necessary to avoid a real and present threat to the safety of any person or persons or the community, based on the specific articulable facts of the case, or to prevent the defendant's willful flight from prosecution.

(j) Rights of the defendant. The defendant shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying his or her pretrial release.

(k) Appeal. The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of pretrial release.

(l) Presumption of innocence. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(m) Interest of victims.

(1) Crime victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain a protective order.

(2) If the defendant is denied pretrial release, the court may impose a no contact provision with the victim or other interested party that shall be enforced while the defendant remains in custody.

(Source: P.A. 103-822, eff. 1-1-25; 104-417, eff. 8-15-25.)

Section 25. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2.5-80, 3-14-2, 5-4.5-10, 5-4.5-95, 5-7-1, and 5-8-1 and by adding Section 5-4.5-21 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-80)

Sec. 3-2.5-80. Supervision on aftercare release.

(a) The Department shall retain custody of all youth placed on aftercare release or released under Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-10 of this Code. The Department shall supervise those youth during their aftercare release period in accordance with the conditions set by the Department or Prisoner Review Board.

(b) A copy of youth's conditions of aftercare release shall be signed by the youth and given to the youth and to his or her aftercare specialist who shall report on the youth's progress under the rules of the Department. Aftercare specialists and supervisors shall have the full power of peace officers in the retaking of any releasee who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions. The aftercare specialist may request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue a warrant for the arrest of any releasee who has allegedly violated his or her aftercare release conditions.

(c) The aftercare supervisor shall request the Department of Juvenile Justice to issue an aftercare release violation warrant, and the Department of Juvenile Justice shall issue an aftercare release violation warrant, under the following circumstances:

(1) if the releasee has a subsequent delinquency petition filed against him or her alleging commission of an act that constitutes a felony using a firearm or knife;

(2) if the releasee is required to and fails to comply with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) (blank); or

(4) if the releasee is on aftercare release for a murder, a felony murder, a Class X felony, or a Class 1 felony violation of the Criminal Code of 2012, or any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act and a subsequent delinquency petition is filed against him or her alleging commission of an act that constitutes first degree murder, a felony murder, a Class X felony, a Class 1 felony, a Class 2 felony, or a Class 3 felony.

Personnel designated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or another peace officer may detain an alleged aftercare release violator until a warrant for his or her return to the Department of Juvenile Justice can be issued. The releasee may be delivered to any secure place until he or she can be transported to the Department of Juvenile Justice. The aftercare specialist or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall file a violation report with notice of charges with the Department.

(d) The aftercare specialist shall regularly advise and consult with the releasee and assist the youth in adjusting to community life in accord with this Section.

(e) If the aftercare releasee has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the aftercare specialist shall periodically, but not less than once a month, verify that the releasee is in compliance with paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(f) The aftercare specialist shall keep those records as the Department may require. All records shall be entered in the master file of the youth.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-268, eff. 1-1-16; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-14-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-14-2)

Sec. 3-14-2. Supervision on Parole, Mandatory Supervised Release and Release by Statute.

(a) The Department shall retain custody of all persons placed on parole or mandatory supervised release or released pursuant to Section 3-3-10 of this Code and shall supervise such persons during their parole or release period in accord with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board. When setting conditions, the Prisoner Review Board shall make an individualized assessment as to what conditions are appropriate based on the risk and needs assessment, program participation and completion, assignment history while incarcerated, and behavior history during the period of the incarceration and involve only such deprivations of liberty or property as are reasonably necessary to protect the public from the person's conduct in the underlying conviction or violation. In determining conditions, the Prisoner Review Board shall also consider the reasonableness of imposing additional conditions on the person and the extent to which the conditions impact the person's work, education, community service, financial, and family caregiving obligations. Such conditions shall include referral to an alcohol or drug abuse treatment program, as appropriate, if such person has previously been identified as having an alcohol or drug abuse problem. Such conditions may include that the person use an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V.

(b) The Department shall assign personnel to assist persons eligible for parole in preparing a parole plan. Such Department personnel shall make a report of their efforts and findings to the Prisoner Review Board prior to its consideration of the case of such eligible person.

(c) A copy of the conditions of his parole or release shall be signed by the parolee or releasee and given to him and to his supervising officer who shall report on his progress under the rules and regulations of the Prisoner Review Board. The supervising officer shall report violations to the Prisoner Review Board and shall have the full power of peace officers in the arrest and retaking of any parolees or releasees or the officer may request the Department to issue a warrant for the arrest of any parolee or releasee who has allegedly violated his parole or release conditions.

(c-1) The supervising officer shall request the Department to issue a parole violation warrant, and the Department shall issue a parole violation warrant, under the following circumstances:

(1) if the parolee or releasee commits an act that constitutes a felony using a firearm or knife,

(2) if applicable, fails to comply with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act,

(3) if the parolee or releasee is charged with:

(A) a felony offense of domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(B) aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(C) stalking under Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(D) aggravated stalking under Section 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(E) violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or

(F) any offense that would require registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or

(4) if the parolee or releasee is on parole or mandatory supervised release for a murder, a felony murder, a Class X felony or a Class 1 felony violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act and commits an act that constitutes first degree murder, a felony murder, a Class X felony, a Class 1 felony, a Class 2 felony, or a Class 3 felony.

A sheriff or other peace officer may detain an alleged parole or release violator until a warrant for his return to the Department can be issued. The parolee or releasee may be delivered to any secure place until he can be transported to the Department. The officer or the Department shall file a violation report with notice of charges with the Prisoner Review Board.

(d) The supervising officer shall regularly advise and consult with the parolee or releasee, assist him in adjusting to community life, inform him of the restoration of his rights on successful completion of sentence under Section 5-5-5, and provide the parolee or releasee with an electronic copy of the Department of Corrections system of graduated responses as set forth under subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 10 of the Illinois Crime Reduction Act of 2009 and any sanctions matrix based on that system. If the parolee or releasee has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the supervising officer shall periodically, but not less than once a month, verify that the parolee or releasee is in compliance with paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(d-1) At least once every 6 months, the supervising officer of a parolee or releasee shall review the case of the parolee or releasee to assess the parolee's or releasee's progress and suitability for early discharge under subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 and provide a recommendation for either early discharge or the continuation of parole or mandatory supervised release as previously ordered. The recommendation and the rationale for the recommendation shall be noted in the Department's case management system. Within 30 days of receiving the supervising officer's recommendation, the Department shall provide a copy of the final recommendation, in writing or electronically, to the Prisoner Review Board and to the parolee or releasee. If an early discharge recommendation was not provided, the supervising officer shall share the list of steps or requirements that the person must complete or meet to be granted an early discharge recommendation at a subsequent review under agency guidelines. The Department shall develop guidelines and policies to support the regular review of parolees and releasees for early discharge consideration and the timely notification of the Prisoner Review Board when early discharge is recommended.

(d-2) Supervising officers shall schedule meetings, which are required under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7 as a condition of parole or mandatory supervised release, at such times and locations that take into consideration the medical needs, caregiving obligations, and work schedule of a parolee or releasee.

(d-3) To comply with the provisions of subsection (d-2), in lieu of requiring the parolee or releasee to appear in person for the required reporting or meetings, supervising officers may utilize technology, including cellular and other electronic communication devices or platforms, that allows for communication between the supervised individual and the supervising officer.

(e) Supervising officers shall receive specialized training in the special needs of female releasees or parolees including the family reunification process.

(f) The supervising officer shall keep such records as the Prisoner Review Board or Department may require. All records shall be entered in the master file of the individual.

(Source: P.A. 103-271, eff. 1-1-24.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-10)

Sec. 5-4.5-10. OFFENSE CLASSIFICATIONS.

(a) FELONY CLASSIFICATIONS. Felonies are classified, for the purpose of sentencing, as follows:

(1) First degree murder (as a separate class of felony).

(1.5) Felony murder (as a separate class of felony).

(2) Class X felonies.

(3) Class 1 felonies.

(4) Class 2 felonies.

(5) Class 3 felonies.

(6) Class 4 felonies.

(b) MISDEMEANOR CLASSIFICATIONS. Misdemeanors are classified, for the purpose of sentencing, as follows:

(1) Class A misdemeanors.

(2) Class B misdemeanors.

(3) Class C misdemeanors.

(c) PETTY AND BUSINESS OFFENSES. Petty offenses and business offenses are not classified.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-21 new)

Sec. 5-4.5-21. FELONY MURDER; SENTENCE. For felony murder:

(a) TERM. The sentence of imprisonment shall be a determinate sentence of not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years, subject to Section 5-4.5-115. The sentence of imprisonment for extended term felony murder, as provided in Section 5-8-2, subject to Section 5-4.5-115, shall be a term not less than 16 years and not more than 80 years.

(b) PERIODIC IMPRISONMENT. A sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be for a definite term of from 3 to 4 years, except as otherwise provided in Section 5-5-3 or 5-7-1.

(c) IMPACT INCARCERATION. See Sections 5-8-1.1 and 5-8-1.2 concerning eligibility for the impact incarceration program or the county impact incarceration program.

(d) PROBATION; CONDITIONAL DISCHARGE. Except as provided in Section 5-5-3 or 5-6-2, the period of probation or conditional discharge shall not exceed 4 years. The court shall specify the conditions of probation or conditional discharge as set forth in Section 5-6-3. In no case shall an offender be eligible for a disposition of probation or conditional discharge for felony murder committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(e) FINE. Fines may be imposed as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-4.5-50.

(f) RESTITUTION. See Section 5-5-6 concerning restitution.

(g) CONCURRENT OR CONSECUTIVE SENTENCE. The sentence shall be concurrent or consecutive as provided in Section 5-8-4 and Section 5-4.5-50.

(h) DRUG COURT. See Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act concerning eligibility for a drug court program.

(i) CREDIT FOR HOME DETENTION. See Section 5-4.5-100 concerning credit for time spent in home detention prior to judgment.

(j) SENTENCE CREDIT. See Section 3-6-3 of this Code or the County Jail Good Behavior Allowance Act for rules and regulations for sentence credit.

(k) ELECTRONIC MONITORING AND HOME DETENTION. See Section 5-8A-3 concerning eligibility for electronic monitoring and home detention.

(l) PAROLE; MANDATORY SUPERVISED RELEASE. Except as provided in Section 3-3-8 or 5-8-1, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be 2 years upon release from imprisonment.

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-95)

Sec. 5-4.5-95. GENERAL RECIDIVISM PROVISIONS.

(a) HABITUAL CRIMINALS.

(1) Every person who has been twice convicted in any state or federal court of an offense that contains the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the 2 prior convictions) classified in Illinois as a Class X felony, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, felony murder, or first degree murder, and who is thereafter convicted of a Class X felony, criminal sexual assault, felony murder, or first degree murder, committed after the 2 prior convictions, shall be adjudged an habitual criminal.

(2) The 2 prior convictions need not have been for the same offense.

(3) Any convictions that result from or are connected with the same transaction, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purposes of this Section as one conviction.

(4) This Section does not apply unless each of the following requirements are satisfied:

(A) The third offense was committed after July 3, 1980.

(B) The third offense was committed within 20 years of the date that judgment was entered on the first conviction; provided, however, that time spent in custody shall not be counted.

(C) The third offense was committed after conviction on the second offense.

(D) The second offense was committed after conviction on the first offense.

(E) The first offense was committed when the person was 21 years of age or older.

(5) Anyone who is adjudged an habitual criminal shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(6) A prior conviction shall not be alleged in the indictment, and no evidence or other disclosure of that conviction shall be presented to the court or the jury during the trial of an offense set forth in this Section unless otherwise permitted by the issues properly raised in that trial. After a plea or verdict or finding of guilty and before sentence is imposed, the prosecutor may file with the court a verified written statement signed by the State's Attorney concerning any former conviction of an offense set forth in this Section rendered against the defendant. The court shall then cause the defendant to be brought before it; shall inform the defendant of the allegations of the statement so filed, and of his or her right to a hearing before the court on the issue of that former conviction and of his or her right to counsel at that hearing; and unless the defendant admits such conviction, shall hear and determine the issue, and shall make a written finding thereon. If a sentence has previously been imposed, the court may vacate that sentence and impose a new sentence in accordance with this Section.

(7) A duly authenticated copy of the record of any alleged former conviction of an offense set forth in this Section shall be prima facie evidence of that former conviction; and a duly authenticated copy of the record of the defendant's final release or discharge from probation granted, or from sentence and parole supervision (if any) imposed pursuant to that former conviction, shall be prima facie evidence of that release or discharge.

(8) Any claim that a previous conviction offered by the prosecution is not a former conviction of an offense set forth in this Section because of the existence of any exceptions described in this Section, is waived unless duly raised at the hearing on that conviction, or unless the prosecution's proof shows the existence of the exceptions described in this Section.

(9) If the person so convicted shows to the satisfaction of the court before whom that conviction was had that he or she was released from imprisonment, upon either of the sentences upon a pardon granted for the reason that he or she was innocent, that conviction and sentence shall not be considered under this Section.

(b) When a defendant, over the age of 21 years, is convicted of a Class 1 or Class 2 forcible felony after having twice been convicted in any state or federal court of an offense that contains the same elements as an offense now (the date the Class 1 or Class 2 forcible felony was committed) classified in Illinois as a Class 2 or greater Class forcible felony and those charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts, that defendant shall be sentenced as a Class X offender. This subsection does not apply unless:

(1) the first forcible felony was committed after February 1, 1978 (the effective date of Public Act 80-1099);

(2) the second forcible felony was committed after conviction on the first;

(3) the third forcible felony was committed after conviction on the second; and

(4) the first offense was committed when the person was 21 years of age or older.

(c) (Blank).

A person sentenced as a Class X offender under this subsection (b) is not eligible to apply for treatment as a condition of probation as provided by Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act (20 ILCS 301/40-10).

(Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-7-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-7-1)

Sec. 5-7-1. Sentence of periodic imprisonment.

(a) A sentence of periodic imprisonment is a sentence of imprisonment during which the committed person may be released for periods of time during the day or night or for periods of days, or both, or if convicted of a felony, other than first degree murder, a Class X or Class 1 felony, committed to any county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility in this State for such periods of time as the court may direct. Unless the court orders otherwise, the particular times and conditions of release shall be determined by the Department of Corrections, the sheriff, or the Superintendent of the house of corrections, who is administering the program.

(b) A sentence of periodic imprisonment may be imposed to permit the defendant to:

(1) seek employment;

(2) work;

(3) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation including housekeeping;

(4) attend to family needs;

(5) attend an educational institution, including vocational education;

(6) obtain medical or psychological treatment;

(7) perform work duties at a county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility;

(8) continue to reside at home with or without supervision involving the use of an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V; or

(9) for any other purpose determined by the court.

(c) Except where prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court may impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment for a felony or misdemeanor on a person who is 17 years of age or older. The court shall not impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment if it imposes a sentence of imprisonment upon the defendant in excess of 90 days.

(d) A sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be for a definite term of from 3 to 4 years for a felony murder, a Class 1 felony, 18 to 30 months for a Class 2 felony, and up to 18 months, or the longest sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed for the offense, whichever is less, for all other offenses; however, no person shall be sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment longer than one year if he is committed to a county correctional institution or facility, and in conjunction with that sentence participate in a county work release program comparable to the work and day release program provided for in Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code in State facilities. The term of the sentence shall be calculated upon the basis of the duration of its term rather than upon the basis of the actual days spent in confinement. No sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be subject to the good time credit provisions of Section 3-6-3 of this Code.

(e) When the court imposes a sentence of periodic imprisonment, it shall state:

(1) the term of such sentence;

(2) the days or parts of days which the defendant is to be confined;

(3) the conditions.

(f) The court may issue an order of protection pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 as a condition of a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 shall govern the issuance, enforcement and recording of orders of protection issued under this Section. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency having responsibility for the case.

(f-5) An offender sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(g) An offender sentenced to periodic imprisonment who undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all offenders with a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) All fees and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device.

(i) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or a felony and who is sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment may as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward receiving a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant sentenced to periodic imprisonment must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (i). The defendant sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the sentence of periodic imprisonment of the defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (i). The court shall resentence the defendant whose sentence of periodic imprisonment has been revoked as provided in Section 5-7-2. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, subject to Section 5-4.5-115 of this Code, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subparagraph (b-5) are present, the court may sentence the defendant, subject to Section 5-4.5-105, to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(b-5) a defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment if:

(1) the murdered individual was an inmate at an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof;

(2) the murdered individual was killed as a result of the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus, or other public conveyance;

(3) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a contract, agreement, or understanding by which he or she was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value;

(4) the murdered individual was killed in the course of another felony if:

(A) the murdered individual:

(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or

(ii) received physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and (B) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of clause (A) of this clause (4), the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his or her acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(B) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of clause (A) of this clause (4), the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his or her acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(C) the other felony was an inherently violent crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this clause (C), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion;

(5) the defendant committed the murder with intent to prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this clause (5), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors;

(6) the defendant, while committing an offense punishable under Section 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407, or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual;

(7) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual;

(8) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme, or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom;

(9) the defendant was a principal administrator, organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person;

(10) the murder was intentional and involved the infliction of torture. For the purpose of this clause (10), torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or agony of the victim;

(11) the murder was committed as a result of the intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle;

(12) the murdered individual was a person with a disability and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a person with a disability. For purposes of this clause (12), "person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care;

(13) the murdered individual was subject to an order of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(14) the murdered individual was known by the defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;

(15) the murder was committed by the defendant in connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code;

(16) the murdered individual was a member of a congregation engaged in prayer or other religious activities at a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship; or

(17)(i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse;

(ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment if the defendant, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 18, and:

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) (blank), or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", and "emergency medical technician - paramedic"have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d)(i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or before December 12, 2005, 3 years;

(1.1) except as otherwise provided in Section 3-3-8, for felony murder, 2 years;

(1.5) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, 18 months;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child sexual abuse material under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, 12 months;

(3) except as provided in paragraph (4), (6), or (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 6 months; no later than 45 days after the onset of the term of mandatory supervised release, the Prisoner Review Board shall conduct a discretionary discharge review pursuant to the provisions of Section 3-3-8, which shall include the results of a standardized risk and needs assessment tool administered by the Department of Corrections; the changes to this paragraph (3) made by Public Act 102-1104 apply to all individuals released on mandatory supervised release on or after December 6, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1104), including those individuals whose sentences were imposed prior to December 6, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1104);

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715), or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child sexual abuse material, or dissemination of child sexual abuse material after January 1, 2009, or who commit the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or who commit the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic monitoring or home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years;

(7) for any felony described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii), (a)(2)(iii), (a)(2)(iv), (a)(2)(vi), (a)(2.1), (a)(2.3), (a)(2.4), (a)(2.5), or (a)(2.6) of Article 5, Section 3-6-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections requiring an inmate to serve a minimum of 85% of their court-imposed sentence, except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, and except for the offense of obscene depiction of a purported child with sentencing under subsection (d) of Section 11-20.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and except as provided in paragraph (4) or paragraph (6) of this subsection (d), the term of mandatory supervised release shall be as follows:

(A) Class X felony, 3 years;

(B) Class 1 or Class 2 felonies, 2 years;

(C) Class 3 or Class 4 felonies, 1 year.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and of Public Act 101-652: (i) the provisions of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2022 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and (ii) the provisions of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2021 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24; 103-825, eff. 1-1-25; 104-245, eff. 1-1-26; 104-417, eff. 8-15-25.)