HB3443enr 102ND GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB3443 Enrolled LRB102 12812 KMF 18153 b

AN ACT concerning criminal law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 3. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/14) (from Ch. 48, par. 1614)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 14. Security employee, peace officer and fire fighter disputes.

(a) In the case of collective bargaining agreements involving units of security employees of a public employer, Peace Officer Units, or units of fire fighters or paramedics, and in the case of disputes under Section 18, unless the parties mutually agree to some other time limit, mediation shall commence 30 days prior to the expiration date of such agreement or at such later time as the mediation services chosen under subsection (b) of Section 12 can be provided to the parties. In the case of negotiations for an initial collective bargaining agreement, mediation shall commence upon 15 days notice from either party or at such later time as the mediation services chosen pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 12 can be provided to the parties. In mediation under this Section, if either party requests the use of mediation services from the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, the other party shall either join in such request or bear the additional cost of mediation services from another source. The mediator shall have a duty to keep the Board informed on the progress of the mediation. If any dispute has not been resolved within 15 days after the first meeting of the parties and the mediator, or within such other time limit as may be mutually agreed upon by the parties, either the exclusive representative or employer may request of the other, in writing, arbitration, and shall submit a copy of the request to the Board.

(b) Within 10 days after such a request for arbitration has been made, the employer shall choose a delegate and the employees' exclusive representative shall choose a delegate to a panel of arbitration as provided in this Section. The employer and employees shall forthwith advise the other and the Board of their selections.

(c) Within 7 days after the request of either party, the parties shall request a panel of impartial arbitrators from which they shall select the neutral chairman according to the procedures provided in this Section. If the parties have agreed to a contract that contains a grievance resolution procedure as provided in Section 8, the chairman shall be selected using their agreed contract procedure unless they mutually agree to another procedure. If the parties fail to notify the Board of their selection of neutral chairman within 7 days after receipt of the list of impartial arbitrators, the Board shall appoint, at random, a neutral chairman from the list. In the absence of an agreed contract procedure for selecting an impartial arbitrator, either party may request a panel from the Board. Within 7 days of the request of either party, the Board shall select from the Public Employees Labor Mediation Roster 7 persons who are on the labor arbitration panels of either the American Arbitration Association or the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, or who are members of the National Academy of Arbitrators, as nominees for impartial arbitrator of the arbitration panel. The parties may select an individual on the list provided by the Board or any other individual mutually agreed upon by the parties. Within 7 days following the receipt of the list, the parties shall notify the Board of the person they have selected. Unless the parties agree on an alternate selection procedure, they shall alternatively strike one name from the list provided by the Board until only one name remains. A coin toss shall determine which party shall strike the first name. If the parties fail to notify the Board in a timely manner of their selection for neutral chairman, the Board shall appoint a neutral chairman from the Illinois Public Employees Mediation/Arbitration Roster.

(d) The chairman shall call a hearing to begin within 15 days and give reasonable notice of the time and place of the hearing. The hearing shall be held at the offices of the Board or at such other location as the Board deems appropriate. The chairman shall preside over the hearing and shall take testimony. Any oral or documentary evidence and other data deemed relevant by the arbitration panel may be received in evidence. The proceedings shall be informal. Technical rules of evidence shall not apply and the competency of the evidence shall not thereby be deemed impaired. A verbatim record of the proceedings shall be made and the arbitrator shall arrange for the necessary recording service. Transcripts may be ordered at the expense of the party ordering them, but the transcripts shall not be necessary for a decision by the arbitration panel. The expense of the proceedings, including a fee for the chairman, shall be borne equally by each of the parties to the dispute. The delegates, if public officers or employees, shall continue on the payroll of the public employer without loss of pay. The hearing conducted by the arbitration panel may be adjourned from time to time, but unless otherwise agreed by the parties, shall be concluded within 30 days of the time of its commencement. Majority actions and rulings shall constitute the actions and rulings of the arbitration panel. Arbitration proceedings under this Section shall not be interrupted or terminated by reason of any unfair labor practice charge filed by either party at any time.

(e) The arbitration panel may administer oaths, require the attendance of witnesses, and the production of such books, papers, contracts, agreements and documents as may be deemed by it material to a just determination of the issues in dispute, and for such purpose may issue subpoenas. If any person refuses to obey a subpoena, or refuses to be sworn or to testify, or if any witness, party or attorney is guilty of any contempt while in attendance at any hearing, the arbitration panel may, or the attorney general if requested shall, invoke the aid of any circuit court within the jurisdiction in which the hearing is being held, which court shall issue an appropriate order. Any failure to obey the order may be punished by the court as contempt.

(f) At any time before the rendering of an award, the chairman of the arbitration panel, if he is of the opinion that it would be useful or beneficial to do so, may remand the dispute to the parties for further collective bargaining for a period not to exceed 2 weeks. If the dispute is remanded for further collective bargaining the time provisions of this Act shall be extended for a time period equal to that of the remand. The chairman of the panel of arbitration shall notify the Board of the remand.

(g) At or before the conclusion of the hearing held pursuant to subsection (d), the arbitration panel shall identify the economic issues in dispute, and direct each of the parties to submit, within such time limit as the panel shall prescribe, to the arbitration panel and to each other its last offer of settlement on each economic issue. The determination of the arbitration panel as to the issues in dispute and as to which of these issues are economic shall be conclusive. The arbitration panel, within 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing, or such further additional periods to which the parties may agree, shall make written findings of fact and promulgate a written opinion and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy thereof to the parties and their representatives and to the Board. As to each economic issue, the arbitration panel shall adopt the last offer of settlement which, in the opinion of the arbitration panel, more nearly complies with the applicable factors prescribed in subsection (h). The findings, opinions and order as to all other issues shall be based upon the applicable factors prescribed in subsection (h).

(h) Where there is no agreement between the parties, or where there is an agreement but the parties have begun negotiations or discussions looking to a new agreement or amendment of the existing agreement, and wage rates or other conditions of employment under the proposed new or amended agreement are in dispute, the arbitration panel shall base its findings, opinions and order upon the following factors, as applicable:

(1) The lawful authority of the employer.

(2) Stipulations of the parties.

(3) The interests and welfare of the public and the financial ability of the unit of government to meet those costs.

(4) Comparison of the wages, hours and conditions of employment of the employees involved in the arbitration proceeding with the wages, hours and conditions of employment of other employees performing similar services and with other employees generally:

(A) In public employment in comparable communities.

(B) In private employment in comparable communities.

(5) The average consumer prices for goods and services, commonly known as the cost of living.

(6) The overall compensation presently received by the employees, including direct wage compensation, vacations, holidays and other excused time, insurance and pensions, medical and hospitalization benefits, the continuity and stability of employment and all other benefits received.

(7) Changes in any of the foregoing circumstances during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings.

(8) Such other factors, not confined to the foregoing, which are normally or traditionally taken into consideration in the determination of wages, hours and conditions of employment through voluntary collective bargaining, mediation, fact-finding, arbitration or otherwise between the parties, in the public service or in private employment.

(i) In the case of peace officers, the arbitration decision shall be limited to wages, hours, and conditions of employment (which may include residency requirements in municipalities with a population under 1,000,000, but those residency requirements shall not allow residency outside of Illinois) and shall not include the following: i) residency requirements in municipalities with a population of at least 1,000,000; ii) the type of equipment, other than uniforms, issued or used; iii) manning; iv) the total number of employees employed by the department; v) mutual aid and assistance agreements to other units of government; and vi) the criterion pursuant to which force, including deadly force, can be used; provided, nothing herein shall preclude an arbitration decision regarding equipment or manning levels if such decision is based on a finding that the equipment or manning considerations in a specific work assignment involve a serious risk to the safety of a peace officer beyond that which is inherent in the normal performance of police duties. Limitation of the terms of the arbitration decision pursuant to this subsection shall not be construed to limit the factors upon which the decision may be based, as set forth in subsection (h).

In the case of fire fighter, and fire department or fire district paramedic matters, the arbitration decision shall be limited to wages, hours, and conditions of employment (including manning and also including residency requirements in municipalities with a population under 1,000,000, but those residency requirements shall not allow residency outside of Illinois) and shall not include the following matters: i) residency requirements in municipalities with a population of at least 1,000,000; ii) the type of equipment (other than uniforms and fire fighter turnout gear) issued or used; iii) the total number of employees employed by the department; iv) mutual aid and assistance agreements to other units of government; and v) the criterion pursuant to which force, including deadly force, can be used; provided, however, nothing herein shall preclude an arbitration decision regarding equipment levels if such decision is based on a finding that the equipment considerations in a specific work assignment involve a serious risk to the safety of a fire fighter beyond that which is inherent in the normal performance of fire fighter duties. Limitation of the terms of the arbitration decision pursuant to this subsection shall not be construed to limit the facts upon which the decision may be based, as set forth in subsection (h).

The changes to this subsection (i) made by Public Act 90-385 (relating to residency requirements) do not apply to persons who are employed by a combined department that performs both police and firefighting services; these persons shall be governed by the provisions of this subsection (i) relating to peace officers, as they existed before the amendment by Public Act 90-385.

To preserve historical bargaining rights, this subsection shall not apply to any provision of a fire fighter collective bargaining agreement in effect and applicable on the effective date of this Act; provided, however, nothing herein shall preclude arbitration with respect to any such provision.

(j) Arbitration procedures shall be deemed to be initiated by the filing of a letter requesting mediation as required under subsection (a) of this Section. The commencement of a new municipal fiscal year after the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act, but before the arbitration decision, or its enforcement, shall not be deemed to render a dispute moot, or to otherwise impair the jurisdiction or authority of the arbitration panel or its decision. Increases in rates of compensation awarded by the arbitration panel may be effective only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the date of the arbitration award. If a new fiscal year has commenced either since the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act or since any mutually agreed extension of the statutorily required period of mediation under this Act by the parties to the labor dispute causing a delay in the initiation of arbitration, the foregoing limitations shall be inapplicable, and such awarded increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the fiscal year, any other statute or charter provisions to the contrary, notwithstanding. At any time the parties, by stipulation, may amend or modify an award of arbitration.

(k) Orders of the arbitration panel shall be reviewable, upon appropriate petition by either the public employer or the exclusive bargaining representative, by the circuit court for the county in which the dispute arose or in which a majority of the affected employees reside, but only for reasons that the arbitration panel was without or exceeded its statutory authority; the order is arbitrary, or capricious; or the order was procured by fraud, collusion or other similar and unlawful means. Such petitions for review must be filed with the appropriate circuit court within 90 days following the issuance of the arbitration order. The pendency of such proceeding for review shall not automatically stay the order of the arbitration panel. The party against whom the final decision of any such court shall be adverse, if such court finds such appeal or petition to be frivolous, shall pay reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to the successful party as determined by said court in its discretion. If said court's decision affirms the award of money, such award, if retroactive, shall bear interest at the rate of 12 percent per annum from the effective retroactive date.

(l) During the pendency of proceedings before the arbitration panel, existing wages, hours, and other conditions of employment shall not be changed by action of either party without the consent of the other but a party may so consent without prejudice to his rights or position under this Act. The proceedings are deemed to be pending before the arbitration panel upon the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act.

(m) Security officers of public employers, and Peace Officers, Fire Fighters and fire department and fire protection district paramedics, covered by this Section may not withhold services, nor may public employers lock out or prevent such employees from performing services at any time.

(n) All of the terms decided upon by the arbitration panel shall be included in an agreement to be submitted to the public employer's governing body for ratification and adoption by law, ordinance or the equivalent appropriate means.

The governing body shall review each term decided by the arbitration panel. If the governing body fails to reject one or more terms of the arbitration panel's decision by a 3/5 vote of those duly elected and qualified members of the governing body, within 20 days of issuance, or in the case of firefighters employed by a state university, at the next regularly scheduled meeting of the governing body after issuance, such term or terms shall become a part of the collective bargaining agreement of the parties. If the governing body affirmatively rejects one or more terms of the arbitration panel's decision, it must provide reasons for such rejection with respect to each term so rejected, within 20 days of such rejection and the parties shall return to the arbitration panel for further proceedings and issuance of a supplemental decision with respect to the rejected terms. Any supplemental decision by an arbitration panel or other decision maker agreed to by the parties shall be submitted to the governing body for ratification and adoption in accordance with the procedures and voting requirements set forth in this Section. The voting requirements of this subsection shall apply to all disputes submitted to arbitration pursuant to this Section notwithstanding any contrary voting requirements contained in any existing collective bargaining agreement between the parties.

(o) If the governing body of the employer votes to reject the panel's decision, the parties shall return to the panel within 30 days from the issuance of the reasons for rejection for further proceedings and issuance of a supplemental decision. All reasonable costs of such supplemental proceeding including the exclusive representative's reasonable attorney's fees, as established by the Board, shall be paid by the employer.

(p) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section the employer and exclusive representative may agree to submit unresolved disputes concerning wages, hours, terms and conditions of employment to an alternative form of impasse resolution.

(Source: P.A. 98-535, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1151, eff. 1-7-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 14. Security employee, peace officer and fire fighter disputes.

(a) In the case of collective bargaining agreements involving units of security employees of a public employer, Peace Officer Units, or units of fire fighters or paramedics, and in the case of disputes under Section 18, unless the parties mutually agree to some other time limit, mediation shall commence 30 days prior to the expiration date of such agreement or at such later time as the mediation services chosen under subsection (b) of Section 12 can be provided to the parties. In the case of negotiations for an initial collective bargaining agreement, mediation shall commence upon 15 days notice from either party or at such later time as the mediation services chosen pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 12 can be provided to the parties. In mediation under this Section, if either party requests the use of mediation services from the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, the other party shall either join in such request or bear the additional cost of mediation services from another source. The mediator shall have a duty to keep the Board informed on the progress of the mediation. If any dispute has not been resolved within 15 days after the first meeting of the parties and the mediator, or within such other time limit as may be mutually agreed upon by the parties, either the exclusive representative or employer may request of the other, in writing, arbitration, and shall submit a copy of the request to the Board.

(b) Within 10 days after such a request for arbitration has been made, the employer shall choose a delegate and the employees' exclusive representative shall choose a delegate to a panel of arbitration as provided in this Section. The employer and employees shall forthwith advise the other and the Board of their selections.

(c) Within 7 days after the request of either party, the parties shall request a panel of impartial arbitrators from which they shall select the neutral chairman according to the procedures provided in this Section. If the parties have agreed to a contract that contains a grievance resolution procedure as provided in Section 8, the chairman shall be selected using their agreed contract procedure unless they mutually agree to another procedure. If the parties fail to notify the Board of their selection of neutral chairman within 7 days after receipt of the list of impartial arbitrators, the Board shall appoint, at random, a neutral chairman from the list. In the absence of an agreed contract procedure for selecting an impartial arbitrator, either party may request a panel from the Board. Within 7 days of the request of either party, the Board shall select from the Public Employees Labor Mediation Roster 7 persons who are on the labor arbitration panels of either the American Arbitration Association or the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, or who are members of the National Academy of Arbitrators, as nominees for impartial arbitrator of the arbitration panel. The parties may select an individual on the list provided by the Board or any other individual mutually agreed upon by the parties. Within 7 days following the receipt of the list, the parties shall notify the Board of the person they have selected. Unless the parties agree on an alternate selection procedure, they shall alternatively strike one name from the list provided by the Board until only one name remains. A coin toss shall determine which party shall strike the first name. If the parties fail to notify the Board in a timely manner of their selection for neutral chairman, the Board shall appoint a neutral chairman from the Illinois Public Employees Mediation/Arbitration Roster.

(d) The chairman shall call a hearing to begin within 15 days and give reasonable notice of the time and place of the hearing. The hearing shall be held at the offices of the Board or at such other location as the Board deems appropriate. The chairman shall preside over the hearing and shall take testimony. Any oral or documentary evidence and other data deemed relevant by the arbitration panel may be received in evidence. The proceedings shall be informal. Technical rules of evidence shall not apply and the competency of the evidence shall not thereby be deemed impaired. A verbatim record of the proceedings shall be made and the arbitrator shall arrange for the necessary recording service. Transcripts may be ordered at the expense of the party ordering them, but the transcripts shall not be necessary for a decision by the arbitration panel. The expense of the proceedings, including a fee for the chairman, shall be borne equally by each of the parties to the dispute. The delegates, if public officers or employees, shall continue on the payroll of the public employer without loss of pay. The hearing conducted by the arbitration panel may be adjourned from time to time, but unless otherwise agreed by the parties, shall be concluded within 30 days of the time of its commencement. Majority actions and rulings shall constitute the actions and rulings of the arbitration panel. Arbitration proceedings under this Section shall not be interrupted or terminated by reason of any unfair labor practice charge filed by either party at any time.

(e) The arbitration panel may administer oaths, require the attendance of witnesses, and the production of such books, papers, contracts, agreements and documents as may be deemed by it material to a just determination of the issues in dispute, and for such purpose may issue subpoenas. If any person refuses to obey a subpoena, or refuses to be sworn or to testify, or if any witness, party or attorney is guilty of any contempt while in attendance at any hearing, the arbitration panel may, or the attorney general if requested shall, invoke the aid of any circuit court within the jurisdiction in which the hearing is being held, which court shall issue an appropriate order. Any failure to obey the order may be punished by the court as contempt.

(f) At any time before the rendering of an award, the chairman of the arbitration panel, if he is of the opinion that it would be useful or beneficial to do so, may remand the dispute to the parties for further collective bargaining for a period not to exceed 2 weeks. If the dispute is remanded for further collective bargaining the time provisions of this Act shall be extended for a time period equal to that of the remand. The chairman of the panel of arbitration shall notify the Board of the remand.

(g) At or before the conclusion of the hearing held pursuant to subsection (d), the arbitration panel shall identify the economic issues in dispute, and direct each of the parties to submit, within such time limit as the panel shall prescribe, to the arbitration panel and to each other its last offer of settlement on each economic issue. The determination of the arbitration panel as to the issues in dispute and as to which of these issues are economic shall be conclusive. The arbitration panel, within 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing, or such further additional periods to which the parties may agree, shall make written findings of fact and promulgate a written opinion and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy thereof to the parties and their representatives and to the Board. As to each economic issue, the arbitration panel shall adopt the last offer of settlement which, in the opinion of the arbitration panel, more nearly complies with the applicable factors prescribed in subsection (h). The findings, opinions and order as to all other issues shall be based upon the applicable factors prescribed in subsection (h).

(h) Where there is no agreement between the parties, or where there is an agreement but the parties have begun negotiations or discussions looking to a new agreement or amendment of the existing agreement, and wage rates or other conditions of employment under the proposed new or amended agreement are in dispute, the arbitration panel shall base its findings, opinions and order upon the following factors, as applicable:

(1) The lawful authority of the employer.

(2) Stipulations of the parties.

(3) The interests and welfare of the public and the financial ability of the unit of government to meet those costs.

(4) Comparison of the wages, hours and conditions of employment of the employees involved in the arbitration proceeding with the wages, hours and conditions of employment of other employees performing similar services and with other employees generally:

(A) In public employment in comparable communities.

(B) In private employment in comparable communities.

(5) The average consumer prices for goods and services, commonly known as the cost of living.

(6) The overall compensation presently received by the employees, including direct wage compensation, vacations, holidays and other excused time, insurance and pensions, medical and hospitalization benefits, the continuity and stability of employment and all other benefits received.

(7) Changes in any of the foregoing circumstances during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings.

(8) Such other factors, not confined to the foregoing, which are normally or traditionally taken into consideration in the determination of wages, hours and conditions of employment through voluntary collective bargaining, mediation, fact-finding, arbitration or otherwise between the parties, in the public service or in private employment.

(i) In the case of peace officers, the arbitration decision shall be limited to wages, hours, and conditions of employment (which may include residency requirements in municipalities with a population under 100,000, but those residency requirements shall not allow residency outside of Illinois) and shall not include the following: i) residency requirements in municipalities with a population of at least 100,000; ii) the type of equipment, other than uniforms, issued or used; iii) manning; iv) the total number of employees employed by the department; v) mutual aid and assistance agreements to other units of government; and vi) the criterion pursuant to which force, including deadly force, can be used; provided, nothing herein shall preclude an arbitration decision regarding equipment or manning levels if such decision is based on a finding that the equipment or manning considerations in a specific work assignment involve a serious risk to the safety of a peace officer beyond that which is inherent in the normal performance of police duties. Limitation of the terms of the arbitration decision pursuant to this subsection shall not be construed to limit the factors upon which the decision may be based, as set forth in subsection (h).

In the case of fire fighter, and fire department or fire district paramedic matters, the arbitration decision shall be limited to wages, hours, and conditions of employment (including manning and also including residency requirements in municipalities with a population under 1,000,000, but those residency requirements shall not allow residency outside of Illinois) and shall not include the following matters: i) residency requirements in municipalities with a population of at least 1,000,000; ii) the type of equipment (other than uniforms and fire fighter turnout gear) issued or used; iii) the total number of employees employed by the department; iv) mutual aid and assistance agreements to other units of government; and v) the criterion pursuant to which force, including deadly force, can be used; provided, however, nothing herein shall preclude an arbitration decision regarding equipment levels if such decision is based on a finding that the equipment considerations in a specific work assignment involve a serious risk to the safety of a fire fighter beyond that which is inherent in the normal performance of fire fighter duties. Limitation of the terms of the arbitration decision pursuant to this subsection shall not be construed to limit the facts upon which the decision may be based, as set forth in subsection (h).

The changes to this subsection (i) made by Public Act 90-385 (relating to residency requirements) do not apply to persons who are employed by a combined department that performs both police and firefighting services; these persons shall be governed by the provisions of this subsection (i) relating to peace officers, as they existed before the amendment by Public Act 90-385.

To preserve historical bargaining rights, this subsection shall not apply to any provision of a fire fighter collective bargaining agreement in effect and applicable on the effective date of this Act; provided, however, nothing herein shall preclude arbitration with respect to any such provision.

(j) Arbitration procedures shall be deemed to be initiated by the filing of a letter requesting mediation as required under subsection (a) of this Section. The commencement of a new municipal fiscal year after the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act, but before the arbitration decision, or its enforcement, shall not be deemed to render a dispute moot, or to otherwise impair the jurisdiction or authority of the arbitration panel or its decision. Increases in rates of compensation awarded by the arbitration panel may be effective only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the date of the arbitration award. If a new fiscal year has commenced either since the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act or since any mutually agreed extension of the statutorily required period of mediation under this Act by the parties to the labor dispute causing a delay in the initiation of arbitration, the foregoing limitations shall be inapplicable, and such awarded increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the fiscal year, any other statute or charter provisions to the contrary, notwithstanding. At any time the parties, by stipulation, may amend or modify an award of arbitration.

(k) Orders of the arbitration panel shall be reviewable, upon appropriate petition by either the public employer or the exclusive bargaining representative, by the circuit court for the county in which the dispute arose or in which a majority of the affected employees reside, but only for reasons that the arbitration panel was without or exceeded its statutory authority; the order is arbitrary, or capricious; or the order was procured by fraud, collusion or other similar and unlawful means. Such petitions for review must be filed with the appropriate circuit court within 90 days following the issuance of the arbitration order. The pendency of such proceeding for review shall not automatically stay the order of the arbitration panel. The party against whom the final decision of any such court shall be adverse, if such court finds such appeal or petition to be frivolous, shall pay reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to the successful party as determined by said court in its discretion. If said court's decision affirms the award of money, such award, if retroactive, shall bear interest at the rate of 12 percent per annum from the effective retroactive date.

(l) During the pendency of proceedings before the arbitration panel, existing wages, hours, and other conditions of employment shall not be changed by action of either party without the consent of the other but a party may so consent without prejudice to his rights or position under this Act. The proceedings are deemed to be pending before the arbitration panel upon the initiation of arbitration procedures under this Act.

(m) Security officers of public employers, and Peace Officers, Fire Fighters and fire department and fire protection district paramedics, covered by this Section may not withhold services, nor may public employers lock out or prevent such employees from performing services at any time.

(n) All of the terms decided upon by the arbitration panel shall be included in an agreement to be submitted to the public employer's governing body for ratification and adoption by law, ordinance or the equivalent appropriate means.

The governing body shall review each term decided by the arbitration panel. If the governing body fails to reject one or more terms of the arbitration panel's decision by a 3/5 vote of those duly elected and qualified members of the governing body, within 20 days of issuance, or in the case of firefighters employed by a state university, at the next regularly scheduled meeting of the governing body after issuance, such term or terms shall become a part of the collective bargaining agreement of the parties. If the governing body affirmatively rejects one or more terms of the arbitration panel's decision, it must provide reasons for such rejection with respect to each term so rejected, within 20 days of such rejection and the parties shall return to the arbitration panel for further proceedings and issuance of a supplemental decision with respect to the rejected terms. Any supplemental decision by an arbitration panel or other decision maker agreed to by the parties shall be submitted to the governing body for ratification and adoption in accordance with the procedures and voting requirements set forth in this Section. The voting requirements of this subsection shall apply to all disputes submitted to arbitration pursuant to this Section notwithstanding any contrary voting requirements contained in any existing collective bargaining agreement between the parties.

(o) If the governing body of the employer votes to reject the panel's decision, the parties shall return to the panel within 30 days from the issuance of the reasons for rejection for further proceedings and issuance of a supplemental decision. All reasonable costs of such supplemental proceeding including the exclusive representative's reasonable attorney's fees, as established by the Board, shall be paid by the employer.

(p) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section the employer and exclusive representative may agree to submit unresolved disputes concerning wages, hours, terms and conditions of employment to an alternative form of impasse resolution.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 take effect July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 5. The State Police Act is amended by changing Section 17c as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/17c)

Sec. 17c. Military equipment surplus program.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Bayonet" means a large knife designed to be attached to the muzzle of a rifle, shotgun, or long gun for the purpose of hand-to-hand combat.

"Grenade launcher" means a firearm or firearm accessory used designed to launch fragmentary small explosive rounds designed to inflict death or cause great bodily harm projectiles.

"Military equipment surplus program" means any federal or State program allowing a law enforcement agency to obtain surplus military equipment including, but not limit to, any program organized under Section 1122 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160) or Section 1033 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997 (Pub. L. 104-201), or any program established under 10 U.S.C. 2576a.

"Tracked armored vehicle" means a vehicle that provides ballistic protection to its occupants and utilizes a tracked system instead installed of wheels for forward motion, not including vehicles listed in the Authorized Equipment List as published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

"Weaponized aircraft, vessel, or vehicle" means any aircraft, vessel, or vehicle with weapons installed.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall not request or receive from any military equipment surplus program nor purchase or otherwise utilize the following equipment:

(1) tracked armored vehicles;

(2) weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles;

(3) firearms of .50-caliber or higher;

(4) ammunition of .50-caliber or higher;

(5) grenade launchers; or

(6) bayonets.

(c) If the Illinois State Police request other property not prohibited by this Section from a military equipment surplus program, the Illinois State Police shall publish notice of the request on a publicly accessible website maintained by the Illinois State Police within 14 days after the request.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 10. The Task Force on Constitutional Rights and Remedies Act is amended by changing Sections 4-10 and 4-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5165/4-10)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 4-10. Task Force Members.

(a) The Task Force on Constitutional Rights and Remedies shall be comprised of the following members:

(1) The president of statewide association representing trial lawyers or his or her designee, the executive director of a statewide association advocating for the advancement of civil liberties or his or her designee, a representative representing statewide labor, all appointed by the Governor.

(2) Four members of the public appointed, one appointed by each the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, President of the Senate, Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) The president of a statewide bar association or his or her designee, the executive director of a statewide association representing county sheriffs or his or her designee, the executive director of a statewide association representing chiefs of police or his or her designee, a representative of the Chicago Police Department, all appointed by the Governor.

(4) The Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee.

(5) The Attorney General, or his or her designee.

(6) A retired judge appointed by the Governor.

(7) one State Representative, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; one State Representative, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; one State Senator, appointed by the President of the Senate; one State Senator, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation.

(c) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall provide administrative and technical support to the Task Force and be responsible for administering its operations, appointing a chairperson, and ensuring that the requirements of the Task Force are met. The President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives shall appoint co-chairpersons for the Task Force. The Task Force shall have all appointments made within 30 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(20 ILCS 5165/4-15)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 4-15. Meetings; report.

(a) The Task Force shall meet at least 3 times with the first meeting occurring within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(b) The Task Force shall review available research, best practices, and effective interventions to formulate recommendations.

(c) The Task Force shall produce a report detailing the Task Force's findings and recommendations and needed resources. The Task Force shall submit a report of its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly and the Governor by October 31 May 1, 2021.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 15. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 8.1, 10.6, and 10.17 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by police officers that is consistent with Section 25 of the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act in a peer setting, including recognizing signs and symptoms of work-related cumulative stress, issues that may lead to suicide, and solutions for intervention with peer support resources. The curriculum shall include a block of instruction addressing the mandatory reporting requirements under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum shall include training in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking. The curriculum shall also include instruction in trauma-informed responses designed to ensure the physical safety and well-being of a child of an arrested parent or immediate family member; this instruction must include, but is not limited to: (1) understanding the trauma experienced by the child while maintaining the integrity of the arrest and safety of officers, suspects, and other involved individuals; (2) de-escalation tactics that would include the use of force when reasonably necessary; and (3) inquiring whether a child will require supervision and care. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, mental health awareness and response, officer wellness, reporting child abuse and neglect, and cultural competency.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates and use of force training which shall include scenario based training, or similar training approved by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 100-121, eff. 1-1-18; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-910, eff. 1-1-19; 101-18, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-215, eff. 1-1-20; 101-224, eff. 8-9-19; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; revised 9-10-19.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143 but before amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, crisis intervention training, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by police officers that is consistent with Section 25 of the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act in a peer setting, including recognizing signs and symptoms of work-related cumulative stress, issues that may lead to suicide, and solutions for intervention with peer support resources. The curriculum shall include a block of instruction addressing the mandatory reporting requirements under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum shall include training in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking. The curriculum shall also include instruction in trauma-informed responses designed to ensure the physical safety and well-being of a child of an arrested parent or immediate family member; this instruction must include, but is not limited to: (1) understanding the trauma experienced by the child while maintaining the integrity of the arrest and safety of officers, suspects, and other involved individuals; (2) de-escalation tactics that would include the use of force when reasonably necessary; and (3) inquiring whether a child will require supervision and care. The curriculum for probationary police officers shall include: (1) at least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing; (2) at least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible; (3) specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time; and (4) at least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, reporting child abuse and neglect, and cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity. These trainings shall consist of at least 30 hours of training every 3 years.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates, emergency medical response training and certification, crisis intervention training, and officer wellness and mental health.

i. Minimum in-service training requirements as set forth in Section 10.6.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 shall take effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 100-121, eff. 1-1-18; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-910, eff. 1-1-19; 101-18, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-215, eff. 1-1-20; 101-224, eff. 8-9-19; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; P.A. 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, crisis intervention training, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by law enforcement officers that is consistent with Section 25 of the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act in a peer setting, including recognizing signs and symptoms of work-related cumulative stress, issues that may lead to suicide, and solutions for intervention with peer support resources. The curriculum shall include a block of instruction addressing the mandatory reporting requirements under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum shall include training in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking. The curriculum shall also include instruction in trauma-informed responses designed to ensure the physical safety and well-being of a child of an arrested parent or immediate family member; this instruction must include, but is not limited to: (1) understanding the trauma experienced by the child while maintaining the integrity of the arrest and safety of officers, suspects, and other involved individuals; (2) de-escalation tactics that would include the use of force when reasonably necessary; and (3) inquiring whether a child will require supervision and care. The curriculum for probationary law enforcement police officers shall include: (1) at least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing; (2) at least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible; (3) specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time; and (4) at least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops. The curriculum for permanent law enforcement officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary law enforcement officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental or State state governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to the officer's successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, reporting child abuse and neglect, and cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity. These trainings shall consist of at least 30 hours of training every 3 years.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a law enforcement officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates, emergency medical response training and certification, crisis intervention training, and officer wellness and mental health.

i. Minimum in-service training requirements as set forth in Section 10.6.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 shall take effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 100-121, eff. 1-1-18; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-910, eff. 1-1-19; 101-18, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-215, eff. 1-1-20; 101-224, eff. 8-9-19; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-564, eff. 1-1-20; P.A. 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-143, eff. 7-1-21; 101-652, Article 25, Section 25-40, eff. 1-1-22; revised 4-26-21.)

(50 ILCS 705/8.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 508.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 8.1. Full-time police and county corrections officers.

(a) After January 1, 1976, no person shall receive a permanent appointment as a law enforcement officer as defined in this Act nor shall any person receive, after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, a permanent appointment as a county corrections officer unless that person has been awarded, within 6 months of his or her initial full-time employment, a certificate attesting to his or her successful completion of the Minimum Standards Basic Law Enforcement and County Correctional Training Course as prescribed by the Board; or has been awarded a certificate attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours and which course has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or by reason of extensive prior law enforcement or county corrections experience the basic training requirement is determined by the Board to be illogical and unreasonable.

If such training is required and not completed within the applicable 6 months, then the officer must forfeit his or her position, or the employing agency must obtain a waiver from the Board extending the period for compliance. Such waiver shall be issued only for good and justifiable reasons, and in no case shall extend more than 90 days beyond the initial 6 months. Any hiring agency that fails to train a law enforcement officer within this period shall be prohibited from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity for one year from the date training was to be completed. If an agency again fails to train the individual a second time, the agency shall be permanently barred from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity.

(b) No provision of this Section shall be construed to mean that a law enforcement officer employed by a local governmental agency at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act, either as a probationary police officer or as a permanent police officer, shall require certification under the provisions of this Section. No provision of this Section shall be construed to mean that a county corrections officer employed by a local governmental agency at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1984, either as a probationary county corrections or as a permanent county corrections officer, shall require certification under the provisions of this Section. No provision of this Section shall be construed to apply to certification of elected county sheriffs.

(c) This Section does not apply to part-time police officers or probationary part-time police officers.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 8.1. Full-time law enforcement and county corrections officers.

(a) No person shall receive a permanent appointment as a law enforcement officer or a permanent appointment as a county corrections officer unless that person has been awarded, within 6 months of the officer's initial full-time employment, a certificate attesting to the officer's successful completion of the Minimum Standards Basic Law Enforcement or County Correctional Training Course as prescribed by the Board; or has been awarded a certificate attesting to the officer's satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours and which course has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or a training waiver by reason of extensive prior law enforcement or county corrections experience the basic training requirement is determined by the Board to be illogical and unreasonable.

If such training is required and not completed within the applicable 6 months, then the officer must forfeit the officer's position, or the employing agency must obtain a waiver from the Board extending the period for compliance. Such waiver shall be issued only for good and justifiable reasons, and in no case shall extend more than 90 days beyond the initial 6 months. Any hiring agency that fails to train a law enforcement officer within this period shall be prohibited from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity for one year from the date training was to be completed. If an agency again fails to train the individual a second time, the agency shall be permanently barred from employing this individual in a law enforcement capacity.

An individual who is not certified by the Board or whose certified status is inactive shall not function as a law enforcement officer, be assigned the duties of a law enforcement officer by an employing agency, or be authorized to carry firearms under the authority of the employer, except as otherwise authorized to carry a firearm under State or federal law. Sheriffs who are elected as of the effective date of this Amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, are exempt from the requirement of certified status. Failure to be certified in accordance with this Act shall cause the officer to forfeit the officer's position.

An employing agency may not grant a person status as a law enforcement officer unless the person has been granted an active law enforcement officer certification by the Board.

(b) Inactive status. A person who has an inactive law enforcement officer certification has no law enforcement authority.

(1) A law enforcement officer's certification becomes inactive upon termination, resignation, retirement, or separation from the officer's employing governmental agency for any reason. The Board shall re-activate a certification upon written application from the law enforcement officer's governmental agency that shows the law enforcement officer: (i) has accepted a full-time law enforcement position with that governmental agency, (ii) is not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for re-activation required by the Board. The Board may also establish special training requirements to be completed as a condition for re-activation.

A law enforcement officer who is refused reactivation under this Section may request a hearing in accordance with the hearing procedures as outlined in subsection (h) of Section 6.3 of this Act.

The Board may refuse to re-activate the certification of a law enforcement officer who was involuntarily terminated for good cause by his or her governmental agency for conduct subject to decertification under this Act or resigned or retired after receiving notice of a governmental agency's investigation.

(2) A law enforcement officer who is currently certified can place his or her certificate on inactive status by sending a written request to the Board. A law enforcement officer whose certificate has been placed on inactive status shall not function as a law enforcement officer until the officer has completed any requirements for reactivating the certificate as required by the Board. A request for inactive status in this subsection shall be in writing, accompanied by verifying documentation, and shall be submitted to the Board with a copy to the chief administrator of the law enforcement officer's governmental agency.

(3) Certification that has become inactive under paragraph (2) of this subsection (b), shall be reactivated by written notice from the law enforcement officer's agency upon a showing that the law enforcement officer is: (i) employed in a full-time law enforcement position with the same governmental agency (ii) not the subject of a decertification proceeding, and (iii) meets all other criteria for re-activation required by the Board.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (3) of this subsection (b), a law enforcement officer whose certification has become inactive under paragraph (2) may have the officer's governmental agency submit a request for a waiver of training requirements to the Board. A grant of a waiver is within the discretion of the Board. Within 7 days of receiving a request for a waiver under this section, the Board shall notify the law enforcement officer and the chief administrator of the law enforcement officer's governmental agency, whether the request has been granted, denied, or if the Board will take additional time for information. A law enforcement officer whose request for a waiver under this subsection is denied is entitled to appeal the denial to the Board within 20 days of the waiver being denied.

(c) No provision of this Section shall be construed to mean that a county corrections officer employed by a governmental agency at the time of the effective date of this amendatory Act, either as a probationary county corrections or as a permanent county corrections officer, shall require certification under the provisions of this Section. No provision of this Section shall be construed to apply to certification of elected county sheriffs.

(d) Within 14 days, a law enforcement officer shall report to the Board: (1) any name change; (2) any change in employment; or (3) the filing of any criminal indictment or charges against the officer alleging that the officer committed any offense as enumerated in Section 6.1 of this Act.

(e) All law enforcement officers must report the completion of the training requirements required in this Act in compliance with Section 8.4 of this Act.

(e-1) Each employing governmental agency shall allow and provide an opportunity for a law enforcement officer to complete the mandated requirements in this Act. All mandated training will be provided for at no cost to the employees. Employees shall be paid for all time spent attending mandated training.

(f) This Section does not apply to part-time law enforcement officers or probationary part-time law enforcement officers.

(Source: P.A. 101-187, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.6)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10.6. Mandatory training to be completed every 3 years. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for in-service training requirements as set forth in this Section. The training shall provide officers with knowledge of policies and laws regulating the use of force; equip officers with tactics and skills, including de-escalation techniques, to prevent or reduce the need to use force or, when force must be used, to use force that is objectively reasonable, necessary, and proportional under the totality of the circumstances; and ensure appropriate supervision and accountability. The training shall consist of at least 30 hours of training every 3 years and shall include:

(1) At least 12 hours of hands-on, scenario-based role-playing.

(2) At least 6 hours of instruction on use of force techniques, including the use of de-escalation techniques to prevent or reduce the need for force whenever safe and feasible.

(3) Specific training on the law concerning stops, searches, and the use of force under the Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution.

(4) Specific training on officer safety techniques, including cover, concealment, and time.

(5) At least 6 hours of training focused on high-risk traffic stops.

This Section takes effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.17)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10.17. Crisis intervention team training; mental health awareness training.

(a) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall develop and approve a standard curriculum for certified training programs in crisis intervention addressing specialized policing responses to people with mental illnesses. The Board shall conduct Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training programs that train officers to identify signs and symptoms of mental illness, to de-escalate situations involving individuals who appear to have a mental illness, and connect that person in crisis to treatment. Officers who have successfully completed this program shall be issued a certificate attesting to their attendance of a Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training program.

(b) The Board shall create an introductory course incorporating adult learning models that provides law enforcement officers with an awareness of mental health issues including a history of the mental health system, types of mental health illness including signs and symptoms of mental illness and common treatments and medications, and the potential interactions law enforcement officers may have on a regular basis with these individuals, their families, and service providers including de-escalating a potential crisis situation. This course, in addition to other traditional learning settings, may be made available in an electronic format.

(Source: P.A. 99-261, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10.17. Crisis intervention team training; mental health awareness training.

(a) The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall develop and approve a standard curriculum for certified training programs in crisis intervention, including a specialty certification course of at least 40 hours, addressing specialized policing responses to people with mental illnesses. The Board shall conduct Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training programs that train officers to identify signs and symptoms of mental illness, to de-escalate situations involving individuals who appear to have a mental illness, and connect that person in crisis to treatment. Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training programs shall be a collaboration between law enforcement professionals, mental health providers, families, and consumer advocates and must minimally include the following components: (1) basic information about mental illnesses and how to recognize them; (2) information about mental health laws and resources; (3) learning from family members of individuals with mental illness and their experiences; and (4) verbal de-escalation training and role-plays. Officers who have successfully completed this program shall be issued a certificate attesting to their attendance of a Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training program.

(b) The Board shall create an introductory course incorporating adult learning models that provides law enforcement officers with an awareness of mental health issues including a history of the mental health system, types of mental health illness including signs and symptoms of mental illness and common treatments and medications, and the potential interactions law enforcement officers may have on a regular basis with these individuals, their families, and service providers including de-escalating a potential crisis situation. This course, in addition to other traditional learning settings, may be made available in an electronic format.

The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 101-652 shall take effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 25. The Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act is amended by changing Sections 10-15 and 10-20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 706/10-15)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10-15. Applicability. Any law enforcement agency which employs the use of officer-worn body cameras is subject to the provisions of this Act, whether or not the agency receives or has received monies from the Law Enforcement Camera Grant Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10-15. Applicability.

(a) All law enforcement agencies must employ the use of officer-worn body cameras in accordance with the provisions of this Act, whether or not the agency receives or has received monies from the Law Enforcement Camera Grant Fund.

(b) All law enforcement agencies must implement the use of body cameras for all law enforcement officers, according to the following schedule:

(1) for municipalities and counties with populations of 500,000 or more, body cameras shall be implemented by January 1, 2022;

(2) for municipalities and counties with populations of 100,000 or more but under 500,000, body cameras shall be implemented by January 1, 2023;

(3) for municipalities and counties with populations of 50,000 or more but under 100,000, body cameras shall be implemented by January 1, 2024;

(4) for municipalities and counties under 50,000, body cameras shall be implemented by January 1, 2025; and

(5) for all State agencies with law enforcement officers and other remaining law enforcement agencies the Department of State Police, body cameras shall be implemented by January 1, 2025.

(c) A law enforcement agency's compliance with the requirements under this Section shall receive preference by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board in awarding grant funding under the Law Enforcement Camera Grant Act.

(d) This Section does not apply to court security officers, State's Attorney investigators, and Attorney General investigators.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(50 ILCS 706/10-20)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10-20. Requirements.

(a) The Board shall develop basic guidelines for the use of officer-worn body cameras by law enforcement agencies. The guidelines developed by the Board shall be the basis for the written policy which must be adopted by each law enforcement agency which employs the use of officer-worn body cameras. The written policy adopted by the law enforcement agency must include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Cameras must be equipped with pre-event recording, capable of recording at least the 30 seconds prior to camera activation, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(2) Cameras must be capable of recording for a period of 10 hours or more, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(3) Cameras must be turned on at all times when the officer is in uniform and is responding to calls for service or engaged in any law enforcement-related encounter or activity, that occurs while the officer is on duty.

(A) If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(B) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside of a patrol car which is equipped with a functioning in-car camera; however, the officer must turn on the camera upon exiting the patrol vehicle for law enforcement-related encounters.

(4) Cameras must be turned off when:

(A) the victim of a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible, that request is made on the recording;

(B) a witness of a crime or a community member who wishes to report a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible that request is made on the recording; or

(C) the officer is interacting with a confidential informant used by the law enforcement agency.

However, an officer may continue to record or resume recording a victim or a witness, if exigent circumstances exist, or if the officer has reasonable articulable suspicion that a victim or witness, or confidential informant has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. Under these circumstances, and unless impractical or impossible, the officer must indicate on the recording the reason for continuing to record despite the request of the victim or witness.

(4.5) Cameras may be turned off when the officer is engaged in community caretaking functions. However, the camera must be turned on when the officer has reason to believe that the person on whose behalf the officer is performing a community caretaking function has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(5) The officer must provide notice of recording to any person if the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy and proof of notice must be evident in the recording. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the officer from providing notice, notice must be provided as soon as practicable.

(6) For the purposes of redaction, labeling, or duplicating recordings, access to camera recordings shall be restricted to only those personnel responsible for those purposes. The recording officer and his or her supervisor may access and review recordings prior to completing incident reports or other documentation, provided that the officer or his or her supervisor discloses that fact in the report or documentation.

(7) Recordings made on officer-worn cameras must be retained by the law enforcement agency or by the camera vendor used by the agency, on a recording medium for a period of 90 days.

(A) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera be altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period.

(B) Following the 90-day storage period, any and all recordings made with an officer-worn body camera must be destroyed, unless any encounter captured on the recording has been flagged. An encounter is deemed to be flagged when:

(i) a formal or informal complaint has been filed;

(ii) the officer discharged his or her firearm or used force during the encounter;

(iii) death or great bodily harm occurred to any person in the recording;

(iv) the encounter resulted in a detention or an arrest, excluding traffic stops which resulted in only a minor traffic offense or business offense;

(v) the officer is the subject of an internal investigation or otherwise being investigated for possible misconduct;

(vi) the supervisor of the officer, prosecutor, defendant, or court determines that the encounter has evidentiary value in a criminal prosecution; or

(vii) the recording officer requests that the video be flagged for official purposes related to his or her official duties.

(C) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera relating to a flagged encounter be altered or destroyed prior to 2 years after the recording was flagged. If the flagged recording was used in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, the recording shall not be destroyed except upon a final disposition and order from the court.

(8) Following the 90-day storage period, recordings may be retained if a supervisor at the law enforcement agency designates the recording for training purposes. If the recording is designated for training purposes, the recordings may be viewed by officers, in the presence of a supervisor or training instructor, for the purposes of instruction, training, or ensuring compliance with agency policies.

(9) Recordings shall not be used to discipline law enforcement officers unless:

(A) a formal or informal complaint of misconduct has been made;

(B) a use of force incident has occurred;

(C) the encounter on the recording could result in a formal investigation under the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act; or

(D) as corroboration of other evidence of misconduct.

Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to limit or prohibit a law enforcement officer from being subject to an action that does not amount to discipline.

(10) The law enforcement agency shall ensure proper care and maintenance of officer-worn body cameras. Upon becoming aware, officers must as soon as practical document and notify the appropriate supervisor of any technical difficulties, failures, or problems with the officer-worn body camera or associated equipment. Upon receiving notice, the appropriate supervisor shall make every reasonable effort to correct and repair any of the officer-worn body camera equipment.

(11) No officer may hinder or prohibit any person, not a law enforcement officer, from recording a law enforcement officer in the performance of his or her duties in a public place or when the officer has no reasonable expectation of privacy. The law enforcement agency's written policy shall indicate the potential criminal penalties, as well as any departmental discipline, which may result from unlawful confiscation or destruction of the recording medium of a person who is not a law enforcement officer. However, an officer may take reasonable action to maintain safety and control, secure crime scenes and accident sites, protect the integrity and confidentiality of investigations, and protect the public safety and order.

(b) Recordings made with the use of an officer-worn body camera are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except that:

(1) if the subject of the encounter has a reasonable expectation of privacy, at the time of the recording, any recording which is flagged, due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm, shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act if:

(A) the subject of the encounter captured on the recording is a victim or witness; and

(B) the law enforcement agency obtains written permission of the subject or the subject's legal representative;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), any recording which is flagged due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) upon request, the law enforcement agency shall disclose, in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, the recording to the subject of the encounter captured on the recording or to the subject's attorney, or the officer or his or her legal representative.

For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), the subject of the encounter does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy if the subject was arrested as a result of the encounter. For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), "witness" does not include a person who is a victim or who was arrested as a result of the encounter.

Only recordings or portions of recordings responsive to the request shall be available for inspection or reproduction. Any recording disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act shall be redacted to remove identification of any person that appears on the recording and is not the officer, a subject of the encounter, or directly involved in the encounter. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall require the disclosure of any recording or portion of any recording which would be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall limit access to a camera recording for the purposes of complying with Supreme Court rules or the rules of evidence.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 10-20. Requirements.

(a) The Board shall develop basic guidelines for the use of officer-worn body cameras by law enforcement agencies. The guidelines developed by the Board shall be the basis for the written policy which must be adopted by each law enforcement agency which employs the use of officer-worn body cameras. The written policy adopted by the law enforcement agency must include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(1) Cameras must be equipped with pre-event recording, capable of recording at least the 30 seconds prior to camera activation, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(2) Cameras must be capable of recording for a period of 10 hours or more, unless the officer-worn body camera was purchased and acquired by the law enforcement agency prior to July 1, 2015.

(3) Cameras must be turned on at all times when the officer is in uniform and is responding to calls for service or engaged in any law enforcement-related encounter or activity, that occurs while the officer is on duty.

(A) If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(B) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside of a patrol car which is equipped with a functioning in-car camera; however, the officer must turn on the camera upon exiting the patrol vehicle for law enforcement-related encounters.

(C) Officer-worn body cameras may be turned off when the officer is inside a correctional facility or courthouse which is equipped with a functioning camera system.

(4) Cameras must be turned off when:

(A) the victim of a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible, that request is made on the recording;

(B) a witness of a crime or a community member who wishes to report a crime requests that the camera be turned off, and unless impractical or impossible that request is made on the recording; or

(C) the officer is interacting with a confidential informant used by the law enforcement agency; or .

(D) an officer of the Department of Revenue enters a Department of Revenue facility or conducts an interview during which return information will be discussed or visible.

However, an officer may continue to record or resume recording a victim or a witness, if exigent circumstances exist, or if the officer has reasonable articulable suspicion that a victim or witness, or confidential informant has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. Under these circumstances, and unless impractical or impossible, the officer must indicate on the recording the reason for continuing to record despite the request of the victim or witness.

(4.5) Cameras may be turned off when the officer is engaged in community caretaking functions. However, the camera must be turned on when the officer has reason to believe that the person on whose behalf the officer is performing a community caretaking function has committed or is in the process of committing a crime. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the camera from being turned on, the camera must be turned on as soon as practicable.

(5) The officer must provide notice of recording to any person if the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy and proof of notice must be evident in the recording. If exigent circumstances exist which prevent the officer from providing notice, notice must be provided as soon as practicable.

(6) (A) For the purposes of redaction, labeling, or duplicating recordings, access to camera recordings shall be restricted to only those personnel responsible for those purposes. The recording officer or his or her supervisor may not redact, label, duplicate or otherwise alter the recording officer's camera recordings. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the recording officer and his or her supervisor of the recording officer may access and review recordings prior to completing incident reports or other documentation, provided that the supervisor discloses that fact in the report or documentation.

(i) A law enforcement officer shall not have access to or review his or her body-worn camera recordings or the body-worn camera recordings of another officer prior to completing incident reports or other documentation when the officer:

(a) has been involved in or is a witness to an officer-involved shooting, use of deadly force incident, or use of force incidents resulting in great bodily harm;

(b) is ordered to write a report in response to or during the investigation of a misconduct complaint against the officer.

(ii) If the officer subject to subparagraph (i) prepares a report, any report shall be prepared without viewing body-worn camera recordings, and subject to supervisor's approval, officers may file amendatory reports after viewing body-worn camera recordings. Supplemental reports under this provision shall also contain documentation regarding access to the video footage.

(B) The recording officer's assigned field training officer may access and review recordings for training purposes. Any detective or investigator directly involved in the investigation of a matter may access and review recordings which pertain to that investigation but may not have access to delete or alter such recordings.

(7) Recordings made on officer-worn cameras must be retained by the law enforcement agency or by the camera vendor used by the agency, on a recording medium for a period of 90 days.

(A) Under no circumstances shall any recording, except for a non-law enforcement related activity or encounter, made with an officer-worn body camera be altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period. In the event any recording made with an officer-worn body camera is altered, erased, or destroyed prior to the expiration of the 90-day storage period, the law enforcement agency shall maintain, for a period of one year, a written record including (i) the name of the individual who made such alteration, erasure, or destruction, and (ii) the reason for any such alteration, erasure, or destruction.

(B) Following the 90-day storage period, any and all recordings made with an officer-worn body camera must be destroyed, unless any encounter captured on the recording has been flagged. An encounter is deemed to be flagged when:

(i) a formal or informal complaint has been filed;

(ii) the officer discharged his or her firearm or used force during the encounter;

(iii) death or great bodily harm occurred to any person in the recording;

(iv) the encounter resulted in a detention or an arrest, excluding traffic stops which resulted in only a minor traffic offense or business offense;

(v) the officer is the subject of an internal investigation or otherwise being investigated for possible misconduct;

(vi) the supervisor of the officer, prosecutor, defendant, or court determines that the encounter has evidentiary value in a criminal prosecution; or

(vii) the recording officer requests that the video be flagged for official purposes related to his or her official duties.

(C) Under no circumstances shall any recording made with an officer-worn body camera relating to a flagged encounter be altered or destroyed prior to 2 years after the recording was flagged. If the flagged recording was used in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, the recording shall not be destroyed except upon a final disposition and order from the court.

(8) Following the 90-day storage period, recordings may be retained if a supervisor at the law enforcement agency designates the recording for training purposes. If the recording is designated for training purposes, the recordings may be viewed by officers, in the presence of a supervisor or training instructor, for the purposes of instruction, training, or ensuring compliance with agency policies.

(9) Recordings shall not be used to discipline law enforcement officers unless:

(A) a formal or informal complaint of misconduct has been made;

(B) a use of force incident has occurred;

(C) the encounter on the recording could result in a formal investigation under the Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act; or

(D) as corroboration of other evidence of misconduct.

Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to limit or prohibit a law enforcement officer from being subject to an action that does not amount to discipline.

(10) The law enforcement agency shall ensure proper care and maintenance of officer-worn body cameras. Upon becoming aware, officers must as soon as practical document and notify the appropriate supervisor of any technical difficulties, failures, or problems with the officer-worn body camera or associated equipment. Upon receiving notice, the appropriate supervisor shall make every reasonable effort to correct and repair any of the officer-worn body camera equipment.

(11) No officer may hinder or prohibit any person, not a law enforcement officer, from recording a law enforcement officer in the performance of his or her duties in a public place or when the officer has no reasonable expectation of privacy. The law enforcement agency's written policy shall indicate the potential criminal penalties, as well as any departmental discipline, which may result from unlawful confiscation or destruction of the recording medium of a person who is not a law enforcement officer. However, an officer may take reasonable action to maintain safety and control, secure crime scenes and accident sites, protect the integrity and confidentiality of investigations, and protect the public safety and order.

(b) Recordings made with the use of an officer-worn body camera are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except that:

(1) if the subject of the encounter has a reasonable expectation of privacy, at the time of the recording, any recording which is flagged, due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm, shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act if:

(A) the subject of the encounter captured on the recording is a victim or witness; and

(B) the law enforcement agency obtains written permission of the subject or the subject's legal representative;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), any recording which is flagged due to the filing of a complaint, discharge of a firearm, use of force, arrest or detention, or resulting death or bodily harm shall be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) upon request, the law enforcement agency shall disclose, in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, the recording to the subject of the encounter captured on the recording or to the subject's attorney, or the officer or his or her legal representative.

For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), the subject of the encounter does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy if the subject was arrested as a result of the encounter. For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), "witness" does not include a person who is a victim or who was arrested as a result of the encounter.

Only recordings or portions of recordings responsive to the request shall be available for inspection or reproduction. Any recording disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act shall be redacted to remove identification of any person that appears on the recording and is not the officer, a subject of the encounter, or directly involved in the encounter. Nothing in this subsection (b) shall require the disclosure of any recording or portion of any recording which would be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall limit access to a camera recording for the purposes of complying with Supreme Court rules or the rules of evidence.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 30 The Uniform Crime Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 5-12 as follows:

(50 ILCS 709/5-12)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-12. Monthly reporting. All law enforcement agencies shall submit to the Department of State Police on a monthly basis the following:

(1) beginning January 1, 2016, a report on any arrest-related death that shall include information regarding the deceased, the officer, any weapon used by the officer or the deceased, and the circumstances of the incident. The Department shall submit on a quarterly basis all information collected under this paragraph (1) to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, contingent upon updated federal guidelines regarding the Uniform Crime Reporting Program;

(2) beginning January 1, 2017, a report on any instance when a law enforcement officer discharges his or her firearm causing a non-fatal injury to a person, during the performance of his or her official duties or in the line of duty;

(3) a report of incident-based information on hate crimes including information describing the offense, location of the offense, type of victim, offender, and bias motivation. If no hate crime incidents occurred during a reporting month, the law enforcement agency must submit a no incident record, as required by the Department;

(4) a report on any incident of an alleged commission of a domestic crime, that shall include information regarding the victim, offender, date and time of the incident, any injury inflicted, any weapons involved in the commission of the offense, and the relationship between the victim and the offender;

(5) data on an index of offenses selected by the Department based on the seriousness of the offense, frequency of occurrence of the offense, and likelihood of being reported to law enforcement. The data shall include the number of index crime offenses committed and number of associated arrests; and

(6) data on offenses and incidents reported by schools to local law enforcement. The data shall include offenses defined as an attack against school personnel, intimidation offenses, drug incidents, and incidents involving weapons.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-12. Monthly reporting. All law enforcement agencies shall submit to the Department of State Police on a monthly basis the following:

(1) beginning January 1, 2016, a report on any arrest-related death that shall include information regarding the deceased, the officer, any weapon used by the officer or the deceased, and the circumstances of the incident. The Department shall submit on a quarterly basis all information collected under this paragraph (1) to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, contingent upon updated federal guidelines regarding the Uniform Crime Reporting Program;

(2) beginning January 1, 2017, a report on any instance when a law enforcement officer discharges his or her firearm causing a non-fatal injury to a person, during the performance of his or her official duties or in the line of duty;

(3) a report of incident-based information on hate crimes including information describing the offense, location of the offense, type of victim, offender, and bias motivation. If no hate crime incidents occurred during a reporting month, the law enforcement agency must submit a no incident record, as required by the Department;

(4) a report on any incident of an alleged commission of a domestic crime, that shall include information regarding the victim, offender, date and time of the incident, any injury inflicted, any weapons involved in the commission of the offense, and the relationship between the victim and the offender;

(5) data on an index of offenses selected by the Department based on the seriousness of the offense, frequency of occurrence of the offense, and likelihood of being reported to law enforcement. The data shall include the number of index crime offenses committed and number of associated arrests;

(6) data on offenses and incidents reported by schools to local law enforcement. The data shall include offenses defined as an attack against school personnel, intimidation offenses, drug incidents, and incidents involving weapons;

(7) beginning on July 1, 2021, a report on incidents any incident where a law enforcement officer was dispatched to deal with a person experiencing a mental health crisis or incident. The report shall include the number of incidents, the level of law enforcement response and the outcome of each incident. For purposes of this Section, a "mental health crisis" is when a person's behavior puts them at risk of hurting themselves or others or prevents them from being able to care for themselves;

(8) beginning on July 1, 2021, a report on use of force, including any action that resulted in the death or serious bodily injury of a person or the discharge of a firearm at or in the direction of a person. The report shall include information required by the Department, pursuant to Section 5-11 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 35. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-6041 and 3-15003.8 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-6041)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-6041. Military equipment surplus program.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Bayonet" means a large knife designed to be attached to the muzzle of a rifle, shotgun, or long gun for the purpose of hand-to-hand combat.

"Grenade launcher" means a firearm or firearm accessory used designed to launch fragmentary small explosive rounds designed to inflict death or cause great bodily harm projectiles.

"Military equipment surplus program" means any federal or State program allowing a law enforcement agency to obtain surplus military equipment including, but not limited to, any program organized under Section 1122 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160) or Section 1033 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997 (Pub. L. 104-201) or any program established under 10 U.S.C. 2576a.

"Tracked armored vehicle" means a vehicle that provides ballistic protection to its occupants and utilizes a tracked system instead installed of wheels for forward motion not including vehicles listed in the Authorized Equipment List as published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

"Weaponized aircraft, vessel, or vehicle" means any aircraft, vessel, or vehicle with weapons installed.

(b) A sheriff's department shall not request or receive from any military equipment surplus program nor purchase or otherwise utilize the following equipment:

(1) tracked armored vehicles;

(2) weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles;

(3) firearms of .50-caliber or higher;

(4) ammunition of .50-caliber or higher;

(5) grenade launchers; or

(6) bayonets.

(c) A home rule county may not regulate the acquisition of equipment in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule counties of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(d) If the sheriff requests property from a military equipment surplus program, the sheriff shall publish notice of the request on a publicly accessible website maintained by the sheriff or the county within 14 days after the request.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-15003.8)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-15003.8. Educational programming programing for pregnant prisoners. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall provide the county department of corrections with educational programming relating to pregnancy and parenting and the county department of corrections shall provide the programming to pregnant prisoners A county department of corrections shall develop and provide to each pregnant prisoner educational programming relating to pregnancy and parenting. The programming must include instruction regarding:

(1) appropriate prenatal care and hygiene;

(2) the effects of prenatal exposure to alcohol and drugs on a developing fetus;

(3) parenting skills; and

(4) medical and mental health issues applicable to children.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 40. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Section 11-5.1-2 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/11-5.1-2)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 11-5.1-2. Military equipment surplus program.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

"Bayonet" means large knives designed to be attached to the muzzle of a rifle, shotgun, or long gun for the purposes of hand-to-hand combat.

"Grenade launcher" means a firearm or firearm accessory used designed to launch fragmentary small explosive rounds designed to inflict death or cause great bodily harm projectiles.

"Military equipment surplus program" means any federal or state program allowing a law enforcement agency to obtain surplus military equipment including, but not limit to, any program organized under Section 1122 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994 (Pub. L. 103-160) or Section 1033 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1997 (Pub. L. 104-201) or any program established by the United States Department of Defense under 10 U.S.C. 2576a.

"Tracked armored vehicle" means a vehicle that provides ballistic protection to its occupants and utilizes a tracked system instead installed of wheels for forward motion not including vehicles listed in the Authorized Equipment List as published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency.

"Weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles" means any aircraft, vessel, or vehicle with weapons installed.

(b) A police department shall not request or receive from any military equipment surplus program nor purchase or otherwise utilize the following equipment:

(1) tracked armored vehicles;

(2) weaponized aircraft, vessels, or vehicles;

(3) firearms of .50-caliber or higher;

(4) ammunition of .50-caliber or higher;

(5) grenade launchers, grenades, or similar explosives; or

(6) bayonets.

(c) A home rule municipality may not regulate the acquisition of equipment in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule municipalities of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(d) If a police department requests other property not prohibited from a military equipment surplus program, the police department shall publish notice of the request on a publicly accessible website maintained by the police department or the municipality within 14 days after the request.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/1-2-12.1 rep.)

Section 45. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by repealing Section 1-2-12.1. This Section is effective January 1, 2023.

Section 50. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 7-5, 7-5.5, 7-15, 7-16, 31-1, and 33-9 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/7-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 7-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 7-5. Peace officer's use of force in making arrest.

(a) A peace officer, or any person whom he has summoned or directed to assist him, need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. He is justified in the use of any force which he reasonably believes to be necessary to effect the arrest and of any force which he reasonably believes to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm while making the arrest. However, he is justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm only when he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent death or great bodily harm to himself or such other person, or when he reasonably believes both that:

(1) Such force is necessary to prevent the arrest from being defeated by resistance or escape; and

(2) The person to be arrested has committed or attempted a forcible felony which involves the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or is attempting to escape by use of a deadly weapon, or otherwise indicates that he will endanger human life or inflict great bodily harm unless arrested without delay.

(b) A peace officer making an arrest pursuant to an invalid warrant is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if the warrant were valid, unless he knows that the warrant is invalid.

(Source: P.A. 84-1426.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 7-5. Peace officer's use of force in making arrest.

(a) A peace officer, or any person whom he has summoned or directed to assist him, need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. He is justified in the use of any force which he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, to be necessary to effect the arrest and of any force which he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm while making the arrest. However, he is justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm only when: (i) he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, that such force is necessary to prevent death or great bodily harm to himself or such other person; , or (ii) when he reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, both that:

(1) Such force is necessary to prevent the arrest from being defeated by resistance or escape; the officer reasonably believes that the person to be arrested cannot be apprehended at a later date, and the officer reasonably believes that the person to be arrested is likely to cause great bodily harm to another; and

(2) The person to be arrested just committed or attempted a forcible felony which involves the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or is attempting to escape by use of a deadly weapon, or otherwise indicates that he will endanger human life or inflict great bodily harm unless arrested without delay.

As used in this subsection, "retreat" does not mean tactical repositioning or other de-escalation tactics.

A peace officer is not justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm when there is no longer an imminent threat of great bodily harm to the officer or another.

(a-5) Where feasible, a peace officer shall, prior to the use of force, make reasonable efforts to identify himself or herself as a peace officer and to warn that deadly force may be used, unless the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person is aware of those facts.

(a-10) A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person based on the danger that the person poses to himself or herself if an reasonable officer would believe the person does not pose an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm serious bodily injury to the peace officer or to another person.

(a-15) A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person who is suspected of committing a property offense, unless that offense is terrorism or unless deadly force is otherwise authorized by law.

(b) A peace officer making an arrest pursuant to an invalid warrant is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if the warrant were valid, unless he knows that the warrant is invalid.

(c) The authority to use physical force conferred on peace officers by this Article is a serious responsibility that shall be exercised judiciously and with respect for human rights and dignity and for the sanctity of every human life.

(d) Peace officers shall use deadly force only when reasonably necessary in defense of human life. In determining whether deadly force is reasonably necessary, officers shall evaluate each situation in light of the totality of particular circumstances of each case including but not limited to the proximity in time of the use of force to the commission of a forcible felony, and the reasonable feasibility of safely apprehending a subject at a later time, and shall use other available resources and techniques, if reasonably safe and feasible to a reasonable officer.

(e) The decision by a peace officer to use force shall be evaluated carefully and thoroughly, in a manner that reflects the gravity of that authority and the serious consequences of the use of force by peace officers, in order to ensure that officers use force consistent with law and agency policies.

(f) The decision by a peace officer to use force shall be evaluated from the perspective of a reasonable officer in the same situation, based on the totality of the circumstances known to or perceived by the officer at the time of the decision, rather than with the benefit of hindsight, and that the totality of the circumstances shall account for occasions when officers may be forced to make quick judgments about using force.

(g) Law enforcement agencies are encouraged to adopt and develop policies designed to protect individuals with physical, mental health, developmental, or intellectual disabilities, or individuals who are significantly more likely to experience greater levels of physical force during police interactions, as these disabilities may affect the ability of a person to understand or comply with commands from peace officers.

(h) As used in this Section:

(1) "Deadly force" means any use of force that creates a substantial risk of causing death or great bodily harm serious bodily injury, including, but not limited to, the discharge of a firearm.

(2) A threat of death or serious bodily injury is "imminent" when, based on the totality of the circumstances, a reasonable officer in the same situation would believe that a person has the present ability, opportunity, and apparent intent to immediately cause death or great bodily harm serious bodily injury to the peace officer or another person. An imminent harm is not merely a fear of future harm, no matter how great the fear and no matter how great the likelihood of the harm, but is one that, from appearances, must be instantly confronted and addressed.

(3) "Totality of the circumstances" means all facts known to the peace officer at the time, or that would be known to a reasonable officer in the same situation, including the conduct of the officer and the subject leading up to the use of deadly force.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/7-5.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 7-5.5. Prohibited use of force by a peace officer.

(a) A peace officer shall not use a chokehold in the performance of his or her duties, unless deadly force is justified under Article 7 of this Code.

(b) A peace officer shall not use a chokehold, or any lesser contact with the throat or neck area of another, in order to prevent the destruction of evidence by ingestion.

(c) As used in this Section, "chokehold" means applying any direct pressure to the throat, windpipe, or airway of another with the intent to reduce or prevent the intake of air. "Chokehold" does not include any holding involving contact with the neck that is not intended to reduce the intake of air such as a headlock where the only pressure applied is to the head.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 7-5.5. Prohibited use of force by a peace officer.

(a) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law on behalf of a peace officer, shall not use a chokehold or restraint above the shoulders with risk of asphyxiation in the performance of his or her duties, unless deadly force is justified under Article 7 of this Code.

(b) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law on behalf of a peace officer, shall not use a chokehold or restraint above the shoulders with risk of asphyxiation, or any lesser contact with the throat or neck area of another, in order to prevent the destruction of evidence by ingestion.

(c) As used in this Section, "chokehold" means applying any direct pressure to the throat, windpipe, or airway of another. "Chokehold" does not include any holding involving contact with the neck that is not intended to reduce the intake of air such as a headlock where the only pressure applied is to the head.

(d) As used in this Section, "restraint above the shoulders with risk of positional asphyxiation" means a use of a technique used to restrain a person above the shoulders, including the neck or head, in a position which interferes with the person's ability to breathe after the person no longer poses a threat to the officer or any other person.

(e) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law on behalf of a peace officer, shall not:

(i) use force as punishment or retaliation;

(ii) discharge kinetic impact projectiles and all other non-or less-lethal projectiles in a manner that targets the head, neck, groin, anterior , pelvis, or back;

(iii) discharge conducted electrical weapons in a manner that targets the head, chest, neck, groin, or anterior pelvis;

(iv) (iii) discharge firearms or kinetic impact projectiles indiscriminately into a crowd; or

(v) (iv) use chemical agents or irritants for crowd control, including pepper spray and tear gas, prior to issuing an order to disperse in a sufficient manner to allow for ensure the order to be is heard and repeated if necessary, followed by sufficient time and space to allow compliance with the order unless providing such time and space would unduly place an officer or another person at risk of death or great bodily harm; or .

(vi) use chemical agents or irritants, including pepper spray and tear gas, prior to issuing an order in a sufficient manner to ensure the order is heard, and repeated if necessary, to allow compliance with the order unless providing such time and space would unduly place an officer or another person at risk of death or great bodily harm.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/7-15)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 7-15. Duty to render aid. It is the policy of the State of Illinois that all law enforcement officers must, as soon as reasonably practical, determine if a person is injured, whether as a result of a use of force or otherwise, and render medical aid and assistance consistent with training and request emergency medical assistance if necessary. "Render medical aid and assistance" includes, but is not limited to, (i) performing emergency life-saving procedures such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation or the administration of an automated external defibrillator; and (ii) the carrying, or the making of arrangements for the carrying, of such person to a physician, surgeon, or hospital for medical or surgical treatment if it is apparent that treatment is necessary, or if such carrying is requested by the injured person.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/7-16)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 7-16. Duty to intervene.

(a) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law who has an opportunity to intervene on behalf of a peace officer, shall have an affirmative duty to intervene to prevent or stop another peace officer in his or her presence from using any unauthorized force or force that exceeds the degree of force permitted, if any, without regard for chain of command.

(b) A peace officer, or any other person acting under the color of law on behalf of a peace officer, who intervenes as required by this Section shall report the intervention to the person designated/identified by the law enforcement entity in a manner prescribed by the agency. The report required by this Section must include the date, time, and place of the occurrence; the identity, if known, and description of the participants; and a description of the intervention actions taken and whether they were successful. In no event shall the report be submitted more than 5 days after the incident.

(c) A member of a law enforcement agency shall not discipline nor retaliate in any way against a peace officer for intervening as required in this Section or for reporting unconstitutional or unlawful conduct, or for failing to follow what the officer reasonably believes is an unconstitutional or unlawful directive.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/31-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 31-1. Resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee.

(a) A person who knowingly resists or obstructs the performance by one known to the person to be a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee of any authorized act within his or her official capacity commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee to be sentenced to a minimum of 48 consecutive hours of imprisonment or ordered to perform community service for not less than 100 hours as may be determined by the court. The person shall not be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence of imprisonment or community service.

(a-7) A person convicted for a violation of this Section whose violation was the proximate cause of an injury to a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "correctional institution employee" means any person employed to supervise and control inmates incarcerated in a penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house, or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses or awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a bail setting hearing or preliminary hearing, or who are sexually dangerous persons or who are sexually violent persons; and "firefighter" means any individual, either as an employee or volunteer, of a regularly constituted fire department of a municipality or fire protection district who performs fire fighting duties, including, but not limited to, the fire chief, assistant fire chief, captain, engineer, driver, ladder person, hose person, pipe person, and any other member of a regularly constituted fire department. "Firefighter" also means a person employed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to conduct arson investigations.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section if a person resists or obstructs the performance of one known by the person to be a firefighter by returning to or remaining in a dwelling, residence, building, or other structure to rescue or to attempt to rescue any person.

(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 31-1. Resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee.

(a) A person who knowingly:

(1) resists arrest, or

(2) obstructs the performance by one known to the person to be a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee of any authorized act within his or her official capacity commits a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of resisting or obstructing a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee to be sentenced to a minimum of 48 consecutive hours of imprisonment or ordered to perform community service for not less than 100 hours as may be determined by the court. The person shall not be eligible for probation in order to reduce the sentence of imprisonment or community service.

(a-7) A person convicted for a violation of this Section whose violation was the proximate cause of an injury to a peace officer, firefighter, or correctional institution employee is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "correctional institution employee" means any person employed to supervise and control inmates incarcerated in a penitentiary, State farm, reformatory, prison, jail, house of correction, police detention area, half-way house, or other institution or place for the incarceration or custody of persons under sentence for offenses or awaiting trial or sentence for offenses, under arrest for an offense, a violation of probation, a violation of parole, a violation of aftercare release, a violation of mandatory supervised release, or awaiting a hearing or preliminary hearing on setting the conditions of pretrial release, or who are sexually dangerous persons or who are sexually violent persons; and "firefighter" means any individual, either as an employee or volunteer, of a regularly constituted fire department of a municipality or fire protection district who performs fire fighting duties, including, but not limited to, the fire chief, assistant fire chief, captain, engineer, driver, ladder person, hose person, pipe person, and any other member of a regularly constituted fire department. "Firefighter" also means a person employed by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to conduct arson investigations.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section if a person resists or obstructs the performance of one known by the person to be a firefighter by returning to or remaining in a dwelling, residence, building, or other structure to rescue or to attempt to rescue any person.

(d) A person shall not be subject to arrest for resisting arrest under this Section unless there is an underlying offense for which the person was initially subject to arrest.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/33-9)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 33-9. Law enforcement misconduct.

(a) A law enforcement officer or a person acting under color of law on behalf of a law enforcement officer commits law enforcement misconduct when, in the performance of his or her official duties with intent to prevent the apprehension or obstruct the prosecution or defense of any person, he or she knowingly and intentionally:

(1) knowingly and intentionally misrepresents or fails to provide material facts describing an incident in any report or during any investigations regarding the law enforcement employee's conduct;

(2) knowingly and intentionally withholds any knowledge of the material misrepresentations of another law enforcement officer from the law enforcement employee's supervisor, investigator, or other person or entity tasked with holding the law enforcement officer accountable; or

(3) knowingly and intentionally fails to comply with paragraphs (3), (5), (6), and (7) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act. State law or their department policy requiring the use of officer-worn body cameras.

(b) Sentence. Law enforcement misconduct is a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 55. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 103-3, 108-8, and 110-5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/103-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 103-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 103-3. Right to communicate with attorney and family; transfers.

(a) Persons who are arrested shall have the right to communicate with an attorney of their choice and a member of their family by making a reasonable number of telephone calls or in any other reasonable manner. Such communication shall be permitted within a reasonable time after arrival at the first place of custody.

(b) In the event the accused is transferred to a new place of custody his right to communicate with an attorney and a member of his family is renewed.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2836.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 103-3. Right to communicate with attorney and family; transfers.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) Persons who are in police custody have the right to communicate free of charge with an attorney of their choice and members of their family as soon as possible upon being taken into police custody, but no later than three hours after arrival at the first place of custody. Persons in police custody must be given:

(1) access to use a telephone via a land line or cellular phone to make three phone calls; and

(2) the ability to retrieve phone numbers contained in his or her contact list on his or her cellular phone prior to the phone being placed into inventory.

(a-10) In accordance with Section 103-7, at every facility where a person is in police custody a sign containing, at minimum, the following information in bold block type must be posted in a conspicuous place:

(1) a short statement notifying persons who are in police custody of their right to have access to a phone within three hours after being taken into police custody; and

(2) persons who are in police custody have the right to make three phone calls within three hours after being taken into custody, at no charge.

(a-15) In addition to the information listed in subsection (a-10), if the place of custody is located in a jurisdiction where the court has appointed the public defender or other attorney to represent persons who are in police custody, the telephone number to the public defender or appointed attorney's office must also be displayed. The telephone call to the public defender or other attorney must not be monitored, eavesdropped upon, or recorded.

(b) (Blank).

(c) In the event a person who is in police custody is transferred to a new place of custody, his or her right to make telephone calls under this Section within three hours after arrival is renewed.

(d) In this Section "custody" means the restriction of a person's freedom of movement by a law enforcement officer's exercise of his or her lawful authority.

(e) The three hours requirement shall not apply while the person in police custody is asleep, unconscious, or otherwise incapacitated.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall interfere with a person's rights or override procedures required in the Bill of Rights of the Illinois and US Constitutions, including but not limited to Fourth Amendment search and seizure rights, Fifth Amendment due process rights and rights to be free from self-incrimination and Sixth Amendment right to counsel.

(g) This Section is effective January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/108-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-8)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 108-8. Use of force in execution of search warrant.

(a) All necessary and reasonable force may be used to effect an entry into any building or property or part thereof to execute a search warrant.

(b) The court issuing a warrant may authorize the officer executing the warrant to make entry without first knocking and announcing his or her office if it finds, based upon a showing of specific facts, the existence of the following exigent circumstances:

(1) That the officer reasonably believes that if notice were given a weapon would be used:

(i) against the officer executing the search warrant; or

(ii) against another person.

(2) That if notice were given there is an imminent "danger" that evidence will be destroyed.

(Source: P.A. 92-502, eff. 12-19-01.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 108-8. Use of force in execution of search warrant.

(a) All necessary and reasonable force may be used to effect an entry into any building or property or part thereof to execute a search warrant.

(b) The court issuing a warrant may authorize the officer executing the warrant to make entry without first knocking and announcing his or her office if it finds, based upon a showing of specific facts, the existence of the following exigent circumstances:

(1) That the officer reasonably believes that if notice were given a weapon would be used:

(i) against the officer executing the search warrant; or

(ii) against another person.

(2) That if notice were given there is an imminent "danger" that evidence will be destroyed.

(c) Prior to the issuing of a warrant under subsection (b), the officer must attest that:

(1) prior to entering the location described in the search warrant, a supervising officer will ensure that each participating member is assigned a body worn camera and is following policies and procedures in accordance with Section 10-20 of the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act; provided that the law enforcement agency has implemented body worn camera in accordance with Section 10-15 of the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act. If a law enforcement agency or each participating member of a multi-jurisdictional team has not implemented a body camera in accordance with Section 10-15 of the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, the officer must attest that the interaction authorized by the warrant is otherwise recorded;

(2) The supervising officer verified the subject address listed on the warrant for steps were taken in planning the search to ensure accuracy and planned plan for children or other vulnerable people on-site; and

(3) if an officer becomes aware the search warrant was executed at an address, unit, or apartment different from the location listed on the search warrant, that member will immediately notify a supervisor who will ensure an internal investigation or formal inquiry ensues.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining the amount of monetary bail or conditions of release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of bail, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as the nature and circumstances of the offense charged, whether the evidence shows that as part of the offense there was a use of violence or threatened use of violence, whether the offense involved corruption of public officials or employees, whether there was physical harm or threats of physical harm to any public official, public employee, judge, prosecutor, juror or witness, senior citizen, child, or person with a disability, whether evidence shows that during the offense or during the arrest the defendant possessed or used a firearm, machine gun, explosive or metal piercing ammunition or explosive bomb device or any military or paramilitary armament, whether the evidence shows that the offense committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, the condition of the victim, any written statement submitted by the victim or proffer or representation by the State regarding the impact which the alleged criminal conduct has had on the victim and the victim's concern, if any, with further contact with the defendant if released on bail, whether the offense was based on racial, religious, sexual orientation or ethnic hatred, the likelihood of the filing of a greater charge, the likelihood of conviction, the sentence applicable upon conviction, the weight of the evidence against such defendant, whether there exists motivation or ability to flee, whether there is any verification as to prior residence, education, or family ties in the local jurisdiction, in another county, state or foreign country, the defendant's employment, financial resources, character and mental condition, past conduct, prior use of alias names or dates of birth, and length of residence in the community, the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing in accordance with Section 110-6.5, whether a foreign national defendant is lawfully admitted in the United States of America, whether the government of the foreign national maintains an extradition treaty with the United States by which the foreign government will extradite to the United States its national for a trial for a crime allegedly committed in the United States, whether the defendant is currently subject to deportation or exclusion under the immigration laws of the United States, whether the defendant, although a United States citizen, is considered under the law of any foreign state a national of that state for the purposes of extradition or non-extradition to the United States, the amount of unrecovered proceeds lost as a result of the alleged offense, the source of bail funds tendered or sought to be tendered for bail, whether from the totality of the court's consideration, the loss of funds posted or sought to be posted for bail will not deter the defendant from flight, whether the evidence shows that the defendant is engaged in significant possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or cannabis, either individually or in consort with others, whether at the time of the offense charged he or she was on bond or pre-trial release pending trial, probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge pursuant to this Code or the comparable Code of any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is on bond or pre-trial release pending the imposition or execution of sentence or appeal of sentence for any offense under the laws of Illinois or any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is under parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or work release from the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or any penal institution or corrections department of any state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's record of convictions, whether the defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or ordinance offense in Illinois or similar offense in other state or federal jurisdiction within the 10 years preceding the current charge or convicted of a felony in Illinois, whether the defendant was convicted of an offense in another state or federal jurisdiction that would be a felony if committed in Illinois within the 20 years preceding the current charge or has been convicted of such felony and released from the penitentiary within 20 years preceding the current charge if a penitentiary sentence was imposed in Illinois or other state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's records of juvenile adjudication of delinquency in any jurisdiction, any record of appearance or failure to appear by the defendant at court proceedings, whether there was flight to avoid arrest or prosecution, whether the defendant escaped or attempted to escape to avoid arrest, whether the defendant refused to identify himself or herself, or whether there was a refusal by the defendant to be fingerprinted as required by law. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. If the State presents evidence that the offense committed by the defendant was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, and if the court determines that the evidence may be substantiated, the court shall prohibit the defendant from associating with other members of the organized gang as a condition of bail or release. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(a-5) There shall be a presumption that any conditions of release imposed shall be non-monetary in nature and the court shall impose the least restrictive conditions or combination of conditions necessary to reasonably assure the appearance of the defendant for further court proceedings and protect the integrity of the judicial proceedings from a specific threat to a witness or participant. Conditions of release may include, but not be limited to, electronic home monitoring, curfews, drug counseling, stay-away orders, and in-person reporting. The court shall consider the defendant's socio-economic circumstance when setting conditions of release or imposing monetary bail.

(b) The amount of bail shall be:

(1) Sufficient to assure compliance with the conditions set forth in the bail bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding any change in his or her address. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(2) Not oppressive.

(3) Considerate of the financial ability of the accused.

(4) When a person is charged with a drug related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the full street value of the drugs seized shall be considered. "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of a proffer by the State based upon reliable information of a law enforcement official contained in a written report as to the amount seized and such proffer may be used by the court as to the current street value of the smallest unit of the drug seized.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a written request demonstrating reasonable cause, the State's Attorney may request a source of bail hearing either before or after the posting of any funds. If the hearing is granted, before the posting of any bail, the accused must file a written notice requesting that the court conduct a source of bail hearing. The notice must be accompanied by justifying affidavits stating the legitimate and lawful source of funds for bail. At the hearing, the court shall inquire into any matters stated in any justifying affidavits, and may also inquire into matters appropriate to the determination which shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of any surety; and

(2) the source of any money or property deposited by any surety, and whether any such money or property constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(3) the source of any money posted as cash bail, and whether any such money constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(4) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of the person posting cash bail.

Upon setting the hearing, the court shall examine, under oath, any persons who may possess material information.

The State's Attorney has a right to attend the hearing, to call witnesses and to examine any witness in the proceeding. The court shall, upon request of the State's Attorney, continue the proceedings for a reasonable period to allow the State's Attorney to investigate the matter raised in any testimony or affidavit. If the hearing is granted after the accused has posted bail, the court shall conduct a hearing consistent with this subsection (b-5). At the conclusion of the hearing, the court must issue an order either approving or of disapproving the bail.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense punishable by fine only the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the maximum penalty.

(d) When a person has been convicted of an offense and only a fine has been imposed the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the fine.

(e) The State may appeal any order granting bail or setting a given amount for bail.

(f) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or when a person is charged with domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint, stalking, aggravated stalking, cyberstalking, harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or an attempt to commit first degree murder committed against an intimate partner regardless whether an order of protection has been issued against the person,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved the use of a weapon, physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(12) based on any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint,

the court may, in its discretion, order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation using a recognized, evidence-based instrument conducted by an Illinois Department of Human Services approved partner abuse intervention program provider, pretrial service, probation, or parole agency. These agencies shall have access to summaries of the defendant's criminal history, which shall not include victim interviews or information, for the risk evaluation. Based on the information collected from the 12 points to be considered at a bail hearing under this subsection (f), the results of any risk evaluation conducted and the other circumstances of the violation, the court may order that the person, as a condition of bail, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Upon making a determination whether or not to order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation or to be placed under electronic surveillance and risk assessment, the court shall document in the record the court's reasons for making those determinations. The cost of the electronic surveillance and risk assessment shall be paid by, or on behalf, of the defendant. As used in this subsection (f), "intimate partner" means a spouse or a current or former partner in a cohabitation or dating relationship.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; revised 7-12-19.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining which or conditions of pretrial release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of pretrial release, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as:

(1) the nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) the weight of the evidence against the eligible defendant, except that the court may consider the admissibility of any evidence sought to be excluded;

(3) the history and characteristics of the eligible defendant, including:

(A) the eligible defendant's character, physical and mental condition, family ties, employment, financial resources, length of residence in the community, community ties, past relating to drug or alcohol abuse, conduct, history criminal history, and record concerning appearance at court proceedings; and

(B) whether, at the time of the current offense or arrest, the eligible defendant was on probation, parole, or on other release pending trial, sentencing, appeal, or completion of sentence for an offense under federal law, or the law of this or any other state;

(4) the nature and seriousness of the specific, real and present threat to any person that would be posed by the eligible defendant's release, if applicable; as required under paragraph (7.5) of Section 4 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(5) the nature and seriousness of the risk of obstructing or attempting to obstruct the criminal justice process that would be posed by the eligible defendant's release, if applicable.

(b) The court shall impose any conditions that are mandatory under Section 110-10. The court may impose any conditions that are permissible under Section 110-10.

(b-5) (b) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or when a person is charged with domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint, stalking, aggravated stalking, cyberstalking, harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or an attempt to commit first degree murder committed against an intimate partner regardless whether an order of protection has been issued against the person,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved the use of a weapon, physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the victim of abuse or a termination of the relationship between the person and the victim of abuse has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the victim of abuse, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the victim of abuse or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(11.5) any other factors deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior

(c) In cases of stalking or aggravated stalking under Section 12-7.3 or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court may consider the following additional factors:

(1) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(2) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person allegedly assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Any other factors deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(d) The Court may use a regularly validated risk assessment tool to aid its it determination of appropriate conditions of release as provided for in Section 110-6.4. Risk assessment tools may not be used as the sole basis to deny pretrial release. If a risk assessment tool is used, the defendant's counsel shall be provided with the information and scoring system of the risk assessment tool used to arrive at the determination. The defendant retains the right to challenge the validity of a risk assessment tool used by the court and to present evidence relevant to the defendant's challenge.

(e) If a person remains in pretrial detention after his or her pretrial conditions hearing after having been ordered released with pretrial conditions, the court shall hold a hearing to determine the reason for continued detention. If the reason for continued detention is due to the unavailability or the defendant's ineligibility for one or more pretrial conditions previously ordered by the court or directed by a pretrial services agency, the court shall reopen the conditions of release hearing to determine what available pretrial conditions exist that will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of pretrial release. The inability of Defendant to pay for a condition of release or any other ineligibility for a condition of pretrial release shall not be used as a justification for the pretrial detention of that Defendant.

(f) Prior to the defendant's first appearance, the Court shall appoint the public defender or a licensed attorney at law of this State to represent the Defendant for purposes of that hearing, unless the defendant has obtained licensed counsel for themselves.

(g) Electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement can only be imposed condition of pretrial release if a no less restrictive condition of release or combination of less restrictive condition of release would reasonably ensure the appearance of the defendant for later hearings or protect an identifiable person or persons from imminent threat of serious physical harm.

(h) If the court imposes electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement the court shall set forth in the record the basis for its finding. A defendant shall be given custodial credit for each day he or she was subjected to that program, at the same rate described in subsection (b) of Section 5-4.5-100 of the unified code of correction.

(i) If electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement is imposed, the court shall determine every 60 days if no less restrictive condition of release or combination of less restrictive conditions of release would reasonably ensure the appearance, or continued appearance, of the defendant for later hearings or protect an identifiable person or persons from imminent threat of serious physical harm. If the court finds that there are less restrictive conditions of release, the court shall order that the condition be removed. This subsection takes effect January 1, 2022.

(j) Crime Victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain an order of protection under Article 112A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5.1 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.3 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.5 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-7 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-8 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-9 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-13 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-14 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-15 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-16 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-17 rep.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-18 rep.)

Section 60. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by repealing Sections 110-5.1, 110-6.3, 110-6.5, 110-7, 110-8, 110-9, 110-13, 110-14, 110-15, 110-16, 110-17, and 110-18. This Section takes effect January 1, 2023.

Section 65. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-6-3, 3-6-7.3, 5-8-1, and 5-8A-4 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 3-6-3. Rules and regulations for sentence credit.

(a)(1) The Department of Corrections shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department which shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(1.5) As otherwise provided by law, sentence credit may be awarded for the following:

(A) successful completion of programming while in custody of the Department or while in custody prior to sentencing;

(B) compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department; or

(C) service to the institution, service to a community, or service to the State.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide, with respect to offenses listed in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or with respect to the offense listed in clause (iv) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or with respect to offense listed in clause (vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or with respect to the offense of being an armed habitual criminal committed on or after August 2, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-398) or with respect to the offenses listed in clause (v) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or with respect to the offense of aggravated domestic battery committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224) or with respect to the offense of attempt to commit terrorism committed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-990), the following:

(i) that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment for first degree murder or for the offense of terrorism shall receive no sentence credit and shall serve the entire sentence imposed by the court;

(ii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for attempt to commit terrorism, attempt to commit first degree murder, solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, intentional homicide of an unborn child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, being an armed habitual criminal, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, when the court has made and entered a finding, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, that the conduct leading to conviction for the enumerated offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iv) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated discharge of a firearm, whether or not the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to the victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(v) that a person serving a sentence for gunrunning, narcotics racketeering, controlled substance trafficking, methamphetamine trafficking, drug-induced homicide, aggravated methamphetamine-related child endangerment, money laundering pursuant to clause (c) (4) or (5) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class X felony conviction for delivery of a controlled substance, possession of a controlled substance with intent to manufacture or deliver, calculated criminal drug conspiracy, criminal drug conspiracy, street gang criminal drug conspiracy, participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, aggravated participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, delivery of methamphetamine, possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, aggravated delivery of methamphetamine, aggravated possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, methamphetamine conspiracy when the substance containing the controlled substance or methamphetamine is 100 grams or more shall receive no more than 7.5 days sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(vi) that a prisoner serving a sentence for a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment; and

(vii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated domestic battery shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.1) For all offenses, other than those enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day of his or her sentence of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9. Each day of sentence credit shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9.

(2.2) A prisoner serving a term of natural life imprisonment or a prisoner who has been sentenced to death shall receive no sentence credit.

(2.3) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide with respect to the offenses of aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm or aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm, committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), that a prisoner serving a sentence for any of these offenses shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.5) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated arson committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(3) In addition to the sentence credits earned under paragraphs (2.1), (4), (4.1), and (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that the Director may award up to 180 days of earned sentence credit for good conduct in specific instances as the Director deems proper. The good conduct may include, but is not limited to, compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department, service to the Department, service to a community, or service to the State.

Eligible inmates for an award of earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be selected to receive the credit at the Director's or his or her designee's sole discretion. Eligibility for the additional earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) shall be based on, but is not limited to, the results of any available risk/needs assessment or other relevant assessments or evaluations administered by the Department using a validated instrument, the circumstances of the crime, any history of conviction for a forcible felony enumerated in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the inmate's behavior and disciplinary history while incarcerated, and the inmate's commitment to rehabilitation, including participation in programming offered by the Department.

The Director shall not award sentence credit under this paragraph (3) to an inmate unless the inmate has served a minimum of 60 days of the sentence; except nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to permit the Director to extend an inmate's sentence beyond that which was imposed by the court. Prior to awarding credit under this paragraph (3), the Director shall make a written determination that the inmate:

(A) is eligible for the earned sentence credit;

(B) has served a minimum of 60 days, or as close to 60 days as the sentence will allow;

(B-1) has received a risk/needs assessment or other relevant evaluation or assessment administered by the Department using a validated instrument; and

(C) has met the eligibility criteria established by rule for earned sentence credit.

The Director shall determine the form and content of the written determination required in this subsection.

(3.5) The Department shall provide annual written reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the award of earned sentence credit no later than February 1 of each year. The Department must publish both reports on its website within 48 hours of transmitting the reports to the Governor and the General Assembly. The reports must include:

(A) the number of inmates awarded earned sentence credit;

(B) the average amount of earned sentence credit awarded;

(C) the holding offenses of inmates awarded earned sentence credit; and

(D) the number of earned sentence credit revocations.

(4)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that any prisoner who is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, pregnancy or parenting education programs, work-release programs or activities in accordance with Section 3-13-1, the sentence credit accumulated and retained under paragraph (2.1) of subsection (a) of this Section by any inmate during specific periods of time in which such inmate is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completes the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department, shall be multiplied by a factor of 1.25 for program participation before August 11, 1993 and 1.50 for program participation on or after that date. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit, subject to the same offense limits and multiplier provided in this paragraph, may be provided to an inmate who was held in pre-trial detention prior to his or her current commitment to the Department of Corrections and successfully completed a full-time, 60-day or longer substance abuse program, educational program, behavior modification program, life skills course, or re-entry planning provided by the county department of corrections or county jail. Calculation of this county program credit shall be done at sentencing as provided in Section 5-4.5-100 of this Code and shall be included in the sentencing order. However, no inmate shall be eligible for the additional sentence credit under this paragraph (4) or (4.1) of this subsection (a) while assigned to a boot camp or electronic detention.

(B) The Department shall award sentence credit under this paragraph (4) accumulated prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-440) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly in an amount specified in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (4) to an inmate serving a sentence for an offense committed prior to June 19, 1998, if the Department determines that the inmate is entitled to this sentence credit, based upon:

(i) documentation provided by the Department that the inmate engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration; or

(ii) the inmate's own testimony in the form of an affidavit or documentation, or a third party's documentation or testimony in the form of an affidavit that the inmate likely engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration.

(C) If the inmate can provide documentation that he or she is entitled to sentence credit under subparagraph (B) in excess of 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 90 days of sentence credit. If the inmate cannot provide documentation of more than 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 45 days of sentence credit. In the event of a disagreement between the Department and the inmate as to the amount of credit accumulated under subparagraph (B), if the Department provides documented proof of a lesser amount of days of participation in those programs, that proof shall control. If the Department provides no documentary proof, the inmate's proof as set forth in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall control as to the amount of sentence credit provided.

(D) If the inmate has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, sentencing credits under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4) shall be awarded by the Department only if the conditions set forth in paragraph (4.6) of subsection (a) are satisfied. No inmate serving a term of natural life imprisonment shall receive sentence credit under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4).

Educational, vocational, substance abuse, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, re-entry planning, and correctional industry programs under which sentence credit may be increased under this paragraph (4) and paragraph (4.1) of this subsection (a) shall be evaluated by the Department on the basis of documented standards. The Department shall report the results of these evaluations to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 30th of each year. The reports shall include data relating to the recidivism rate among program participants.

Availability of these programs shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. Eligible inmates who are denied immediate admission shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The inability of any inmate to become engaged in any such programs by reason of insufficient program resources or for any other reason established under the rules and regulations of the Department shall not be deemed a cause of action under which the Department or any employee or agent of the Department shall be liable for damages to the inmate.

(4.1) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that an additional 90 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who passes high school equivalency testing while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be pursuant to the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a high school diploma or a high school equivalency certificate. If, after an award of the high school equivalency testing sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 90 days of sentence credit to any committed person who passed high school equivalency testing while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a bachelor's degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not earned a bachelor's degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the bachelor's degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a bachelor's degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a master's or professional degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a master's or professional degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the master's or professional degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a master's or professional degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(4.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that when the court's sentencing order recommends a prisoner for substance abuse treatment and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the prisoner shall receive no sentence credit awarded under clause (3) of this subsection (a) unless he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program. The Director may waive the requirement to participate in or complete a substance abuse treatment program in specific instances if the prisoner is not a good candidate for a substance abuse treatment program for medical, programming, or operational reasons. Availability of substance abuse treatment shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. If treatment is not available and the requirement to participate and complete the treatment has not been waived by the Director, the prisoner shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The Director may allow a prisoner placed on a waiting list to participate in and complete a substance abuse education class or attend substance abuse self-help meetings in lieu of a substance abuse treatment program. A prisoner on a waiting list who is not placed in a substance abuse program prior to release may be eligible for a waiver and receive sentence credit under clause (3) of this subsection (a) at the discretion of the Director.

(4.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that a prisoner who has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall receive no sentence credit unless he or she either has successfully completed or is participating in sex offender treatment as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board. However, prisoners who are waiting to receive treatment, but who are unable to do so due solely to the lack of resources on the part of the Department, may, at the Director's sole discretion, be awarded sentence credit at a rate as the Director shall determine.

(4.7) On or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, sentence credit under paragraph (3), (4), or (4.1) of this subsection (a) may be awarded to a prisoner who is serving a sentence for an offense described in paragraph (2), (2.3), (2.4), (2.5), or (2.6) for credit earned on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly; provided, the award of the credits under this paragraph (4.7) shall not reduce the sentence of the prisoner to less than the following amounts:

(i) 85% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 85% of his or her sentence; or

(ii) 60% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 75% of his or her sentence, except if the prisoner is serving a sentence for gunrunning his or her sentence shall not be reduced to less than 75%.

(iii) 100% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 100% of his or her sentence.

(5) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of earned sentence credit under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section given at any time during the term, the Department shall give reasonable notice of the impending release not less than 14 days prior to the date of the release to the State's Attorney of the county where the prosecution of the inmate took place, and if applicable, the State's Attorney of the county into which the inmate will be released. The Department must also make identification information and a recent photo of the inmate being released accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Community Notification of Inmate Early Release" on the Department's World Wide Web homepage. The identification information shall include the inmate's: name, any known alias, date of birth, physical characteristics, commitment offense, and county where conviction was imposed. The identification information shall be placed on the website within 3 days of the inmate's release and the information may not be removed until either: completion of the first year of mandatory supervised release or return of the inmate to custody of the Department.

(b) Whenever a person is or has been committed under several convictions, with separate sentences, the sentences shall be construed under Section 5-8-4 in granting and forfeiting of sentence credit.

(c) The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for revoking sentence credit, including revoking sentence credit awarded under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for suspending or reducing the rate of accumulation of sentence credit for specific rule violations, during imprisonment. These rules and regulations shall provide that no inmate may be penalized more than one year of sentence credit for any one infraction.

When the Department seeks to revoke, suspend, or reduce the rate of accumulation of any sentence credits for an alleged infraction of its rules, it shall bring charges therefor against the prisoner sought to be so deprived of sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(4) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code, if the amount of credit at issue exceeds 30 days or when, during any 12-month 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In those cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of 30 days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit within any calendar year for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department.

The Director of the Department of Corrections, in appropriate cases, may restore up to 30 days of sentence credits which have been revoked, suspended, or reduced. Any restoration of sentence credits in excess of 30 days shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board. However, the Board may not restore sentence credit in excess of the amount requested by the Director.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Prisoner Review Board from ordering, pursuant to Section 3-3-9(a)(3)(i)(B), that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court that was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit.

(d) If a lawsuit is filed by a prisoner in an Illinois or federal court against the State, the Department of Corrections, or the Prisoner Review Board, or against any of their officers or employees, and the court makes a specific finding that a pleading, motion, or other paper filed by the prisoner is frivolous, the Department of Corrections shall conduct a hearing to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit by bringing charges against the prisoner sought to be deprived of the sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(8) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code. If the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the finding, then the Prisoner Review Board may revoke all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner.

For purposes of this subsection (d):

(1) "Frivolous" means that a pleading, motion, or other filing which purports to be a legal document filed by a prisoner in his or her lawsuit meets any or all of the following criteria:

(A) it lacks an arguable basis either in law or in fact;

(B) it is being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation;

(C) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions therein are not warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;

(D) the allegations and other factual contentions do not have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are not likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; or

(E) the denials of factual contentions are not warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are not reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.

(2) "Lawsuit" means a motion pursuant to Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a habeas corpus action under Article X of the Code of Civil Procedure or under federal law (28 U.S.C. 2254), a petition for claim under the Court of Claims Act, an action under the federal Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 1983), or a second or subsequent petition for post-conviction relief under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 whether filed with or without leave of court or a second or subsequent petition for relief from judgment under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) Nothing in Public Act 90-592 or 90-593 affects the validity of Public Act 89-404.

(f) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate who has been convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit, the Department, as a condition of release, shall require that the person, upon release, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 101-440, eff. 1-1-20; revised 8-19-20.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 3-6-3. Rules and regulations for sentence credit.

(a)(1) The Department of Corrections shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department which shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(1.5) As otherwise provided by law, sentence credit may be awarded for the following:

(A) successful completion of programming while in custody of the Department or while in custody prior to sentencing;

(B) compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department; or

(C) service to the institution, service to a community, or service to the State.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide, with respect to offenses listed in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or with respect to the offense listed in clause (iv) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or with respect to offense listed in clause (vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or with respect to the offense of being an armed habitual criminal committed on or after August 2, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-398) or with respect to the offenses listed in clause (v) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or with respect to the offense of aggravated domestic battery committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224) or with respect to the offense of attempt to commit terrorism committed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-990), the following:

(i) that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment for first degree murder or for the offense of terrorism shall receive no sentence credit and shall serve the entire sentence imposed by the court;

(ii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for attempt to commit terrorism, attempt to commit first degree murder, solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, intentional homicide of an unborn child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, being an armed habitual criminal, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, when the court has made and entered a finding, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, that the conduct leading to conviction for the enumerated offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iv) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated discharge of a firearm, whether or not the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to the victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(v) that a person serving a sentence for gunrunning, narcotics racketeering, controlled substance trafficking, methamphetamine trafficking, drug-induced homicide, aggravated methamphetamine-related child endangerment, money laundering pursuant to clause (c) (4) or (5) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class X felony conviction for delivery of a controlled substance, possession of a controlled substance with intent to manufacture or deliver, calculated criminal drug conspiracy, criminal drug conspiracy, street gang criminal drug conspiracy, participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, aggravated participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, delivery of methamphetamine, possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, aggravated delivery of methamphetamine, aggravated possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, methamphetamine conspiracy when the substance containing the controlled substance or methamphetamine is 100 grams or more shall receive no more than 7.5 days sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(vi) that a prisoner serving a sentence for a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment; and

(vii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated domestic battery shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.1) For all offenses, other than those enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day of his or her sentence of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9. Each day of sentence credit shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9.

(2.2) A prisoner serving a term of natural life imprisonment or a prisoner who has been sentenced to death shall receive no sentence credit.

(2.3) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.4) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide with respect to the offenses of aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm or aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm, committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), that a prisoner serving a sentence for any of these offenses shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.5) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated arson committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(3) In addition to the sentence credits earned under paragraphs (2.1), (4), (4.1), (4.2), and (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that the Director may award up to 180 days of earned sentence credit for prisoners serving a sentence of incarceration of less than 5 years, and up to 365 days of earned sentence credit for prisoners serving a sentence of 5 years or longer. The Director may grant this credit for good conduct in specific instances as the Director deems proper. The good conduct may include, but is not limited to, compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department, service to the Department, service to a community, or service to the State.

Eligible inmates for an award of earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be selected to receive the credit at the Director's or his or her designee's sole discretion. Eligibility for the additional earned sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be based on, but is not limited to, participation in programming offered by the Department department as appropriate for the prisoner based on the results of any available risk/needs assessment or other relevant assessments or evaluations administered by the Department using a validated instrument, the circumstances of the crime, demonstrated commitment to rehabilitation by a prisoner with a history of conviction for a forcible felony enumerated in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the inmate's behavior and improvements in disciplinary history while incarcerated, and the inmate's commitment to rehabilitation, including participation in programming offered by the Department.

The Director shall not award sentence credit under this paragraph (3) to an inmate unless the inmate has served a minimum of 60 days of the sentence; except nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to permit the Director to extend an inmate's sentence beyond that which was imposed by the court. Prior to awarding credit under this paragraph (3), the Director shall make a written determination that the inmate:

(A) is eligible for the earned sentence credit;

(B) has served a minimum of 60 days, or as close to 60 days as the sentence will allow;

(B-1) has received a risk/needs assessment or other relevant evaluation or assessment administered by the Department using a validated instrument; and

(C) has met the eligibility criteria established by rule for earned sentence credit.

The Director shall determine the form and content of the written determination required in this subsection.

(3.5) The Department shall provide annual written reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the award of earned sentence credit no later than February 1 of each year. The Department must publish both reports on its website within 48 hours of transmitting the reports to the Governor and the General Assembly. The reports must include:

(A) the number of inmates awarded earned sentence credit;

(B) the average amount of earned sentence credit awarded;

(C) the holding offenses of inmates awarded earned sentence credit; and

(D) the number of earned sentence credit revocations.

(4)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that any prisoner who is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, work-release programs or activities in accordance with Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code 730 ILCS 5/3-13-1 et seq., behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completes the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department, shall receive [one day] of sentence credit for each day in which that prisoner is engaged in the activities described in this paragraph. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit may be provided to an inmate who was held in pre-trial detention prior to his or her current commitment to the Department of Corrections and successfully completed a full-time, 60-day or longer substance abuse program, educational program, behavior modification program, life skills course, or re-entry planning provided by the county department of corrections or county jail. Calculation of this county program credit shall be done at sentencing as provided in Section 5-4.5-100 of this Code and shall be included in the sentencing order. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit may be provided to an inmate who is in compliance with programming requirements in an adult transition center.

(B) The Department shall award sentence credit under this paragraph (4) accumulated prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-440) in an amount specified in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (4) to an inmate serving a sentence for an offense committed prior to June 19, 1998, if the Department determines that the inmate is entitled to this sentence credit, based upon:

(i) documentation provided by the Department that the inmate engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration; or

(ii) the inmate's own testimony in the form of an affidavit or documentation, or a third party's documentation or testimony in the form of an affidavit that the inmate likely engaged in any full-time substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completed the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department during the inmate's current term of incarceration.

(C) If the inmate can provide documentation that he or she is entitled to sentence credit under subparagraph (B) in excess of 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 90 days of sentence credit. If the inmate cannot provide documentation of more than 45 days of participation in those programs, the inmate shall receive 45 days of sentence credit. In the event of a disagreement between the Department and the inmate as to the amount of credit accumulated under subparagraph (B), if the Department provides documented proof of a lesser amount of days of participation in those programs, that proof shall control. If the Department provides no documentary proof, the inmate's proof as set forth in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall control as to the amount of sentence credit provided.

(D) If the inmate has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, sentencing credits under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4) shall be awarded by the Department only if the conditions set forth in paragraph (4.6) of subsection (a) are satisfied. No inmate serving a term of natural life imprisonment shall receive sentence credit under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (4).

Educational, vocational, substance abuse, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, re-entry planning, and correctional industry programs under which sentence credit may be earned increased under this paragraph (4) and paragraph (4.1) of this subsection (a) shall be evaluated by the Department on the basis of documented standards. The Department shall report the results of these evaluations to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 30th of each year. The reports shall include data relating to the recidivism rate among program participants.

Availability of these programs shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. Eligible inmates who are denied immediate admission shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who has been placed on a waiting list but is transferred for non-disciplinary reasons before beginning a program shall receive priority placement on the waitlist for appropriate programs at the new facility. The inability of any inmate to become engaged in any such programs by reason of insufficient program resources or for any other reason established under the rules and regulations of the Department shall not be deemed a cause of action under which the Department or any employee or agent of the Department shall be liable for damages to the inmate. The rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who begins an educational, vocational, substance abuse, work-release programs or activities in accordance with Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code 730 ILCS 5/3-13-1 et seq., behavior modification program, life skills course, re-entry planning, or correctional industry programs but is unable to complete the program due to illness, disability, transfer, lockdown, or another reason outside of the prisoner's control shall receive prorated sentence credits for the days in which the prisoner did participate.

(4.1) Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall also provide that an additional 90 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who passes high school equivalency testing while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be pursuant to the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a high school diploma or a high school equivalency certificate. If, after an award of the high school equivalency testing sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 90 days of sentence credit to any committed person who passed high school equivalency testing while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 120 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains an a associate degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections, regardless of the date that the associate degree was obtained, including if prior to July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph (4.1) shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned an associate degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the associate degree sentence credit has been made and the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 120 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned an associate degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a bachelor's degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not earned a bachelor's degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the bachelor's degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a bachelor's degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

Except as provided in paragraph (4.7) of this subsection (a), the rules and regulations shall provide that an additional 180 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who obtains a master's or professional degree while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be under the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (a). The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a master's or professional degree prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections. If, after an award of the master's or professional degree sentence credit has been made, the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 180 days of sentence credit to any committed person who earned a master's or professional degree while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(4.2) The rules and regulations shall also provide that any prisoner engaged in self-improvement programs, volunteer work, or work assignments that are not otherwise eligible activities under paragraph section (4), shall receive up to 0.5 days of sentence credit for each day in which the prisoner is engaged in activities described in this paragraph.

(4.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that when the court's sentencing order recommends a prisoner for substance abuse treatment and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the prisoner shall receive no sentence credit awarded under clause (3) of this subsection (a) unless he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program. The Director may waive the requirement to participate in or complete a substance abuse treatment program in specific instances if the prisoner is not a good candidate for a substance abuse treatment program for medical, programming, or operational reasons. Availability of substance abuse treatment shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. If treatment is not available and the requirement to participate and complete the treatment has not been waived by the Director, the prisoner shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The Director may allow a prisoner placed on a waiting list to participate in and complete a substance abuse education class or attend substance abuse self-help meetings in lieu of a substance abuse treatment program. A prisoner on a waiting list who is not placed in a substance abuse program prior to release may be eligible for a waiver and receive sentence credit under clause (3) of this subsection (a) at the discretion of the Director.

(4.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that a prisoner who has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall receive no sentence credit unless he or she either has successfully completed or is participating in sex offender treatment as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board. However, prisoners who are waiting to receive treatment, but who are unable to do so due solely to the lack of resources on the part of the Department, may, at the Director's sole discretion, be awarded sentence credit at a rate as the Director shall determine.

(4.7) On or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3), sentence credit under paragraph (3), (4), or (4.1) of this subsection (a) may be awarded to a prisoner who is serving a sentence for an offense described in paragraph (2), (2.3), (2.4), (2.5), or (2.6) for credit earned on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-3); provided, the award of the credits under this paragraph (4.7) shall not reduce the sentence of the prisoner to less than the following amounts:

(i) 85% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 85% of his or her sentence; or

(ii) 60% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 75% of his or her sentence, except if the prisoner is serving a sentence for gunrunning his or her sentence shall not be reduced to less than 75%.

(iii) 100% of his or her sentence if the prisoner is required to serve 100% of his or her sentence.

(5) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of earned sentence credit under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section given at any time during the term, the Department shall give reasonable notice of the impending release not less than 14 days prior to the date of the release to the State's Attorney of the county where the prosecution of the inmate took place, and if applicable, the State's Attorney of the county into which the inmate will be released. The Department must also make identification information and a recent photo of the inmate being released accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Community Notification of Inmate Early Release" on the Department's World Wide Web homepage. The identification information shall include the inmate's: name, any known alias, date of birth, physical characteristics, commitment offense, and county where conviction was imposed. The identification information shall be placed on the website within 3 days of the inmate's release and the information may not be removed until either: completion of the first year of mandatory supervised release or return of the inmate to custody of the Department.

(b) Whenever a person is or has been committed under several convictions, with separate sentences, the sentences shall be construed under Section 5-8-4 in granting and forfeiting of sentence credit.

(c) (1) The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for revoking sentence credit, including revoking sentence credit awarded under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations establishing and requiring the use of a sanctions matrix for revoking sentence credit. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for suspending or reducing the rate of accumulation of sentence credit for specific rule violations, during imprisonment. These rules and regulations shall provide that no inmate may be penalized more than one year of sentence credit for any one infraction.

(2) When the Department seeks to revoke, suspend, or reduce the rate of accumulation of any sentence credits for an alleged infraction of its rules, it shall bring charges therefor against the prisoner sought to be so deprived of sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(4) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code, if the amount of credit at issue exceeds 30 days, whether from one infraction or cumulatively from multiple infractions arising out of a single event, or when, during any 12-month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In those cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of 30 days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit within any calendar year for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department.

(3) The Director of the Department of Corrections, in appropriate cases, may restore sentence credits which have been revoked, suspended, or reduced. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations governing the restoration of sentence credits. These rules and regulations shall provide for the automatic restoration of sentence credits following a period in which the prisoner maintains a record without a disciplinary violation.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Prisoner Review Board from ordering, pursuant to Section 3-3-9(a)(3)(i)(B), that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court that was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit.

(d) If a lawsuit is filed by a prisoner in an Illinois or federal court against the State, the Department of Corrections, or the Prisoner Review Board, or against any of their officers or employees, and the court makes a specific finding that a pleading, motion, or other paper filed by the prisoner is frivolous, the Department of Corrections shall conduct a hearing to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit by bringing charges against the prisoner sought to be deprived of the sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(8) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code. If the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the finding, then the Prisoner Review Board may revoke all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner.

For purposes of this subsection (d):

(1) "Frivolous" means that a pleading, motion, or other filing which purports to be a legal document filed by a prisoner in his or her lawsuit meets any or all of the following criteria:

(A) it lacks an arguable basis either in law or in fact;

(B) it is being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation;

(C) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions therein are not warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;

(D) the allegations and other factual contentions do not have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are not likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; or

(E) the denials of factual contentions are not warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are not reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.

(2) "Lawsuit" means a motion pursuant to Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a habeas corpus action under Article X of the Code of Civil Procedure or under federal law (28 U.S.C. 2254), a petition for claim under the Court of Claims Act, an action under the federal Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 1983), or a second or subsequent petition for post-conviction relief under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 whether filed with or without leave of court or a second or subsequent petition for relief from judgment under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) Nothing in Public Act 90-592 or 90-593 affects the validity of Public Act 89-404.

(f) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate who has been convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit, the Department, as a condition of release, shall require that the person, upon release, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 101-440, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 4-28-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-7.3)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-6-7.3. Committed person post-partum recovery requirements. The Department shall ensure that, for a period of 72 hours after the birth of an infant by an committed person:

(1) the infant is allowed to remain with the committed person, unless a medical professional determines doing so would pose a health or safety risk to the committed person or infant based on information only available to the Department. The mental health professional shall make any such determination on an individualized basis and in consultation with the birthing team of the pregnant person and the Chief of the Women's Division. The birthing team shall include the committed person's perinatal care providers and doula, if available; and

(2) the committed person has access to any nutritional or hygiene-related products necessary to care for the infant, including diapers.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, subject to Section 5-4.5-115 of this Code, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 are present, the court may sentence the defendant, subject to Section 5-4.5-105, to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment if the defendant, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 18, and

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) (blank), or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d)(i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 3 years;

(2) for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 2 years;

(3) for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 1 year;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic monitoring or home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-431, eff. 8-25-17; 100-1182, eff. 6-1-19; 101-288, eff. 1-1-20.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, subject to Section 5-4.5-115 of this Code, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 are present, the court may sentence the defendant, subject to Section 5-4.5-105, to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment if the defendant, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 18, and

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) (blank), or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d)(i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person who has attained the age of 18 years at the time of the commission of the offense and who is convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or before December 12, 2005, 3 years;

(1.5) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B.,11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 18 months;

(2) except as provided in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d), for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 12 months;

(3) except as provided in paragraph (4), (6), or (7) of this subsection (d), a mandatory supervised release term shall not be imposed for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony; unless:

(A) the Prisoner Review Board, based on a validated risk and needs assessment, determines it is necessary for an offender to serve a mandatory supervised release term;

(B) if the Prisoner Review Board determines a mandatory supervised release term is necessary pursuant to subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3), the Prisoner Review Board shall specify the maximum number of months of mandatory supervised release the offender may serve, limited to a term of: (i) 12 months for a Class 3 felony; and (ii) 12 months for a Class 4 felony;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic monitoring or home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years;

(7) for any felony described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii), (a)(2)(iii), (a)(2)(iv), (a)(2)(vi), (a)(2.1), (a)(2.3), (a)(2.4), (a)(2.5), or (a)(2.6) of Article 5, Section 3-6-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections requiring an inmate to serve a minimum of 85% of their court-imposed sentence, except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after December 13, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-715) and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B.,11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009 and except as provided in paragraph (4) or paragraph (6) of this subsection (d), the term of mandatory supervised release shall be as follows:

(A) Class X felony, 3 years;

(B) Class 1 or Class 2 felonies, 2 years;

(C) Class 3 or Class 4 felonies, 1 year.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act and of Public Act 101-652: (i) the provisions of paragraph (3) of subsection (d) are effective on January 1, 2022 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and (ii) the provisions of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d) are effective on July 1, 2021 and shall apply to all individuals convicted on or after the effective date of paragraphs (1.5) and (2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 100-431, eff. 8-25-17; 100-1182, eff. 6-1-19; 101-288, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-8A-4. Program description. The supervising authority may promulgate rules that prescribe reasonable guidelines under which an electronic monitoring and home detention program shall operate. When using electronic monitoring for home detention these rules shall include but not be limited to the following:

(A) The participant shall remain within the interior premises or within the property boundaries of his or her residence at all times during the hours designated by the supervising authority. Such instances of approved absences from the home may include but are not limited to the following:

(1) working or employment approved by the court or traveling to or from approved employment;

(2) unemployed and seeking employment approved for the participant by the court;

(3) undergoing medical, psychiatric, mental health treatment, counseling, or other treatment programs approved for the participant by the court;

(4) attending an educational institution or a program approved for the participant by the court;

(5) attending a regularly scheduled religious service at a place of worship;

(6) participating in community work release or community service programs approved for the participant by the supervising authority; or

(7) for another compelling reason consistent with the public interest, as approved by the supervising authority.

(B) The participant shall admit any person or agent designated by the supervising authority into his or her residence at any time for purposes of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(C) The participant shall make the necessary arrangements to allow for any person or agent designated by the supervising authority to visit the participant's place of education or employment at any time, based upon the approval of the educational institution employer or both, for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(D) The participant shall acknowledge and participate with the approved electronic monitoring device as designated by the supervising authority at any time for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(E) The participant shall maintain the following:

(1) a working telephone in the participant's home;

(2) a monitoring device in the participant's home, or on the participant's person, or both; and

(3) a monitoring device in the participant's home and on the participant's person in the absence of a telephone.

(F) The participant shall obtain approval from the supervising authority before the participant changes residence or the schedule described in subsection (A) of this Section.

(G) The participant shall not commit another crime during the period of home detention ordered by the Court.

(H) Notice to the participant that violation of the order for home detention may subject the participant to prosecution for the crime of escape as described in Section 5-8A-4.1.

(I) The participant shall abide by other conditions as set by the supervising authority.

(Source: P.A. 99-797, eff. 8-12-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-8A-4. Program description. The supervising authority may promulgate rules that prescribe reasonable guidelines under which an electronic monitoring and home detention program shall operate. When using electronic monitoring for home detention these rules may include but not be limited to the following:

(A) The participant may be instructed to remain within the interior premises or within the property boundaries of his or her residence at all times during the hours designated by the supervising authority. Such instances of approved absences from the home shall include but are not limited to the following:

(1) working or employment approved by the court or traveling to or from approved employment;

(2) unemployed and seeking employment approved for the participant by the court;

(3) undergoing medical, psychiatric, mental health treatment, counseling, or other treatment programs approved for the participant by the court;

(4) attending an educational institution or a program approved for the participant by the court;

(5) attending a regularly scheduled religious service at a place of worship;

(6) participating in community work release or community service programs approved for the participant by the supervising authority; or

(7) for another compelling reason consistent with the public interest, as approved by the supervising authority.

(8) purchasing groceries, food, or other basic necessities.

(A-1) At a minimum, any person ordered to pretrial home confinement with or without electronic monitoring must be provided with open movement spread out over no fewer than two days per week, to participate in basic activities such as those listed in paragraph (A).

(B) The participant shall admit any person or agent designated by the supervising authority into his or her residence at any time for purposes of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(C) The participant shall make the necessary arrangements to allow for any person or agent designated by the supervising authority to visit the participant's place of education or employment at any time, based upon the approval of the educational institution employer or both, for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(D) The participant shall acknowledge and participate with the approved electronic monitoring device as designated by the supervising authority at any time for the purpose of verifying the participant's compliance with the conditions of his or her detention.

(E) The participant shall maintain the following:

(1) access to a working telephone;

(2) a monitoring device in the participant's home, or on the participant's person, or both; and

(3) a monitoring device in the participant's home and on the participant's person in the absence of a telephone.

(F) The participant shall obtain approval from the supervising authority before the participant changes residence or the schedule described in subsection (A) of this Section. Such approval shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(G) The participant shall not commit another crime during the period of home detention ordered by the Court.

(H) Notice to the participant that violation of the order for home detention may subject the participant to prosecution for the crime of escape as described in Section 5-8A-4.1.

(I) The participant shall abide by other conditions as set by the supervising authority.

(J) This Section takes effect January 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 70. The County Jail Act is amended by changing Section 17.7 as follows:

(730 ILCS 125/17.7)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 17.7. Educational programming programing for pregnant prisoners. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall provide the sheriff with educational programming relating to pregnancy and parenting and the sheriff shall provide the programming to pregnant prisoners sheriff shall develop and provide to each pregnant prisoner educational programming relating to pregnancy and parenting. The programming must include instruction regarding:

(1) appropriate prenatal care and hygiene;

(2) the effects of prenatal exposure to alcohol and drugs on a developing fetus;

(3) parenting skills; and

(4) medical and mental health issues applicable to children.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 75. The Reporting of Deaths in Custody Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 210/3-5)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 3-5. Report of deaths of persons in custody in correctional institutions.

(a) In this Act, "law enforcement agency" includes each law enforcement entity within this State having the authority to arrest and detain persons suspected of, or charged with, committing a criminal offense, and each law enforcement entity that operates a lock up, jail, prison, or any other facility used to detain persons for legitimate law enforcement purposes.

(b) In any case in which a person dies:

(1) while in the custody of:

(A) a law enforcement agency;

(B) a local or State correctional facility in this State; or

(C) a peace officer; or

(2) as a result of the peace officer's use of force, the law enforcement agency shall investigate and report the death in writing to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, no later than 30 days after the date on which the person in custody or incarcerated died. The written report shall contain the following information:

(A) the following facts concerning the death that are in the possession of the law enforcement agency in charge of the investigation and the correctional facility where the death occurred including, but not limited to, race, age, and gender, sexual orientation, and gender identity of the decedent, and a brief description of causes, contributing factors and the circumstances surrounding the death;

(B) if the death occurred in the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, the report shall also include the jurisdiction, the law enforcement agency providing the investigation, and the local or State facility where the death occurred;

(C) if the death occurred in the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, the report shall also include if emergency care was requested by the law enforcement agency in response to any illness, injury, self-inflicted or otherwise, or other issue related to rapid deterioration of physical wellness or human subsistence, and details concerning emergency care that were provided to the decedent if emergency care was provided.

(c) The law enforcement agency and the involved correctional administrators shall make a good faith effort to obtain all relevant facts and circumstances relevant to the death and include those in the report.

(d) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall create a standardized form to be used for the purpose of collecting information as described in subsection (b). The information shall comply with this Act and the Federal Death in Custody Reporting Act of 2013.

(e) Law enforcement agencies shall use the form described in subsection (d) to report all cases in which a person dies:

(1) while in the custody of:

(A) a law enforcement agency;

(B) a local or State correctional facility in this State; or

(C) a peace officer; or

(2) as a result of the peace officer's use of force.

(f) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may determine the manner in which the form is transmitted from a law enforcement agency to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority. All state agencies that collect similar records as required under this Act, including Illinois State Police, Illinois Department of Corrections, and Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice, shall collaborate with the Illinois Criminal Justice and Information Authority to collect the information in this Act.

(g) The reports shall be public records within the meaning of subsection (c) of Section 2 of the Freedom of Information Act and are open to public inspection, with the exception of any portion of the report that the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority determines is privileged or protected under Illinois or federal law.

(g-5) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall begin collecting this information by January 1, 2022. The reports and publications in subsections (h) and below shall begin by June 1, 2022.

(h) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall make available to the public information of all individual reports relating to deaths in custody through the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website to be updated on a quarterly basis.

(i) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall issue a public annual report tabulating and evaluating trends and information on deaths in custody, including, but not limited to:

(1) information regarding the race, gender, sexual orientation, and gender identity of the decedent; and a brief description of the circumstances surrounding the death;

(2) if the death occurred in the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, the report shall also include the jurisdiction, law enforcement agency providing the investigation, and local or State facility where the death occurred; and

(3) recommendations and State and local efforts underway to reduce deaths in custody.

The report shall be submitted to the Governor and General Assembly and made available to the public on the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website the first week of February of each year.

(j) So that the State may oversee the healthcare provided to any person in the custody of each law enforcement agency within this State, provision of medical services to these persons, general care and treatment, and any other factors that may contribute to the death of any of these persons, the following information shall be made available to the public on the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority's website:

(1) the number of deaths that occurred during the preceding calendar year;

(2) the known, or discoverable upon reasonable inquiry, causes and contributing factors of each of the in-custody deaths as defined in subsection (b); and

(3) the law enforcement agency's policies, procedures, and protocols related to:

(A) treatment of a person experiencing withdrawal from alcohol or substance use;

(B) the facility's provision, or lack of provision, of medications used to treat, mitigate, or address a person's symptoms; and

(C) notifying an inmate's next of kin after the inmate's in-custody death.

(k) The family, next of kin, or any other person reasonably nominated by the decedent as an emergency contact shall be notified as soon as possible in a suitable manner giving an accurate factual account of the cause of death and circumstances surrounding the death in custody in accordance with State and federal law.

(l) The law enforcement agency or correctional facility shall name a staff person to act as dedicated family liaison officer to be a point of contact for the family, to make and maintain contact with the family, to report ongoing developments and findings of investigations, and to provide information and practical support. If requested by the deceased's next of kin, the law enforcement agency or correctional facility shall arrange for a chaplain, counselor, or other suitable staff member to meet with the family and discuss any faith considerations or concerns. The family has a right to the medical records of a family member who has died in custody and these records shall be disclosed to them in accordance with State and federal law.

(m) Each department shall assign an employee or employees to file reports under this Section. It is unlawful for a person who is required under this Section to investigate a death or file a report to fail to include in the report facts known or discovered in the investigation to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority. A violation of this Section is a petty offense, with fine not to exceed $500.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21.)

Section 95. No acceleration or delay. Except as otherwise expressly provided in Sections 3, 15, 55, 60, and 65, where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 97. Severability. The provisions of this Act are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.