HB4302 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB103 35621 LNS 65695 b

103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
HB4302

Introduced 1/16/2024, by Rep. Paul Jacobs

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024, with provisions similar to those of the Illinois Abortion Law of 1975 before its repeal by Public Act 101-13, as well as including provisions defining "viability" and "fetal heartbeat" and restricting the performance of an abortion to a patient who resides in the State. Creates the Partial-Birth Abortion Ban Act of 2024 and the Abortion Performance Refusal Act of 2024, with provisions similar to those of the Partial-birth Abortion Ban Act and the Abortion Performance Refusal Act before their repeal by Public Act 101-13. Creates the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024, with provisions similar to those of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995 before its repeal by Public Act 102-685. Amends various Acts by restoring the language that existed before the amendment of those Acts by Public Acts 101-13 and 102-1117. Repeals the Reproductive Health Act, the Abortion Care Clinical Training Program Act, the Lawful Health Care Activity Act, the Protecting Reproductive Health Care Services Act, and the Youth Health and Safety Act. Effective immediately.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning abortion.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Article 1.

Section 1-1. Short title. This Article shall be known and may be cited as the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024. References in this Article to "this Law" mean this Article.

Section 1-5. Definitions. Unless the language or context clearly indicates a different meaning is intended, the following words or phrases for the purpose of this Law shall be given the meaning ascribed to them:

"Abortifacient" means any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device which is known to cause fetal death when employed in the usual and customary use for which it is manufactured, whether the fetus is known to exist when such substance or device is employed.

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Born alive", "live born", and "live birth", when applied to an individual organism of the species homo sapiens, each mean he or she was completely expelled or extracted from his or her mother and after such separation breathed or showed evidence of the beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy and whether the umbilical cord has been cut or the placenta is attached.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Fertilization" and "conception" each mean the fertilization of a human ovum by a human sperm, which shall be deemed to have occurred at the time when it is known a spermatozoon has penetrated the cell membrane of the ovum.

"Fetal heartbeat" means cardiac activity or the steady and repetitive rhythmic contraction of the fetal heart within the gestational sac.

"Fetus" and "unborn child" each mean an individual organism of the species homo sapiens from fertilization until live birth.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Viability" means either:

(1) that stage of fetal development when, in the medical judgment of the attending physician based on the particular facts of the case before the attending physician, there is a reasonable likelihood of sustained survival of the fetus outside the womb, with or without artificial support; or

(2) when, in the medical judgment of the attending physician based on the particular facts of the case before the attending physician, the unborn child has a fetal heartbeat.

Section 1-10. Medical Judgment. No abortion shall be performed except by a physician after either (i) he or she determines that, in his or her best clinical judgment, the abortion is necessary, or (ii) he or she receives a written statement or oral communication by another physician, hereinafter called the "referring physician", certifying that in the referring physician's best clinical judgment the abortion is necessary. Any person who intentionally or knowingly performs an abortion contrary to the requirements of this Section commits a Class 2 felony.

Section 1-15. When an abortion may be performed.

(a) When the fetus is viable no abortion shall be performed unless in the medical judgment of the attending or referring physician, based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, it is necessary to preserve the life or health of the mother. Intentional, knowing, or reckless failure to conform to the requirements of this subsection is a Class 2 felony.

(b) When the fetus is viable the physician shall certify in writing, on a form prescribed by the Department under Section 1-25, the medical indications which, in his or her medical judgment based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, warrant performance of the abortion to preserve the life or health of the mother.

Section 1-20. Requirements for performing abortion.

(a) Any physician who intentionally performs an abortion when, in his or her medical judgment based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, there is a reasonable likelihood of sustained survival of the fetus outside the womb, with or without artificial support, shall utilize that method of abortion which, of those he or she knows to be available, is in his or her medical judgment most likely to preserve the life and health of the fetus.

The physician shall certify in writing, on a form prescribed by the Department under Section 1-25, the available methods considered and the reasons for choosing the method employed.

Any physician who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly violates the provisions of this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.

(b) No abortion shall be performed or induced when the fetus is viable unless there is in attendance a physician other than the physician performing or inducing the abortion who shall take control of and provide immediate medical care for any child born alive as a result of the abortion. This requirement shall not apply when, in the medical judgment of the physician performing or inducing the abortion based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, there exists a medical emergency; in such a case, the physician shall describe the basis of this judgment on the form prescribed by Section 1-25. Any physician who intentionally performs or induces such an abortion and who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fails to arrange for the attendance of such a second physician in violation of this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.

Subsequent to the abortion, if a child is born alive, the physician required by this subsection to be in attendance shall exercise the same degree of professional skill, care, and diligence to preserve the life and health of the child as would be required of a physician providing immediate medical care to a child born alive in the course of a pregnancy termination which was not an abortion. Any such physician who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly violates this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.

(c) The law of this State shall not be construed to imply that any living individual organism of the species homo sapiens who has been born alive is not an individual under the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) Any physician who intentionally performs an abortion when, in his or her medical judgment based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, there is a reasonable possibility of sustained survival of the fetus outside the womb, with or without artificial support, shall utilize that method of abortion which, of those he or she knows to be available, is in his or her medical judgment most likely to preserve the life and health of the fetus.

The physician shall certify in writing, on a form prescribed by the Department under Section 1-25, the available methods considered and the reasons for choosing the method employed.

Any physician who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly violates the provisions of this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.

(e) Nothing in Section requires a physician to employ a method of abortion which, in the medical judgment of the physician performing the abortion based on the particular facts of the case before him or her, would increase medical risk to the mother.

(f) When the fetus is viable and when there exists reasonable medical certainty (i) that the particular method of abortion to be employed will cause organic pain to the fetus, and (ii) that use of an anesthetic or analgesic would abolish or alleviate organic pain to the fetus caused by the particular method of abortion to be employed, then the physician who is to perform the abortion or his or her agent or the referring physician or his or her agent shall inform the woman upon whom the abortion is to be performed that such an anesthetic or analgesic is available, if he or she knows it to be available, for use to abolish or alleviate organic pain caused to the fetus by the particular method of abortion to be employed. Any person who performs an abortion with knowledge that any such reasonable medical certainty exists and that such an anesthetic or analgesic is available, and intentionally fails to so inform the woman or to ascertain that the woman has been so informed commits a Class B misdemeanor. The foregoing requirements of this subsection shall not apply (i) when in the medical judgment of the physician who is to perform the abortion or the referring physician based upon the particular facts of the case before him or her (1) there exists a medical emergency or (2) the administration of such an anesthetic or analgesic would decrease a possibility of sustained survival of the fetus apart from the body of the mother, with or without artificial support, or (ii) when the physician who is to perform the abortion administers an anesthetic or an analgesic to the woman or the fetus and he or she knows there exists reasonable medical certainty that such use will abolish organic pain caused to the fetus during the course of the abortion.

(g) No person shall sell or experiment upon a fetus produced by the fertilization of a human ovum by a human sperm unless such experimentation is therapeutic to the fetus thereby produced. Intentional violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. Nothing in this subsection is intended to prohibit the performance of in vitro fertilization.

(h) No person shall intentionally perform an abortion with knowledge that the pregnant woman is seeking the abortion solely on account of the sex of the fetus. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to proscribe the performance of an abortion on account of the sex of the fetus because of a genetic disorder linked to that sex. If the application of this subsection to the period of pregnancy prior to viability is held invalid, then such invalidity shall not affect its application to the period of pregnancy subsequent to viability.

(i) No person shall intentionally perform an abortion on a pregnant woman in this State unless the pregnant woman is a resident of this State. The pregnant woman shall provide photo identification on site demonstrating that her residential address is in this State. A patient who obtains an abortion in violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A physician who violates this subsection shall have his or her medical license suspended for 5 years following the violation.

Section 1-25. Reporting. A report of each abortion performed shall be made to the Department on forms prescribed by it. Such report forms shall not identify the patient by name, but by an individual number to be noted in the patient's permanent record in the possession of the physician, and shall include information concerning the:

(1) identification of the physician who performed the abortion and the facility where the abortion was performed and a patient identification number;

(2) State in which the patient resides;

(3) patient's date of birth, race, and marital status;

(4) number of prior pregnancies;

(5) date of last menstrual period;

(6) type of abortion procedure performed;

(7) complications and whether the abortion resulted in a live birth;

(8) date the abortion was performed;

(9) medical indications for any abortion performed when the fetus was viable;

(10) information required by subsections (a) and (d) of Section 1-20, if applicable;

(11) basis for any medical judgment that a medical emergency existed when required under subsections (b) and (f) of Section 1-20 and when required to be reported in accordance with this Section by any provision of this Law; and

(12) pathologist's test results pursuant to Section 1-45.

Such form shall be completed by the hospital or other licensed facility, signed by the physician who performed the abortion or pregnancy termination, and transmitted to the Department not later than 10 days following the end of the month in which the abortion was performed.

If a complication of an abortion occurs or becomes known after submission of such form, a correction using the same patient identification number shall be submitted to the Department within 10 days of its becoming known.

The Department may prescribe rules regarding the administration of this Law and shall prescribe rules to secure the confidentiality of the woman's identity in the information to be provided under the Vital Records Act. All reports received by the Department shall be treated as confidential and the Department shall secure the woman's anonymity. Such reports shall be used only for statistical purposes.

Upon 30 days public notice, the Department is empowered to require reporting of any additional information which, in the sound discretion of the Department, is necessary to develop statistical data relating to the protection of maternal or fetal life or health, is necessary to enforce the provisions of this Law, or is necessary to develop useful criteria for medical decisions. The Department shall annually report to the General Assembly all statistical data gathered under this Law and its recommendations to further the purpose of this Law.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Section 1-30. Reporting complications resulting from abortion. Any physician who diagnoses a woman as having complications resulting from an abortion shall report, within a reasonable period of time, the diagnosis and a summary of her physical symptoms to the Department in accordance with procedures and upon forms required by the Department. The Department shall define the complications required to be reported by rule. The complications defined by rule shall be those which, according to contemporary medical standards, are manifested by symptoms with severity equal to or greater than hemorrhaging requiring transfusion, infection, incomplete abortion, or punctured organs. If the physician making the diagnosis of a complication knows the name or location of the facility where the abortion was performed, he or she shall report such information to the Department.

Any physician who intentionally violates this Section shall be subject to revocation of his or her license pursuant to paragraph (22) of Section 22 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

Section 1-35. Violations.

(a) Any person who intentionally violates any provision of this Law commits a Class A misdemeanor unless a specific penalty is otherwise provided. Any person who intentionally falsifies any writing required by this Law commits a Class A misdemeanor.

Intentional, knowing, reckless, or negligent violations of this Law shall constitute unprofessional conduct which causes public harm under Section 22 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, Section 70-5 of the Nurse Practice Act, and Section 21 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

Intentional, knowing, reckless, or negligent violations of this Law will constitute grounds for refusal, denial, revocation, suspension, or withdrawal of license, certificate, or permit under Section 30 of the Pharmacy Practice Act, Section 7 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, and Section 7 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

(b) Any hospital or licensed facility which, or any physician who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fails to submit a complete report to the Department in accordance with the provisions of Section 1-25 and any person who intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or negligently fails to maintain the confidentiality of any reports required under this Law or reports required by Section 1-30 or 1-45 commits a Class B misdemeanor.

(c) Any person who sells any drug, medicine, instrument, or other substance which he or she knows to be an abortifacient and which is in fact an abortifacient, unless upon prescription of a physician, is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Any person who prescribes or administers any instrument, medicine, drug, or other substance or device, which he or she knows to be an abortifacient, and which is in fact an abortifacient, and intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly fails to inform the person for whom it is prescribed or upon whom it is administered that it is an abortifacient commits a Class C misdemeanor.

(d) Any person who intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly performs upon a woman what he or she represents to that woman to be an abortion when he or she knows or should know that she is not pregnant commits a Class 2 felony and shall be answerable in civil damages equal to 3 times the amount of proved damages.

Section 1-40. Referral fee.

(a) The payment or receipt of a referral fee in connection with the performance of an abortion is a Class 4 felony.

(b) For purposes of this Section, "referral fee" means the transfer of anything of value between a doctor who performs an abortion or an operator or employee of a clinic at which an abortion is performed and the person who advised the woman receiving the abortion to use the services of that doctor or clinic.

Section 1-45. Gross and microscopic analysis and tissue report. The dead fetus and all tissue removed at the time of abortion shall be submitted for a gross and microscopic analysis and tissue report to a board eligible or certified pathologist as a matter of record in all cases. The results of the analysis and report shall be given to the physician who performed the abortion within 7 days of the abortion and such physician shall report any complications relevant to the woman's medical condition to his or her patient within 48 hours of receiving a report, if possible. Any evidence of live birth or of viability shall be reported within 7 days, if possible, to the Department by the pathologist. Intentional failure of the pathologist to report any evidence of live birth or of viability to the Department is a Class B misdemeanor.

Section 1-50. Use of tissues or cells. Nothing in this Law shall prohibit the use of any tissues or cells obtained from a dead fetus or dead premature infant whose death did not result from an induced abortion, for therapeutic purposes or scientific, research, or laboratory experimentation, as long as the written consent to such use is obtained from one of the parents of such fetus or infant.

Section 1-55. No requirement to perform abortion. No physician, hospital, ambulatory surgical center, nor employee thereof, shall be required against his, her, or its conscience declared in writing to perform, permit, or participate in any abortion, and the failure or refusal to do so shall not be the basis for any civil, criminal, administrative, or disciplinary action, proceeding, penalty, or punishment. If any request for an abortion is denied, the patient shall be promptly notified.

Section 1-60. Severability; effective dates.

(a) If any provision, word, phrase, or clause of this Law or the application thereof to any person or circumstance shall be held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect the provisions, words, phrases, clauses, or application of this Law which can be given effect without the invalid provision, word, phrase, clause, or application, and to this end the provisions, words, phrases, and clauses of this Law are declared to be severable.

(b) Within 60 days from the effective date of this Law, the Department shall issue rules pursuant to Section 1-25. Insofar as Section 1-25 requires registration under the Vital Records Act, it shall not take effect until such rules are issued. The Department shall make available the forms required under Section 1-25 within 30 days of the effective date of this Law. No requirement that any person report information to the Department shall become effective until the Department has made available the forms required under Section 1-25.

Article 2.

Section 2-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Partial-Birth Abortion Ban Act of 2024. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

Section 2-5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Fetus" and "infant" are used interchangeably to refer to the biological offspring of human parents.

"Partial-birth abortion" means an abortion in which the person performing the abortion partially vaginally delivers a living human fetus or infant before killing the fetus or infant and completing the delivery.

Section 2-10. Partial-birth abortions prohibited. Any person who knowingly performs a partial-birth abortion and thereby kills a human fetus or infant is guilty of a Class 4 felony. This Section does not apply to a partial-birth abortion that is necessary to save the life of a mother because her life is endangered by a physical disorder, physical illness, or physical injury, including a life-endangering condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself, as long as no other medical procedure would suffice for that purpose.

Section 2-15. Civil action. The maternal grandparents of the fetus or infant, if the mother has not attained the age of 18 years at the time of the abortion, may in a civil action obtain appropriate relief unless the pregnancy resulted from the plaintiff's criminal conduct or the plaintiff consented to the abortion. The relief shall include money damages for all injuries, psychological and physical, occasioned by the violation of this Act and statutory damages equal to 3 times the cost of the partial-birth abortion.

Section 2-20. Prosecution of woman prohibited. A woman on whom a partial-birth abortion is performed may not be prosecuted under this Act, for a conspiracy to violate this Act, or for an offense under Article 31 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012 based on a violation of this Act, nor may she be held accountable under Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012 for an offense based on a violation of this Act.

Article 3.

Section 3-1. Short title. This Article may be cited as the Abortion Performance Refusal Act of 2024. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

Section 3-5. Recommendation, performance, or assistance in performance of abortion not required.

(a) No physician, nurse or other person who refuses to recommend, perform, or assist in the performance of an abortion, whether such abortion is a crime, shall be liable to any person for damages allegedly arising from such refusal.

(b) No hospital that refuses to permit the performance of an abortion upon its premises, whether such abortion is a crime, shall be liable to any person for damages allegedly arising from such refusal.

(c) Any person, association, partnership, or corporation that discriminates against another person in any way, including, but not limited to, hiring, promotion, advancement, transfer, licensing, granting of hospital privileges, or staff appointments, because of that person's refusal to recommend, perform, or assist in the performance of an abortion, whether such abortion is a crime, shall be answerable in civil damages equal to 3 times the amount of proved damages, but in no case less than $2,000.

(d) The license of any hospital, doctor, nurse, or any other medical personnel shall not be revoked or suspended because of a refusal to permit, recommend, perform, or assist in the performance of an abortion.

Article 4.

Section 4-1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

Section 4-5. Legislative findings and purpose. The General Assembly finds that notification of a family member as defined in this Act is in the best interests of an unemancipated minor, and the General Assembly's purpose in enacting this parental notice law is to further and protect the best interests of an unemancipated minor.

The medical, emotional, and psychological consequences of abortion are sometimes serious and long-lasting, and immature minors often lack the ability to make fully informed choices that consider both the immediate and long-range consequences.

Parental consultation is usually in the best interests of the minor and is desirable since the capacity to become pregnant and the capacity for mature judgment concerning the wisdom of an abortion are not necessarily related.

Section 4-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of a child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Actual notice" means the giving of notice directly, in person, or by telephone.

"Adult family member" means a person over 21 years of age who is the parent, grandparent, stepparent living in the household, or legal guardian.

"Constructive notice" means notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person entitled to notice with delivery deemed to have occurred 48 hours after the certified notice is mailed.

"Incompetent" means any person who has been adjudged as mentally ill or as a person with a developmental disability and who, because of mental illness or developmental disability, is not fully able to manage oneself and for whom a guardian of the person has been appointed under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11a-3 of the Probate Act of 1975.

"Medical emergency" means a condition that, on the basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial and irreversible impairment of major bodily function.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age who is not or has not been married or who has not been emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

"Neglect" means the failure of an adult family member to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care when reasonably able to do so or the failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that imminently and seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so.

"Physical abuse" means any physical injury intentionally inflicted by an adult family member on a child.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that is prohibited by the criminal laws of the State and committed against a minor by an adult family member as defined in this Act.

Section 4-15. Notice to adult family member. No person shall knowingly perform an abortion upon a minor or upon an incompetent person unless the physician or his or her agent has given at least 48 hours actual notice to an adult family member of the pregnant minor or incompetent person of his or her intention to perform the abortion, unless that person or his or her agent has received a written statement by a referring physician certifying that the referring physician or his or her agent has given at least 48 hours notice to an adult family member of the pregnant minor or incompetent person. If actual notice is not possible after a reasonable effort, the physician or his or her agent must give 48 hours constructive notice.

Section 4-20. Exceptions. Notice shall not be required under this Act if:

(1) the minor or incompetent person is accompanied by a person entitled to notice;

(2) notice is waived in writing by a person who is entitled to notice;

(3) the attending physician certifies in the patient's medical record that a medical emergency exists and there is insufficient time to provide the required notice;

(4) the minor declares in writing that she is a victim of sexual abuse, neglect, or physical abuse by an adult family member. The attending physician must certify in the patient's medical record that he or she has received the written declaration of abuse or neglect. Any notification of public authorities of abuse that may be required under other laws of this State need not be made by the person performing the abortion until after the minor receives an abortion that otherwise complies with the requirements of this Act; or

(5) notice is waived under Section 4-25.

Section 4-25. Procedure for judicial waiver of notice.

(a) The requirements and procedures under this Section are available to minors and incompetent persons whether they are residents of this State.

(b) The minor or incompetent person may petition any circuit court for a waiver of the notice requirement and may participate in proceedings on her own behalf. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for her. Any guardian ad litem appointed under this Act shall act to maintain the confidentiality of the proceedings. The circuit court shall advise her that she has a right to court-appointed counsel and shall provide her with counsel upon her request.

(c) Court proceedings under this Section shall be confidential and shall ensure the anonymity of the minor or incompetent person. All court proceedings under this Section shall be sealed. The minor or incompetent person shall have the right to file her petition in the circuit court using a pseudonym or using solely her initials. All documents related to this petition shall be confidential and shall not be made available to the public.

These proceedings shall be given precedence over other pending matters to the extent necessary to ensure that the court reaches a decision promptly. The court shall rule and issue written findings of fact and conclusions of law within 48 hours of the time that the petition is filed, except that the 48-hour limitation may be extended at the request of the minor or incompetent person. If the court fails to rule within the 48-hour period and an extension is not requested, then the petition shall be deemed to have been granted, and the notice requirement shall be waived.

(d) Notice shall be waived if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence either:

(1) that the minor or incompetent person is sufficiently mature and well enough informed to decide intelligently whether to have an abortion; or

(2) that notification under Section 4-15 would not be in the best interests of the minor or incompetent person.

(e) A court that conducts proceedings under this Section shall issue written and specific factual findings and legal conclusions supporting its decision and shall order that a confidential record of the evidence and the judge's findings and conditions be maintained.

(f) An expedited confidential appeal shall be available, as the Supreme Court provides by rule, to any minor or incompetent person to whom the circuit court denies a waiver of notice. An order authorizing an abortion without notice shall not be subject to appeal.

(g) The Supreme Court is respectfully requested to adopt any rules necessary to ensure that proceedings under this Act are handled in an expeditious and confidential manner.

(h) No fees shall be required of any minor or incompetent person who avails herself of the procedures provided by this Section.

Section 4-30. Minor's consent to abortion. A person may not perform an abortion on a minor without the minor's consent, except in a medical emergency.

Section 4-35. Reports. The Department of Public Health shall comply with the reporting requirements set forth in the consent decree in Herbst v. O'Malley, case no. 84-C-5602 in the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division.

Section 4-40. Penalties.

(a) Any physician who willfully fails to provide notice as required under this Act before performing an abortion on a minor or an incompetent person shall be referred to the Illinois State Medical Board for action in accordance with Section 22 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(b) Any person, not authorized under this Act, who signs any waiver of notice for a minor or incompetent person seeking an abortion, is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor.

Section 4-45. Immunity. Any physician who, in good faith, provides notice in accordance with Section 4-15 or relies on an exception under Section 4-20 shall not be subject to any type of civil or criminal liability or discipline for unprofessional conduct for failure to give required notice.

Section 4-50. Severability and inseverability. If any provision of this Act or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision or application does not affect other provisions or applications of the Act that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, except that Section 4-25 is inseverable to the extent that if all or any substantial and material part of Section 4-25 is held invalid, then the entire Act is invalid.

Article 5.

Section 5-5. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law, or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic crashes, traffic crash reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation, or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(d-6) Records contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Database under Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, except to the extent authorized under that Section. This includes the documents supplied to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board from the Illinois State Police and Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(d-7) Information gathered or records created from the use of automatic license plate readers in connection with Section 2-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials are available in the library of the correctional institution or facility or jail where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health.

(e-8) Records requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, the disclosure of which would result in the risk of harm to any person or the risk of an escape from a jail or correctional institution or facility.

(e-9) Records requested by a person in a county jail or committed to the Department of Corrections or Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, containing personal information pertaining to the person's victim or the victim's family, including, but not limited to, a victim's home address, home telephone number, work or school address, work telephone number, social security number, or any other identifying information, except as may be relevant to a requester's current or potential case or claim.

(e-10) Law enforcement records of other persons requested by a person committed to the Department of Corrections, Department of Human Services Division of Mental Health, or a county jail, including, but not limited to, arrest and booking records, mug shots, and crime scene photographs, except as these records may be relevant to the requester's current or potential case or claim.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda, and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged, or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings, and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including, but not limited to, power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including, but not limited to, software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents, and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents, and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self-insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice, or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, insurance companies, or pharmacy benefit managers, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic signatures under the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to expose the vulnerability or jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures, policies, or plans, or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, to cybersecurity vulnerabilities, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Section 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(kk) The public body's credit card numbers, debit card numbers, bank account numbers, Federal Employer Identification Number, security code numbers, passwords, and similar account information, the disclosure of which could result in identity theft or impression or defrauding of a governmental entity or a person.

(ll) Records concerning the work of the threat assessment team of a school district, including, but not limited to, any threat assessment procedure under the School Safety Drill Act and any information contained in the procedure.

(mm) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 15 of the Student Confidential Reporting Act.

(nn) Proprietary information submitted to the Environmental Protection Agency under the Drug Take-Back Act.

(oo) Records described in subsection (f) of Section 3-5-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(pp) Any and all information regarding burials, interments, or entombments of human remains as required to be reported to the Department of Natural Resources pursuant either to the Archaeological and Paleontological Resources Protection Act or the Human Remains Protection Act.

(qq) (Blank). (pp) Reports described in subsection (e) of Section 16-15 of the Abortion Care Clinical Training Program Act.

(rr) (pp) Information obtained by a certified local health department under the Access to Public Health Data Act.

(ss) (pp) For a request directed to a public body that is also a HIPAA-covered entity, all information that is protected health information, including demographic information, that may be contained within or extracted from any record held by the public body in compliance with State and federal medical privacy laws and regulations, including, but not limited to, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and its regulations, 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164. As used in this paragraph, "HIPAA-covered entity" has the meaning given to the term "covered entity" in 45 CFR 160.103 and "protected health information" has the meaning given to that term in 45 CFR 160.103.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-694, eff. 1-7-22; 102-752, eff. 5-6-22; 102-753, eff. 1-1-23; 102-776, eff. 1-1-23; 102-791, eff. 5-13-22; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 102-1055, eff. 6-10-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-423, eff. 1-1-24; 103-446, eff. 8-4-23; 103-462, eff. 8-4-23; 103-540, eff. 1-1-24; 103-554, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-7-23.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) (Blank). Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-5-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) (Blank). Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 2-3.196 of the School Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; revised 9-5-23.)

Section 5-10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 and Article XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Section 356m of the Illinois Insurance Code and, for the employees of the State Employee Group Insurance Program only, the coverage as also provided in Section 6.11B of this Act. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section with respect to Sections 370c and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; all other requirements of this Section shall be enforced by the Department of Central Management Services.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-768, eff. 1-1-24; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-8, eff. 1-1-24; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-15. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service, and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service, and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety, and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent, or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation, or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable permanent family arrangements, through guardianship or adoption, in cases where restoration to the birth family is not safe, possible, or appropriate;

(F) at the time of placement, conducting concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting, or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions. (Blank).

(b-5) The Department shall adopt rules to establish a process for all licensed residential providers in Illinois to submit data as required by the Department, if they contract or receive reimbursement for children's mental health, substance use, and developmental disability services from the Department of Human Services, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The requested data must include, but is not limited to, capacity, staffing, and occupancy data for the purpose of establishing State need and placement availability.

All information collected, shared, or stored pursuant to this subsection shall be handled in accordance with all State and federal privacy laws and accompanying regulations and rules, including without limitation the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191) and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including, but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in screening techniques to identify substance use disorders, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred for an assessment at an organization appropriately licensed by the Department of Human Services for substance use disorder treatment.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a youth in care and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include, but not be limited to, the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were youth in care for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivision subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set, except that reunification services may be offered as provided in paragraph (F) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and the child's family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and the child's family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall assign a caseworker to attend any hearing involving a youth in the care and custody of the Department who is placed on aftercare release, including hearings involving sanctions for violation of aftercare release conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including, but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The General Assembly recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the General Assembly directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian, nor custodian of the child can be located. If the child is found in the child's residence without a parent, guardian, custodian, or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian, or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities, and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities, and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian, or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if the child were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10-day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian, or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10-day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training, and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training, and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, or garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Youth in care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those youth are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) (Blank).

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation, or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department, except that the benefits described in Section 5.46 must be used and conserved consistent with the provisions under Section 5.46.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's Guardianship Administrator or the Guardianship Administrator's designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or the child's guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents, in a licensed foster home, group home, or child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Illinois State Police Law if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Illinois State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Illinois State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Illinois State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1189), a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit the employee's or applicant's fingerprints to the Illinois State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Illinois State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Illinois State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1014, eff. 5-27-22; 103-22, eff. 8-8-23; 103-50, eff. 1-1-24; 103-546, eff. 8-11-23; revised 9-25-23.)

Section 5-20. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 3.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-3.2)

Sec. 3.2. (a) It is the duty of any person conducting or operating a medical facility, or any physician or nurse as soon as treatment permits to notify the local law enforcement agency of that jurisdiction upon the application for treatment of a person who is not accompanied by a law enforcement officer, when it reasonably appears that the person requesting treatment has received:

(1) any injury resulting from the discharge of a firearm; or

(2) any injury sustained in the commission of or as a victim of a criminal offense.

Any hospital, physician, or nurse shall be forever held harmless from any civil liability for their reasonable compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), nothing in this Section shall be construed to require the reporting of lawful health care activity, whether such activity may constitute a violation of another state's law.

(c) As used in this Section:

"Lawful health care" means:

(1) reproductive health care that is not unlawful under the laws of this State or was not unlawful under the laws of this State as of January 13, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1117), including on any theory of vicarious, joint, several, or conspiracy liability; or

(2) the treatment of gender dysphoria or the affirmation of an individual's gender identity or gender expression, including but not limited to, all supplies, care, and services of a medical, behavioral health, mental health, surgical, psychiatric, therapeutic, diagnostic, preventative, rehabilitative, or supportive nature that is not unlawful under the laws of this State or was not unlawful under the laws of this State as of January 13, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1117), including on any theory of vicarious, joint, several, or conspiracy liability.

"Lawful health care activity" means seeking, providing, receiving, assisting in seeking, providing, or receiving, providing material support for, or traveling to obtain lawful health care.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23.)

Section 5-25. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3013, 3-4006, and 5-1069.3 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)

Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine analysis; summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as soon as he knows or is informed that the dead body of any person is found, or lying within his county, whose death is suspected of being:

(a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently suicidal, homicidal, or accidental, including, but not limited to, deaths apparently caused or contributed to by thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical, or radiational injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any death due to a sex crime or a crime against nature;

(c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, obscure, mysterious, or otherwise unexplained or where, in the written opinion of the attending physician, the cause of death is not determined;

(d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug may have been a contributory cause; or

(e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a licensed physician; shall go to the place where the dead body is and take charge of the same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the circumstances of the death. In the case of death without attendance by a licensed physician, the body may be moved with the coroner's consent from the place of death to a mortuary in the same county. Coroners in their discretion shall notify such physician as is designated in accordance with Section 3-3014 to attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by autopsy or otherwise.

In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in which the decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator of a motor vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or older, the coroner shall require that a blood specimen of at least 30 cc., and if medically possible a urine specimen of at least 30 cc. or as much as possible up to 30 cc., be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after the crash causing his death, by such physician as has been designated in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner or deputy coroner or a qualified person designated by such physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county does not maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Illinois State Police or any other accredited or State-certified laboratory for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and dangerous or narcotic drug content of such blood and urine specimens. Each specimen submitted shall be accompanied by pertinent information concerning the decedent upon a form prescribed by such laboratory. Any person drawing blood and urine and any person making any examination of the blood and urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the coroner and referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, blood, and, whenever possible, urine samples shall be analyzed for the presence of alcohol and other drugs. When the coroner suspects that drugs may have been involved in the death, either directly or indirectly, a toxicological examination shall be performed which may include analyses of blood, urine, bile, gastric contents, and other tissues. When the coroner suspects a death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner shall consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of samples. Information submitted to the toxicologist shall include information as to height, weight, age, sex, and race of the decedent as well as medical history, medications used by, and the manner of death of the decedent.

When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion. For proper preservation of the specimens, collected blood and buccal specimens shall be dried and tissue specimens shall be frozen if available equipment exists. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner shall release those specimens to the police agency responsible for investigating the death. As soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the receipt from the coroner or medical examiner, the police agency shall submit the specimens using the agency case number to a National DNA Index System (NDIS) participating laboratory within this State, such as the Illinois State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings. The results of the analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings shall be provided to the Illinois State Police and shall be maintained by the Illinois State Police in the State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during the conduct of a criminal investigation.

In all counties, in cases of apparent suicide, homicide, or accidental death or in other cases, within the discretion of the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The summons shall command these persons to present themselves personally at such a place and time as the coroner shall determine, and may be in any form which the coroner shall determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request for acknowledgment which the coroner deems practical and provides a reliable proof of service. The summons may be served by first class mail. From the 8 persons so summoned, the coroner shall select 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time, as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the original jurors shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county. The coroner shall furnish to each juror without fee at the time of his discharge a certificate of the number of days in attendance at an inquest, and, upon being presented with such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to the juror the sum provided for his services.

In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of apparent suicide or homicide or of accidental death, the coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall provide at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner shall select any 6 to serve as the jury for the inquest. Inquests may be continued from time to time as the coroner may deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen in a given case may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation of an inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be unable to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or vacancies. At the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to fill such vacancies shall be supplied by the jury commission. A juror serving pursuant to this paragraph in such county shall receive compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the county.

In every case in which a fire is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire Marshal.

In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules regarding specific information that must be reported in the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose death figures organized by location, age, and any other factors the Department deems appropriate.

In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is determined to be a contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the death to the Illinois State Police.

All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act in private care facilities or in programs funded by the Department of Human Services under its powers relating to mental health and developmental disabilities or alcoholism and substance abuse or funded by the Department of Children and Family Services shall be reported to the coroner of the county in which the facility is located. If the coroner has reason to believe that an investigation is needed to determine whether the death was caused by maltreatment or negligent care of the ward of the State or youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, the coroner may conduct a preliminary investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of death under circumstances set forth in subparagraphs (a) through (e) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-982, eff. 7-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-4006) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-4006)

Sec. 3-4006. Duties of public defender. The Public Defender, as directed by the court, shall act as attorney, without fee, before any court within any county for all persons who are held in custody or who are charged with the commission of any criminal offense, and who the court finds are unable to employ counsel.

The Public Defender shall be the attorney, without fee, when so appointed by the court under Section 1-20 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 1-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or by any court under subsection (b) of Section 4-5 of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024 for any party who the court finds is financially unable to employ counsel.

In cases subject to Section 5-170 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 involving a minor who was under 15 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, that occurs in a county with a full-time public defender office, a public defender, without fee or appointment, may represent and have access to a minor during a custodial interrogation. In cases subject to Section 5-170 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 involving a minor who was under 15 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, that occurs in a county without a full-time public defender, the law enforcement agency conducting the custodial interrogation shall ensure that the minor is able to consult with an attorney who is under contract with the county to provide public defender services. Representation by the public defender shall terminate at the first court appearance if the court determines that the minor is not indigent.

Every court shall, with the consent of the defendant and where the court finds that the rights of the defendant would be prejudiced by the appointment of the public defender, appoint counsel other than the public defender, except as otherwise provided in Section 113-3 of the "Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963". That counsel shall be compensated as is provided by law. He shall also, in the case of the conviction of any such person, prosecute any proceeding in review which in his judgment the interests of justice require.

In counties with a population over 3,000,000, the public defender, without fee or appointment and with the concurrence of the county board, may act as attorney to noncitizens in immigration cases. Representation by the public defender in immigration cases shall be limited to those arising in immigration courts located within the geographical boundaries of the county where the public defender has been appointed to office unless the board authorizes the public defender to provide representation outside the county.

(Source: P.A. 102-410, eff. 1-1-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-30. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Section 10-4-2.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-35. The School Code is amended by changing Section 10-22.3f as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, and 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, and 356z.70 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-535, eff. 8-11-23; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-40. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 3 and by adding Section 6.2 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.2)

Sec. 2. It is declared to be the public policy that the State has a legitimate interest in assuring that all medical procedures, including abortions, are performed under circumstances that insure maximum safety. Therefore, the purpose of this Act is to provide for the better protection of the public health through the development, establishment, and enforcement of standards (1) for the care of individuals in ambulatory surgical treatment centers, and (2) for the construction, maintenance, and operation of ambulatory surgical treatment centers, which, in light of advancing knowledge, will promote safe and adequate treatment of such individuals in ambulatory surgical treatment centers.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(210 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.3)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed to them:

(A) "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" means any institution, place, or building devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the performance of surgical procedures. "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" includes any place that meets and complies with the definition of an ambulatory surgical treatment center under the rules adopted by the Department or any facility in which a medical or surgical procedure is utilized to terminate a pregnancy, irrespective of whether the facility is devoted primarily to this purpose. Such facility shall not provide beds or other accommodations for the overnight stay of patients; however, facilities devoted exclusively to the treatment of children may provide accommodations and beds for their patients for up to 23 hours following admission. Individual patients shall be discharged in an ambulatory condition without danger to the continued well being of the patients or shall be transferred to a hospital.

The term "ambulatory surgical treatment center" does not include any of the following:

(1) Any institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the "Hospital Licensing Act", approved July 1, 1953, as amended.

(2) Any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act.

(3) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers under its management and control.

(4) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers maintained by the Federal Government or agencies thereof.

(5) Any place, agency, clinic, or practice, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted exclusively to the performance of dental or oral surgical procedures.

(6) Any facility in which the performance of abortion procedures, including procedures to terminate a pregnancy or to manage pregnancy loss, is limited to those performed without general, epidural, or spinal anesthesia, and which is not otherwise required to be an ambulatory surgical treatment center. For purposes of this paragraph, "general, epidural, or spinal anesthesia" does not include local anesthesia or intravenous sedation. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit any such facility from voluntarily electing to apply for licensure as an ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois.

(F) "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

(G) "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(210 ILCS 5/6.2 new)

Sec. 6.2. Physician required for centers primarily providing abortions. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any corporation operating an ambulatory surgical treatment center devoted primarily to providing facilities for abortion must have a physician, who is licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and is actively engaged in the practice of medicine at the center, on the board of directors as a condition to licensure of the center.

Section 5-45. The Birth Center Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 170/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Birth center" means a designated site, other than a hospital:

(1) in which births are planned to occur following a normal, uncomplicated, and low-risk pregnancy;

(2) that is not the pregnant person's usual place of residence;

(3) that is exclusively dedicated to serving the childbirth-related needs of pregnant persons and their newborns, and has no more than 10 beds;

(4) that offers prenatal care and community education services and coordinates these services with other health care services available in the community; and

(5) that does not provide general anesthesia or surgery.

"Certified nurse midwife" means an advanced practice registered nurse licensed in Illinois under the Nurse Practice Act with full practice authority or who is delegated such authority as part of a written collaborative agreement with a physician who is associated with the birthing center or who has privileges at a nearby birthing hospital.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Hospital" does not include places where pregnant females are received, cared for, or treated during delivery if it is in a licensed birth center, nor include any facility required to be licensed as a birth center.

"Licensed certified professional midwife" means a person who has successfully met the requirements under Section 45 of the Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act and holds an active license to practice as a licensed certified professional midwife in Illinois.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 102-518, eff. 8-20-21; 102-964, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(210 ILCS 170/30)

Sec. 30. Minimum standards.

(a) The Department's rules adopted pursuant to Section 60 of this Act shall contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient of a birth center. In adopting rules for birth centers, the Department shall consider:

(1) the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers' Standards for Freestanding Birth Centers;

(2) the American Academy of Pediatrics and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Guidelines for Perinatal Care; and

(3) the Regionalized Perinatal Health Care Code.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit a facility licensed as a birth center from offering other reproductive health care subject to any applicable laws, rules, regulations, or licensing requirements for those services. In this subsection, "reproductive health care" has the same meaning as used in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-518, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-50. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 356z.3a and 356z.4 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356z.3a)

Sec. 356z.3a. Billing; emergency services; nonparticipating providers.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Ancillary services" means:

(1) items and services related to emergency medicine, anesthesiology, pathology, radiology, and neonatology that are provided by any health care provider;

(2) items and services provided by assistant surgeons, hospitalists, and intensivists;

(3) diagnostic services, including radiology and laboratory services, except for advanced diagnostic laboratory tests identified on the most current list published by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services under 42 U.S.C. 300gg-132(b)(3);

(4) items and services provided by other specialty practitioners as the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services specifies through rulemaking under 42 U.S.C. 300gg-132(b)(3); and

(5) items and services provided by a nonparticipating provider if there is no participating provider who can furnish the item or service at the facility. ; and

(6) items and services provided by a nonparticipating provider if there is no participating provider who will furnish the item or service because a participating provider has asserted the participating provider's rights under the Health Care Right of Conscience Act.

"Cost sharing" means the amount an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee is responsible for paying for a covered item or service under the terms of the policy or certificate. "Cost sharing" includes copayments, coinsurance, and amounts paid toward deductibles, but does not include amounts paid towards premiums, balance billing by out-of-network providers, or the cost of items or services that are not covered under the policy or certificate.

"Emergency department of a hospital" means any hospital department that provides emergency services, including a hospital outpatient department.

"Emergency medical condition" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Emergency medical screening examination" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Emergency services" means, with respect to an emergency medical condition:

(1) in general, an emergency medical screening examination, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department to evaluate such emergency medical condition, and such further medical examination and treatment as would be required to stabilize the patient regardless of the department of the hospital or other facility in which such further examination or treatment is furnished; or

(2) additional items and services for which benefits are provided or covered under the coverage and that are furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility regardless of the department of the hospital or other facility in which such items are furnished after the insured, beneficiary, or enrollee is stabilized and as part of outpatient observation or an inpatient or outpatient stay with respect to the visit in which the services described in paragraph (1) are furnished. Services after stabilization cease to be emergency services only when all the conditions of 42 U.S.C. 300gg-111(a)(3)(C)(ii)(II) and regulations thereunder are met.

"Freestanding Emergency Center" means a facility licensed under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Health care facility" means, in the context of non-emergency services, any of the following:

(1) a hospital as defined in 42 U.S.C. 1395x(e);

(2) a hospital outpatient department;

(3) a critical access hospital certified under 42 U.S.C. 1395i-4(e);

(4) an ambulatory surgical treatment center as defined in the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act; or

(5) any recipient of a license under the Hospital Licensing Act that is not otherwise described in this definition.

"Health care provider" means a provider as defined in subsection (d) of Section 370g. "Health care provider" does not include a provider of air ambulance or ground ambulance services.

"Health care services" has the meaning ascribed to that term in subsection (a) of Section 370g.

"Health insurance issuer" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

"Nonparticipating emergency facility" means, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under a policy of group or individual health insurance coverage, any of the following facilities that does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a health insurance issuer in relation to the coverage:

(1) an emergency department of a hospital;

(2) a Freestanding Emergency Center;

(3) an ambulatory surgical treatment center as defined in the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act; or

(4) with respect to emergency services described in paragraph (2) of the definition of "emergency services", a hospital.

"Nonparticipating provider" means, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under a policy of group or individual health insurance coverage, any health care provider who does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a health insurance issuer in relation to the coverage.

"Participating emergency facility" means any of the following facilities that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant health care service is provided to an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee under the coverage:

(1) an emergency department of a hospital;

(2) a Freestanding Emergency Center;

(3) an ambulatory surgical treatment center as defined in the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act; or

(4) with respect to emergency services described in paragraph (2) of the definition of "emergency services", a hospital.

For purposes of this definition, a single case agreement between an emergency facility and an issuer that is used to address unique situations in which an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship and is limited to the parties to the agreement.

"Participating health care facility" means any health care facility that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant health care service is provided to an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee under the coverage. A single case agreement between an emergency facility and an issuer that is used to address unique situations in which an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship for purposes of this definition and is limited to the parties to the agreement.

"Participating provider" means any health care provider that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant health care service is provided to an insured, beneficiary, or enrollee under the coverage.

"Qualifying payment amount" has the meaning given to that term in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-111(a)(3)(E) and the regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Recognized amount" means the lesser of the amount initially billed by the provider or the qualifying payment amount.

"Stabilize" means "stabilization" as defined in Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

"Treating provider" means a health care provider who has evaluated the individual.

"Visit" means, with respect to health care services furnished to an individual at a health care facility, health care services furnished by a provider at the facility, as well as equipment, devices, telehealth services, imaging services, laboratory services, and preoperative and postoperative services regardless of whether the provider furnishing such services is at the facility.

(b) Emergency services. When a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee receives emergency services from a nonparticipating provider or a nonparticipating emergency facility, the health insurance issuer shall ensure that the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee shall incur no greater out-of-pocket costs than the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee would have incurred with a participating provider or a participating emergency facility. Any cost-sharing requirements shall be applied as though the emergency services had been received from a participating provider or a participating facility. Cost sharing shall be calculated based on the recognized amount for the emergency services. If the cost sharing for the same item or service furnished by a participating provider would have been a flat-dollar copayment, that amount shall be the cost-sharing amount unless the provider has billed a lesser total amount. In no event shall the beneficiary, insured, enrollee, or any group policyholder or plan sponsor be liable to or billed by the health insurance issuer, the nonparticipating provider, or the nonparticipating emergency facility for any amount beyond the cost sharing calculated in accordance with this subsection with respect to the emergency services delivered. Administrative requirements or limitations shall be no greater than those applicable to emergency services received from a participating provider or a participating emergency facility.

(b-5) Non-emergency services at participating health care facilities.

(1) When a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee utilizes a participating health care facility and, due to any reason, covered ancillary services are provided by a nonparticipating provider during or resulting from the visit, the health insurance issuer shall ensure that the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee shall incur no greater out-of-pocket costs than the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee would have incurred with a participating provider for the ancillary services. Any cost-sharing requirements shall be applied as though the ancillary services had been received from a participating provider. Cost sharing shall be calculated based on the recognized amount for the ancillary services. If the cost sharing for the same item or service furnished by a participating provider would have been a flat-dollar copayment, that amount shall be the cost-sharing amount unless the provider has billed a lesser total amount. In no event shall the beneficiary, insured, enrollee, or any group policyholder or plan sponsor be liable to or billed by the health insurance issuer, the nonparticipating provider, or the participating health care facility for any amount beyond the cost sharing calculated in accordance with this subsection with respect to the ancillary services delivered. In addition to ancillary services, the requirements of this paragraph shall also apply with respect to covered items or services furnished as a result of unforeseen, urgent medical needs that arise at the time an item or service is furnished, regardless of whether the nonparticipating provider satisfied the notice and consent criteria under paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(2) When a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee utilizes a participating health care facility and receives non-emergency covered health care services other than those described in paragraph (1) of this subsection from a nonparticipating provider during or resulting from the visit, the health insurance issuer shall ensure that the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee incurs no greater out-of-pocket costs than the beneficiary, insured, or enrollee would have incurred with a participating provider unless the nonparticipating provider or the participating health care facility on behalf of the nonparticipating provider satisfies the notice and consent criteria provided in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-132 and regulations promulgated thereunder. If the notice and consent criteria are not satisfied, then:

(A) any cost-sharing requirements shall be applied as though the health care services had been received from a participating provider;

(B) cost sharing shall be calculated based on the recognized amount for the health care services; and

(C) in no event shall the beneficiary, insured, enrollee, or any group policyholder or plan sponsor be liable to or billed by the health insurance issuer, the nonparticipating provider, or the participating health care facility for any amount beyond the cost sharing calculated in accordance with this subsection with respect to the health care services delivered.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, except when the notice and consent criteria are satisfied for the situation in paragraph (2) of subsection (b-5), any benefits a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee receives for services under the situations in subsection (b) or (b-5) are assigned to the nonparticipating providers or the facility acting on their behalf. Upon receipt of the provider's bill or facility's bill, the health insurance issuer shall provide the nonparticipating provider or the facility with a written explanation of benefits that specifies the proposed reimbursement and the applicable deductible, copayment, or coinsurance amounts owed by the insured, beneficiary, or enrollee. The health insurance issuer shall pay any reimbursement subject to this Section directly to the nonparticipating provider or the facility.

(d) For bills assigned under subsection (c), the nonparticipating provider or the facility may bill the health insurance issuer for the services rendered, and the health insurance issuer may pay the billed amount or attempt to negotiate reimbursement with the nonparticipating provider or the facility. Within 30 calendar days after the provider or facility transmits the bill to the health insurance issuer, the issuer shall send an initial payment or notice of denial of payment with the written explanation of benefits to the provider or facility. If attempts to negotiate reimbursement for services provided by a nonparticipating provider do not result in a resolution of the payment dispute within 30 days after receipt of written explanation of benefits by the health insurance issuer, then the health insurance issuer or nonparticipating provider or the facility may initiate binding arbitration to determine payment for services provided on a per-bill or batched-bill basis, in accordance with Section 300gg-111 of the Public Health Service Act and the regulations promulgated thereunder. The party requesting arbitration shall notify the other party arbitration has been initiated and state its final offer before arbitration. In response to this notice, the nonrequesting party shall inform the requesting party of its final offer before the arbitration occurs. Arbitration shall be initiated by filing a request with the Department of Insurance.

(e) The Department of Insurance shall publish a list of approved arbitrators or entities that shall provide binding arbitration. These arbitrators shall be American Arbitration Association or American Health Lawyers Association trained arbitrators. Both parties must agree on an arbitrator from the Department of Insurance's or its approved entity's list of arbitrators. If no agreement can be reached, then a list of 5 arbitrators shall be provided by the Department of Insurance or the approved entity. From the list of 5 arbitrators, the health insurance issuer can veto 2 arbitrators and the provider or facility can veto 2 arbitrators. The remaining arbitrator shall be the chosen arbitrator. This arbitration shall consist of a review of the written submissions by both parties. The arbitrator shall not establish a rebuttable presumption that the qualifying payment amount should be the total amount owed to the provider or facility by the combination of the issuer and the insured, beneficiary, or enrollee. Binding arbitration shall provide for a written decision within 45 days after the request is filed with the Department of Insurance. Both parties shall be bound by the arbitrator's decision. The arbitrator's expenses and fees, together with other expenses, not including attorney's fees, incurred in the conduct of the arbitration, shall be paid as provided in the decision.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Section 368a of this Act shall not apply during the pendency of a decision under subsection (d). Upon the issuance of the arbitrator's decision, Section 368a applies with respect to the amount, if any, by which the arbitrator's determination exceeds the issuer's initial payment under subsection (c), or the entire amount of the arbitrator's determination if initial payment was denied. Any interest required to be paid to a provider under Section 368a shall not accrue until after 30 days of an arbitrator's decision as provided in subsection (d), but in no circumstances longer than 150 days from the date the nonparticipating facility-based provider billed for services rendered.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to change the prudent layperson provisions with respect to emergency services under the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall preclude a health care provider from billing a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee for reasonable administrative fees, such as service fees for checks returned for nonsufficient funds and missed appointments.

(j) Nothing in this Section shall preclude a beneficiary, insured, or enrollee from assigning benefits to a nonparticipating provider when the notice and consent criteria are satisfied under paragraph (2) of subsection (b-5) or in any other situation not described in subsection (b) or (b-5).

(k) Except when the notice and consent criteria are satisfied under paragraph (2) of subsection (b-5), if an individual receives health care services under the situations described in subsection (b) or (b-5), no referral requirement or any other provision contained in the policy or certificate of coverage shall deny coverage, reduce benefits, or otherwise defeat the requirements of this Section for services that would have been covered with a participating provider. However, this subsection shall not be construed to preclude a provider contract with a health insurance issuer, or with an administrator or similar entity acting on the issuer's behalf, from imposing requirements on the participating provider, participating emergency facility, or participating health care facility relating to the referral of covered individuals to nonparticipating providers.

(l) Except if the notice and consent criteria are satisfied under paragraph (2) of subsection (b-5), cost-sharing amounts calculated in conformity with this Section shall count toward any deductible or out-of-pocket maximum applicable to in-network coverage.

(m) The Department has the authority to enforce the requirements of this Section in the situations described in subsections (b) and (b-5), and in any other situation for which 42 U.S.C. Chapter 6A, Subchapter XXV, Parts D or E and regulations promulgated thereunder would prohibit an individual from being billed or liable for emergency services furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility or for non-emergency health care services furnished by a nonparticipating provider at a participating health care facility.

(n) This Section does not apply with respect to air ambulance or ground ambulance services. This Section does not apply to any policy of excepted benefits or to short-term, limited-duration health insurance coverage.

(Source: P.A. 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-440, eff. 1-1-24.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.4)

Sec. 356z.4. Coverage for contraceptives.

(a)(1) The General Assembly hereby finds and declares all of the following:

(A) Illinois has a long history of expanding timely access to birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy.

(B) The federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act includes a contraceptive coverage guarantee as part of a broader requirement for health insurance to cover key preventive care services without out-of-pocket costs for patients.

(C) The General Assembly intends to build on existing State and federal law to promote gender equity and women's health and to ensure greater contraceptive coverage equity and timely access to all federal Food and Drug Administration approved methods of birth control for all individuals covered by an individual or group health insurance policy in Illinois.

(D) Medical management techniques such as denials, step therapy, or prior authorization in public and private health care coverage can impede access to the most effective contraceptive methods.

(2) As used in this subsection (a):

"Contraceptive services" includes consultations, examinations, procedures, and medical services related to the use of contraceptive methods (including natural family planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy.

"Medical necessity", for the purposes of this subsection (a), includes, but is not limited to, considerations such as severity of side effects, differences in permanence and reversibility of contraceptive, and ability to adhere to the appropriate use of the item or service, as determined by the attending provider.

"Therapeutic equivalent version" means drugs, devices, or products that can be expected to have the same clinical effect and safety profile when administered to patients under the conditions specified in the labeling and satisfy the following general criteria:

(i) they are approved as safe and effective;

(ii) they are pharmaceutical equivalents in that they (A) contain identical amounts of the same active drug ingredient in the same dosage form and route of administration and (B) meet compendial or other applicable standards of strength, quality, purity, and identity;

(iii) they are bioequivalent in that (A) they do not present a known or potential bioequivalence problem and they meet an acceptable in vitro standard or (B) if they do present such a known or potential problem, they are shown to meet an appropriate bioequivalence standard;

(iv) they are adequately labeled; and

(v) they are manufactured in compliance with Current Good Manufacturing Practice regulations.

(3) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall provide coverage for all of the following services and contraceptive methods:

(A) All contraceptive drugs, devices, and other products approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. This includes all over-the-counter contraceptive drugs, devices, and products approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, excluding male condoms, except as provided in the current comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration. The following apply:

(i) If the United States Food and Drug Administration has approved one or more therapeutic equivalent versions of a contraceptive drug, device, or product, a policy is not required to include all such therapeutic equivalent versions in its formulary, so long as at least one is included and covered without cost-sharing and in accordance with this Section.

(ii) If an individual's attending provider recommends a particular service or item approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration based on a determination of medical necessity with respect to that individual, the plan or issuer must cover that service or item without cost sharing. The plan or issuer must defer to the determination of the attending provider.

(iii) If a drug, device, or product is not covered, plans and issuers must have an easily accessible, transparent, and sufficiently expedient process that is not unduly burdensome on the individual or a provider or other individual acting as a patient's authorized representative to ensure coverage without cost sharing.

(iv) This coverage must provide for the dispensing of 12 months' worth of contraception at one time.

(B) Voluntary sterilization procedures.

(C) Contraceptive services, patient education, and counseling on contraception.

(D) Follow-up services related to the drugs, devices, products, and procedures covered under this Section, including, but not limited to, management of side effects, counseling for continued adherence, and device insertion and removal.

(4) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (a), a policy subject to this subsection (a) shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided. The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to coverage of voluntary male sterilization procedures to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to the federal Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 223.

(5) Except as otherwise authorized under this subsection (a), a policy shall not impose any restrictions or delays on the coverage required under this subsection (a).

(6) If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage outlined in this subsection (a), then this subsection (a) is inoperative with respect to all coverage outlined in this subsection (a) other than that authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of the coverage set forth in this subsection (a).

(b) This subsection (b) shall become operative if and only if subsection (a) becomes inoperative.

An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after the date this subsection (b) becomes operative that provides coverage for outpatient services and outpatient prescription drugs or devices must provide coverage for the insured and any dependent of the insured covered by the policy for all outpatient contraceptive services and all outpatient contraceptive drugs and devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration. Coverage required under this Section may not impose any deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, or other cost-sharing or limitation that is greater than that required for any outpatient service or outpatient prescription drug or device otherwise covered by the policy.

Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to permanent sterilization that requires a surgical procedure.

As used in this subsection (b), "outpatient contraceptive service" means consultations, examinations, procedures, and medical services, provided on an outpatient basis and related to the use of contraceptive methods (including natural family planning) to prevent an unintended pregnancy.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require an insurance company to cover services related to an abortion as defined in Section 1-25 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024. (Blank).

(d) If a plan or issuer utilizes a network of providers, nothing in this Section shall be construed to require coverage or to prohibit the plan or issuer from imposing cost-sharing for items or services described in this Section that are provided or delivered by an out-of-network provider, unless the plan or issuer does not have in its network a provider who is able to or is willing to provide the applicable items or services.

(Source: P.A. 103-551, eff. 8-11-23.)

Section 5-55. The Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 124/10)

Sec. 10. Network adequacy.

(a) An insurer providing a network plan shall file a description of all of the following with the Director:

(1) The written policies and procedures for adding providers to meet patient needs based on increases in the number of beneficiaries, changes in the patient-to-provider ratio, changes in medical and health care capabilities, and increased demand for services.

(2) The written policies and procedures for making referrals within and outside the network.

(3) The written policies and procedures on how the network plan will provide 24-hour, 7-day per week access to network-affiliated primary care, emergency services, and women's principal health care providers.

An insurer shall not prohibit a preferred provider from discussing any specific or all treatment options with beneficiaries irrespective of the insurer's position on those treatment options or from advocating on behalf of beneficiaries within the utilization review, grievance, or appeals processes established by the insurer in accordance with any rights or remedies available under applicable State or federal law.

(b) Insurers must file for review a description of the services to be offered through a network plan. The description shall include all of the following:

(1) A geographic map of the area proposed to be served by the plan by county service area and zip code, including marked locations for preferred providers.

(2) As deemed necessary by the Department, the names, addresses, phone numbers, and specialties of the providers who have entered into preferred provider agreements under the network plan.

(3) The number of beneficiaries anticipated to be covered by the network plan.

(4) An Internet website and toll-free telephone number for beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries to access current and accurate lists of preferred providers, additional information about the plan, as well as any other information required by Department rule.

(5) A description of how health care services to be rendered under the network plan are reasonably accessible and available to beneficiaries. The description shall address all of the following:

(A) the type of health care services to be provided by the network plan;

(B) the ratio of physicians and other providers to beneficiaries, by specialty and including primary care physicians and facility-based physicians when applicable under the contract, necessary to meet the health care needs and service demands of the currently enrolled population;

(C) the travel and distance standards for plan beneficiaries in county service areas; and

(D) a description of how the use of telemedicine, telehealth, or mobile care services may be used to partially meet the network adequacy standards, if applicable.

(6) A provision ensuring that whenever a beneficiary has made a good faith effort, as evidenced by accessing the provider directory, calling the network plan, and calling the provider, to utilize preferred providers for a covered service and it is determined the insurer does not have the appropriate preferred providers due to insufficient number, type, or unreasonable travel distance or delay, or preferred providers refusing to provide a covered service because it is contrary to the conscience of the preferred providers, as protected by the Health Care Right of Conscience Act, the insurer shall ensure, directly or indirectly, by terms contained in the payer contract, that the beneficiary will be provided the covered service at no greater cost to the beneficiary than if the service had been provided by a preferred provider. This paragraph (6) does not apply to: (A) a beneficiary who willfully chooses to access a non-preferred provider for health care services available through the panel of preferred providers, or (B) a beneficiary enrolled in a health maintenance organization. In these circumstances, the contractual requirements for non-preferred provider reimbursements shall apply unless Section 356z.3a of the Illinois Insurance Code requires otherwise. In no event shall a beneficiary who receives care at a participating health care facility be required to search for participating providers under the circumstances described in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 356z.3a of the Illinois Insurance Code except under the circumstances described in paragraph (2) of subsection (b-5).

(7) A provision that the beneficiary shall receive emergency care coverage such that payment for this coverage is not dependent upon whether the emergency services are performed by a preferred or non-preferred provider and the coverage shall be at the same benefit level as if the service or treatment had been rendered by a preferred provider. For purposes of this paragraph (7), "the same benefit level" means that the beneficiary is provided the covered service at no greater cost to the beneficiary than if the service had been provided by a preferred provider. This provision shall be consistent with Section 356z.3a of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(8) A limitation that, if the plan provides that the beneficiary will incur a penalty for failing to pre-certify inpatient hospital treatment, the penalty may not exceed $1,000 per occurrence in addition to the plan cost sharing provisions.

(c) The network plan shall demonstrate to the Director a minimum ratio of providers to plan beneficiaries as required by the Department.

(1) The ratio of physicians or other providers to plan beneficiaries shall be established annually by the Department in consultation with the Department of Public Health based upon the guidance from the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. The Department shall not establish ratios for vision or dental providers who provide services under dental-specific or vision-specific benefits. The Department shall consider establishing ratios for the following physicians or other providers:

(A) Primary Care;

(B) Pediatrics;

(C) Cardiology;

(D) Gastroenterology;

(E) General Surgery;

(F) Neurology;

(G) OB/GYN;

(H) Oncology/Radiation;

(I) Ophthalmology;

(J) Urology;

(K) Behavioral Health;

(L) Allergy/Immunology;

(M) Chiropractic;

(N) Dermatology;

(O) Endocrinology;

(P) Ears, Nose, and Throat (ENT)/Otolaryngology;

(Q) Infectious Disease;

(R) Nephrology;

(S) Neurosurgery;

(T) Orthopedic Surgery;

(U) Physiatry/Rehabilitative;

(V) Plastic Surgery;

(W) Pulmonary;

(X) Rheumatology;

(Y) Anesthesiology;

(Z) Pain Medicine;

(AA) Pediatric Specialty Services;

(BB) Outpatient Dialysis; and

(CC) HIV.

(2) The Director shall establish a process for the review of the adequacy of these standards, along with an assessment of additional specialties to be included in the list under this subsection (c).

(d) The network plan shall demonstrate to the Director maximum travel and distance standards for plan beneficiaries, which shall be established annually by the Department in consultation with the Department of Public Health based upon the guidance from the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. These standards shall consist of the maximum minutes or miles to be traveled by a plan beneficiary for each county type, such as large counties, metro counties, or rural counties as defined by Department rule.

The maximum travel time and distance standards must include standards for each physician and other provider category listed for which ratios have been established.

The Director shall establish a process for the review of the adequacy of these standards along with an assessment of additional specialties to be included in the list under this subsection (d).

(d-5)(1) Every insurer shall ensure that beneficiaries have timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurers shall use a comparable process, strategy, evidentiary standard, and other factors in the development and application of the network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions and those for the access to treatment for medical and surgical conditions. As such, the network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access shall equally be applied to treatment facilities and providers for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions and specialists providing medical or surgical benefits pursuant to the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code and the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall, at a minimum, satisfy the following requirements:

(A) For beneficiaries residing in the metropolitan counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will, network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions means a beneficiary shall not have to travel longer than 30 minutes or 30 miles from the beneficiary's residence to receive outpatient treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions. Beneficiaries shall not be required to wait longer than 10 business days between requesting an initial appointment and being seen by the facility or provider of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions for outpatient treatment or to wait longer than 20 business days between requesting a repeat or follow-up appointment and being seen by the facility or provider of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions for outpatient treatment; however, subject to the protections of paragraph (3) of this subsection, a network plan shall not be held responsible if the beneficiary or provider voluntarily chooses to schedule an appointment outside of these required time frames.

(B) For beneficiaries residing in Illinois counties other than those counties listed in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions means a beneficiary shall not have to travel longer than 60 minutes or 60 miles from the beneficiary's residence to receive outpatient treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions. Beneficiaries shall not be required to wait longer than 10 business days between requesting an initial appointment and being seen by the facility or provider of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions for outpatient treatment or to wait longer than 20 business days between requesting a repeat or follow-up appointment and being seen by the facility or provider of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions for outpatient treatment; however, subject to the protections of paragraph (3) of this subsection, a network plan shall not be held responsible if the beneficiary or provider voluntarily chooses to schedule an appointment outside of these required time frames.

(2) For beneficiaries residing in all Illinois counties, network adequacy standards for timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions means a beneficiary shall not have to travel longer than 60 minutes or 60 miles from the beneficiary's residence to receive inpatient or residential treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions.

(3) If there is no in-network facility or provider available for a beneficiary to receive timely and proximate access to treatment for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions in accordance with the network adequacy standards outlined in this subsection, the insurer shall provide necessary exceptions to its network to ensure admission and treatment with a provider or at a treatment facility in accordance with the network adequacy standards in this subsection.

(e) Except for network plans solely offered as a group health plan, these ratio and time and distance standards apply to the lowest cost-sharing tier of any tiered network.

(f) The network plan may consider use of other health care service delivery options, such as telemedicine or telehealth, mobile clinics, and centers of excellence, or other ways of delivering care to partially meet the requirements set under this Section.

(g) Except for the requirements set forth in subsection (d-5), insurers who are not able to comply with the provider ratios and time and distance standards established by the Department may request an exception to these requirements from the Department. The Department may grant an exception in the following circumstances:

(1) if no providers or facilities meet the specific time and distance standard in a specific service area and the insurer (i) discloses information on the distance and travel time points that beneficiaries would have to travel beyond the required criterion to reach the next closest contracted provider outside of the service area and (ii) provides contact information, including names, addresses, and phone numbers for the next closest contracted provider or facility;

(2) if patterns of care in the service area do not support the need for the requested number of provider or facility type and the insurer provides data on local patterns of care, such as claims data, referral patterns, or local provider interviews, indicating where the beneficiaries currently seek this type of care or where the physicians currently refer beneficiaries, or both; or

(3) other circumstances deemed appropriate by the Department consistent with the requirements of this Act.

(h) Insurers are required to report to the Director any material change to an approved network plan within 15 days after the change occurs and any change that would result in failure to meet the requirements of this Act. Upon notice from the insurer, the Director shall reevaluate the network plan's compliance with the network adequacy and transparency standards of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-60. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 155.49, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 355c, 356f, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.20, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.23, 356z.24, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.28, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.31, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.37, 356z.38, 356z.39, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.44, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.49, 356z.50, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.55, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.58, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.65, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including, without limitation, the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-123, eff. 1-1-24; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-65. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 155.49, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356q, 356v, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.61, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364.3, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. Nothing in this Section shall require a limited health care plan to cover any service that is not a limited health service. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-426, eff. 8-4-23; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-70. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.3a, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.54, 356z.56, 356z.57, 356z.59, 356z.60, 356z.61, 356z.62, 356z.64, 356z.67, 356z.68, 364.01, 364.3, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; 102-731, eff. 1-1-23; 102-775, eff. 5-13-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-860, eff. 1-1-23; 102-901, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; 103-445, eff. 1-1-24; 103-551, eff. 8-11-23; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-75. The Behavior Analyst Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 60 as follows:

(225 ILCS 6/60)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 60. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may suspend, revoke, place on probation, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or nondisciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the following grounds:

(1) material misstatements in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency or in furnishing information to any insurance company with respect to a claim on behalf of a licensee or a patient;

(2) violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act or its rules;

(3) conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of behavior analysis;

(4) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal or restoration of a license under this Act;

(5) professional incompetence;

(6) gross negligence in practice under this Act;

(7) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(8) failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department;

(9) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department;

(10) habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(11) adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(12) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered; nothing in this paragraph affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law; any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act; nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(13) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with those terms;

(14) abandonment, without cause, of a client;

(15) willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments;

(16) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(17) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(18) physical illness, mental illness, or any other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skills that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(19) solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising;

(20) violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act;

(21) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act; or

(22) being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(b) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall result in an automatic suspension of the licensee's license. The suspension shall end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(c) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of a person who (i) fails to file a tax return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied or (ii) has failed to pay any court-ordered child support as determined by a court order or by referral from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(c-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act based solely upon the licensed behavior analyst recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(c-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed behavior analyst based upon the licensed behavior analyst's license being revoked or suspended, or the licensed behavior analyst being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the licensed behavior analyst violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a licensed behavior analyst practicing in Illinois.

(c-3) The conduct specified in subsections (c-1) and (c-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 125.

(c-4) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed behavior analyst based solely upon the license of a licensed behavior analyst being revoked or the licensed behavior analyst being otherwise disciplined by any other state or territory other than Illinois for the referral for or having otherwise participated in any health care service, if the revocation or disciplinary action was based solely on a violation of the other state's law prohibiting such health care services in the state, for a resident of the state, or in any other state.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

(1) The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

(2) The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

(3) The person to be examined may have, at the person's own expense, another physician of the person's choice present during all aspects of the examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

(4) The failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination without reasonable cause, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of the person's license until the person submits to the examination.

(e) If the Department finds a person unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that person to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to the terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with the terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have the person's license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

(f) All fines imposed shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

If the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this subsection, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that the person can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the person's license.

(g) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-953, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-80. The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 15/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 5365)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 15. Disciplinary action; grounds.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, refuse to renew, suspend, or revoke any license, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the following reasons:

(1) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(2) Gross negligence in the rendering of clinical psychological services.

(3) Using fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for a license or in passing the examination provided for in this Act.

(4) Aiding or abetting or conspiring to aid or abet a person, not a clinical psychologist licensed under this Act, in representing himself or herself as so licensed or in applying for a license under this Act.

(5) Violation of any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder.

(6) Professional connection or association with any person, firm, association, partnership, or corporation holding himself, herself, themselves, or itself out in any manner contrary to this Act.

(7) Unethical, unauthorized or unprofessional conduct as defined by rule. In establishing those rules, the Department shall consider, though is not bound by, the ethical standards for psychologists promulgated by recognized national psychology associations.

(8) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provisions of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder.

(9) Failing to provide, within 60 days, information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a clinical psychologist's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(11) Discipline by another state, territory, the District of Columbia, or foreign country, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, association, or partnership any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies or departments.

(15) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, and safety.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(19) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department, any other State or federal agency, or any other entity.

(20) Failing to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to an act or conduct similar to an act or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(21) Failing to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against a licensee or applicant by another licensing jurisdiction, including any other state or territory of the United States or any foreign state or country, or any peer review body, health care institution, professional society, or association related to the profession, governmental agency, law enforcement agency, or court for an act or conduct similar to an act or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action as set forth in this Section.

(22) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering (A) any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes or (B) any narcotic drug.

(23) Violating State state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(24) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or established under a written collaborative agreement.

The entry of an order by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided for in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension of that license. That person may have his or her license restored only upon the determination by a circuit court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient and upon the Board's recommendation to the Department that the license be restored. Where the circumstances so indicate, the Board may recommend to the Department that it require an examination prior to restoring any license so automatically suspended.

The Department shall refuse to issue or suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel any person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical psychologists shall be those specifically designated by the Department. The Board or the Department may order the examining physician or clinical psychologist to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or clinical psychologist. The person to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician or clinical psychologist of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until the person submits to the examination if the Department or Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds a person unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that person to submit to care, counseling or treatment by physicians or clinical psychologists approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling or treatment, the Board may recommend to the Department to file or the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Board shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act based solely upon the licensed clinical psychologist recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(c) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed clinical psychologist based upon the licensed clinical psychologist's license being revoked or suspended, or the licensed clinical psychologist being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the licensed clinical psychologist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a licensed clinical psychologist practicing in Illinois.

(d) The conduct specified in subsections (b) and (c) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 21.6.

(e) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed clinical psychologist based solely upon the license of a licensed clinical psychologist being revoked or the licensed clinical psychologist being otherwise disciplined by any other state or territory other than Illinois for the referral for or having otherwise participated in any health care service, if the revocation or disciplinary action was based solely on a violation of the other state's law prohibiting such health care services in the state, for a resident of the state, or in any other state.

(f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-85. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 20/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 6369)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 19. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(1) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may suspend, revoke, place on probation, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the following grounds:

(a) material misstatements in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency or in furnishing information to any insurance company with respect to a claim on behalf of a licensee or a patient;

(b) violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;

(c) conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the clinical social work or social work professions;

(d) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal or restoration of a license under this Act;

(e) professional incompetence;

(f) gross negligence in practice under this Act;

(g) aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules;

(h) failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department;

(i) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department;

(j) habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(k) adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(l) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (l) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (l) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(m) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms;

(n) abandonment, without cause, of a client;

(o) willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with Federal or State agencies or departments;

(p) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(q) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(r) physical illness, mental illness, or any other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skills that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(s) solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising;

(t) violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act;

(u) willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act; or

(v) being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(2) (Blank).

(3) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, will result in an automatic suspension of his license. Such suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(4) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of a person who (i) fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied or (ii) has failed to pay any court-ordered child support as determined by a court order or by referral from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(4.5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against a license or permit issued under this Act based solely upon the licensed clinical social worker authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(4.10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a licensed clinical social worker based upon the licensed clinical social worker's license being revoked or suspended, or the licensed clinical social worker being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the licensed clinical social worker violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a licensed clinical social worker practicing in Illinois.

(4.15) The conduct specified in subsections (4.5) and (4.10) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 32.

(4.20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(5)(a) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a person licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

(b) The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

(c) The Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

(d) The person to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

(e) Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination without reasonable cause, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of his or her license until the person submits to the examination.

(f) If the Department or Board finds a person unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that person to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

(g) All fines imposed shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(h) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-90. The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 85 as follows:

(225 ILCS 55/85) (from Ch. 111, par. 8351-85)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 85. Refusal, revocation, or suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, or may revoke, suspend, reprimand, place on probation, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license issued under the provisions of this Act for any one or combination of the following grounds:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violation of any provision of this Act or its rules.

(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal or restoration of a license under this Act or its rules.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(8) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public as defined by the rules of the Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with the terms.

(14) Abandonment of a patient without cause.

(15) Willfully making or filing false records or reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical illness or mental illness or impairment, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(20) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(21) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(22) Gross, willful, and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees or moneys for which services are not rendered.

(23) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(24) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(25) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(26) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging and under the Adult Protective Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(b) (Blank).

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will terminate only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice as a licensed marriage and family therapist or an associate licensed marriage and family therapist.

(d) The Department shall refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied.

(d-5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a marriage and family therapist or associate licensed marriage and family therapist based solely upon the marriage and family therapist or associate licensed marriage and family therapist authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not Unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(d-10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a marriage and family therapist or associate licensed marriage and family therapist based upon the marriage and family therapist's or associate licensed marriage and family therapist's license being revoked or suspended, or the marriage and family therapist or associate licensed marriage and family therapist being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the marriage and family therapist or associate licensed marriage and family therapist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a marriage and family therapist or an associate licensed marriage and family therapist practicing in Illinois.

(d-15) The conduct specified in subsections (d-5) or (d-10) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(d-20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed.

The Department or Board may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(f) A fine shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(g) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-95. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2, 22, 23, 36, and 49.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 2. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the following definitions shall have the following meanings, except where the context requires otherwise:

"Act" means the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Chiropractic physician" means a person licensed to treat human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a chiropractic physician from providing advice regarding the use of non-prescription products or from administering atmospheric oxygen. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a chiropractic physician to prescribe drugs.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Disciplinary action" means revocation, suspension, probation, supervision, practice modification, reprimand, required education, fines, or any other action taken by the Department against a person holding a license.

"Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Final determination" means the governing body's final action taken under the procedure followed by a health care institution, or professional association or society, against any person licensed under the Act in accordance with the bylaws or rules and regulations of such health care institution, or professional association or society.

"Fund" means the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

"Impaired" means the inability to practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety due to physical or mental disabilities as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree to diminish a person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"International medical graduate" means a medical graduate (i) who has been trained in a country other than the United States; (ii) whose education has been certified by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates; (iii) who has passed Step 1, Step 2 Clinical Knowledge, and Step 3 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination as required by this Act; (iv) who maintains an unencumbered license from another country; and (v) who is not licensed to practice medicine in any state or territory of the United States.

"Medical Board" means the Illinois State Medical Board.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act to practice medicine in all of its branches or a chiropractic physician.

"Professional association" means an association or society of persons licensed under this Act, and operating within the State of Illinois, including, but not limited to, medical societies, osteopathic organizations, and chiropractic organizations, but this term shall not be deemed to include hospital medical staffs.

"Program of care, counseling, or treatment" means a written schedule of organized treatment, care, counseling, activities, or education, satisfactory to the Medical Board, designed for the purpose of restoring an impaired person to a condition whereby the impaired person can practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety of a sufficient degree to deliver competent patient care.

"Reinstate" means to change the status of a license or permit from inactive or nonrenewed status to active status.

"Restore" means to remove an encumbrance from a license due to probation, suspension, or revocation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-1, eff. 4-27-23.)

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than: (Blank).

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a willful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed. (Blank).

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Medical Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Medical Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking, or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment, or medicine, or the treating, operating, or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means, or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording of, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents, or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating State or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, or its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024. (Blank).

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(49) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physician assistants resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a physician assistant.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume his or her practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Medical Board that the person has been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Medical Board's recommendation that the person be permitted to resume his or her practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Medical Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Medical Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Medical Board and at the expense of the Department. The Medical Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department or the Medical Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Medical Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Medical Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Medical Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Section 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Medical Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Medical Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Medical Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Medical Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

The Medical Board, in determining mental capacity of an individual licensed under this Act, shall consider the latest recommendations of the Federation of State Medical Boards.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician:

(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device; or

(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, the prescription of or treatment with long-term antibiotics. ;

(3) based solely upon the physician providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state; or

(4) based upon the physician's license being revoked or suspended, or the physician being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the physician violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the physician if it occurred in Illinois.

(D) The Medical Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Medical Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024. Upon the Medical Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000. (Blank).

(E) The conduct specified in subsection (C) shall not trigger reporting requirements under Section 23, constitute grounds for suspension under Section 25, or be included on the physician's profile required under Section 10 of the Patients' Right to Know Act.

(F) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act and who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that the action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of the applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(G) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-442, eff. 1-1-24.)

(225 ILCS 60/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 23. Reports relating to professional conduct and capacity.

(A) Entities required to report.

(1) Health care institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of any health care institution licensed by the Illinois Department of Public Health shall report to the Medical Board when any person's clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination made in accordance with that institution's by-laws or rules and regulations that a person has either committed an act or acts which may directly threaten patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. Such officer also shall report if a person accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Medical Board shall, by rule, provide for the reporting to it by health care institutions of all instances in which a person, licensed under this Act, who is impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse, or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Such reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Medical Board, or by authorized staff as provided by rules of the Medical Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such person not less than twice annually in order that the Medical Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of any such person. Such initial and periodic reports of impaired physicians shall not be considered records within the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Medical Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at such time as the Medical Board shall determine by rule. The filing of such reports shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (C) of this Section. Such health care institution shall not take any adverse action, including, but not limited to, restricting or terminating any person's clinical privileges, as a result of an adverse action against a person's license or clinical privileges or other disciplinary action by another state or health care institution that resulted from the person's provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assistance with, referral for, or participation in any health care service if the adverse action was based solely on a violation of the other state's law prohibiting the provision of such health care and related services in the state or for a resident of the state if that health care service would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for physicians practicing in Illinois.

(1.5) Clinical training programs. The program director of any post-graduate clinical training program shall report to the Medical Board if a person engaged in a post-graduate clinical training program at the institution, including, but not limited to, a residency or fellowship, separates from the program for any reason prior to its conclusion. The program director shall provide all documentation relating to the separation if, after review of the report, the Medical Board determines that a review of those documents is necessary to determine whether a violation of this Act occurred.

(2) Professional associations. The President or chief executive officer of any association or society, of persons licensed under this Act, operating within this State shall report to the Medical Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(3) Professional liability insurers. Every insurance company which offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other entity which seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Act, shall report to the Medical Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, which alleged negligence in the furnishing of medical care by such licensed person when such settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff. Such insurance company shall not take any adverse action, including, but not limited to, denial or revocation of coverage, or rate increases, against a person licensed under this Act with respect to coverage for services provided in the State if based solely on the person providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in health care services in this State in violation of another state's law, or a revocation or other adverse action against the person's license in another state for violation of such law if that health care service as provided would have been lawful and consistent with the standards of conduct for physicians if it occurred in the State. Notwithstanding this provision, it is against public policy to require coverage for an illegal action.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Medical Board, within 5 days, any instances in which a person licensed under this Act is convicted of any felony or Class A misdemeanor. The State's Attorney of each county may report to the Medical Board through a verified complaint any instance in which the State's Attorney believes that a physician has willfully violated the notice requirements of the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024.

(5) State agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of the State of Illinois shall report to the Medical Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of such agency, including the administration of any law by such agency, in which a person licensed under this Act has either committed an act or acts which may be a violation of this Act or which may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or which indicates that a person licensed under this Act may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(B) Mandatory reporting. All reports required by items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22 and by Section 23 shall be submitted to the Medical Board in a timely fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name and date of birth of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, if available, or other means of identification if such information is not available, identification of the hospital or other health care healthcare facility where the care at issue in the report was rendered, provided, however, no medical records may be revealed.

(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, along with the docket number and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information which the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

The Medical Board or Department may also exercise the power under Section 38 of this Act to subpoena copies of hospital or medical records in mandatory report cases alleging death or permanent bodily injury. Appropriate rules shall be adopted by the Department with the approval of the Medical Board.

When the Department has received written reports concerning incidents required to be reported in items (34), (35), and (36) of subsection (A) of Section 22, the licensee's failure to report the incident to the Department under those items shall not be the sole grounds for disciplinary action.

Nothing contained in this Section shall act to, in any way, waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Medical Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Medical Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff, as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation or to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body or medical licensing authority. Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense, or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body or medical licensing authority, only for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license. Information and documents disclosed to the Department of Public Health may be used by that Department only for investigation and disciplinary action regarding the license of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health.

(C) Immunity from prosecution. Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Medical Board or a peer review committee, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by voluntarily reporting to the Medical Board or a peer review committee information regarding alleged errors or negligence by a person licensed under this Act, or by participating in proceedings of the Medical Board or a peer review committee, or by serving as a member of the Medical Board or a peer review committee, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(D) Indemnification. Members of the Medical Board, the Medical Coordinators, the Medical Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, physicians retained under contract to assist and advise the medical coordinators in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Medical Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Medical Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(E) Deliberations of Medical Board. Upon the receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act required pursuant to the rules of the Medical Board, the Medical Board shall notify in writing, by mail or email, the person who is the subject of the report. Such notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Medical Board of the report.

The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in such notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding, clarifying, adding to, or proposing the amending of the report previously filed. The person who is the subject of the report shall also submit with the written statement any medical records related to the report. The statement and accompanying medical records shall become a permanent part of the file and must be received by the Medical Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified by the Medical Board of the existence of the original report.

The Medical Board shall review all reports received by it, together with any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Medical Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event, shall the Medical Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Medical Board.

When the Medical Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Medical Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make such determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

Should the Medical Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported to the Secretary. The Secretary shall then have 30 days to accept the Medical Board's decision or request further investigation. The Secretary shall inform the Medical Board of the decision to request further investigation, including the specific reasons for the decision. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Secretary of any final action on their report or complaint. The Department shall disclose to the individual or entity who filed the original report or complaint, on request, the status of the Medical Board's review of a specific report or complaint. Such request may be made at any time, including prior to the Medical Board's determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action.

(F) Summary reports. The Medical Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than once every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Medical Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's website. Information or documentation relating to any disciplinary file that is closed without disciplinary action taken shall not be disclosed and shall be afforded the same status as is provided by Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A misdemeanor.

(H) If any such person violates the provisions of this Section an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such violation, and if it is established that such person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this paragraph shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(I) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-687, eff. 12-17-21; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(225 ILCS 60/36) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-36)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 36. Investigation; notice.

(a) Upon the motion of either the Department or the Medical Board or upon the verified complaint in writing of any person setting forth facts which, if proven, would constitute grounds for suspension or revocation under Section 22 of this Act, the Department shall investigate the actions of any person, so accused, who holds or represents that he or she holds a license. Such person is hereinafter called the accused.

(b) The Department shall, before suspending, revoking, placing on probationary status, or taking any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify the accused in writing of any charges made and the time and place for a hearing of the charges before the Medical Board, direct him or her to file his or her written answer thereto to the Medical Board under oath within 20 days after the service on him or her of such notice and inform him or her that if he or she fails to file such answer default will be taken against him or her and his or her license may be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or have other disciplinary action, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of his or her practice, as the Department may deem proper taken with regard thereto. The Department shall, at least 14 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify in writing any person who filed a complaint against the accused of the time and place for the hearing of the charges against the accused before the Medical Board and inform such person whether he or she may provide testimony at the hearing.

(c) Where a physician has been found, upon complaint and investigation of the Department, and after hearing, to have performed an abortion procedure in a willful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed, the Department shall automatically revoke the license of such physician to practice medicine in this State. (Blank).

(d) Such written notice and any notice in such proceedings thereafter may be served by personal delivery, email to the respondent's email address of record, or mail to the respondent's address of record.

(e) All information gathered by the Department during its investigation including information subpoenaed under Section 23 or 38 of this Act and the investigative file shall be kept for the confidential use of the Secretary, the Medical Board, the Medical Coordinators, persons employed by contract to advise the Medical Coordinator or the Department, the Medical Board's attorneys, the medical investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff, as provided in this Act and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation to a health care licensing body of this State or another state or jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body. Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body, only for investigations and disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license issued by that licensing body.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-316, eff. 8-9-19; 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(225 ILCS 60/49.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 49.5. Telemedicine.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that because of technological advances and changing practice patterns the practice of medicine is occurring with increasing frequency across state lines and across increasing geographical distances within the State of Illinois and that certain technological advances in the practice of medicine are in the public interest. The General Assembly further finds and declares that the practice of medicine is a privilege and that the licensure by this State of practitioners outside this State engaging in medical practice within this State and the ability to discipline those practitioners is necessary for the protection of the public health, welfare, and safety.

(b) A person who engages in the practice of telemedicine without a license or permit issued under this Act shall be subject to penalties provided in Section 59. A person with a temporary permit for health care may treat a patient located in this State through telehealth services in a manner consistent with the person's scope of practice and agreement with a sponsoring entity.

(c) For purposes of this Act, "telemedicine" means the performance of any of the activities listed in Section 49, including, but not limited to, rendering written or oral opinions concerning diagnosis or treatment of a patient in Illinois by a person in a different location than the patient as a result of transmission of individual patient data by telephonic, electronic, or other means of communication. "Telemedicine" does not include the following:

(1) periodic consultations between a person licensed under this Act and a person outside the State of Illinois;

(2) a second opinion provided to a person licensed under this Act;

(3) diagnosis or treatment services provided to a patient in Illinois following care or treatment originally provided to the patient in the state in which the provider is licensed to practice medicine; and

(4) health care services provided to an existing patient while the person licensed under this Act or patient is traveling.

(d) Whenever the Department has reason to believe that a person has violated this Section, the Department may issue a rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist should not be entered against that person. The rule shall clearly set forth the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall provide a period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an answer to the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to answer to the satisfaction of the Department shall cause an order to cease and desist to be issued immediately.

(e) An out-of-state person providing a service listed in Section 49 to a patient residing in Illinois through the practice of telemedicine submits himself or herself to the jurisdiction of the courts of this State.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-100. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 65-35, 65-43, 65-65, and 70-5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/65-35) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all advanced practice registered nurses engaged in clinical practice prior to meeting the requirements of Section 65-43, except for advanced practice registered nurses who are privileged to practice in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(a-5) If an advanced practice registered nurse engages in clinical practice outside of a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is privileged to practice, the advanced practice registered nurse must have a written collaborative agreement, except as set forth in Section 65-43.

(b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the relationship of the advanced practice registered nurse with the collaborating physician and shall describe the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the advanced practice registered nurse. A collaborative agreement with a podiatric physician must be in accordance with subsection (c-5) or (c-15) of this Section. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section. A collaborative agreement with a podiatric physician must be in accordance with subsection (c-5) of this Section. Collaboration does not require an employment relationship between the collaborating physician and the advanced practice registered nurse.

The collaborative relationship under an agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a collaborating physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth in the written agreement.

(b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of patients of an advanced practice registered nurse within the scope of the advanced practice registered nurses training and experience, (2) limit third party payors or government health programs, such as the medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced practice registered nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or practice location of the advanced practice registered nurse in this State.

(c) In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

(c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those services that the collaborating podiatric physician is authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating podiatric physician.

(c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the working relationship of the certified registered nurse anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only provide those services that the operating dentist with the appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.

(c-15) An advanced practice registered nurse who had a written collaborative agreement with a podiatric physician immediately before the effective date of Public Act 100-513 may continue in that collaborative relationship or enter into a new written collaborative relationship with a podiatric physician under the requirements of this Section and Section 65-40, as those Sections existed immediately before the amendment of those Sections by Public Act 100-513 with regard to a written collaborative agreement between an advanced practice registered nurse and a podiatric physician.

(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the advanced practice registered nurse and the collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(e-5) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced practice registered nurse to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician, including those acts to be performed by a physician in Section 1-10 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024. The scope of practice of an advanced practice registered nurse does not include operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude an advanced practice registered nurse from assisting in surgery.

(f) An advanced practice registered nurse shall inform each collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician upon request.

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-577, eff. 1-26-18; 100-1096, eff. 8-26-18; 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-43)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 65-43. Full practice authority.

(a) An Illinois-licensed advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist shall be deemed by law to possess the ability to practice without a written collaborative agreement as set forth in this Section.

(b) An advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who files with the Department a notarized attestation of completion of at least 250 hours of continuing education or training and at least 4,000 hours of clinical experience after first attaining national certification shall not require a written collaborative agreement. Documentation of successful completion shall be provided to the Department upon request.

Continuing education or training hours required by subsection (b) shall be in the advanced practice registered nurse's area of certification as set forth by Department rule.

The clinical experience must be in the advanced practice registered nurse's area of certification. The clinical experience shall be in collaboration with a physician or physicians. Completion of the clinical experience must be attested to by the collaborating physician or physicians or employer and the advanced practice registered nurse. If the collaborating physician or physicians or employer is unable to attest to the completion of the clinical experience, the Department may accept other evidence of clinical experience as established by rule.

(c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority includes:

(1) all matters included in subsection (c) of Section 65-30 of this Act;

(2) practicing without a written collaborative agreement in all practice settings consistent with national certification;

(3) authority to prescribe both legend drugs and Schedule II through V controlled substances; this authority includes prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, and controlled substances categorized as any Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies;

(4) prescribing Schedule II narcotic drugs, such as opioids, only in a consultation relationship with a physician; this consultation relationship shall be recorded in the Prescription Monitoring Program website, pursuant to Section 316 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, by the physician and advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority and is not required to be filed with the Department; the specific Schedule II narcotic drug must be identified by either brand name or generic name; the specific Schedule II narcotic drug, such as an opioid, may be administered by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application; delivery by injection or other route of administration is not permitted; at least monthly, the advanced practice registered nurse and the physician must discuss the condition of any patients for whom an opioid is prescribed; nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a prescription by an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority to require a physician name;

(4.5) prescribing up to a 120-day supply of benzodiazepines without a consultation relationship with a physician; thereafter, continued prescription of benzodiazepines shall require a consultation with a physician; nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a prescription by an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority to require a physician name;

(5) authority to obtain an Illinois controlled substance license and a federal Drug Enforcement Administration number; and

(6) use of only local anesthetic.

The scope of practice of an advanced practice registered nurse does not include operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude an advanced practice registered nurse from assisting in surgery.

(d) The Department may adopt rules necessary to administer this Section, including, but not limited to, requiring the completion of forms and the payment of fees.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician, including, but not limited to, those acts to be performed by a physician in Section 3.1 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024.

(Source: P.A. 102-75, eff. 1-1-22; 103-60, eff. 1-1-24.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-65) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 65-65. Reports relating to APRN professional conduct and capacity.

(a) Entities Required to Report.

(1) Health Care Institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health, which provides the minimum due process set forth in Section 10.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act, shall report to the Board when an advanced practice registered nurse's organized professional staff clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination, in accordance with that institution's bylaws or rules and regulations, that (i) a person has either committed an act or acts that may directly threaten patient care and that are not of an administrative nature or (ii) that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The chief administrator or officer shall also report if an advanced practice registered nurse accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care and not of an administrative nature, or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Department shall provide by rule for the reporting to it of all instances in which a person licensed under this Article, who is impaired by reason of age, drug, or alcohol abuse, or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Reports submitted under this subsection shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Board or authorized staff as provided by rule of the Department. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such reported person not less than twice annually in order that the Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of that person. Initial and periodic reports of impaired advanced practice registered nurses shall not be considered records within the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at an appropriate time as the Board shall determine by rule. The filing of reports submitted under this subsection shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (c) of this Section. Such health care institution shall not take any adverse action, including, but not limited to, restricting or terminating any person's clinical privileges, as a result of an adverse action against a person's license or clinical privileges or other disciplinary action by another state or health care institution that resulted from the person's provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assistance with, referral for, or participation in any health care service if the adverse action was based solely on a violation of the other state's law prohibiting the provision of such health care and related services in the state or for a resident of the state if that health care service would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for advanced practice registered nurses practicing in Illinois.

(2) Professional Associations. The President or chief executive officer of an association or society of persons licensed under this Article, operating within this State, shall report to the Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person licensed under this Article has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under the person's care.

(3) Professional Liability Insurers. Every insurance company that offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Article, or any other entity that seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Article, shall report to the Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, that alleged negligence in the furnishing of patient care by the licensee when the settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff. Such insurance company shall not take any adverse action, including, but not limited to, denial or revocation of coverage, or rate increases, against a person licensed under this Act with respect to coverage for services provided in Illinois if based solely on the person providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in health care services this State in violation of another state's law, or a revocation or other adverse action against the person's license in another state for violation of such law if that health care service as provided would have been lawful and consistent with the standards of conduct for registered nurses and advanced practice registered nurses if it occurred in Illinois. Notwithstanding this provision, it is against public policy to require coverage for an illegal action.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Board all instances in which a person licensed under this Article is convicted or otherwise found guilty of the commission of a felony.

(5) State Agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of this State shall report to the Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of the agency, including the administration of any law by the agency, in which a person licensed under this Article has either committed an act or acts that may constitute a violation of this Article, that may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care, or that indicates that a person licensed under this Article may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(b) Mandatory Reporting. All reports required under items (16) and (17) of subsection (a) of Section 70-5 shall be submitted to the Board in a timely fashion. The reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Article. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name or other means of identification of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, except that no medical records may be revealed without the written consent of the patient or patients.

(4) A brief description of the facts that gave rise to the issuance of the report, including, but not limited to, the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, the docket number, and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information that the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to in any way waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Immunity from Prosecution. An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(d) Indemnification. Members of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, advanced practice registered nurses or physicians retained under contract to assist and advise in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions (i) occurring within the scope of services on the Board, (ii) performed in good faith, and (iii) not willful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all actions taken against those persons unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in the representation or that the actions complained of were not performed in good faith or were willful and wanton in nature. If the Attorney General declines representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not performed in good faith or were willful and wanton in nature. The member shall notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of an action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification. The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving the notice whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(e) Deliberations of Board. Upon the receipt of a report called for by this Section, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Article required pursuant to the rules of the Board, the Board shall notify in writing by certified or registered mail or by email to the email address of record the person who is the subject of the report. The notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Board of the report. The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in the notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding to, clarifying, adding to, or proposing to amend the report previously filed. The statement shall become a permanent part of the file and shall be received by the Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified of the existence of the original report. The Board shall review all reports received by it and any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event shall the Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Board. When the Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make that determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Should the Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Board of any final action on their report or complaint.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Any violation of this Section shall constitute a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) If a person violates the provisions of this Section, an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining the violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a petition in court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin the violation, and if it is established that the person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this subsection shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(i) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(225 ILCS 65/70-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified or registered mail or by email to the email address of record.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that could result in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status or subject to conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording of or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law.

(13.5) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, professional, or advanced practice registered nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional or nursing society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing or advanced practice registered nursing in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or advanced practice registered nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(19) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(20) Fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(21) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensee's license to deceive the public.

(22) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(29) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(30) Physical illness, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(31) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician in guidelines established under a written collaborative agreement.

(32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(33) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances.

(36) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between an advanced practice registered nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician and a patient, except as required by law.

(37) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(38) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging and under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(39) A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules adopted under this Act.

(40) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(b-5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a registered nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse based solely upon the registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a registered nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse based upon the registered nurse's or advanced practice registered nurse's license being revoked or suspended, or the registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse practicing in Illinois.

(b-15) The conduct specified in subsections (b-5) and (b-10) shall not trigger reporting requirements under Section 65-65 or constitute grounds for suspension under Section 70-60.

(b-20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization under this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice registered nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension, as defined by rule.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this subsection (e), the Department may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this subsection (e), a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this subsection (e) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-105. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 30, 30.1, and 43 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/30) (from Ch. 111, par. 4150)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 30. Refusal, revocation, suspension, or other discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke a license, or may suspend, place on probation, fine, or take any disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee for any one or combination of the following causes:

1. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

2. Violations of this Act, or the rules promulgated hereunder.

3. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses.

4. A pattern of conduct which demonstrates incompetence or unfitness to practice.

5. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

6. Failing, within 60 days, to respond to a written request made by the Department for information.

7. Engaging in unprofessional, dishonorable, or unethical conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public as defined by rule.

8. Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a pharmacy, pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or registered pharmacy technician that is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof.

9. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this item 9 affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this item 9 shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

10. A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

11. Selling or engaging in the sale of drug samples provided at no cost by drug manufacturers.

12. Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

13. A finding that licensure or registration has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

14. Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of pharmacy or involves controlled substances.

15. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

16. Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of pharmacy, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Public Aid Code.

17. Gross and willful overcharging for professional services including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Public Aid Code.

18. Dispensing prescription drugs without receiving a written or oral prescription in violation of law.

19. Upon a finding of a substantial discrepancy in a Department audit of a prescription drug, including controlled substances, as that term is defined in this Act or in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

20. Physical or mental illness or any other impairment or disability, including, without limitation: (A) deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety; or (B) mental incompetence, as declared by a court of competent jurisdiction.

21. Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

22. Failing to sell or dispense any drug, medicine, or poison in good faith. "Good faith", for the purposes of this Section, has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (u) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. "Good faith", as used in this item (22), shall not be limited to the sale or dispensing of controlled substances, but shall apply to all prescription drugs.

23. Interfering with the professional judgment of a pharmacist by any licensee under this Act, or the licensee's agents or employees.

24. Failing to report within 60 days to the Department any adverse final action taken against a pharmacy, pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician by another licensing jurisdiction in any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign jurisdiction, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for discipline as defined in this Section.

25. Failing to comply with a subpoena issued in accordance with Section 35.5 of this Act.

26. Disclosing protected health information in violation of any State or federal law.

27. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

28. Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

29. Using advertisements or making solicitations that may jeopardize the health, safety, or welfare of patients, including, but not limited to, the use of advertisements or solicitations that:

(A) are false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading; or

(B) include any claim regarding a professional service or product or the cost or price thereof that cannot be substantiated by the licensee.

30. Requiring a pharmacist to participate in the use or distribution of advertisements or in making solicitations that may jeopardize the health, safety, or welfare of patients.

31. Failing to provide a working environment for all pharmacy personnel that protects the health, safety, and welfare of a patient, which includes, but is not limited to, failing to:

(A) employ sufficient personnel to prevent fatigue, distraction, or other conditions that interfere with a pharmacist's ability to practice with competency and safety or creates an environment that jeopardizes patient care;

(B) provide appropriate opportunities for uninterrupted rest periods and meal breaks;

(C) provide adequate time for a pharmacist to complete professional duties and responsibilities, including, but not limited to:

(i) drug utilization review;

(ii) immunization;

(iii) counseling;

(iv) verification of the accuracy of a prescription; and

(v) all other duties and responsibilities of a pharmacist as listed in the rules of the Department.

32. Introducing or enforcing external factors, such as productivity or production quotas or other programs against pharmacists, student pharmacists or pharmacy technicians, to the extent that they interfere with the ability of those individuals to provide appropriate professional services to the public.

33. Providing an incentive for or inducing the transfer of a prescription for a patient absent a professional rationale.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty,or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The Department shall revoke any license issued under the provisions of this Act or any prior Act of this State of any person who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license issued under the provisions of this Act or any prior Act of this State is revoked under this subsection (c) shall be prohibited from engaging in the practice of pharmacy in this State.

(c-5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician based solely upon the pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(c-10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician based upon the pharmacist's, registered pharmacy technician's, or registered certified pharmacy technician's license being revoked or suspended, or the pharmacist being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a pharmacist, registered pharmacy technician, or registered certified pharmacy technician practicing in Illinois.

(c-15) The conduct specified in subsections (c-5) and (c-10) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 35.16.

(c-20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(d) Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Fines shall be paid within 60 days or as otherwise agreed to by the Department. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Pharmacy Disciplinary Fund.

(e) The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license or certificate under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. A licensee may resume his or her practice only upon the entry of an order of the Department based upon a finding by the Board that he or she has been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Board's recommendation that the licensee be permitted to resume his or her practice.

(f) The Department shall issue quarterly to the Board a status of all complaints related to the profession received by the Department.

(g) In enforcing this Section, the Board or the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any licensee or applicant for licensure under this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician, or multidisciplinary team involved in providing physical and mental examinations led by a physician consisting of one or a combination of licensed physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff, shall be those specifically designated by the Department. The Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed shall result in the automatic suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Board or Department finds a pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or registered pharmacy technician unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board or Department shall require such pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or registered pharmacy technician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians or other appropriate health care providers approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice. Any pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or registered pharmacy technician whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined, or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the chief pharmacy coordinator, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this subsection (g), a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject pharmacist's, registered certified pharmacy technician's, or registered pharmacy technician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment.

(h) An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages. Any person who reports a violation of this Section to the Department is protected under subsection (b) of Section 15 of the Whistleblower Act.

(i) Members of the Board shall have no liability in any action based upon any disciplinary proceedings or other activity performed in good faith as a member of the Board. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

If the Attorney General declines representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(j) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-621, eff. 1-1-20; 102-882, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(225 ILCS 85/30.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 30.1. Reporting.

(a) When a pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or a registered pharmacy technician licensed by the Department is terminated for actions which may have threatened patient safety, the pharmacy or pharmacist-in-charge, pursuant to the policies and procedures of the pharmacy at which he or she is employed, shall report the termination to the chief pharmacy coordinator. Such reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Board or by authorized Department staff. Such reports, and any records associated with such reports, are exempt from public disclosure and the Freedom of Information Act. Although the reports are exempt from disclosure, any formal complaint filed against a licensee or registrant by the Department or any order issued by the Department against a licensee, registrant, or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise prohibited by law. A pharmacy shall not take any adverse action, including, but not limited to, disciplining or terminating a pharmacist, registered certified pharmacy technician, or registered pharmacy technician, as a result of an adverse action against the person's license or clinical privileges or other disciplinary action by another state or health care institution that resulted from the pharmacist's, registered certified pharmacy technician's, or registered pharmacy technician's provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assistance with, referral for, or participation in any health care service, if the adverse action was based solely on a violation of the other state's law prohibiting the provision such health care and related services in the state or for a resident of the state.

(b) The report shall be submitted to the chief pharmacy coordinator in a timely fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the reports shall be filed in writing, on forms provided by the Department, within 60 days after a pharmacy's determination that a report is required under this Act. All reports shall contain only the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, license number, and last known address and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) A brief description of the facts which gave rise to the issuance of the report, including dates of occurrence.

(c) The contents of any report and any records associated with such report shall be strictly confidential and may only be reviewed by:

(1) members of the Board of Pharmacy;

(2) the Board of Pharmacy's designated attorney;

(3) administrative personnel assigned to open mail containing reports, to process and distribute reports to authorized persons, and to communicate with senders of reports;

(4) Department investigators and Department prosecutors; or

(5) attorneys from the Office of the Illinois Attorney General representing the Department in litigation in response to specific disciplinary action the Department has taken or initiated against a specific individual pursuant to this Section.

(d) Whenever a pharmacy or pharmacist-in-charge makes a report and provides any records associated with that report to the Department, acts in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, the person or entity making the report and the pharmacy or health care institution employing him or her shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(e) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(225 ILCS 85/43)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 43. Dispensation of hormonal contraceptives.

(a) The dispensing of hormonal contraceptives to a patient shall be pursuant to a valid prescription, or pursuant to a standing order by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or , a standing order by the medical director of a local health department, or a standing order by the Department of Public Health pursuant to the following:

(1) a pharmacist may dispense no more than a 12-month supply of hormonal contraceptives to a patient;

(2) a pharmacist must complete an educational training program accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education and approved by the Department that is related to the patient self-screening risk assessment, patient assessment contraceptive counseling and education, and dispensation of hormonal contraceptives;

(3) a pharmacist shall have the patient complete the self-screening risk assessment tool; the self-screening risk assessment tool is to be based on the most current version of the United States Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use published by the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;

(4) based upon the results of the self-screening risk assessment and the patient assessment, the pharmacist shall use his or her professional and clinical judgment as to when a patient should be referred to the patient's physician or another health care provider;

(5) a pharmacist shall provide, during the patient assessment and consultation, counseling and education about all methods of contraception, including methods not covered under the standing order, and their proper use and effectiveness;

(6) the patient consultation shall take place in a private manner; and

(7) a pharmacist and pharmacy must maintain appropriate records.

(b) The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to require a pharmacist to dispense hormonal contraception under a standing order issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the medical director of a local health department.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of the law to the contrary, a pharmacist may dispense hormonal contraceptives in conformance with standing orders issued pursuant to this Section without prior establishment of a relationship between the pharmacist and the person receiving hormonal contraception.

(e) No employee of the Department of Public Health issuing a standing order pursuant to this Section shall, as a result of the employee's acts or omissions in issuing the standing order pursuant to this Section, be subject to (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, (ii) any civil liability, or (iii) any criminal liability.

(Source: P.A. 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-110. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 7.5 and 21 as follows:

(225 ILCS 95/7.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-65)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 7.5. Written collaborative agreements; prescriptive authority.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all physician assistants to practice in the State, except as provided in Section 7.7 of this Act.

(1) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the working relationship of the physician assistant with the collaborating physician and shall describe the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the physician assistant. The written collaborative agreement shall promote the exercise of professional judgment by the physician assistant commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the physician assistant shall be services that the collaborating physician is authorized to and generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice. The written collaborative agreement need not describe the exact steps that a physician assistant must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the collaborating physician as the procedures are being performed. The relationship under a written collaborative agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth in the written collaborative agreement. For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice" means services, not specific tasks or duties, the collaborating physician routinely provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician has the experience and ability to collaborate and provide consultation.

(2) The written collaborative agreement shall be adequate if a physician does each of the following:

(A) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the physician assistant and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice and physician assistant practice.

(B) Provides consultation at least once a month.

(3) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the physician assistant and the collaborating physician.

(4) A physician assistant shall inform each collaborating physician of all written collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician upon request.

(b) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing medical devices, over-the-counter over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician must have a valid, current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration with the Drug Enforcement Administration to delegate the authority to prescribe controlled substances.

(1) To prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances under this Section, a physician assistant must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license. Medication orders issued by a physician assistant shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician.

(2) The collaborating physician shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority to a physician assistant and termination of delegation, specifying the authority delegated or terminated. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe controlled substances, the physician assistant shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by the collaborating physician to a nurse or other appropriately trained persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(3) In addition to the requirements of this subsection (b), a collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to a physician assistant to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(A) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(B) (Blank).

(C) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician.

(D) The physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the collaborating physician.

(E) The physician assistant meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a physician assistant to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize the delegation or performance of operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude a physician assistant from assisting in surgery.

(c-5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority, including Schedule II controlled substances of a licensed physician assistant for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 7.7 of this Act.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-21-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-65)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 7.5. Written collaborative agreements; prescriptive authority.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all physician assistants to practice in the State, except as provided in Section 7.7 of this Act.

(1) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the working relationship of the physician assistant with the collaborating physician and shall describe the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the physician assistant. The written collaborative agreement shall promote the exercise of professional judgment by the physician assistant commensurate with his or her education and experience. The services to be provided by the physician assistant shall be services that the collaborating physician is authorized to and generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice. The written collaborative agreement need not describe the exact steps that a physician assistant must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which authorized procedures require the presence of the collaborating physician as the procedures are being performed. The relationship under a written collaborative agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth in the written collaborative agreement. For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides to his or her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice" means services, not specific tasks or duties, the collaborating physician routinely provides individually or through delegation to other persons so that the physician has the experience and ability to collaborate and provide consultation.

(2) The written collaborative agreement shall be adequate if a physician does each of the following:

(A) Participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines with the physician assistant and he or she periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders in accordance with accepted standards of medical practice and physician assistant practice.

(B) Provides consultation at least once a month.

(3) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the physician assistant and the collaborating physician.

(4) A physician assistant shall inform each collaborating physician of all written collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician upon request.

(b) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing medical devices, over-the-counter over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician must have a valid, current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration with the Drug Enforcement Administration to delegate the authority to prescribe controlled substances.

(1) To prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances under this Section, a physician assistant must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license. Medication orders issued by a physician assistant shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician.

(2) The collaborating physician shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority to a physician assistant and termination of delegation, specifying the authority delegated or terminated. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe controlled substances, the physician assistant shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by the collaborating physician to a nurse or other appropriately trained persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(3) In addition to the requirements of this subsection (b), a collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to a physician assistant to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(A) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(B) (Blank).

(C) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician.

(D) The physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the collaborating physician.

(E) The physician assistant meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a physician assistant to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize the delegation or performance of operative surgery. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude a physician assistant from assisting in surgery.

(c-5) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority, including Schedule II controlled substances of a licensed physician assistant for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, federally qualified health center, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 7.7 of this Act.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 103-65, eff. 1-1-24; revised 9-21-23.)

(225 ILCS 95/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 4621)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 21. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to any license issued under this Act as the Department may deem proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a physician assistant's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements, which may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits, with persons or entities authorized under this Act for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.

(12) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(13) Abandonment of a patient.

(14) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(15) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(16) Physical illness, or mental illness or impairment that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) (Blank).

(19) Gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or death of a patient.

(20) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful means in applying for or securing a license as a physician assistant.

(21) Exceeding the authority delegated to him or her by his or her collaborating physician in a written collaborative agreement.

(22) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation related to the licensee's practice.

(23) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(24) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(25) Making a false or misleading statement regarding his or her skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(26) Allowing another person to use his or her license to practice.

(27) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(28) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(29) A pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(30) Violating State or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances or other legend drugs or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(31) Exceeding the prescriptive authority delegated by the collaborating physician or violating the written collaborative agreement delegating that authority.

(32) Practicing without providing to the Department a notice of collaboration or delegation of prescriptive authority.

(33) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(34) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the examination of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or its successor agency.

(35) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician assistant and patient, except as required by law.

(36) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(37) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(38) Failure to report to the Department an adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign state or country, a peer review body, a health care institution, a professional society or association, a governmental agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action under this Section.

(39) Failure to provide copies of records of patient care or treatment, except as required by law.

(40) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physicians resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(41) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a collaborating physician.

(42) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(b) The Department may, without a hearing, refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(b-5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a physician assistant based solely upon the physician assistant providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a physician assistant based upon the physician assistant's license being revoked or suspended, or the physician assistant being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the physician assistant violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a physician assistant practicing in Illinois.

(b-15) The conduct specified in subsections (b-5) and (b-10) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 22.13.

(b-20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the Department.

The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation.

The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.

Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(e) An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages as a result of such actions.

(f) Members of the Board shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on the Board, done in good faith and not willful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

If the Attorney General declines representation, the member has the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were willful and wanton.

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days after receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General constitutes an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(g) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-115. The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(225 ILCS 107/80)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 80. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(5) Professional incompetence or gross negligence in the rendering of professional counseling or clinical professional counseling services.

(6) Malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs as defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(11) Discipline by another jurisdiction, the District of Columbia, territory, county, or governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(13) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(14) Abandonment of a client.

(15) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(16) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and in matters pertaining to suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults as set forth in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(18) Physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(20) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(21) A finding that licensure has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(22) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(23) Gross and willful overcharging for professional services including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(24) Rendering professional counseling or clinical professional counseling services without a license or practicing outside the scope of a license.

(25) Clinical supervisors failing to adequately and responsibly monitor supervisees.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-10) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(c-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a professional counselor or clinical professional counselor based solely upon the professional counselor or clinical professional counselor authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(c-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a professional counselor or clinical professional counselor based upon the professional counselor's or clinical professional counselor's license being revoked or suspended, or the professional counselor or clinical professional counselor being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the professional counselor or clinical professional counselor violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for a professional counselor or clinical professional counselor practicing in Illinois.

(c-3) The conduct specified in subsections (c-1) and (c-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(c-4) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c-5) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice registered nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this subsection (c-5), the Department may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(d) (Blank).

(e) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-878, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-120. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/75)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-387)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 75. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a registration, may revoke or suspend a registration, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person registered under this Act, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 90, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violating a provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, renewing, restoring, reinstating, or procuring a registration under this Act.

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the Department.

(8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction, governmental agency, unit of government, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the registrant's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(10) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having his or her registration placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies.

(12) Willfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(13) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the registrant has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Failure to report to the Department (A) any adverse final action taken against the registrant by another registering or licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(17) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(18) Physical or mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills, which results in the inability to practice the profession for which he or she is registered with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Gross malpractice.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act related to the registrant's practice, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation.

(21) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing the registration of a person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay a final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by a tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based solely upon the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based upon the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's license being revoked or suspended, or the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist practicing in this State.

(b-3) The conduct specified in subsection (b-1) or (b-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(b-4) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon (1) a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, (2) issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and (3) filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to practice.

(d) (Blank).

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a registrant or a potential registrant is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's registration or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual registered under this Act or any individual who has applied for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, that may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the registrant or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without a hearing until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals registered under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their registration.

(g) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; revised 8-30-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-387)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 75. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a registration, may revoke or suspend a registration, or may place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person registered under this Act, including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided for in Section 90, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violating a provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, renewing, restoring, reinstating, or procuring a registration under this Act.

(5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a provision of this Act or its rules.

(6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the Department.

(8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction, governmental agency, unit of government, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the registrant's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(10) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having the registration placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice, including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with State agencies.

(12) Willfully making or signing a false statement, certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.

(13) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the registrant has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Failure to report to the Department (A) any adverse final action taken against the registrant by another registering or licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this Section.

(17) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(18) Physical or mental illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills, which results in the inability to practice the profession for which the person is registered with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(19) Gross malpractice.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act related to the registrant's practice, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation.

(21) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing the registration of a person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay a final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by a tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b-1) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based solely upon the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist providing, authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-2) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license issued under this Act to practice as a registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist based upon the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's license being revoked or suspended, or the registered surgical assistant's or registered surgical technologist's being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the registered surgical assistant or registered surgical technologist practicing in this State.

(b-3) The conduct specified in subsection (b-1) or (b-2) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 145.

(b-4) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having provided, authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon (1) a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, (2) issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and (3) filing of a petition for restoration demonstrating fitness to practice.

(d) (Blank).

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a registrant or a potential registrant is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's registration or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual registered under this Act or any individual who has applied for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, that may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the registrant or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at the individual's own expense, another physician of the individual's choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without a hearing until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals registered under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their registration.

(g) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(f) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-387, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-30-23.)

Section 5-125. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of genetic counseling.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling services.

(6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any requested information to a referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue Service or any successor agency.

(23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(25) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(26) (Blank).

(27) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a genetic counselor based solely upon the genetic counselor authorizing, recommending, aiding, assisting, referring for, or otherwise participating in any health care service, so long as the care was not unlawful under the laws of this State, regardless of whether the patient was a resident of this State or another state.

(b-10) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, summarily suspend, place on prohibition, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice as a genetic counselor based upon the genetic counselor's license being revoked or suspended, or the genetic counselor being otherwise disciplined by any other state, if that revocation, suspension, or other form of discipline was based solely on the genetic counselor violating another state's laws prohibiting the provision of, authorization of, recommendation of, aiding or assisting in, referring for, or participation in any health care service if that health care service as provided would not have been unlawful under the laws of this State and is consistent with the standards of conduct for the genetic counselor if it occurred in Illinois.

(b-15) The conduct specified in subsections (b-5) and (b-10) shall not constitute grounds for suspension under Section 160.

(b-20) An applicant seeking licensure, certification, or authorization pursuant to this Act who has been subject to disciplinary action by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of another jurisdiction solely on the basis of having authorized, recommended, aided, assisted, referred for, or otherwise participated in health care shall not be denied such licensure, certification, or authorization, unless the Department determines that such action would have constituted professional misconduct in this State; however, nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the Department from evaluating the conduct of such applicant and making a determination regarding the licensure, certification, or authorization to practice a profession under this Act.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(g) The Department may adopt rules to implement the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-130. The Telehealth Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 150/10)

Sec. 10. Practice authority. A health care professional treating a patient located in this State through telehealth services must be licensed or authorized to practice in Illinois. A health care professional with a temporary permit for full practice advanced practice registered nurse for health care, a temporary permit for advanced practice registered nurse for health care, or a temporary permit for health care may treat a patient located in this State through telehealth services in a manner consistent with the health care professional's scope of practice and agreement with a sponsoring entity.

(Source: P.A. 102-104, eff. 7-22-21; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(225 ILCS 150/15)

Sec. 15. Use of telehealth services.

(a) A health care professional may engage in the practice of telehealth services in Illinois to the extent of his or her scope of practice as established in his or her respective licensing Act consistent with the standards of care for in-person services. This Act shall not be construed to alter the scope of practice of any health care professional or authorize the delivery of health care services in a setting or in a manner not otherwise authorized by the laws of this State.

(b) Telehealth services provided pursuant to this Section shall be consistent with all federal and State privacy, security, and confidentiality laws, rules, or regulations.

(c) A health care professional with a temporary permit for full practice advanced practice registered nurse for health care, a temporary permit for advanced practice registered nurse for health care, or a temporary permit for health care may treat a patient located in this State through telehealth services in a manner consistent with the health care professional's scope of practice and agreement with a sponsoring entity.

(Source: P.A. 102-104, eff. 7-22-21; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-135. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Section 5-16.8 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-84, 103-91, and 103-420)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.56, and 356z.59, and 356z.60 of the Illinois Insurance Code, (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 356z.44, 356z.49, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and (iii) be subject to the provisions of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act.

The Department, by rule, shall adopt a model similar to the requirements of Section 356z.39 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-218, eff. 1-1-20; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-371, eff. 1-1-20; 101-574, eff. 1-1-20; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-84, 103-91, and 103-420)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.53, 356z.56, 356z.59, 356z.60, and 356z.61, 356z.64, and 356z.67 of the Illinois Insurance Code, (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 356z.44, 356z.49, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and (iii) be subject to the provisions of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act.

The Department, by rule, shall adopt a model similar to the requirements of Section 356z.39 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-804, eff. 1-1-23; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-816, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1093, eff. 1-1-23; 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23; 103-84, eff. 1-1-24; 103-91, eff. 1-1-24; 103-420, eff. 1-1-24; revised 8-29-23.)

Section 5-140. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by adding Section 9.1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/9.1 new)

Sec. 9.1. No abortion services required. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to require a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility to provide any services which relate to an abortion.

Section 5-145. The Consent by Minors to Health Care Services Act is amended by changing Section 1.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 210/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for limited primary care services.

(a) The consent to the performance of primary care services by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, a chiropractic physician, or a licensed optometrist executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age under the following circumstances:

(1) the health care professional reasonably believes that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and risks of any proposed primary care or services; and

(2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as a minor seeking care by:

(A) an adult relative;

(B) a representative of a homeless service agency that receives federal, State, county, or municipal funding to provide those services or that is otherwise sanctioned by a local continuum of care;

(C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this State;

(D) a public school homeless liaison or school social worker;

(E) a social service agency providing services to at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or

(F) a representative of a religious organization.

(b) A health care professional rendering primary care services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall be presumed.

(c) The confidential nature of any communication between a health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the time of communication, of any additional persons present at the request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care professional's disclosure of confidential information to the additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has coverage for the services provided.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 2024. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a minor in their absence.

(e) For the purposes of this Section:

"Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Primary care services" means health care services that include screening, counseling, immunizations, medication, and treatment of illness and conditions customarily provided by licensed health care professionals in an out-patient setting, eye care services, excluding advanced optometric procedures, provided by optometrists, and services provided by chiropractic physicians according to the scope of practice of chiropractic physicians under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. "Primary care services" does not include invasive care, beyond standard injections, laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-150. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-1)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Vital records" means records of births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, dissolution of marriages, and data related thereto.

(2) "System of vital records" includes the registration, collection, preservation, amendment, and certification of vital records, and activities related thereto.

(3) "Filing" means the presentation of a certificate, report, or other record provided for in this Act, of a birth, death, fetal death, adoption, marriage, or dissolution of marriage, for registration by the Office of Vital Records.

(4) "Registration" means the acceptance by the Office of Vital Records and the incorporation in its official records of certificates, reports, or other records provided for in this Act, of births, deaths, fetal deaths, adoptions, marriages, or dissolution of marriages.

(5) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, which after such separation breathes or shows any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, whether or not the umbilical cord has been cut or the placenta is attached.

(6) "Fetal death" means death prior to the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother the uterus of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy; the , and which is not due to an abortion as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act. The death is indicated by the fact that after such separation the fetus does not breathe or show any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles.

(7) "Dead body" means a lifeless human body or parts of such body or bones thereof from the state of which it may reasonably be concluded that death has occurred.

(8) "Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or other disposition of a dead human body or fetus or parts thereof.

(9) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in Illinois or any other state.

(10) "Institution" means any establishment, public or private, which provides in-patient medical, surgical, or diagnostic care or treatment, or nursing, custodial, or domiciliary care to 2 or more unrelated individuals, or to which persons are committed by law.

(11) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(12) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(13) "Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice as a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant in Illinois or any other state.

(14) "Licensed mental health professional" means a person who is licensed or registered to provide mental health services by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or a board of registration duly authorized to register or grant licenses to persons engaged in the practice of providing mental health services in Illinois or any other state.

(15) "Intersex condition" means a condition in which a person is born with a reproductive or sexual anatomy or chromosome pattern that does not fit typical definitions of male or female.

(16) "Homeless person" means an individual who meets the definition of "homeless" under Section 103 of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11302) or an individual residing in any of the living situations described in 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2).

(17) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means: (i) an advanced practice registered nurse with full practice authority; or (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse with a collaborative agreement with a physician who has delegated the completion of death certificates.

(18) "Certifying health care professional" means a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(19) "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant who practices in accordance with a written collaborative agreement that includes the completion of death certificates.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 102-257, eff. 1-1-22; 102-844, eff. 1-1-23.)

Section 5-155. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Section 56.1 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/56.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1056.1)

Sec. 56.1. Acts prohibited.

(A) No person shall:

(a) Cause or allow the disposal of any potentially infectious medical waste. Sharps may be disposed in any landfill permitted by the Agency under Section 21 of this Act to accept municipal waste for disposal, if both:

(1) the infectious potential has been eliminated from the sharps by treatment; and

(2) the sharps are packaged in accordance with Board regulations.

(b) Cause or allow the delivery of any potentially infectious medical waste for transport, storage, treatment, or transfer except in accordance with Board regulations.

(c) Beginning July 1, 1992, cause or allow the delivery of any potentially infectious medical waste to a person or facility for storage, treatment, or transfer that does not have a permit issued by the agency to receive potentially infectious medical waste, unless no permit is required under subsection (g)(1).

(d) Beginning July 1, 1992, cause or allow the delivery or transfer of any potentially infectious medical waste for transport unless:

(1) the transporter has a permit issued by the Agency to transport potentially infectious medical waste, or the transporter is exempt from the permit requirement set forth in subsection (f)(l).

(2) a potentially infectious medical waste manifest is completed for the waste if a manifest is required under subsection (h).

(e) Cause or allow the acceptance of any potentially infectious medical waste for purposes of transport, storage, treatment, or transfer except in accordance with Board regulations.

(f) Beginning July 1, 1992, conduct any potentially infectious medical waste transportation operation:

(1) Without a permit issued by the Agency to transport potentially infectious medical waste. No permit is required under this provision (f)(1) for:

(A) a person transporting potentially infectious medical waste generated solely by that person's activities;

(B) noncommercial transportation of less than 50 pounds of potentially infectious medical waste at any one time; or

(C) the U.S. Postal Service.

(2) In violation of any condition of any permit issued by the Agency under this Act.

(3) In violation of any regulation adopted by the Board.

(4) In violation of any order adopted by the Board under this Act.

(g) Beginning July 1, 1992, conduct any potentially infectious medical waste treatment, storage, or transfer operation:

(1) without a permit issued by the Agency that specifically authorizes the treatment, storage, or transfer of potentially infectious medical waste. No permit is required under this subsection (g) or subsection (d)(1) of Section 21 for any:

(A) Person conducting a potentially infectious medical waste treatment, storage, or transfer operation for potentially infectious medical waste generated by the person's own activities that are treated, stored, or transferred within the site where the potentially infectious medical waste is generated.

(B) Hospital that treats, stores, or transfers only potentially infectious medical waste generated by its own activities or by members of its medical staff.

(C) Sharps collection station that is operated in accordance with Section 56.7.

(2) in violation of any condition of any permit issued by the Agency under this Act.

(3) in violation of any regulation adopted by the Board.

(4) In violation of any order adopted by the Board under this Act.

(h) Transport potentially infectious medical waste unless the transporter carries a completed potentially infectious medical waste manifest. No manifest is required for the transportation of:

(1) potentially infectious medical waste being transported by generators who generated the waste by their own activities, when the potentially infectious medical waste is transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled, or operated by that person;

(2) less than 50 pounds of potentially infectious medical waste at any one time for a noncommercial transportation activity; or

(3) potentially infectious medical waste by the U.S. Postal Service.

(i) Offer for transportation, transport, deliver, receive, or accept potentially infectious medical waste for which a manifest is required, unless the manifest indicates that the fee required under Section 56.4 of this Act has been paid.

(j) Beginning January 1, 1994, conduct a potentially infectious medical waste treatment operation at an incinerator in existence on the effective date of this Title in violation of emission standards established for these incinerators under Section 129 of the Clean Air Act (42 USC 7429), as amended.

(k) Beginning July 1, 2015, knowingly mix household sharps, including, but not limited to, hypodermic, intravenous, or other medical needles or syringes or other medical household waste containing used or unused sharps, including, but not limited to, hypodermic, intravenous, or other medical needles or syringes or other sharps, with any other material intended for collection as a recyclable material by a residential hauler.

(l) Beginning on July 1, 2015, knowingly place household sharps into a container intended for collection by a residential hauler for processing at a recycling center.

(B) In making its orders and determinations relative to penalties, if any, to be imposed for violating subdivision (A)(a) of this Section, the Board, in addition to the factors in Sections 33(c) and 42(h) of this Act, or the Court shall take into consideration whether the owner or operator of the landfill reasonably relied on written statements from the person generating or treating the waste that the waste is not potentially infectious medical waste.

(C) Notwithstanding subsection (A) or any other provision of law, including the Vital Records Act, tissue and products from an abortion, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, or a miscarriage may be buried, entombed, or cremated.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

Section 5-160. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Section 2-130 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-130)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2-130. User of automated license plate readers; prohibitions.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Automated license plate reader" or "ALPR" means an electronic device that is mounted on a law enforcement vehicle or positioned in a stationary location and that is capable of recording data on or taking a photograph of a vehicle or its license plate and comparing the collected data and photographs to existing law enforcement databases for investigative purposes. "ALPR" includes a device that is owned or operated by a person or an entity other than a law enforcement agency to the extent that data collected by the reader is shared with a law enforcement agency.

"ALPR information" means information gathered by an ALPR or created from the analysis of data generated by an ALPR.

"ALPR systems" means multi-agency or vendor agreements that allow the sharing of ALPR information collected in Illinois.

"ALPR user" means a person or entity that owns or operates an ALPR device.

"Law enforcement agency" means a State or local agency, unit of local government, or private entity charged with the enforcement of State, county, or municipal laws or with managing custody of detained persons in any state or jurisdiction.

(b) An ALPR user shall not sell, share, allow access to, or transfer ALPR information to any state or local jurisdiction for the purpose of investigating or enforcing a law that:

(1) (blank) denies or interferes with a person's right to choose or obtain reproductive health care services or any lawful health care services as defined by the Lawful Health Care Activity Act; or

(2) permits the detention or investigation of a person based on the person's immigration status.

(c) Any ALPR user in this State, including any law enforcement agency of this State that uses ALPR systems, shall not share ALPR information with an out-of-state law enforcement agency without first obtaining a written declaration from the out-of-state law enforcement agency that it expressly affirms that ALPR information obtained shall not be used in a manner that violates subsection (b). If a written declaration of affirmation is not executed, the law enforcement agency shall not share the ALPR information with the out-of-state law enforcement agency.

(d) ALPR information shall be held confidentially to the fullest extent permitted by law.

(e) (Blank). Nothing in this Act shall define or limit any rights under the Reproductive Health Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-540, eff. 1-1-24.)

Section 5-165. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Section 9-1.2, 9-2.1, 9-3.2, and 12-3.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-1.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1.2)

Sec. 9-1.2. Intentional homicide of an unborn child.

(a) A person commits the offense of intentional homicide of an unborn child if, in performing acts which cause the death of an unborn child, he without lawful justification:

(1) either intended to cause the death of or do great bodily harm to the pregnant woman individual or her unborn child or knew that such acts would cause death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman individual or her unborn child; or

(2) knew that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the pregnant woman individual or her unborn child; and

(3) knew that the woman individual was pregnant.

(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization the implantation of an embryo until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman whose unborn child is killed.

(c) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 1-5 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, to which the pregnant woman individual has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(d) Penalty. The sentence for intentional homicide of an unborn child shall be the same as for first degree murder, except that:

(1) (blank);

(2) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(3) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(4) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(e) The provisions of this Act shall not be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person under any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 103-51, eff. 1-1-24.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-2.1)

Sec. 9-2.1. Voluntary Manslaughter of an Unborn Child.

(a) A person who kills an unborn child without lawful justification commits voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child if at the time of the killing he is acting under a sudden and intense passion resulting from serious provocation by another whom the offender endeavors to kill, but he negligently or accidentally causes the death of the unborn child.

Serious provocation is conduct sufficient to excite an intense passion in a reasonable person.

(b) A person who intentionally or knowingly kills an unborn child commits voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child if at the time of the killing he believes the circumstances to be such that, if they existed, would justify or exonerate the killing under the principles stated in Article 7 of this Code, but his belief is unreasonable.

(c) Sentence. Voluntary Manslaughter of an unborn child is a Class 1 felony.

(d) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization the implantation of an embryo until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman individual whose unborn child is killed.

(e) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 1-5 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, to which the pregnant woman individual has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-3.2)

Sec. 9-3.2. Involuntary manslaughter and reckless homicide of an unborn child.

(a) A person who unintentionally kills an unborn child without lawful justification commits involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child if his acts whether lawful or unlawful which cause the death are such as are likely to cause death or great bodily harm to some individual, and he performs them recklessly, except in cases in which the cause of death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle, in which case the person commits reckless homicide of an unborn child.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child is a Class 3 felony.

(2) Reckless homicide of an unborn child is a Class 3 felony.

(c) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization the implantation of an embryo until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman individual whose unborn child is killed.

(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause the death of an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 1-5 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, to which the pregnant woman individual has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(e) The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person under any other provision of law, nor shall it be construed to preclude any civil cause of action.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-3.1)

Sec. 12-3.1. Battery of an unborn child; aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(a) A person commits battery of an unborn child if he or she knowingly without legal justification and by any means causes bodily harm to an unborn child.

(a-5) A person commits aggravated battery of an unborn child when, in committing a battery of an unborn child, he or she knowingly causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to an unborn child.

(b) For purposes of this Section, (1) "unborn child" shall mean any individual of the human species from fertilization the implantation of an embryo until birth, and (2) "person" shall not include the pregnant woman individual whose unborn child is harmed.

(c) Sentence. Battery of an unborn child is a Class A misdemeanor. Aggravated battery of an unborn child is a Class 2 felony.

(d) This Section shall not apply to acts which cause bodily harm to an unborn child if those acts were committed during any abortion, as defined in Section 1-5 of the Illinois Abortion Law of 2024 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act, to which the pregnant woman individual has consented. This Section shall not apply to acts which were committed pursuant to usual and customary standards of medical practice during diagnostic testing or therapeutic treatment.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

Section 5-170. The Uniform Act to Secure the Attendance of Witnesses from Within or Without a State in Criminal Proceedings is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(725 ILCS 220/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 156-2)

Sec. 2. Summoning witness in this State state to testify in another state.

If a judge of a court of record in any state which by its laws has made provision for commanding persons within that state to attend and testify in this State state certifies under the seal of such court that there is a criminal prosecution pending in such court, or that a grand jury investigation has commenced or is about to commence, that a person being within this State state is a material witness in such prosecution, or grand jury investigation, and his presence will be required for a specified number of days, upon presentation of such certificate to any judge of a court in the county in which such person is, such judge shall fix a time and place for a hearing, and shall make an order directing the witness to appear at a time and place certain for the hearing.

If at a hearing the judge determines that the witness is material and necessary, that it will not cause undue hardship to the witness to be compelled to attend and testify in the prosecution or a grand jury investigation in the other state, and that the laws of the state in which the prosecution is pending, or grand jury investigation has commenced or is about to commence (and of any other state through which the witness may be required to pass by ordinary course of travel), will give to him protection from arrest and the service of civil and criminal process, he shall issue a summons, with a copy of the certificate attached, directing the witness to attend and testify in the court where the prosecution is pending, or where a grand jury investigation has commenced or is about to commence at a time and place specified in the summons. In any such hearing the certificate shall be prima facie evidence of all the facts stated therein.

If said certificate recommends that the witness be taken into immediate custody and delivered to an officer of the requesting state to assure his attendance in the requesting state, such judge may, in lieu of notification of the hearing, direct that such witness be forthwith brought before him for said hearing; and the judge at the hearing being satisfied of the desirability of such custody and delivery, for which determination the certificate shall be prima facie proof of such desirability may, in lieu of issuing subpoena or summons, order that said witness be forthwith taken into custody and delivered to an officer of the requesting state.

No subpoena, summons, or order shall be issued for a witness to provide information or testimony in relation to any proceeding if the charge is based on conduct that involves lawful health care activity, as defined by the Lawful Health Care Activity Act, that is not unlawful under the laws of this State. This limitation does not apply for the purpose of complying with obligations under Brady v. Maryland (373 U.S. 83) or Giglio v. United States (405 U.S. 150).

If the witness, who is summoned as above provided, after being paid or tendered by some properly authorized person the sum of 10 cents a mile for each mile by the ordinary travel route to and from the court where the prosecution is pending and five dollars for each day that he is required to travel and attend as a witness, fails without good cause to attend and testify as directed in the summons, he shall be punished in the manner provided for the punishment of any witness who disobeys a summons issued from a court in this state.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-175. The Uniform Criminal Extradition Act is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(725 ILCS 225/6) (from Ch. 60, par. 23)

Sec. 6. Extradition of persons not present in demanding state at time of commission of crime.

The Governor of this State may also surrender, on demand of the Executive Authority of any other state, any person in this State charged in such other state in the manner provided in Section 3 with committing an act in this State, or in a third state, intentionally resulting in a crime in the state whose Executive Authority is making the demand. However, the Governor of this State shall not surrender such a person if the charge is based on conduct that involves seeking, providing, receiving, assisting in seeking, providing, or receiving, providing material support for, or traveling to obtain lawful health care, as defined by Section 28-10 of the Lawful Health Care Activity Act, that is not unlawful under the laws of this State, including a charge based on any theory of vicarious, joint, several, or conspiracy liability.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-180. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 8-802 and by adding Section 11-107.1a as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)

Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon shall be permitted to disclose any information he or she may have acquired in attending any patient in a professional character, necessary to enable him or her professionally to serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or criminal, against the physician for malpractice, (3) with the expressed consent of the patient, or in case of his or her death or disability, of his or her personal representative or other person authorized to sue for personal injury or of the beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life, health, or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, (4) in all actions brought by or against the patient, his or her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her estate wherein the patient's physical or mental condition is an issue, (5) upon an issue as to the validity of a document as a will of the patient, (6) in any criminal action where the charge is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted abortion, or abortion (blank), (7) in actions, civil or criminal, arising from the filing of a report in compliance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, (8) to any department, agency, institution, or facility which has custody of the patient pursuant to State statute or any court order of commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section 5-11a of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, (11) in criminal actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of the Criminal Code of 2012, (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act, (13) upon the issuance of a grand jury subpoena pursuant to Article 112 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (14) to or through a health information exchange, as that term is defined in Section 2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, in accordance with State or federal law.

Upon disclosure under item (13) of this Section, in any criminal action where the charge is domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or where the patient is under the age of 18 years or upon the request of the patient, the State's Attorney shall petition the court for a protective order pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 415.

In the event of a conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

(735 ILCS 5/11-107.1a new)

Sec. 11-107.1a. Injunctive relief for the father of an unborn child in an abortion related decision by the mother. In any case when a married woman wishes to have an abortion performed upon her, and her spouse, who is the father of the unborn child, is opposed to the performance of that abortion, a court may hear testimony from both parties and balance the rights and interests of those parties.

When the interests of the husband in preventing the abortion outweigh those of the wife in having an abortion performed after the unborn child is viable, the court may issue an injunction against the performance of the abortion but only where the court makes a finding that the mother's life or physical health are not in danger.

Section 5-185. The Uniform Interstate Depositions and Discovery Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(735 ILCS 35/3)

Sec. 3. Issuance of subpoena.

(a) To request issuance of a subpoena under this Section, a party must submit a foreign subpoena to a clerk of court in the county in which discovery is sought to be conducted in this State. A request for the issuance of a subpoena under this Act does not constitute an appearance in the courts of this State.

(b) When a party submits a foreign subpoena to a clerk of court in this State, the clerk, in accordance with that court's procedure, shall promptly issue a subpoena for service upon the person to which the foreign subpoena is directed unless issuance is prohibited by Section 3.5.

(c) A subpoena under subsection (b) must:

(A) incorporate the terms used in the foreign subpoena; and

(B) contain or be accompanied by the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of all counsel of record in the proceeding to which the subpoena relates and of any party not represented by counsel.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-190. The Wrongful Death Act is amended by changing Section 2.2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 180/2.2) (from Ch. 70, par. 2.2)

Sec. 2.2. The state of gestation or development of a human being when an injury is caused, when an injury takes effect, or at death, shall not foreclose maintenance of any cause of action under the law of this State arising from the death of a human being caused by wrongful act, neglect or default.

There shall be no cause of action against a physician or a medical institution health care professional, a medical institution, or the pregnant person for the wrongful death of a fetus caused by an abortion where the abortion was permitted by law and the requisite consent was lawfully given. Provided, however, that a cause of action is not prohibited where the fetus is live-born but subsequently dies.

There shall be no cause of action against a physician or a medical institution for the wrongful death of a fetus based on the alleged misconduct of the physician or medical institution where the defendant did not know and, under the applicable standard of good medical care, had no medical reason to know of the pregnancy of the mother of the fetus.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-195. The Health Care Right of Conscience Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(745 ILCS 70/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 5303)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly otherwise requires:

(a) "Health care" means any phase of patient care, including, but not limited to, testing; diagnosis; prognosis; ancillary research; instructions; family planning, counselling, referrals, or any other advice in connection with the use or procurement of contraceptives and sterilization or abortion procedures; medication; or surgery or other care or treatment rendered by a physician or physicians, nurses, paraprofessionals, or health care facility, intended for the physical, emotional, and mental well-being of persons; or an abortion as defined by the Reproductive Health Act;

(b) "Physician" means any person who is licensed by the State of Illinois under the Medical Practice Act of 1987;

(c) "Health care personnel" means any nurse, nurses' aide, medical school student, professional, paraprofessional, or any other person who furnishes, or assists in the furnishing of, health care services;

(d) "Health care facility" means any public or private hospital, clinic, center, medical school, medical training institution, laboratory or diagnostic facility, physician's office, infirmary, dispensary, ambulatory surgical treatment center, or other institution or location wherein health care services are provided to any person, including physician organizations and associations, networks, joint ventures, and all other combinations of those organizations;

(e) "Conscience" means a sincerely held set of moral convictions arising from belief in and relation to God, or which, though not so derived, arises from a place in the life of its possessor parallel to that filled by God among adherents to religious faiths;

(f) "Health care payer" means a health maintenance organization, insurance company, management services organization, or any other entity that pays for or arranges for the payment of any health care or medical care service, procedure, or product; and

(g) "Undue delay" means unreasonable delay that causes impairment of the patient's health.

The above definitions include not only the traditional combinations and forms of these persons and organizations but also all new and emerging forms and combinations of these persons and organizations.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

Section 5-200. The Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 is amended by changing Sections 704 and 709 as follows:

(750 ILCS 46/704)

Sec. 704. Withdrawal of consent of intended parent or donor. An intended parent or donor may withdraw consent to use his or her gametes in a writing or legal pleading with notice to the other participants. An intended parent who withdraws consent under this Section prior to the insemination or embryo transfer is not a parent of any resulting child. If a donor withdraws consent to his or her donation prior to the insemination or the combination of gametes, the intended parent is not the parent of any resulting child. If the intended parent or parents no longer wish to use any remaining cryopreserved fertilized ovum for medical purposes, the terms of the most recent informed consent of the intended parent or parents executed at the fertility center or a marital settlement agreement under a judgment of dissolution of marriage, judgment of legal separation, or judgment of dissolution of civil union governs the disposition of the fertilized ovum.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

(750 ILCS 46/709)

Sec. 709. Establishment of parentage; requirements of Gestational Surrogacy Act.

(a) In the event of gestational surrogacy, in addition to the requirements of the Gestational Surrogacy Act, a parent-child relationship is established between a person and a child if all of the following conditions are met prior to the birth of the child:

(1) The gestational surrogate certifies that she did not provide a gamete for the child, and that she is carrying the child for the intended parents.

(2) The spouse, if any, of the gestational surrogate certifies that he or she did not provide a gamete for the child.

(3) Each intended parent, or the parent's legally authorized designee if an intended parent dies, certifies that the child being carried by the gestational surrogate was conceived using at least one of the intended parents' gametes.

(4) A physician licensed in the state in which the fertilized ovum was inseminated or transferred to the gestational surrogate certifies that the child being carried by the gestational surrogate was conceived using the gamete or gametes of at least one of the intended parents, and that neither the gestational surrogate nor the gestational surrogate's spouse, if any, provided gametes for the child being carried by the gestational surrogate.

(5) The attorneys for the intended parents and the gestational surrogate each certify that the parties entered into a gestational surrogacy agreement intended to satisfy the requirements of the Gestational Surrogacy Act.

(b) All certifications under this Section shall be in writing and witnessed by 2 competent adults who are not the gestational surrogate, gestational surrogate's spouse, if any, or an intended parent. Certifications shall be on forms prescribed by the Illinois Department of Public Health and shall be executed prior to the birth of the child. All certifications shall be provided, prior to the birth of the child, to both the hospital where the gestational surrogate anticipates the delivery will occur and to the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(c) Parentage established in accordance with this Section has the full force and effect of a judgment entered under this Act.

(d) The Illinois Department of Public Health shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1117, eff. 1-13-23.)

Section 5-205. The Rights of Married Persons Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(750 ILCS 65/15) (from Ch. 40, par. 1015)

Sec. 15. (a)(1) The expenses of the family and of the education of the children shall be chargeable upon the property of both husband and wife, or of either of them, in favor of creditors therefor, and in relation thereto they may be sued jointly or separately.

(2) No creditor, who has a claim against a spouse or former spouse for an expense incurred by that spouse or former spouse which is not a family expense, shall maintain an action against the other spouse or former spouse for that expense except:

(A) an expense for which the other spouse or former spouse agreed, in writing, to be liable; or

(B) an expense for goods or merchandise purchased by or in the possession of the other spouse or former spouse, or for services ordered by the other spouse or former spouse.

(3) Any creditor who maintains an action in violation of this subsection (a) for an expense other than a family expense against a spouse or former spouse other than the spouse or former spouse who incurred the expense, shall be liable to the other spouse or former spouse for his or her costs, expenses, and attorney's fees incurred in defending the action.

(4) No creditor shall, with respect to any claim against a spouse or former spouse for which the creditor is prohibited under this subsection (a) from maintaining an action against the other spouse or former spouse, engage in any collection efforts against the other spouse or former spouse, including, but not limited to, informal or formal collection attempts, referral of the claim to a collector or collection agency for collection from the other spouse or former spouse, or making any representation to a credit reporting agency that the other spouse or former spouse is any way liable for payment of the claim.

(b) No spouse shall be liable for any expense incurred by the other spouse when an abortion is performed on such spouse, without the consent of such other spouse, unless the physician who performed the abortion certifies that such abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the spouse who obtained such abortion. (Blank).

(c) No parent shall be liable for any expense incurred by his or her minor child when an abortion is performed on such minor child without the consent of both parents of such child, if they both have custody, or the parent having custody, or legal guardian of such child, unless the physician who performed the abortion certifies that such abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the minor child who obtained such abortion. (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19.)

Section 5-210. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2BBBB as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2BBBB)

Sec. 2BBBB. Deceptive practices related to limited services pregnancy centers.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of an individual known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of the child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Reproductive Health Act.

"Affiliates" has the meaning given to the term "hospital affiliate" as defined in subsection (b) of Section 10.8 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Emergency contraception" means one or more prescription drugs (i) used separately or in combination for the purpose of preventing pregnancy, (ii) administered to or self-administered by a patient within a medically recommended amount of time after sexual intercourse, and (iii) dispensed for such purpose in accordance with professional standards of practice.

"Limited services pregnancy center" means an organization or facility, including a mobile facility, that:

(1) does not directly provide abortions or provide or prescribe emergency contraception, or provide referrals for abortions or emergency contraception, and has no affiliation with any organization or provider who provides abortions or provides or prescribes emergency contraception; and

(2) has a primary purpose to offer or provide pregnancy-related services to an individual who is or has reason to believe the individual may be pregnant, whether or not a fee is charged for such services. "Limited services pregnancy center" does not include:

(1) a health care professional licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation;

(2) a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and its affiliates; or

(3) a hospital licensed under the University of Illinois Hospital Act and its affiliates. "Limited services pregnancy center" includes an organization or facility that has employees, volunteers, or agents who are health care professionals licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Pregnancy-related services" means any medical service, or health counseling service, related to the prevention, preservation, or termination of pregnancy, including, but not limited to, contraception and contraceptive counseling, pregnancy testing, pregnancy diagnosis, pregnancy options counseling, limited obstetric ultrasound, obstetric ultrasound, obstetric sonogram, sexually transmitted infections testing, and prenatal care.

(b) A limited services pregnancy center shall not engage in unfair methods of competition or unfair or deceptive acts or practices, including the use or employment of any deception, fraud, false pretense, false promise, or misrepresentation, or the concealment, suppression, or omission of any material fact, with the intent that others rely upon the concealment, suppression, or omission of such material fact:

(1) to interfere with or prevent an individual from seeking to gain entry or access to a provider of abortion or emergency contraception;

(2) to induce an individual to enter or access the limited services pregnancy center;

(3) in advertising, soliciting, or otherwise offering pregnancy-related services; or

(4) in conducting, providing, or performing pregnancy-related services.

(c) A violation of this Section constitutes a violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 103-270, eff. 7-27-23.)

Section 5-215. The Illinois Fertility Fraud Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(815 ILCS 540/10)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Assisted reproductive treatment" means treatment pursuant to assisted reproduction, as defined in the Reproductive Health Act, as a method of achieving a pregnancy through the handling of human oocytes, sperm, zygotes, or embryos for the purpose of establishing a pregnancy. "Assisted reproduction" includes, but is not limited to, methods of artificial insemination, in vitro fertilization, embryo transfer, zygote transfer, embryo biopsy, preimplantation genetic diagnosis, embryo cryopreservation, oocyte, gamete, zygote, and embryo donation, and gestational surrogacy.

"Embryologist" means a laboratory employee who meets any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) program requirements for laboratory personnel that are required by 42 CFR Part 493 or the Illinois Clinical Laboratories Code, and who performs embryology procedures.

"Embryology procedures" include:

(1) culture media preparation and laboratory quality control;

(2) oocyte isolation and identification;

(3) oocyte maturity and health status assessment;

(4) oocyte insemination;

(5) evaluation of fertilization;

(6) zygote quality assessment;

(7) embryo culture and grading;

(8) embryo transfer;

(9) gamete or embryo cryopreservation; and

(10) micromanipulation of gametes or embryos, including intracytoplasmic sperm injection, assisted hatching, and embryo biopsy.

"Health care" means any phase of patient care, including, but not limited to: testing; diagnosis; prognosis; ancillary research; instructions; assisted reproduction; family planning, counseling, referrals, or any other advice in connection with conception; surgery or other care or treatment rendered by a physician, nurse, paraprofessional, or health care facility, intended for the physical, emotional, and mental well-being of persons.

"Health care provider" means a physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, any individual licensed under the laws of this State to provide health care, or any individual who handles human reproductive material in a health care setting.

"Human reproductive material" means:

(1) a human spermatozoon or ovum; or

(2) a human organism at any stage of development from fertilized ovum to embryo.

"In vitro fertilization" means all medical and laboratory procedures that are necessary to effectuate the extracorporeal fertilization of egg and sperm.

"Intended parent" means a person who enters into an assisted reproductive technology arrangement, including a gestational surrogacy arrangement, under which he or she will be the legal parent of the resulting child.

"Laboratory" means a facility for the biological, microbiological, serological, chemical, immunohematological, hematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological, or other examination of materials derived from the human body for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment of, or the assessment of the health of, human beings. These examinations include procedures to determine, measure, or otherwise describe the presence or absence of various substances or organisms in the body. "Laboratory" does not include facilities only collecting or preparing specimens, or both, or only serving as a mailing service and not performing testing.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in this State.

(Source: P.A. 103-478, eff. 1-1-24.)

Article 6.

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.35

Section 6-5. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by repealing Section 5-45.35 (as added by Public Act 102-1117).

(20 ILCS 4111/Act rep.)

Section 6-10. The Youth Health and Safety Act is repealed.

(30 ILCS 105/5.990 rep.)

Section 6-15. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing Section 5.990 (as added by Public Act 102-1117).

(215 ILCS 5/356z.4a rep.)

Section 6-20. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by repealing Section 356z.4a.

(215 ILCS 5/356z.60 rep.)

Section 6-25. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by repealing Section 356z.60.

(225 ILCS 95/9.7 rep.)

Section 6-30. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by repealing Section 9.7.

(225 ILCS 60/66 rep.)

Section 6-35. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by repealing Section 66.

(225 ILCS 65/65-11 rep.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-11.5 rep.)

Section 6-40. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing Sections 65-11 and 65-11.5.

(410 ILCS 185/Act rep.)

Section 6-45. The Abortion Care Clinical Training Program Act is repealed.

(735 ILCS 35/3.5 rep.)

Section 6-50. The Uniform Interstate Depositions and Discovery Act is amended by repealing Section 3.5.

(735 ILCS 40/Act rep.)

Section 6-55. The Lawful Health Care Activity Act is repealed.

(740 ILCS 126/Act rep.)

Section 6-60. The Protecting Reproductive Health Care Services Act is repealed.

(775 ILCS 55/Act rep.)

Section 6-65. The Reproductive Health Act is repealed.

Article 99.

Section 99-95. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 99-99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.